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CBSE Sample Papers for

Class 10 Social Science
Set 7 with Solutions
December 5, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions

from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social
Science with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per
the revised syllabus.

Also Read: Python Program to Find Sum of Odd

Numbers Using Recursion in a List/Array

CBSE Sample Papers for Class

10 Social Science Set 7 with
Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A,

B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are
compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs
of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very
Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should
not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short
Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to each question should not
exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long
answer type questions, carrying 5 marks
each. Answer to each question should not
exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are
case based questions with three sub
questions and are of 4 marks each.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based,
carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from
History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography
(3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question
paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the
choices in such questions have to be
attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are
given with each section and question,
wherever necessary.

Section – A
MCQs (1 x 20 = 20)

Question 1.
Which of the following statements stands true
for India?
(a) Indians hate political parties because they are
corrupt.
(b) Indians love political parties because they are
extremely efficient.
(c) Indians believe that political parties are not
completely trustworthy but their existence and
participation is important and inevitable.
(d) Indians want to replace representative
democracy with direct democracy. [1]
Answer:
(c) Indians believe that political parties are not
completely trustworthy but their existence and
participation is important and inevitable.
Explanation: In India, even though the trust in
political parties is dwindling, people are still
identifying to political parties because they’re
the only visible institutions representative of
democracy. People associate their presence with
the existence of democracy and hence accept it
despite the mistrust.

Question 2.
Identify the type of farming using the given hints:
(1) It is practised in areas of high population
pressure on land.
(2) It is labour-intensive farming.
(3) It uses high doses of biochemical inputs.
Codes:
(a) Plantation farming
(b) Commercial farming
(c) Intensive Subsistence farming
(d) Primitive Subsistence farming [1]
Answer:
(c) Intensive Subsistence farming
Explanation: Intensive Subsistence farming is
practised in areas of high population density. It
involves active participation of labour in the farm.
It requires extremely high doses of biochemical
inputs and irrigation which are used for obtaining
higher production.

Related Theory:
Primitive subsistence agriculture is practised on
small patches of land with the help of primitive
tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family
community labour.

Question 3.
Look at the picture given below. Choose the
statement which stands true for the products of
this sector.

(a) Activities belonging to this sector only

produces raw goods.
(b) The sector only produces crops.
(c) The products of’ this sector form the base for
all other products that are subsequently made.
(d) It is used for manufacturing its own raw
materials. [1]
Answer:
(c) The products of this sector form the base for
all other products that are subsequently, made.
Explanation: Most of the natural products are
made from activities involving the agriculture,
dairy, fishing, forestry. These products are
further used to further make processed goods.
Thus, this sector is the primary sector.

Related Theory:
The industrial sector is known as the secondary
sector. The tertiary sector is the service sector.
This sector only produces services as products.
No goods are created through the activities of
this sector.

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is (are) true
about the administration in Belgium?
(I) Regional governments existed in Belgium even
before 1993.
(II) In 1993, the central government was given
constitutional powers to take away powers from
the regional governments.
(III) Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal
form of government.
Codes:
(a) Only I
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and III [1]
Answer:
(b) I and II
Explanation: Belgium shifted from a unitary form
to a federal form of government. A federal form
of government has two levels of independent
governments- union/federal and regional/state
and they derive their power from the constitution
directly. In 1993, the regional governments were
given constitutional powers that made them
independent of the central government.

Related Theory:
Under the unitary system of government, there is
either only one level of government or the sub-
units are subordinate to the central government.

Question 5.
Which of the following factors is missing from
non-democratic governments?
(a) Stability
(b) Strict rules and regulations
(c) Development
(d) Transparency [1]
Answer:
(d) Transparency
Explanation: Democracy ensures that decision
making will be based on norms and procedures.
Transparency is often missing from a non-
democratic government.

Related Theory:
It is right to expect democracy to produce a
government that follows procedures and is
accountable to the people.

Question 6.
How is a geologist different from a geographer?
(a) A geologist studies soils and a geographer
studies physiology of a region.
(b) A geographer studies rocks and their
chemical composition and a geologist studies
about the sub-soil.
(c) A geologist studies about the chemical
composition of minerals and a geographer reads
about the economic activities related to the
minerals.
(d) A geographer studies about the physiological
features of a region but a geologist studies the
depth of an ocean. [1]
Answer:
(c) A geologist studies about the chemical
composition of minerals and a geographer reads
about the economic activities related to the
minerals.
Explanation: Only the distribution of mineral
resources and associated economic activities are
of interest to geographers. A geographer
otherwise studies the physiological distribution
of features and landforms. A geologist reads
about the formation of minerals, their age and
physical and chemical composition.

Related Theory:
Geographers study minerals as part of the
earth’s crust for a better understanding of
landforms.

Question 7.
Match the items in column A with those of
column B and choose the most appropriate code
which reflects the correctly matched pairs.

Column
Column B
A

Cultural
(A) INC (I)
Nationalism

(B) BJP (II) Marxism Leninism

(C) NCP (III) Secularism

Gandhian
(D) CPI (IV)
Secularism

Codes:
(a) (A)-II, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-I
(b) (A)-I (B)-IV (C)-II, (D)-III
(c) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
(d) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II [1]
Answer:
(d) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
Explanation: INC supports and encourages
Secularism.
For BJP, Cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutva’) is an
important element in its conception of Indian
nationhood and politics.
CPI was formed in 1925. The party believes in
Marxism-Leninism, secularism and democracy.
NCP was formed in 1999 following a split in the
Congress party. The party espouses democracy,
Gandhian secularism, equity, socialjustice and
federalism.

Related Theory:
BSP was formed in 1984 under the leadership of
Kanshi Ram. The party seeks to represent and
secure power for the Bahujan samaj which
includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious
minorities.

Question 8.
Modern currency is without any use of its own.
Which of the following statements supports the
given assertion?
(a) Riya cannot melt a rupee or note and use it to
make jewellery.
(b) Riya can sell rupee to buy jewellery.
(c) Riya can issue valid currency of her own.
(d) Riya can buy goods by using currency. [1]
Answer:
(a) Riga cannot melt a rupee or note and use it to
make jewellery.
Explanation: Modern currency, unlike ancient
currency, is not made of gold and silver. It cannot
be melted and used, smuggled or sold to earn
money.

Related Theory:
The RBI issues currency on behalf of the
government in India.

Question 9.
Which of the following pamphlets was a private
English enterprise that began English printing in
India?
(a) Hindustan Gazette
(b) Bengal Gazette
(c) Sambad Kaumudi
(d) Bombay Samachar [1]
Answer:
(b) Bengal Gazette
Explanation: In 1780, James Augustus Hickey
began to edit the ‘Bengal Gazette’ that described
itself as ‘a commercial paper open to all, but
influenced by none’. It began English printing in
India.

Related Theory:
Hickey published a lot of advertisements,
including those that are related to the import and
sale of slaves. But he also published a lot of
gossips about the Company’s senior officers in
India.

Question 10.
How are average income and per capita income
related to each other?
(a) Average income is larger than per capita
income.
(b) Average income is equal to per capita
income.
(c) Per capita income is the sum of average
income of all the citizens of the country.
(d) Average income is the sum of per capita
income of all the citizens of a city. [1]
Answer:
(b) Average income is equal to per capita
income.
Explanation: Average income is the total income
of the country divided by its total population.
Average income is also known as per capita
income.

Question 11.
Choose the correctly matched pair:
(a) Lack of internal democracy- No new
candidates to promote at higher positions
(b) Influence of Money and Muscle power-
Candidates with true potential are nominated
(c) Challenge of meaningful choice- Increase in
ideological differences between parties
(d) Challenge of dynastic succession- No open
and transparent procedures [1]
Answer:
(d) Challenge of dynastic succession- No open
and transparent procedures
Explanation: Challenge of Dynastic succession
arises because most parties do not practise
open and transparent procedures for their
functioning. It becomes very difficult for an
ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
Those who happen to be the leaders offer unfair
advantage to favour people close to them or
even their family members.

Related Theory:

Lack of Internal democracy challenge

reflects the tendency of political parties
towards the concentration of power in one
or few leaders at the top.
Influence of money and muscle power-
Parties nominate those candidates who have
or can raise lots of money. Rich people and
companies who give funds to the parties
tend to have influence on the policies and
decisions of the party.
Challenge of meaningful choice- Decline in
ideological differences between parties
cause parties to offer useless choice of
representatives to citizens.

Question 12.
There are two statements marked as Assertion
(A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
codes provided below: Assertion (A): The most
dynamic industry in Britain was clearly metal.
Reason (R): With the expansion of railways, in
England from the 1840s and in the colonies from
the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel
increased rapidly.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
[1]
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
Explanation: The Iron and Steel industry was the
leading industry in England from the 1840s and
in the colonies from the 1860s. A huge reason
behind this was the huge demand from railways
and other economic sectors. By 1873, Britain was
exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million,
double the value of its cotton export.

Question 13.
Which region in India is heavily covered with
unclassed forests managed by local
communities?
(a) Northern India
(b) Southern India
(c) North-eastern region
(d) Western-Central region [1]
Answer:
(c) North-eastern region
Explanation: All North-eastern states and parts
of Gujarat have a very high percentage of their
forests as unclassed forests managed by local
communities. Madhya Pradesh has the largest
area under permanent forests, constituting 75
per cent of its total forest area.

Related Theory:
Unclassed Forests are forests and wastelands
belonging to both government and private
individuals and communities.

Caution:
Every chapter should be summarized with
important facts and figures highlighted for the
students to be able to answer these questions

Question 14.
Scheduled Languages of India :

Proportion of
Language
speakers (%)

Assamese 1.6

Bangla 8.3

Bodo 0.1

Dogri 0.2

Gujarati 4.9

Hindi 40.2

Kannada 3.9

Kashmiri 0.5

Konkani 0.2

Maithili 0.9

Malayam 3.6

The given table lists the languages spoken in the

country along with their proportion as per cent of
the total population of India in 1991. Which of the
given languages is second most popular
language in the country?
(a) Hindi
(b) Gujarati
(c) Bangla
(d) Kannada [1]
Answer:
(c) Bangla
Explanation: The first column in this table lists
the languages currently included in the Eighth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution. These
figures are based on the Census of India, 1991.
Bangla is spoken lesser than Hindi but more than
Gujarati and Kannada.

Question 15.
Read the table.

Party membership in
Countries
percentage of population

India 15.4

Sweden 9.5

Zimbabwe 8.0

China 10.6

Based on your interpretation of the table,

political parties might enjoy the most popularity
in which ofthefollowing countries?
(a) China
(b) Sweden
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) India [1]
Answer:
(d) India