Binomial - Black-Scholes
Binomial - Black-Scholes
Now compare the payoff of the call to that of a portfolio consisting of one share of the stock and borrowing of $81.82 at the
interest rate of 10%. The payoff of this portfolio also
We know the cash outlay to establish the portfolio is $18.18: $100 for the stock, less the
$81.82 proceeds from borrowing. Therefore the portfolio’s value tree is
The payoff of this portfolio is exactly three times that of the call option for either value
of the stock price. Because the portfolio replicates the payoff of the three calls, we call it a
replicating portfolio. Moreover, because their payoffs are the same, the three calls and the
replicating portfolio must have the same value. Therefore,
3C = $18.18
or each call should sell at C = $6.06. Thus, given the stock price, exercise price, interest
rate, and volatility of the stock price (as represented by the spread between the up or
down movements), we can derive the fair value for the call option.
C H A P T E R Option Valuation $ $
$$
This valuation approach relies heavily on the notion of replication. With only two pos sible
end-of-year values of the stock, the payoffs to the levered stock portfolio replicate the payoffs to
three call options and, therefore, command the same market price. Replication is behind most
option-pricing formulas. For more complex price distributions for stocks, the replication technique
is correspondingly more complex, but the principles remain the same.
One way to view the role of replication is to note that, using the numbers assumed for this
example, a portfolio made up of one share of stock and three call options written is perfectly
hedged. Its year-end value is independent of the ultimate stock price:
Stock value
− Obligations from calls written− −
Net payoff
The investor has formed a riskless portfolio, with a payout of $90. Its value must be the
present value of $90, or $90/1.10 = $81.82. The value of the portfolio, which equals $100
from the stock held long, minus 3C from the three calls written, should equal $81.82.
Hence $100 − 3C = $81.82, or C = $6.06.
The ability to create a perfect hedge is the key to this argument. The hedge locks in the
end-of-year payout, which therefore can be discounted using the risk-free interest rate.
To find the value of the option in terms of the value of the stock, we do not need to know
either the option’s or the stock’s beta or expected rate of return. When a perfect hedge
can be established, the final stock price does not affect the investor’s payoff, so the
stock’s risk and return parameters have no bearing.
The hedge ratio of this example is one share of stock to three calls, or one-third. This
ratio has an easy interpretation in this context: It is the ratio of the range of the values of
the option to those of the stock across the two possible outcomes. The stock, which
originally sells for S0 = 100, will be worth either d × $100 = $90 or u × $100 = $120, for a
range of $30. If the stock price increases, the call will be worth Cu = $10, whereas if the
stock price decreases, the call will be worth Cd = 0, for a range of $10. The ratio of
ranges, 10/30, is one-third, which is the hedge ratio we have established.
The hedge ratio equals the ratio of ranges because the option and stock are perfectly
correlated in this two-state example. Because they are perfectly correlated, a perfect
hedge requires that they be held in a fraction determined only by relative volatility. We
can generalize the hedge ratio for other two-state option problems as
H = Cu − Cd
uS0 − d S0
where Cu or Cd refers to the call option’s value when the stock goes up or down, respec
tively, and uS0 and dS0 are the stock prices in the two states. The hedge ratio, H, is the
ratio of the swings in the possible end-of-period values of the option and the stock. If the
investor writes one option and holds H shares of stock, the value of the portfolio will be
unaffected by the stock price. In this case, option pricing is easy: Simply set the value of
the hedged portfolio equal to the present value of the known payoff. Using our example,
the option-pricing technique would proceed as follows:
1. Given the possible end-of-year stock prices, uS0 = 120 and dS0 = 90, and the
exercise price of 110, calculate that Cu = 10 and Cd = 0. The stock price range
is 30, while the option price range is 10.
2. Find that the hedge ratio of 10/30 = 1⁄3.
3. Find that a portfolio made up of 1⁄3 share with one written option would have an
end-of-year value of $30 with certainty.
P A R T V I Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives
4. Show that the present value of $30 with a 1-year interest rate of 10% is $27.27.
5. Set the value of the hedged position to the present value of the certain payoff:
1
$
3S0 − C0 = $27.27
$33.33 − C0 = $27.27
6. Solve for the call’s value, C0 = $6.06.
What if the option is overpriced, perhaps selling for $6.50? Then you can make arbitrage profits.
Here is how:
Total $ $ . $ .
. Write options. $ $−. Purchase share −
. Borrow $. at % interest;
repay in year
Although the net initial investment is zero, the payoff in one year is positive and
riskless. If the option were underpriced, one would simply reverse this arbitrage strategy:
Buy the option, and sell the stock short to eliminate price risk. Note, by the way, that the
present value of the profit to the arbitrage strategy above exactly equals three times the
amount by which the option is overpriced. The present value of the risk-free profit of
$1.45 at a 10% interest rate is $1.318. With three options written in the strategy above,
this translates to a profit of $.44 per option, exactly the amount by which the option was
overpriced: $6.50 versus the “fair value” of $6.06.
Concept Check .
Suppose the call
option had been
underpriced,
selling at $.. Formulate the arbitrage strategy to exploit the mispricing, and show that it provides a riskless cash flow in
one year of $. per option purchased. Compare the present value of this cash flow to the option mispricing.
.
C H A P T E R Option Valuation
The midrange value of 104.50 can be attained by two paths: an increase of 10% followed by a
decrease of 5%, or a decrease of 5% followed by a 10% increase. There are now three possible
end-of-year values for the stock and three for the option:
Cuu Cu
C Cud = Cdu Cd
Cdd
Using methods similar to those we followed above, we could value Cu from knowledge of Cuu and
Cud, then value Cd from knowledge of Cdu and Cdd, and finally value C from knowledge of Cu and
Cd. And there is no reason to stop at 6-month intervals. We could next break the year into four
3-month units, or twelve 1-month units, or 365 1-day units, each of which would be posited to have
a two-state process. Although the calculations become quite numerous and correspondingly
tedious, they are easy to program into a computer, and such computer programs are used widely
by participants in the options market.
Suppose that the risk-free interest rate is % per -month period and we wish to value a call option with exercise price
$ on the stock described in the two-period price tree just above. We start by finding the value of Cu. From this point,
= $ (because at this point the stock price is u × u × S
the call can rise to an expiration date value of Cuu = $) or fall to
$
= (because at this point, the stock price is u × d × S
a final value of Cud = $., which is less than the $ exercise price).
Therefore the hedge ratio at this point is
H = Cuu − Cud
_____________
uuS − udS = $−
$−. =
Thus, the following portfolio will be worth $ at option expiration regardless of the ultimate stock price:
udS
× − Cu = $/. = $.
Show that the initial value of the call option in Example . is $.. a. Confirm that the spread in option values is Cu
− Cd = $..
b. Confirm that the spread in stock = $.
values is uS
− dS
c. Confirm that the hedge
ratio is . shares purchased
for each call written.
d.
Demonstrate that the value in one period of a portfolio comprised of . shares and one call written is riskless. e.
Calculate the present value of this payoff.
f. Solve for the option value.
uS
uS
dS
S
uSdS
udS
udS
dS
udS
Thus, by allowing for an ever-greater number of subperiods, we can overcome one of the
apparent limitations of the valuation model: that the number of possible end-of-period
stock prices is small.
Notice that extreme events such as u3S0 or d3S0 are relatively rare, as they require
either three consecutive increases or decreases in the three subintervals. More
moderate, or mid range, results such as u2dS0 can be arrived at by more than one
path—any combination of two price increases and one decrease will result in stock price
u2dS0. There are three of these paths: uud, udu, duu. In contrast, only one path, uuu,
results in a stock price of u3S0. Thus midrange values are more likely. As we make the
model more realistic and break up the option maturity into more and more subperiods,
the probability distribution for the final stock price begins to resemble the familiar
bell-shaped curve, with highly unlikely extreme outcomes and far more likely midrange
outcomes. The exact probability of each outcome is given by the binomial probability
distribution, and this multiperiod approach to option pricing is therefore called the
binomial model.
But we still need to answer an important practical question. Before the binomial model can
be used to value actual options, we need a way to choose reasonable values for u and d. The
spread between up and down movements in the price of the stock reflects the volatility of its
rate of return, so the choice for u and d should depend on that volatility. Call σ your estimate of
the standard deviation of the stock’s continuously compounded annualized rate of return, and Δt
the length of each subperiod. To make the standard deviation of the stock in the binomial model
___
match your estimate of σ, it turns out that you can set u = exp(σ Δt )
___ 3
and d = exp(−σ Δt ). You can see that the proportional difference between u and d increases
with both annualized volatility as well as the length of the subperiod. This makes sense, as both
higher σ and longer holding periods make future stock prices more uncer tain. The following
example illustrates how to use this calibration.
3
Notice that d = 1/u. This is the most common, but not the only, way to calibrate the model to empirical volatility.
For alternative methods, see Robert L. McDonald, Derivatives Markets, 3rd ed. (Boston: Pearson/Addison
Wesley, 2013), Ch. 10.
CHAPTER Option Valuation Probability Final Stock Price
Example 21.2 Calibrating u and d to Stock Volatility
Suppose you are using a -period model to value a -year option on a stock with volatil ity (i.e., annualized standard
deviation) of σ = .. With a time to expiration of T = year, and three subperiods, you would calculate Δt = T/n = /, u =
exp (σ Δt ) = exp (. / ) =
. and d = exp (−σ Δt) = exp (−. / ) = .. Given the probability of an up move ment, you could then work out the
probability of any final stock price. For example, suppose the probability that the stock price increases is . and the
probability that it decreases is .. Then the probability of stock prices at the end of the year would be as follows:
Event Possible
Paths
We plot this probability distribution in Figure ., Panel A. Notice that the two middle end-of
period stock prices are, in fact, more likely than either extreme.
and subperiods. u Δ
Now we can extend Example 21.2 by breaking up the option maturity into ever-shorter
subintervals. As we do, the stock price distribution becomes increasingly plausible, as we
demonstrate in Example 21.3.
the year into three subperiods. Let’s now look at the cases of
. exp(.) = . exp(−.) =.
. exp(.) = . exp(−.) =.
. exp(.) = . exp(−.) =.
4
Using this probability, the continuously compounded expected rate of return on the stock is .10. In general, the
formula relating the probability of an upward movement to the annual expected rate of return, r, is p = exp(rΔt
)−d
5
u − d. We adjust the probabilities of up versus down movements using the formula in footnote 4 to make the
distribu tions in Figure 21.5 comparable. In each panel, p is chosen so that the stock’s expected annualized,
continuously compounded rate of return is 10%.
P A R T V I Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives
Notice that the right tail of the distribution in Panel C is noticeably longer than the left
tail. In fact, as the number of intervals increases, the distribution progressively approaches
the skewed log-normal (rather than the symmetric normal) distribution. Even if the stock
price were to decline in each subinterval, it can never drop below zero. But there is no
corresponding upper bound on its potential performance. This asymmetry gives rise to the
skewness of the distribution.
5 5 75 5 5 75 5 5
5 5 75 5 5 75 5 5
.45 .4 .35
A .35 .3 .5
B
.3 Probability
.5 . .5 . .5
5 5 75 5 5 75 5 5
Probability
.
.5
.
.5
.5 Probability
. .5
Figure 21.5
Probability
distributions for final stock price. Possible outcomes and associated probabilities. In each panel, the stock’s
annualized, continuously compounded expected rate of return is % and its standard deviation is %. Panel A. Three
subintervals. In each subinterval, the stock can increase by .% or fall by
.%. Panel B. Six subintervals. In each subinterval, the stock can increase by .% or fall by .%.
Panel C. Twenty subintervals. In each subinterval, the stock can increase by .% or fall by .%.
values, p = + . − .
.−. =
only on the technology of replication and not on risk ences. It cannot depend on risk aversion or the
capital asset
prefer its expected cash flow at the risk-free rate: C
.
= “E”(CF)
Now let’s see what happens if we use the discounted cash
+ rf . We
pricing model or any other model of equilibrium risk-return
relationships. continue to use the two-state example from Section ..
flow formula to value the option in the risk-neutral economy. We
This insight—that the pricing model must be independent of
We find the present value of the option payoff using the risk
risk aversion—leads to a very useful shortcut to valuing options.
neutral probability and discount at the risk-free interest rate:
Imagine a risk-neutral economy, that is, an economy in which
_______ u
C = “E” (CF) + rf = pC ______________
+ ( − p)Cd
all investors are risk-neutral. This hypothetical economy must cannot affect the valuation formula.
value options the same as our real one because risk aversion
This answer exactly matches the value we found using our no
/× +/×
+ rf = . =.
In a risk-neutral economy, investors would not demand risk
arbitrage approach!
premiums and would therefore value all assets by discounting
We repeat: This is not truly an expected discounted value.
expected payoffs at the risk-free rate of interest. Therefore, a
• The numerator is not the true expected cash flow from the
security such as a call option would be valued by discounting
option because we use the risk-neutral probability, p, rather
than the true probability.
put the expectation operator E in quotation marks to signify
• The denominator is not the proper discount rate for option
that this is not the true expectation, but the expectation that
cash flows because we do not account for the risk.
would prevail in the hypothetical risk-neutral economy. To be
• In a sense, these two “errors” cancel out. But this is not just
consistent, we must calculate this expected cash flow using the
luck: We are assured to get the correct result because the
rate of return the stock would have in the risk-neutral economy,
no-arbitrage approach implies that risk preferences can
not using its true rate of return. But if we successfully maintain
not affect the option value. Therefore, the value computed
consistency, the value derived for the hypothetical economy
should match the one in our own. our economy.
for the risk-neutral economy must equal the value that we obtain in
How do we compute the expected cash flow from the
When we move to the more realistic multiperiod model, the
option in the risk-neutral economy? Because there are no
calculations are more cumbersome, but the idea is the same.
risk premiums, the stock’s expected rate of return must equal
Footnote shows how to relate p to any expected rate of
the risk-free rate. Call p the probability that the stock price
return and volatility estimate. Simply set the expected rate of
increases. Then p must be chosen to equate the expected rate
return on the stock equal to the risk-free rate, use the resulting
of increase of the stock price to the risk-free rate (we ignore
dividends here): at the risk-free rate, and you will find the option value.
probability to work out the expected payoff from the option, discount
“E”(S) = p(uS) + ( − p)dS = ( + rf)S
These calculations are actually fairly easy to program in Excel.
6
Actually, more complex considerations enter here. The limit of this process is lognormal only if we assume also that
stock prices move continuously, by which we mean that over small time intervals only small price move ments can
occur. This rules out rare events such as sudden, extreme price moves in response to dramatic infor mation (like a
takeover attempt). For a treatment of this type of “jump process,” see John C. Cox and Stephen A. Ross, “The
Valuation of Options for Alternative Stochastic Processes,” Journal of Financial Economics 3 (January–March 1976),
pp. 145–66; or Robert C. Merton, “Option Pricing When Underlying Stock Returns Are Discontinuous,” Journal of
Financial Economics 3 (January–March 1976), pp. 125–44.
P A R T V I Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives
over the coming small interval. By continuously revising the hedge position, the port
folio remains hedged and earns a riskless rate of return over each interval. This is called dynamic
hedging, the continued updating of the hedge ratio as time passes. As the dynamic hedge
becomes ever finer, the resulting option-valuation procedure becomes more precise. The nearby
box offers further refinements on the use of the binomial model.
Concept Check .
In the table in Example ., u and d both get closer to (u is smaller and d is larger) as the time interval Δt
shrinks. Why does this make sense? Does the fact that u and d are each closer to mean that the total
volatility of the stock over the remaining life of the option is lower?
d1 = ln(S0 /X ) + (r + σ2/2)T
σT
d2 = d1 − σ T
7
Fischer Black and Myron Scholes, “The Pricing of Options and Corporate Liabilities,” Journal of Political Economy 81
(May–June 1973).
8
Robert C. Merton, “Theory of Rational Option Pricing,” Bell Journal of Economics and Management Science 4 (Spring
1973).
9
Fischer Black passed away in 1995.
C H A P T E R Option Valuation
and
You can use the Black-Scholes formula fairly easily. Suppose you want to value a call option under the following
circumstances:
=
Stock price: S
Exercise price: X =
Interest rate: r = . (% per year)
Time to expiration: T = . ( months or one-quarter of a year)
Standard deviation: σ = . (% per year)
First calculate
= ln( /) + (. + .
/ ).
d
=.
..
d
=.−.. =.
Next find N(d) and N(d). The values of the normal distribution are tabulated and may be found in
many statistics textbooks. A table of N(d) is provided here as Table .. The nor
mal distribution function, N(d), is also provided in any spreadsheet program. In Microsoft Excel, for
example, the function name is NORMSDIST or NORM.S.DIST. Using either Excel or Table . we
find that
N(.) = .
N(.) = .
C = × . − e−.× . × .
= . − . = $.
Concept Check .
Recalculate the value of the call option in Example . using a standard deviation of . instead of .. Confirm that
the option is worth more using the higher stock-return volatility.
What if the option price in Example 21.4 were $15 rather than $13.70? Is the option
mispriced? Maybe, but before betting your fortune on that, you may want to reconsider
the valuation analysis. First, like all models, the Black-Scholes formula is based on some
simplifying abstractions that make the formula only approximately valid.
C H A P T E R Option Valuation N N N N N N
n
where r is the average return over the sample period. The rate of return on day t is defined to be
consistent with continuous compounding as rt = ln(St /St − 1). [We note again that the natural
logarithm of a ratio is approximately the percentage difference between the numer ator and
denominator so that ln(St /St − 1) is a measure of the rate of return of the stock from time t − 1 to
time t.] Historical variance commonly is computed using daily returns over periods of several
months. Because the volatility of stock returns must be estimated, however, it is always possible
that discrepancies between an option price and its Black Scholes value are simply artifacts of error
in the estimation of the stock’s volatility.
In fact, market participants often give the option-valuation problem a different twist. Rather than
calculating a Black-Scholes option value for a given stock’s standard devia tion, they ask instead:
What standard deviation would be necessary for the option price that I observe to be consistent
with the Black-Scholes formula? This is called the implied volatility of the option, the volatility level
for the stock implied by the option price. Inves tors can then judge whether they think the actual
stock standard deviation exceeds the implied volatility. If it does, the option is considered a good
buy; if actual volatility seems greater than the implied volatility, its fair price would exceed the
observed price.
Another variation is to compare two options on the same stock with equal expiration dates but
different exercise prices. The option with the higher implied volatility would be considered relatively
expensive, because a higher standard deviation is required to justify its price. The analyst might
consider buying the option with the lower implied volatility and writing the option with the higher
implied volatility.
The Black-Scholes valuation formula, as well as the implied volatility, is easily calcu
lated using an Excel spreadsheet like Spreadsheet 21.1. The model inputs are provided in column
B, and the outputs are given in column E. The formulas for d1 and d2 are provided in the
spreadsheet, and the Excel formula NORMSDIST(d1) or NORM.S.DIST(d1, TRUE) is used to
calculate N(d1). Cell E6 contains the Black-Scholes formula. (The formula in the spreadsheet
actually includes an adjustment for dividends, as described in the next section.)
C H A P T E R Option Valuation A C D E
FGHIJ
Stock price 100 N(d2) 0.4231 N
1
2
3
4
eXc el 5
6
INPUTS OUTPUTS
Spreadsheet 21.1
Please visit us at
Spreadsheet to calculate
Black-Scholes call option values
www.mhhe.com/Bodiee
To compute an implied volatility, we can use the Goal Seek command from the What
BCDEFGHIJ
If Analysis menu (which can be found under the Data tab) in Excel. See Figure 21.7 for an
illustration. Goal Seek asks us to change the value of one cell to make the value of
another cell (called the target cell) equal to a specific value. For example, if we observe a
call option selling for $7 with other inputs as given in the spreadsheet, we can use Goal
Seek to change the value in cell B2 (the standard deviation of the stock) to set the option
value in cell E6 equal to $7. The target cell, E6, is the call price, and the spreadsheet
manipu
lates cell B2. When you click OK, the spreadsheet finds that a standard deviation equal to
.2783 is consistent with a call price of $7; this would be the option’s implied volatility if it
were selling at $7.
A
INPUTS OUTPUTS FORMULA FOR OUTPUT IN COLUMN E
1
.5 d2 -.939 E-B*SQRT(B3)
.6 N(d1) .5 NORMSDIST(E)
c el
eX
P A R T V I Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives
The Chicago Board Options Exchange
7 Financial Crisis
Implied Volatility (%) 6
996
999
Iraq), and, most dramatically, during 2008
(the financial crisis). Because implied
the U.S.), 2002 (build-up to invasion of
Chicago Board Options Exchange, www.cboe.com.
Concept Check .
Suppose the call
option in
Spreadsheet .
actually is selling for $. Is its implied volatility more or less than .%? Use the spreadsheet (available in Connect) and
Goal Seek to find its implied volatility at this price.
10
Influential articles on this topic are J. Hull and A. White, “The Pricing of Options on Assets with Stochastic
Volatilities,” Journal of Finance (June 1987), pp. 281–300; J. Wiggins, “Option Values under Stochastic Vola
tility,” Journal of Financial Economics (December 1987), pp. 351–72; and S. Heston, “A Closed-Form Solution
for Options with Stochastic Volatility with Applications to Bonds and Currency Options,” Review of Financial
Studies 6 (1993), pp. 327–43. For a review, see E. Ghysels, A. Harvey, and E. Renault, “Stochastic Volatility,” in
Handbook of Statistics, Vol. 14: Statistical Methods in Finance, ed. G. S. Maddala (Amsterdam: North Holland,
1996).
11
For an introduction to these models see Carol Alexander, Market Risk Analysis, Vol. 4 (England: Wiley, 2009).
C H A P T E R Option Valuation
Dividends and Call Option Valuation
We noted earlier that the Black-Scholes call option formula applies to stocks that do not pay
dividends. When dividends are to be paid before the option expires, we need to adjust the formula.
The payment of dividends raises the possibility of early exercise, and for most realistic dividend
payout schemes the valuation formula becomes significantly more complex than the
Black-Scholes equation.
When stocks pay quarterly dividends, their share prices decline by a discrete amount, roughly
equal to the amount of the dividend. In some cases, it will be rational for the call holder to exercise
just before the stock goes ex dividend. This introduces uncertainty into “maturity” of the call. Will it
be exercised at the ex-dividend date or held until the expira
tion date?12 Variations on the Black-Scholes formula have been developed that can accom modate
dividends, but the resulting valuation formulas are more complex and become rapidly more difficult
as the number of possible dividend payments increase.13
In one special case, the dividend adjustment takes a simple form and allows us to use a slight
variant of the Black-Scholes formula. Suppose the underlying asset pays a con tinuous flow of
income. This might be a reasonable assumption for options on a stock index, where different
stocks in the index pay dividends on different days, so that dividend income arrives in a more or
less continuous flow. If the dividend yield, denoted δ, is con stant, one can show that the present
value of that dividend flow accruing until the option expiration date is S0 (1 − e−δT).14 In this case,
S0 − PV(Div) = S0e−δT, and we can use the Black-Scholes call option formula on the
dividend-paying asset simply by substituting S0e−δT for S0 in the original formula. This approach is
used in Spreadsheet 21.1.
One warning about this practice, however. Even with continuous dividends, it may be rational to
exercise the call option early, so strictly speaking, the modified Black-Scholes formula would apply
only to European options. As a general rule, American calls on divi dend paying stocks will be
worth more than European ones even if dividends are continuous.
12
While the stock price falls by a discrete amount on the ex-dividend date, the option price does not. The dividend is
announced in advance and is anticipated by the market. The option price will adjust smoothly over time to reflect the
approaching dividend payment.
13
An exact formula for American call valuation on dividend-paying stocks has been developed in Richard Roll, “An Analytic
Valuation Formula for Unprotected American Call Options on Stocks with Known Dividends,” Journal of Financial
Economics 5 (November 1977). The technique has been discussed and revised in Robert Geske, “A Note on an Analytical
Formula for Unprotected American Call Options on Stocks with Known Dividends,” Journal of Financial Economics 7
(December 1979); and Robert E. Whaley, “On the Valuation of American Call Options on Stocks with Known Dividends,”
Journal of Financial Economics 9 (June 1981).
14
For intuition about this formula, notice that e−δT approximately equals 1 − δT, so the value of the dividend is approximately
δTS0.
P A R T V I Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives
Sometimes, it is easier to work with a put option valuation formula directly. If we sub
stitute the Black-Scholes formula for a call in Equation 21.2, we obtain the value of a European put
option as
T = .), Equation . implies that a European put option on that stock with identical
exercise price and time to expiration is worth
$e−.× .( − .) − $( − .) = $.
P = C + PV(X) − S = . + e−.× . − = .
As we noted traders can do, we might then compare this formula value to the actual put price
as one step in formulating a trading strategy.