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PTS 2024 - Test Code: 121401

The document is a test booklet for the General Studies Paper 1 exam. It contains instructions for taking the exam, details on the exam format and scoring, and 100 multiple choice questions testing general knowledge across various topics.

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PTS 2024 - Test Code: 121401

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-PTS24_Sim0 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - I

Time Allowed: TWO HOURS Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the
Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and Name:
Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box Email Id:
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
Mobile No:
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

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[1]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.1) Consider the following statements: Q.4) This species is Endemic to Jammu and
1. The west-flowing rivers in India create Kashmir region of India. It has been classified
relatively larger deltas than the east- as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List.
flowing rivers. It has a matriarchal society, where the females
2. The longest river of the peninsular India is lead the groups and choose the mating
a west-flowing river. partners.
3. Unlike most of the east flowing rivers, the Which of the following species is best
west flowing rivers do not form estuaries. described in the above passage?
How many of the above statements are a) Hangul
correct? b) Orangutan
a) Only one c) Camel
b) Only two d) Elephant
c) All three
d) None Q.5) With reference to Sundarbans Forest
located in West Bengal, consider the following
Q.2) With reference to mines and their major statements:
minerals, consider the following pairs 1. The marshland located within the forest is
Mines Minerals they are famous due to repeated falls in the sea level.
for 2. It is the only mangrove forest in the world
1. Lohardaga Bauxite inhabited by Tigers.
2. Panna Diamond 3. Sundarbans National Park is included in the
3. Korba Iron ore UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list.
4. Bhandara Manganese How many of the above statements are
How many of the pairs given above are correct?
correctly matched? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) Only three d) None
d) All four
Q.6) ‘The State of the World’s Migratory
Q.3) Consider the following statements Species’ report is released by which of the
regarding the characteristics of mangroves: following organizations?
1. They are found only in the world's tropical a) United Nations Environment Programme
regions. (UNEP)
2. They have Pneumatophore leaves for b) International Union for Conservation of
anaerobic respiration. Nature (IUCN)
3. These species have succulent leaves that c) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
help in excreting the excess salts. d) Conservation International
4. Reproduction in mangroves occurs
through the viviparous mode. Q.7) Which one of the following regions of
How many of the above statements are India have significant potash reserves, which is
correct? estimated to be almost thrice the total potash
a) Only one reserves of the world?
b) Only two a) Malabar Coastal plains of Kerala
c) Only three b) Deccan Traps of Maharashtra
d) All four c) Singhbhum Craton of Odisha
d) Nagaur-Ganganagar basin of Rajasthan

[2]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.8) Which of the following best describes the How many of the above statements are
term “Middle income trap”? correct?
a) A situation in which a low level of per a) Only one
capita income results in lower savings and b) Only two
investments, leading to a low rate of c) All three
growth of National Income. d) None
b) A situation where countries with an
abundance of natural resources, tend to Q.11) With reference to Algal Blooms, consider
have slower economic growth than the following statements:
countries with fewer resources Statement-I: Algal blooms are the result of
c) A situation where a country finds difficulty excessive nutrients influx into the water
in transitioning to a high-income economy, environment thereby promoting the growth of
despite achieving a moderate level of algae.
income, due to stagnant growth. Statement-II: Natural phenomena such as
d) A situation that can occur when consumers upwelling and land run-off often leads to ‘Algal
and investors in a developing country blooms’ in the Ocean.
hoard cash rather than spending or Which one of the following is correct in
investing it even when interest rates are respect of the above statements?
low. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
Q.9) Consider the following statements: explanation for Statement-I.
1. Migrating of mosquitoes to higher b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
altitudes and latitudes. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
2. Emergence of diseases from organisms explanation for Statement-I.
found in frozen soil called permafrost. c) Statement-1 is correct Statement-II is
3. Upward movement of Tree lines (the incorrect.
upper limit of tree growth) in mountain d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is
regions. correct.
4. The Arctic Ocean will very likely become
ice-free throughout the year. Q.12) Consider the following statements:
5. Temperate crops such as apricot and Statement-I: The increasing amount of carbon
berries will be more commonly grown in dioxide in the air is slowly raising the
tropical countries like India. temperature of the atmosphere.
How many of the above are the possible Statement-II: Molecules of carbon dioxide
effects of climate change? only absorb the ultraviolet part of the solar
a) Only two radiation.
b) Only three Which one of the following is correct in
c) Only four respect of the above statements?
d) All five a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
Q.10) With reference to Convention on the explanation for Statement-I.
Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS), b Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
consider the following statements: correct and Statement-II is not the correct
1. It covers the protection of terrestrial and explanation for Statement-I.
avian migratory species only. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
2. At the latest Conference of Parties (COP14) incorrect.
of CMS, the Great Indian Bustard, Asian d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Elephant and Bengal Florican were newly correct
included in the CMS Appendix I.
3. COP 14 of CMS was convened under the
theme, "Nature knows no borders.’’

[3]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.13) The United Nations Environment c) All three

Programme (UNEP) plays an instrumental role d) None
in shaping global environmental policies and
fostering international cooperation on Q.17) The snow leopard is a member of the
environmental matters. UNEP is an outcome of family ‘Felidae’. In this context, consider the
which of the following conferences? following statement regarding Snow Leopard:
a) The United Nations Conference on the 1. It is a critically endangered species on the
Human Environment. IUCN Red list.
b) The United Nations Conference on 2. Snow leopards are predominantly found
Environment and Development (UNCED) only in the Himalayan States/UTs of India.
c) The World Summit on Sustainable 3. Currently, Ladakh hosts the highest
Development. number of Snow Leopards in India.
d) The United Nations Conference on How many of the above statements are
Sustainable Development. correct?
a) Only one
Q.14) Consider the following fauna: b) Only two
1. Hedgehogs. c) All three
2. Marmots. d) None
3. Sloth bears.
How many of the above organisms go into a Q.18) Consider the following statements
state of hibernation during winter? regarding the application of Fungus in daily
a) Only one life:
b) Only two Fungus is used in:
c) All three 1. the preparation of soy Sause.
d) None 2. creating distinct taste in chocolate.
3. the manufacturing of Aspirin.
Q.15) Which one of the following statements is 4. the ripening of fresh curd into cheese.
incorrect regarding the species ‘Pygmy hog’? In how many of the above day-to-day
a) They are the smallest member of the pig applications, is the fungus used?
family in the world. a) Only one
b) They are one of the very few mammals that b) Only two
build its own nest with a roof. c) Only three
c) They are endemic to the south Indian d) All four
states of Tamil Nadu and Kerela.
d) They have been classified as Critically Q.19) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFC) are
endangered species by the IUCN. greenhouse gases that can trap heat hundreds
to thousands of times more than carbon
Q.16) The Indian Sandalwood tree is known for dioxide per unit mass. In that context,
its religious and cultural value since time consider the following:
immemorial. In this context, consider the 1. Degreasing Solvents.
following statements: 2. Foam blowing agents.
1. Plantation of sandalwood is difficult due to 3. Natural Refrigerants
its parasitic ecology. 4. Aerosol propellants
2. It is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red How many of the above contain HCFC?
list. a) Only one
3. It has anti-inflammatory, antimicrobial, b) Only two
and antioxidant properties. c) Only three
How many of the statements given above are d) All four
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two

[4]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.20) Consider the following: Which one of the following is correct in

1. Promoting India as destination of medical respect of the above statements?
tourism. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Promotion of exports from India. correct and Statement-II is the correct
3. Making India a destination of higher explanation for Statement-I.
education. b Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. Promotion of Foreign Portfolio Investments correct and Statement-II is not the correct
in India. explanation for Statement-I.
How many of the above measures can be c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
undertaken to achieve Current Account incorrect.
Surplus by India? d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
a) Only one correct
b) Only two
c) Only three Q.23) Consider the following statements:
d) All four Statement I: The first Global Stocktake took
place at the recently held COP 28 of the
Q.21) With reference to Payment Banks, United Nations Framework Convention on
consider the following statements: Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement-I: Payment banks cannot extend Statement II: Under the Paris Agreement,
loans to their own employees. countries are required to submit their
Statement-II: Payment banks cannot Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)
undertake any lending activities with the every ten years.
customers’ deposits. Which one of the following is correct in
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
explanation for Statement-I. b Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
b Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
explanation for Statement-I. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
incorrect. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
correct
Q.24) If the savings rate of an economy is high,
Q.22) Consider the following statements in which of the following is most likely to happen?
respect of Open market operations (OMOs): a) Sharp rise in headline Inflation of the
Statement I: Through open market operations, country.
RBI sells or buys government securities (G- b) Higher economic growth in the country.
secs) to control the inflation levels in the c) Fall of NPA (Non-performing asset) of the
economy. balance sheet of Public Sector Banks.
Statement II: Buying of G-secs by RBI reduces d) Rise in the Stock exchange of the country
the money supply in the economy. is observed.

[5]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.25) The government has launched the Towns Q.28) Consider the following:
of Export Excellence (TEE) initiative to 1. Gold Bullions
promote exports from India. In this context, 2. Deposits of Scheduled commercial banks
consider the following pairs: 3. Notes in circulation
Town of Export Associated products 4. Foreign Securities
Excellence According to the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1. Ludhiana Woollen knitwear 1934, how many of the above are as the assets
2. Madurai Leather products of the Issue Department of the RBI?
3. Jodhpur Handicrafts a) Only one
4. Bhilwara Textiles b) Only two
How many of the above pairs are correctly c) Only three
matched? d) All four
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.29) Arrange the following categories as per
c) Only three their weightage in decreasing order as
d) All four suggested by the 15th Finance Commission for
horizontal devolution (allocation between the
Q.26) Which one of the following statements is states) of resources.
incorrect regarding the Small Farmers 1. Population
Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC)? 2. Income distance
a) It provides a financial support in the form of 3. Demographic Performance
an interest free loan provided to qualifying 4. Tax and Fiscal Efforts
projects to meet shortfall in the capital 5. Forest and Ecology
requirement for implementation of the Select the correct answer using the codes
project. given below:
b) It provides a platform for increased a) 1-2-3-5-4
accessibility and cheaper availability of b) 2-1-3-4-5
agricultural inputs to small and marginal c) 2-1-3-5-4
farmers. d) 2-3-1-5-4
c) It is an implementation agency of the
eNAM, an online trading platform for Q.30) Consider the following statements:
agricultural commodities 1. Parents sending their children to foreign
d) It is a Multistate Co-operative Society. nations to acquire quality education.
2. The Government providing free healthcare
Q.27) In Indian economy when Rupee is benefits to all.
appreciated compared to Dollars then the 3. Individuals spending on travel expenditure
possible outcomes on Indian economy could to move to new places to earn more.
be: 4. A company training its employees to learn
1. Imports will become more expensive. applications of Artificial Intelligence.
2. Improves the competitiveness of the How many of the above can be considered as
domestic export in the foreign markets. an investment on human capital formation?
3. NRIs repatriating money are now less a) Only one
valuable. b) Only two
How many of the above given statements are c) Only three
correct? d) All four
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

[6]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.31) As per the Preamble of the Indian a) the executive branch is separate from the
Constitution, India is a ‘sovereign’ State. In this legislative branch, with the former being
context, consider the following statements elected directly by the citizens.
regarding the significance of India being a b) the executive branch is elected by the
sovereign State: legislative branch, and both branches are
1. India is free to conduct its own internal as independent of each other.
well as external affairs. c) the executive branch is elected by the
2. India has a Head of State that is elected by people, and the legislative branch is elected
the people of India. by the State Legislatures.
3. India can acquire any foreign territory. d) the legislative branch is elected directly by
4. India can cede any part of its territory to a the citizens and the executive branch is
foreign State. accountable to the legislative branch.
5. The Constitution derives its powers from
the people of India. Q.34) In the context of the Constitution (One
How many of the above statements explain the Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, popularly
significance of India as a ‘sovereign’ State? known as the Narishakti Vandan Adhiniyam of
a) Only two 2023, consider the following statements:
b) Only three 1. It reserves 1/3rd of all seats for women in
c) Only four both the Houses of the Parliament.
d) All five 2. Initially, the reservation shall be provided
only for a term of 15 years.
Q.32) Consider the following statements: 3. Out of the total seats reserved for the
Statement-I - As per the National Security Act Scheduled Castes (SCs), 1/3rd of them shall
of 1980, preventive detention of a person can be reserved for women.
be made for a maximum period of 12 months How many of the above given statements are
from the date of detention. correct?
Statement-II - The Constitution of India a) Only one
provides for a maximum detention period of 12 b) Only two
months under any preventive detention law c) All three
enacted by the Central or State Government. d) None
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? Q.35) Consider the following list:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
correct and Statement-II is the correct India (CAG)
explanation for Statement-I. 2. The Election Commissioners of India
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. The Attorney General of India
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 4. The Chairperson of the National
explanation for Statement-I. Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is How many of the above-mentioned office
incorrect. bearers hold office during the ‘pleasure of the
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are President’?
incorrect. a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.33) Which of the following statements best c) Only three
describes the term ‘parliamentary democracy’? d) All four
A system of government where-

[7]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.36) With reference to the Pardoning power Q.39) Consider the following statements with
of the President of India, consider the respect to administration in Scheduled areas
following statements: of India:
1. The exercise of pardoning power by the 1. The power to declare an area to be a
President is not subjected to judicial review scheduled area in a state resides with the
under any circumstances. Governor of the state
2. The petitioner for mercy has no right to an 2. The Governor is required to submit a
oral hearing by the President. report regarding the administration of such
3. If a person’s petition for pardon has been areas to the Prime Minister.
rejected by the President, s/he cannot file 3. The power to decide whether any act of
another petition for the same offense. Parliament or the State legislature, will
How many of the above statements are apply to the scheduled area or not, lies with
correct? the President.
a) Only one How many of the above statements are
b) Only two correct?
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) All three
Q.37) With reference to the Fundamental d) None
Rights in the Constitution of India, which of the
following right is self-executory in nature? Q.40) Consider the following statements:
a) Abolition of untouchability Statement I: Maternity benefit act grants 26
b) The right to education weeks of paid maternity leave to all biological
c) Freedom of speech and expression and adopting mother.
d) Prohibition of traffic in human beings Statement II: Article 15 of the Indian
constitution permits state to make special
Q.38) With reference to Marine Protected provisions for women.
areas (MPAs), consider the following Which one of the following is correct in
statements: respect of the above statements?
1. They are designated areas in the ocean, a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
seas or coastal regions where human correct and Statement-II is the correct
activities are regulated to protect marine explanation for Statement-I.
ecosystems and biodiversity. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Activities like sustainable fishing and correct and Statement-II is not the correct
regulated tourism are allowed in all the explanation for Statement-I.
MPAs around the world. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
3. India established its first Marine National incorrect.
Park in Bhitarkanika in 1980. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
4. Sundarbans and Gulf of Munnar are the correct
only trans boundary MPAs of India under
IUCN’s transboundary area protected Q.41) With reference to the period of the
programme. Gupta dynasty in ancient India, which one of
How many of the above statements are the following statements is correct about
correct? society of that time?
a) Only one a) Position of Shudras further deteriorated.
b) Only two b) Proliferation of castes into numerous
c) Only three subcastes.
d) All four c) Rapid decline in the number of
untouchables.
d) Supremacy of Brahmana declined due to
increased popularity of Buddhism and
Jainism.

[8]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.42) With reference to Medieval period of 3. Alauddin Khilji of Introduced the system
Indian history, consider the following Khilji dynasty of dagh and huliyah
statements about Mansabdari system: 4. Dharmapala of Founded Vikramshila
1. Mashrut Jagir was given to a mansabdar in Pala dynasty university
his hometown. How many of the pairs given above are
2. Zat determined the number of horses matched correctly?
allotted to each Mansabdar. a) Only one
3. Shahjahan introduced the du aspah and si b) Only two
aspah system in mansabdari. c) Only three
How many of the statements given above are d) All four
correct?
a) Only one Q.46) Consider the following temples:
b) Only two 1. Konark Temple, Odisha
c) All three 2. Dashavatar temple, Uttar Pradesh
d) None 3. Hoysaleshwara Temple, Karnataka
4. Brihadeeshwara Temple, Tamil Nadu
Q.43) With reference to religious history of Which of the following options represents the
India, Paumacariyam is the Jaina version of correct chronological order of the
which of the following texts? construction of the temples mentioned above?
a) Ramayana. a) 3-1-2-4
b) Mahabharat. b) 2-4-1-3
c) Arthashastra. c) 3-2-1-4
d) Rig Veda. d) 2-4-3-1

Q.44) With reference to the cultural history of Q.47) When King Devanampriya Priyadarsin
India, consider the following statements: had been anointed twenty years, he came
1. This embroidery is being practised in himself and worshipped (this spot) because
Kashmir valley. Buddha Shakyamuni was born here. (He) both
2. This embroidery is exclusively done using caused a stone bearing a horse to be made and
hand. caused a stone pillar to be set up, (in order to
3. This embroidery is executed on the base of show) that the Blessed One was born here.
wool, cotton and silk. (He) made the village of Lummini free of taxes
Which of the following embroidery best and paying (only) an eighth share (of the
reflects the above features? produce).
a) Kashida embroidery On which one of the following Ashokan edicts
b) Chikankari embroidery is the above-mentioned inscription found?
c) Phulkari embroidery a) Kalinga Edicts
d) Kantha embroidery b) Mansehra Rock Edicts
c) Sannati Rock Edicts
Q.45) Consider the following pairs with d) Rummindei Pillar Edicts
reference to Medieval Indian Kings and their
major works Q.48) Which among the following Medieval
Kings Contributions Indian Emperors was best known for his policy
1. Raja Krishna Dev Author of of “Blood and Iron”?
of Kakatiya Amuktamalyada a) Qutubuddin Aibak
empire b) Ghiyasuddin Balban
2. Akbar of Mughal Commissioned the c) Sultan Iltutmish
empire construction of d) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
Fatehpur Sikri

[9]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.49) During Medieval History of India, 1. It occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and
“takkavi or taqavi loans” were given to- parasites no longer respond to
a) Artisans for the promotion of handicrafts antimicrobial medicines.
b) Farmers to support agricultural 2. Drug resistant Bacteria can spread from
development person to person.
c) Soldiers as financial aid for military 3. India’s ‘National Action Plan on
expeditions Antimicrobial Resistance’ aims is to achieve
d) Traders to facilitate overseas trade zero transmission of drug resistant bacteria
by 2030.
Q.50) With reference to British Indian History, How many of the statements given above are
the objective of “Gandhi-Nehru-Das pact” was correct?
to: a) Only one
a) launch the civil disobedience movement b) Only two
and boycott the salt taxation in British c) All three
India. d) None
b) form a coalition government with the
Muslim League and the Swaraj Party in Q.53) With reference to Nanofibers, consider
Central Legislative Assembly. the following statements:
c) resolve the differences between the no- 1. They are one-dimensional nanomaterials
changers and the pro-changers factions with diameters ranging from 1-100
within the Indian National Congress. nanometres.
d) end the non-cooperation movement and 2. They have high surface area-to-volume
restart constructive programme under the ratio.
Leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. 3. Natural nanofibers are an ideal choice for
delivering drugs within the human body.
Q.51) With reference to “The Pradhan Mantri How many of the statements given above are
Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan or PM correct?
Janman Mission”, consider the following a) Only one
statements: b) Only two
1. The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the c) All three
nodal ministry for this Mission. d) None
2. The Mission specifically aims to improve
the living standards of all 75 Particularly Q.54) With reference to different Safety
Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. features used in a Car, consider the following
3. The Mission aims to improve access to road statements:
and mobile connectivity in the tribal areas. 1. Anti-lock braking systems prevent tyre
4. It has the provision for setting up dedicated skidding by preventing wheel lock-up
fund under NABARD for implementation of during hard braking, ensuring the vehicle
scheme. slows down without losing grip.
How many of the statements given above are 2. Seat belts employ a retracting mechanism
correct? which plays a crucial role in protecting
a) Only one drivers from injury.
b) Only two 3. Airbag utilizes a chemical ‘Sodium azide’
c) Only three which decomposes rapidly upon impact,
d) All four producing nitrogen gas to inflate the
airbag.
Q.52) With reference to the Antimicrobial How many of the statements given above are
Resistance (AMR), consider the following correct?
statements: a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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[10]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.55) Consider the following statements d) Comet heading towards Earth emitting
regarding ‘Ultracold Atoms’: enormous amount of light.
Statement-I; Ultracold atoms exhibit quantum
properties. Q.58) Consider the following States of India:
Statement-II: At temperatures nearing 1. Uttar Pradesh
absolute zero, atoms start behaving according 2. Odisha
to the rules of quantum mechanics instead of 3. Tamil Nadu
classical physics. 4. Assam
Which one of the following is correct in The Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs) have
respect of the above statements? been established in how many of the above
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are States?
correct and Statement-II is the correct a) Only one
explanation for Statement-I. b) Only two
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) Only three
correct and Statement-II is not the correct d) All four
explanation for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Q.59) Consider the following statements
incorrect. regarding ‘Asbestos’:
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is 1. They do not occur naturally in the
correct. environment.
2. They are a good conductor of heat and
Q.56) Consider the following statements: electricity.
Statement I: Ant bites cause pain and 3. They are a potential carcinogenic
irritation in the human body. substance.
Statement II: The effect of an ant bite can be 4. The mining of asbestos is banned in India.
neutralized by rubbing moist baking soda or How many of the statements given above are
calamine solution. correct?
Which of the following is correct in respect of a) Only one
the above statements? b) Only two
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) Only three
correct and Statement-II is the correct d) All four
explanation for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Q.60) With reference to the National Super
correct and Statement-II is not the correct Computing Mission (NSM), consider the
explanation for Statement-I following statements:
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 1. National Supercomputing Mission (NSM)
incorrect has been set up to meet the increasing
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is computational demands of academia,
correct researchers, MSMEs, and startups.
2. PARAM Shakti and PARAM Shivay are the
Q.57) Which one of the following best reflects supercomputing systems of India built
the astronomical phenomena ‘Ejecta Halo’, under the NSM.
recently seen in the news? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) The propagation of light through space correct?
resulting from sudden burst of a Star’s. a) 1 only
b) Large eruptions of plasma from the Sun b) 2 only
that can disrupt the functioning of c) Both 1 and 2
satellites. d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) The disturbance caused to the uppermost
layer of the lunar surface when objects
collide with the Moon’s surface.

[11]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.61) Consider the following pairs: Statement-II: Increase in ocean acidity

Recent Evacuation Associated decreases the availability of carbonate ions.
Missions Crisis Which one of the following is correct in
1. Operation Kaveri Crisis in Sudan respect of the above statements?
2. Operation Ajay Ukraine-Russia a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Conflict correct and Statement-II is the correct
3. Operation Ganga Israel-Palestine explanation for Statement-I.
Conflict b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many of the Pairs given above are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
correctly matched? explanation for Statement-I.
a) Only one c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
b) Only two incorrect.
c) All three d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
d) None correct.

Q.62) Which of the following statements is Q.65) Consider the following statements
incorrect regarding the distinctive properties regarding the properties of the earthquake
of different layers of the Earth’s atmosphere? waves:
a) The troposphere is the densest of all the 1. The direction of vibration of P-waves is
layers of the Earth’s atmosphere. parallel to the wave direction.
b) The highest altitude that commercial flights 2. The S-waves cannot travel through liquid
are generally allowed to fly is located in the and gaseous mediums.
stratosphere. 3. The ‘shadow zone’ of S-waves is greater
c) The mesosphere is the hottest of all the than that of P-waves.
layers of the Earth’s atmosphere. How many of the above statements are
d) The thermosphere is the layer where the correct?
International Space Station orbits the a) Only one
Earth. b) Only two
c) All three
Q.63) Consider the following statements: d) None
Statement-I: Black soil is suitable for the
cultivation of Cotton. Q.66) With reference to solar energy sector in
Statement II: Black soil is clayey in nature. India, consider the following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in 1. As per Renewable Capacity Statistics 2023,
India ranks third in the world in Solar
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Power capacity.
2. Grid connected solar rooftops account for
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. more than 60 per cent of India's total
installed solar energy capacity.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 3. As of 2023, Uttar Pradesh has the highest
installed solar power capacity among the
explanation for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Indian states.
How many of the above statements are
incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct?
a) Only one
correct.
b) Only two
c) All three
Q.64) Consider the following statements:
d) None
Statement-I: Increase in ocean acidity makes
it difficult for organisms like oysters and corals
to make hard shells.

[12]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.67) With reference to the power of the b) At room temperature, mRNA vaccines have
President to consult the Supreme Court under a higher shelf life as compared to
Article 143 of the Constitution, which one of traditional vaccines.
the following statements is incorrect? c) mRNA vaccines provide lifelong immunity,
a) The President can seek the opinion of the while traditional vaccines offer temporary
Supreme Court on a question of law or fact protection.
of public importance that may likely arise in d) mRNA vaccines can induce both cellular
the future. and humoral immunity, while traditional
b) The Attorney General of India represents vaccines may only induce one type of
the Government of India in any reference immunity.
made by the President to the Supreme
Court. Q.70) What is the primary objective of the
c) The opinion expressed by the Supreme Diverse Epigenetic Epidemiology Partnership
Court is only advisory and not a judicial (DEEP), recently seen in the news?
pronouncement. a) To explore the potential of artificial
d) The Supreme Court can refuse to give its intelligence and big data analytics in the
opinion when the President asks its opinion healthcare sector.
on a dispute arising out of a pre- b) To collect and preserve the genetics of the
constitutional treaty. vulnerable tribal population and
endangered animals in the world.
Q.68) Consider the following statements: c) To understand the effects of genomic and
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has environmental diversity on disease risk
ruled that a person in a persistent vegetative across the global population.
state can choose passive euthanasia. d) To sequence 10,000 genomes of Indians to
Statement-II: Supreme Court recognized that better understand the link between
the right to life includes the right to die with genetics and disease outbreaks.
dignity.
Which one of the following is correct in Q.71) With reference to Producers
respect of the above statements? Organisation Development Fund (PODF),
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are consider the following statements:
correct, and Statement-II is the correct 1. It is an initiative of the Department of
explanation for Statement-I Agriculture and Farmer Welfare.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. It helps Producer Organizations in setting
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct up retail units similar to rural Haats.
explanation for Statement-I 3. It facilitates direct lending to Producer
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is Organizations for their working capital
incorrect requirements.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II How many of the statements given above are
is correct correct?
a) Only one
Q.69) Which one of the following statements is b) Only two
correct regarding the difference between c) All three
mRNA vaccines and traditional vaccines? d) None
a) mRNA vaccines contain a weakened or
inactivated form of the virus, while
traditional vaccines do not.

[13]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.72) With reference to the difference Q.75) Consider the following statements:
between UPI lite and UPI lite X technology, Statement-I: The D.K. Basu guidelines issued
consider the following statements: by the Supreme Court outline specific
1. While UPI Lite mandates an internet guidelines that police personnel must follow
connection for transactions, UPI Lite X while making arrests.
transactions do not always necessitate an Statement-II: Article 20 of the Indian
internet connection. Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to
2. Unlike in the UPI lite, the money transfer issue guidelines to safeguard the interest of
occurs directly between the bank accounts arrested persons.
in the UPI lite X. Which one of the following is correct in
Which of the statements given above is/are respect of the above statements?
correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) 1 only correct and Statement-II is the correct
b) 2 only explanation for Statement-I.
c) Both 1 and 2 b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
Q.73) Which one of the following is the most c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
likely consequence of the recently introduced incorrect
norms by Reserve Bank of India for All India d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Financial Institutions (AIFIs), based on the correct
Basel III capital framework?
a) Significant increase in the credit flow to the Q.76) Consider the following statements:
public. Statement-I: While the Sun emits radiation
b) Decrease in the prevailing interest rate in primarily in the visible region of the spectrum,
the economy. the Earth emits radiation primarily in the
c) The overall improvement in the financial infrared region of the spectrum.
stability of the nation. Statement-II: While the Sun’s atmosphere is
d) Decrease in the credit rating to the AIFIs. composed mainly of Hydrogen and Helium,
the Earth’s atmosphere is composed mainly of
Q.74) Consider the following statements: Nitrogen and Oxygen
The Government of India receiving money Which one of the following is correct in
from- respect of the above statements?
1. the operation of Public Sector a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Undertakings (PSUs) in India. correct and Statement-II is the correct
2. selling the treasury bills to the Public. explanation for Statement-I.
3. people's investment in the Small Savings b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
scheme. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
4. people's investment in the Public explanation for Statement-I.
Provident Fund (PPF). c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
How many of the above forms part of the incorrect.
Public Account of India? d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
a) Only one correct.
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

[14]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.77) With reference to the Public 3. Ecosystem diversity refers to different

Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) types of biotic and abiotic components on
Act, 2024, consider the followings statements: Earth.
1. The act aims to prevent use of unfair means How many of the statements given above are
in public examinations conducted by the correct?
Central government. a) Only one
2. The act covers the board exams conducted b) Only two
by the Central Board of Secondary c) All three
Education (CBSE). d) None
3. All offenses under the act are cognisable
and non-bailable. Q.80) Consider the following statements
4. The act authorizes the central government regarding Constitutional Provisions on
to establish a dedicated investigating Election related matters in India:
agency to handle cases falling under the 1. The Constitution does not specify a
purview of the act. minimum age required for registration as a
How many of the statements given above are voter.
correct? 2. The Constitution prohibits state
a) Only one legislatures from making laws concerning
b) Only two elections to the state legislative assembly.
c) Only three 3. The right to contest elections is a
d) All four constitutional right in India.
4. The Constitution mandates that disputes
Q.78) Recently, European countries such as related to parliamentary election can only
Germany, France, Belgium, Italy, and Greece be challenged through a petition in the
were in the news in the context of which of Supreme Court.
the following? How many of the statements given above are
a) Started alliance to mitigate migration correct?
issues due to ongoing conflict in West a) Only one
Asian nations. b) Only two
b) Reporting of human case of swine-origin c) Only three
influenza A(H1N2) virus infection. d) None
c) Spearheaded drone coalition to increase
the supply of drones for the Ukrainian Q.81) Consider the following statements:
military. “She led an armed revolt against the Britishers,
d) Farmers’ protest against the European which is popularly known as the Kittur Revolt
Union’s revamped Common Agricultural of 1824. The revolt was against the Britisher’s
Policy. refusal to not to recognize her adopted son as
a legal heir to the throne. During the battle,
Q.79) With reference to the various concepts she managed to kill John Thackery, the British
of measuring biodiversity, consider the official who launched an attack on Kittur”.
following statements: Which of the following personalities has been
1. Genetic diversity represents a variable discussed in the above statements?
phenotype exhibited by particular species, a) Rani Chennamma
2. Species diversity measures the variety of b) Rani Abbakka Chowta
living organisms within a specific area. c) Rani Velu Nachiyar
d) Rani Gaidinliu

[15]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.82) Consider the following pairs Q.84) Consider the following statements:
Archaeological Significance Statement-I: The Constitution (91st
Sites Amendment) Act of 2003 amended the Tenth
1. Noh Evidence of the Painted Schedule (ani-defection law) to prohibit a
Grey Ware (PGW) pottery disqualified member from holding any
culture remunerative political post under the Central
2. Sanauli Prominent cemetery site of or the State Government.
late Harappan period Statement-II: Y.B. Chavan Committee
3. Isampur Workshop site of the earliest recommended that a defector should be
Lower Paleolithic debarred from appointment to the office of a
(Acheulian) period Minister, Speaker, or Deputy Speaker.
4. Burzahom Evidence of Pit-houses from Which one of the following is correct in
Neolithic period respect of the above statements?
How many of the above pairs are correctly a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
matched? correct and Statement-II is the correct
a) Only one explanation for Statement-I.
b) Only two b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
c) Only three correct and Statement-II is not the correct
d) All four explanation for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Q.83) With respect to the advent of Europeans incorrect.
in the seventeenth century, consider the d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
following statements: correct.
Statement-I: By the end of the seventeenth
century, the English East India Company had Q.85) With respect to India polity, consider the
successfully eliminated their Portuguese and following statements:
Dutch trade competitors. Statement-I: Republic Day is celebrated in
Statement-II: The English East India Company India on the 26th of January every year.
began to manufacture superior quality goods Statement-II: The ‘Objective Resolution’
at cheaper prices, and they dominate the introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru was adopted
Indian market with these products. by the Constituent Assembly on 26th January
Which one of the following is correct in 1947.
respect of the above statements? Which one of the following is correct in
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are respect of the above statements?
correct and Statement-II is the correct a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
explanation for Statement-I. correct and Statement-II is the correct
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are explanation for Statement-I.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
explanation for Statement-I. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is explanation for Statement-I.
incorrect. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is incorrect.
correct. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.

[16]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.86) In the context of production and Which one of the following is correct in
extraction of Rare Earth Elements (REE) in respect of the above statements?
India, consider the following statements: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-I: Despite having the fifth-largest correct and Statement-II is the correct
reserves of rare earth elements (REEs) in the explanation for Statement-I.
world, India accounts for only 1% of the global b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
output of REEs. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Statement-II: The production of rare earth explanation for Statement-I.
minerals in India is largely confined to the c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
public-sector enterprises. incorrect.
Which one of the following is correct in d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
respect of the above statements? correct.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct Q.89) Consider the following statements
explanation for Statement-I. regarding the Global Partnership for Financial
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Inclusion (GPFI):
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 1. It is a platform exclusively dedicated for
explanation for Statement-I. G20 countries to work on the financial
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is inclusion agenda.
incorrect. 2. It was launched during the New Delhi
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Summit of G20 in 2023.
correct. 3. It releases the ‘Global Findex Database’ to
measure the status of financial inclusion in
Q.87) In the context of Indian polity, consider G20 countries.
the following statements: 4. India and Italy have been appointed as co-
Statement-I: The President of India is an chairs of GPFI for 2024-26.
integral part of the Parliament. How many of the above statements are
Statement-II: India follows a Parliamentary correct?
system of government. a) Only one
Which one of the following is correct in b) Only two
respect of the above statements? c) Only three
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) All four
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. Q.90) Recently, the Bhartiya Nyaya (Second)
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Sanhita, 2023 (BNS2) to streamline the Indian
correct and Statement-II is not the correct Penal Code (IPC) of 1860, will become effective
explanation for Statement-I. from July 1, 2024. In this context, consider the
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is following statements regarding the BNS2:
incorrect. 1. It excludes ‘sedition’ as an offense, which
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is was previously included in the IPC.
correct. 2. It includes ‘marital rape’ as an offense and
also makes rape a gender-neutral offense.
Q.88) Consider the following statements: 3. It criminalizes mob lynching by a group of 5
Statement-I: Hydrogen-based fuels are or more people on certain grounds.
currently more expensive than conventional How many of the statements are correct?
fossil fuels. a) Only one
Statement-II: Hydrogen possesses three times b) Only two
the energy density per unit mass compared to c) All three
Gasoline. d) None

[17]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.91) Consider the following statements 3. Cabo Delgado A region in Mozambique

regarding the ‘Enforcement Directorate (ED)’: where massive violence
1. It is a statutory body established under the and displacements have
Prevention of Money Laundering Act of been caused due to
2002. insurgent attacks
2. It functions under the administrative How many of the above pairs are incorrectly
control of the Department of Internal matched?
Security of the Ministry of Home Affairs. a) Only one
3. Unlike the Central Bureau of Investigation b) Only two
(CBI), ED does not have power to carry out c) All three
search and seizure. d) None
How many of the above statements are
correct? Q.94) Which among the following International
a) Only one Organization releases the Energy Transition
b) Only two Index?
c) All three a) International Energy Agency (IEA)
d) None b) The International Energy Forum (IEF)
c) The International Renewable Energy
Q.92) As per the provisions of the Chief Agency (IRENA)
Election Commissioner and Other Election d) World Economic Forum (WEF)
Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of
Service and Term of Office) Act of 2023, Q.95) In the context of the ‘Nobel Prize’,
consider the following consider the following statements:
1. The Prime Minister 1. The Nobel Prizes were originally awarded
2. The Chief Justice of India for exceptional work in five categories.
3. The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha 2. The Nobel Peace Prize is the only Nobel
4. The Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha Prize awarded in Norway.
5. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by 3. Claudia Goldin became the first woman to
the Prime Minister receive the Nobel Prize in Economics in
Which of the above-mentioned authorities are 2023.
the members of the Selection Committee that How many of the above statements are
recommends the name of the Chief Election correct?
Commissioner (CEC) to the President of India? a) Only one
a) 1, 2, and 3 only b) Only two
b) 1, 3, and 5 only c) All three
c) 1, 2 and 5 only d) None
d) 1, 4 and 5 only
Q.96) Consider the following countries:
1. Iran
Q.93) Consider the following pairs:
2. Kazakhstan
Regions often Reason for being in
3. Kyrgyzstan
mentioned in news news 4. Tajikistan
1. Essequibo Disputed area between 5. Uzbekistan
Guyana and Venezuela 6. Turkmenistan
2. Buenos Aires Massive protests against How many of the above countries share border
the Government of with Afghanistan?
Argentina for the a) Only two
proposed economic b) Only three
reforms. c) Only four
d) Only five
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[18]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

Q.97) Consider the following pairs: Q.100) Consider the following statements
Places in Reason for being in news regarding the ‘Schengen Area’, recently seen in
news the news:
1. Haifa Port Largest port of Israel which 1. It represents a border free area of
was destroyed in Hamas European countries that guarantees free
attack movement to the residents of different
2. Chancay A deep-water port being nations.
Port constructed by China in Peru. 2. No police checks are conducted at the
3. Murmansk Port shows India’s growing internal borders in the Schengen Area.
Port connection with Russia’s 3. Only a European Union member State can
Arctic region. subscribe to this free movement regime.
How many of the above pairs are correctly 4. Bulgaria and Romania are the newest
matched? Nations that have joined the Schengen
a) Only one area in 2024.
b) Only two How many of the above statements are
c) All three correct?
d) None a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.98) The ‘Golan Heights’ is one of the much- c) Only three
contested regions in the Middle East. It had d) All four
been occupied by Israel after the six-day war
of 1967 and in 1981, Israel annexed the region
into its territory. In this context, the Golan
Heights is a region of conflict between Israel
and which of the following countries?
a) Syria
b) Jordan
c) Lebanon
d) Palestine

Q.99) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, the cultivation of the
genetically modified cotton crop using the
Cry2ai gene has been allowed for commercial
purposes.
Statement-II: Cry2ai is a gene that makes
cotton resistant to pink bollworm, a pest that
affects cotton crops.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.

[19]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.1)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, the east-flowing rivers, such as the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and
Godavari, are known for forming large and extensive deltas where they meet the Bay of Bengal. These
deltas, including the Sundarbans, the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta, and the Godavari Delta, are among
the largest in the world. On the other side, the west-flowing rivers in India, such as the Narmada and
Tapi, do not typically form large deltas. The west-flowing rivers flow over rocky terrain and have small
tributaries that don't carry much silt. As a result, they do not form any significant distributaries or deltas
before reaching the sea.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Godavari is the longest peninsular river in India. Its length is
approximately 1,465 km. However, it is an east-flowing river (and not a west-flowing river). This river
rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district (Maharashtra) and outfalls into the Bay of Bengal. The
Godavari basin extends over the states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya
Pradesh, Karnataka and Union territory of Puducherry. The important tributaries of Godavari are the
Pravara, the Purna, the Manjra, the Penganga, the Wardha, the Wainganga the Pranhita, the Indravati,
the Maner and the Sabri.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Both east-flowing and west-flowing rivers in India can form estuaries,
depending on the specific characteristics mentioned earlier (sediment load, land slope, etc.). For example,
Narmada River forms an estuary where it meets the Arabian Sea and Mahi River forms a wide estuary
at the Bay of Khambhat. Kali, Zuari and Mandovi rivers also form estuaries.
Knowledge Base: Important rivers of peninsular India

Source:
https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=narmada#:~:text=of%20the%20basin.,River%20System,thro
ugh%20the%20Gulf%20of%20Cambay.
https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=godavari

Q.2)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks
occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts
of the country. Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Lohardaga in Jharkhand have rich

[1]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Bauxite deposits. Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other major producers.
Bauxite is the ore, which is used in manufacturing of aluminium.
Pair 2 is correct. The famous diamond mines in India are Panna in Madhya Pradesh. In India, the diamond
resources are concentrated mostly in three states – Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Korba coalfield (not iron ore) is located in Korba district of Chhattisgarh. As per GSI, a
total of 12,975.93 MT coal reserves is available in Korba coalfield. Sub-areas of Korba Coalfield are: Korba,
Surakachhar, Rajgamar, Manikpur, Dhelwadih, Kushumunda and Gevra.
Pair 4 is correct. Bhandara District has been endowed with various valuable mineral resources.
Manganese Ore is found in large quantity in the district. The other important minerals found in the
district are Iron Ore, Chromite, Silliminite, Corundum, Phyrophyllite, Kynite and Quartz.
Source: https://lohardaga.nic.in/mines-and-minerals/
https://www.nmdc.co.in/about-nmdc/operating-mines/diamond-mining-project-panna
https://www.business-standard.com/article/companies/gevra-coal-mine-in-chhattisgarh-s-korba-
district-makes-history-123032401440_1.html
https://bhandara.gov.in/mining-department/

Q.3)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mangroves are salt-tolerant vegetations, but they are not limited to tropical
regions. Mangroves found between 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south of the equator are called
tropical mangroves. They make up nearly 98.6% of all mangroves worldwide. Mangroves found beyond
these latitudes, above or below, are called temperate mangroves, and they make up about 1.4% of the
total mangrove coverage. Mangrove species richness and diversity decline with increasing latitude. In the
Southern Hemisphere, temperate mangroves can be found in South Africa, New Zealand, parts of
Australia, and eastern South America. Generally, in these regions, they are found near the warm ocean
currents.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Pneumatophores are the roots (also called as air roots, blind roots), that help
mangroves to respire in anaerobic soils. These roots have numerous pores through which oxygen
enters, unless they are clogged or submerged for too long.
Statement 3 is correct: Mangroves have salt exclusion and salt excretion adaptations:
1) Salt exclusion: This occurs through the filtration of salts at the surface of the roots. Red mangrove is
an example of salt excluding species.
2) Salt excretion: Salt excreters remove salts through glands located on the leaves. Mangroves
(especially white mangroves) develop thickened succulent leaves. These thick and waxy leaves are
known for hoarding freshwater and excreting salts in the mangrove vegetation.
Statement 4 is correct: Saltwater and oxygen-deprived soil are not ideal for seeds to grow. To tackle the
challenge of water inundation, mangrove trees have a special way of reproducing called viviparity. In

[2]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
viviparity, seeds sprout and grow into seedlings while they're still connected to the parent tree. Hence,
the given statement is correct.
Knowledge Base: Important mangrove sites in India:

Source:
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0254629916303829#:~:text=Mangroves%20that
%20occur%20between%20latitudes,et%20al.%2C%202010).
https://www.fao.org/3/ai387e/AI387E06.htm#:~:text=To%20overcome%20this%2C%20mangrove%20s
pecies,attached%20to%20the%20parent%20tree.

Q.4)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Kashmir Stag, also known as Hangul, initially considered a subspecies of the European red deer, it
was recognized as a separate species in 2017. These species are classified as Critically endangered by the
IUCN red list. It can only be found in a small area within Jammu and Kashmir's Dachigam National Park.
Option a is correct: The hangul is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List, as its
population has declined drastically over the years due to habitat loss, overgrazing by domestic livestock,
poaching, predation, diseases and human-wildlife conflicts. The hangul has a matriarchal society, where
the females lead the groups and choose the mating partners. The breeding season occurs from
September to October, when the males compete for the females by roaring, fighting and displaying their
antlers. The gestation period lasts for about eight months, and the females give birth to one or two fawns
in May or June. The fawns stay with their mothers for about a year, until the next breeding season.
Source: https://azimpremjiuniversity.edu.in/the-kashmiri-hangul-a-critically-endangered-
stag#:~:text=The%20hangul%20is%20classified%20as,diseases%20and%20human%2Dwildlife%20conflic
ts.

Q.5)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Sundarbans, a cluster of low-lying islands in the Bay of Bengal, are renowned for their distinctive
mangrove forests, spanning across India and Bangladesh. Encompassing an area exceeding 40,000
square kilometers, this dynamic delta region stands as one of the largest in the world.
Statement 1 is incorrect- Situated in the coastal region of the Bay of Bengal, Sundarbans is an extensive
contiguous mangrove forest ecosystem that extends across India and Bangladesh within the delta of the
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[3]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. But repeated falls in the sea level do not give rise to extensive
marshland.
Rann of Kutch is the best example of repeated falls in the sea level which give rise to present day
extensive marshland.
Statement 2 is correct- The Sundarbans Delta stands as the sole mangrove forest globally where tigers
reside.
Statement 3 is correct- Established in 1984, the Sundarbans National Park forms a central area within
the tiger reserve and earned UNESCO World Heritage status in 1987.
Source: https://en.unesco.org/biosphere/aspac/sunderban
https://forests.gujarat.gov.in/writereaddata/images/pdf/26_Rann-Booklet.pdf
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/285202093_The_Great_Rann_of_Kachchh_Perceptions_
of_a_field_geologist

Q.6)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The first-ever "State of the World’s Migratory Species" report was launched at the 14th Conference of
Parties (COP14) to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) held in Samarkand on February 12, 2024.
The report was released by the United Nations Environment Programme World Conservation
Monitoring Centre (UNEP-WCMC). UNEP-WCMC is a collaboration between UNEP and the United
Kingdom-based charity organization WCMC. The report provides a comprehensive assessment of the
conservation status, population trends, and threats faced by migratory animals globally. It underscores
the urgent need for concrete conservation actions to mitigate human-induced threats to migratory
species. Important observations include:
1) Population Trends: While some migratory species are improving, 44% are experiencing population
declines.
2) Extinction Risk: 22% of CMS-listed species are threatened with extinction, and nearly all CMS-
listed fish (97%) are threatened.
3) Protected Areas: Half of the Key Biodiversity Areas important for CMS-listed migratory animals lack
protected status.
4) Human Pressures: 58% of monitored sites important for CMS-listed species face unsustainable
levels of human-caused pressure.
5) Major Threats: Overexploitation and habitat loss due to human activities are the primary threats to
migratory species, affecting 75% and 70% of CMS-listed species respectively.
Source:
https://www.cms.int/sites/default/files/publication/State%20of%20the%20Worlds%20Migratory%20
Species%20report_E.pdf

Q.7)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
According to a study by the Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CIMFR), Roorkee, Rajasthan
harbors a substantial reserve of 20,397 million tonnes (MT) of probable potash deposits, mostly
concentrated in Nagaur-Ganganagar basin of the north-west Rajasthan, almost three times the world
reserve.

[4]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Potash reserves in India are also reported from Sidhi district of Madhya Pradesh, Sonbhadra district of
Uttar Pradesh, Kaimur district of Bihar and Sawai Madhopur & Karauli districts of Rajasthan. These
deposits are in the form of Glauconitic (a potassium-bearing green mica) sandstone. According to the
Press Information Bureau (PIB), India imports 100% of its potash needs, even though it has the world’s
biggest reserves of potash in Rajasthan.
The primary use of potash is in agriculture. It is an essential plant nutrient, often applied as fertilizer.
Other potash uses include industrial chemicals, animal feed, soap making, food production, water
softening, road de-icing, pH adjustment, explosives, pharmaceuticals, and glassmaking.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/jaipur/rajasthan-sits-on-20-000-mt-of-potash-reserve-
but-exploration-caught-in-red-tape-study/story-VF2ODkoloQrGlUo8H6M7RO.html
Press Information Bureau (pib.gov.in)

Q.8)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: A situation in which low level of per capita income, results in low savings and
investments, leading to low rate of growth of National Income: This describes a different concept called
the Low-income equilibrium trap, which focuses on countries stuck in poverty due to a self-perpetuating
cycle of low income and low growth.
Option b is incorrect: This describes the Resource curse. This is a paradox where countries with an
abundance of natural resources, such as oil or minerals, tend to have slower economic growth than
countries with fewer resources. This can be due to several factors, such as corruption, Dutch disease
(when the resource boom leads to an appreciation of the currency, making other exports less
competitive), and conflict
Option c is correct: A situation where a Country finds difficulty in transitioning to a high-income
economy, despite achieving a moderate level of income, due to stagnant growth. This is the best
description of Middle-Income Trap by the World Bank.
The chief economist of the World bank had said that due to prevailing economic conditions, it has
become very difficult to escape the middle income trap. India is also vulnerable for this.
Major reasons responsible for Middle income trap are:
1) Decrease in competitiveness of the domestic economy caused by rising costs, lack of innovation,
lower exports, etc
2) Failure in structural transition; i.e, Transitioning from a primarily agricultural economy (low-
productivity) to a diversified economy with strong secondary (manufacturing) and tertiary (services)
sectors
3) Unequal distribution of benefits of economic growth
4) Lack of human resource development
Option d is incorrect: A liquidity trap is an adverse economic situation that can occur when consumers
and investors hoard cash rather than spending or investing it even when interest rates are low, stymying
efforts by economic policymakers to stimulate economic growth.
Source: Forum IAS quarterly current affairs magazine for prelims, Oct-Dec 2023, Page-31
https://encyclopedia.pub/entry/36948
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/r/resource-curse.asp
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-is-premature-deindustrialisation-in-
economics/article25290325.ece#:~:text=This%20refers%20to%20a%20phenomenon,in%20its%20path%
20towards%20development.
Share An Online Entry "Low-Level Equilibrium Trap"
Welcome to view Low-Level Equilibrium Trap by HandWiki @EncyclopediaMD1 Access link:
https://encyclopedia.pub/entry/36948 #Economics

[5]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.9)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Climate change refers to significant and long-term shifts in global or regional climate patterns, primarily
resulting from human activities that alter the composition of the atmosphere. Climate change has wide-
ranging and profound effects on both natural and human systems.
Statement 1 is correct: Rising temperatures due to climate change are expanding the suitable habitat
range for mosquitoes, allowing them to move to higher altitudes and latitudes where they were
previously unable to survive. This increases the risk of mosquito-borne diseases spreading to new areas.
Statement 2 is correct: As the permafrost thaws due to rising temperatures (resultant consequence of
climate change), it could release ancient bacteria and viruses that have been frozen for thousands of
years. Some of these microorganisms may be resistant to modern antibiotics and pose a threat to human
health.
Statement 3 is correct: In mountainous areas, the upper limit of tree growth, known as tree lines, is
shifting to higher altitudes. This movement is driven by the increasing temperatures at elevated
altitudes, which are a consequence of climate change.
Statement 4 is correct: Sea ice cover in the Arctic Ocean is expected to continue decreasing, and the
Arctic Ocean will very likely become essentially ice-free in late summer if current projections hold. This
change is expected to occur before mid-century.
Statement 5 is incorrect: Due to climate change, temperate crops such as apricot and berries cannot be
commonly grown in tropical countries like India, rather climate change facilitates the cultivation of
tropical crops, such as those found in India, in temperate regions by creating conditions suitable for their
growth.
Source: https://climate.nasa.gov/news/3267/when-climate-gets-under-your-skin/
https://climate.nasa.gov/effects/

Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species is an intergovernmental treaty under the UNEP
(United Nations Environment Programme)- popularly known as Bonn Convention. It was signed in 1979
and in force since 1983. As of 1st March 2022, the CMS has 133 Parties. India has also been a party to CMS
since 1983.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) is an international treaty that
aims to protect migratory animals and their habitats across borders. It covers terrestrial, aquatic, and
avian species that move between different countries or regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The 14th Conference of the Parties (COP14) to the CMS was held in
Samarkand, Uzbekistan, from 12 to 17 February 2024. In COP14, 14 new species were added to the CMS
Appendices, bringing the total number of species covered by the convention to 141. These new additions
include the Eurasian Lynx, Pallas's Cat, and the Sand Tiger Shark etc.
The Great Indian Bustard, Asian Elephant and Bengal Florican were included in Appendix I of UN
Convention on Migratory Species at the 13th Conference of the Parties (COP) (not 14th CoP) to the
Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) in Gandhinagar (Gujarat).
Statement 3 is correct: Convened under the theme, "Nature knows no borders", COP14 of CMS was the
first global biodiversity gathering since the adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity

[6]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Framework (GBF) in 2022, and thus provided a crucial opportunity for further alignment between CMS
and the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/cms-cop14-action-plans-for-
african-eurasian-migratory-landbirds-other-avian-species-adopted-94503
https://www.cms.int/

Q.11)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Algae, tiny aquatic plants situated at the base of the food chain, pose a significant challenge when their
populations swell excessively or persist for prolonged durations. During these instances, they deplete the
dissolved oxygen in water, jeopardizing the survival of various marine organisms, including fish.
Statement-I is correct: Excessive levels of nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus in the water
environment promotes rapid growth of algae, known as algal blooms. These blooms consume oxygen and
hinder sunlight from reaching underwater plants. Consequently, as the algae decompose, oxygen
depletion occurs, rendering the aquatic environment inhospitable for marine life. Notably, the largest
dead zone in the United States, spanning approximately 6,500 square miles, emerges in the Gulf of
Mexico each summer due to nutrient pollution from the Mississippi River Basin.
Statement-II is correct and explains the Statement-I: Natural phenomena like upwelling and land run-
off during monsoon introduce excessive nitrates, phosphates, and nutrients into aquatic ecosystems,
fostering algal blooms. Upwelling occurs when cooler, deeper oceanic water rich in nutrients rises to
the surface, thus facilitating the onset of algal blooms. Hence statement II is correct and explains the
statement-I.
Source: https://www.epa.gov/nutrientpollution/effects-dead-zones-and-harmful-algal-
blooms#:~:text=Excess%20nitrogen%20and-,phosphorus,-cause%20an%20overgrowth
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/toxic-blooms-10548
https://www.niehs.nih.gov/health/topics/agents/algal-
blooms#:~:text=A%20harmful%20algal%20bloom%20(HAB,on%20the%20type%20of%20algae.

Q.12)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement I is correct and II is incorrect: As Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas thus increasing amount
of carbon dioxide in the air raises the temperature of the atmosphere. Molecules of carbon dioxide (CO 2)
can absorb energy from infrared part of solar radiations and re-emit it. The re-emitted energy travels
out in all directions and heats up the atmosphere.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/gess204.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iesc114.pdf

Q.13)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is responsible for coordinating responses to
environmental issues within the United Nations system.
Option a is correct: The UNEP was established after the United Nations Conference on the Human
Environment in Stockholm in June 1972. The UNEP provides leadership, develops solutions on a wide

[7]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
range of issues, including climate change, the management of marine and terrestrial ecosystems, and
green economic development. The Stockholm conference was the first world conference to make the
environment a major issue. The participants adopted a series of principles for sound management of the
environment including the Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human Environment and
several resolutions.
Option b is incorrect: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also
known as the 'Earth Summit', was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992. The conference led to creation of
the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Convention on Biological
Diversity (CBD) and the Commission on Sustainable Development.
Option c is incorrect: The 2002 World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg agreed on
a Political Declaration and Implementation Plan. This plan outlines actions and measures concluded by
government and private sectors to achieve environmentally sustainable development. It covers decisions
on water, energy, health, agriculture, biodiversity, and other important areas.
Option d is incorrect: The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) (not UNEP) was an outcome
of the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, 2012, also referred to as RIO+20. The
United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the
environment. The UNEA enjoys universal membership of all United Nations Member States.
Source:
https://www.un.org/en/conferences/environment/stockholm1972#:~:text=conference%20was%20the
-,creation,-of%20the%20United
https://www.un.org/en/conferences/environment/rio1992#:~:text=The%20'Earth%20Summit'%20had
%20many,the%20principles%20of%20forest%20management%20.
https://www.un.org/en/conferences/environment/johannesburg2002
https://www.unep.org/environmentassembly/about-united-nations-environment-
assembly?_ga=2.240966917.763181779.1633334104-
825198589.1628667604#:~:text=The%20United%20Nations%20Environment%20Assembly%20was%20cr
eated

Q.14)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Hibernation serves as a method for animals to conserve energy during harsh cold weather conditions or
food scarcity. This process entails physiological adjustments, including a reduction in body temperature
and a slowing down of metabolism, aiding in their survival.
Option 1 is correct: Hedgehogs begin hibernating when the temperature around them drops, especially
in winter. During hibernation, their bodies cool down, and their usual activities slow down significantly.
For instance, their heart rate drops from around 190 beats per minute to as low as 20 beats per minute,
their body temperature, typically 35°C, decreases to 10°C or less, and their breathing nearly stops, with
only occasional breaths taken every few minutes.

[8]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Option 2 is correct: Unlike tree squirrels, Marmots are ground-dwelling creatures found in high-
altitude regions of Asia, Europe, and North America. For example Himalayan marmots inhabiting high
altitude regions of India, Nepal, Pakistan, live in open grasslands and create burrows underground for
nesting. Despite their thick fur for insulation against the cold, many marmots succumb to the harsh
winter conditions. To survive such harsh climatic conditions, these species hibernate for six to eight
months each year.

Option 3 is incorrect: Similar to other bears, Sloth bears utilize dens, but their denning habits differ
significantly from those of other bear species. Unlike brown bears or American black bears, sloth bears
do not hibernate, thus do not use dens for that purpose. They do utilize two types of dens - firstly,
resting dens used by sloth bears daily during their inactive period, typically during daylight and
secondly maternal dens used by female sloth bears for giving birth and raising their cub.

Sloth bear and its Den.

Source: https://roundglasssustain.com/photostories/himalayan-marmot-ladakh
https://www.britishhedgehogs.org.uk/hibernation-2/
https://wildlifesos.org/conservation-awarness/five-interesting-things-about-sloth-bear-
denning/#:~:text=Unlike%20brown%20bears%2C%20or%20American,which%20means%20during%20d
aylight%20hours.

Q.15)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Originally, the pygmy hog species was known to inhabit limited regions in northern West Bengal and
north-western Assam in India. However, recent findings suggest that their range likely extends across a
vast area of tall, alluvial grasslands south of the Himalayan foothills, from north-western Uttar Pradesh
and southern Nepal to Assam, and potentially even reaching southern Bhutan.

[9]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Statement a is correct: The pygmy hog holds the distinction of being the smallest member of the pig
family in the world. Typically, they measure around 65 cm in length, with a head and body length ranging
from 55 to 71 cm. Shoulder height averages about 25 cm, and adult individuals weigh between 6.6 and 9.7
kg. Female pygmy hogs tend to be slightly smaller, while newborns weigh merely 150 to 200 g.
Statement b is correct: Pygmy hogs exhibit a distinctive behaviour unseen in most mammals – they
meticulously construct their own nests, featuring a notable "roof." These nests consist of intricate
arrangements of grass, typically built over depressions in the ground. Remarkably, nest-building is a
collaborative effort involving the entire family, with even young shoats only a few weeks old contributing.
In addition to this extraordinary behaviour, pygmy hogs play a crucial role as indicator species, providing
insights into the overall health of their primary habitat: the vast wet grasslands of the region.
Statement c is incorrect: The present range of Sus salvanius (commonly known as the pygmy hog) is
found only in the reserve forest belts of the Manas Wildlife Sanctuary and the Barnadi Wildlife Sanctuary
in northwestern Assam, India. However, they were once found in throughout northern India, Bhutan, and
Nepal.
Statement d is correct: Pygmy hogs face a critical situation, as indicated by their listing as Critically
Endangered by the IUCN. They are also protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972. The primary threats to their survival include habitat loss and degradation resulting from human
settlements, agricultural expansion, flood control projects, and traditional forestry practices.
Source: https://www.iucn-wpsg.org/pygmy-hog-detailed
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/the-pygmy-hog-to-the-brink-of-
extinction-and-back-60315

Q.16)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Santalum album L. popularly known as Indian sandalwood has been the most valuable timber in India
known for its religious and cultural value since time immemorial. Sandalwood is a fragrant heartwood
found in several species of trees from the genus Santalum. The trees are native to tropical and semi-
tropical regions of Asia and Oceania.
Statement 1 is correct: The sandalwood tree (Santalum album) is a partial root parasite. While it
possesses green leaves and can photosynthesize to produce some of its own food, it also relies on other
plants for water and certain nutrients. Establishing a sandalwood plantation can be quite challenging due
to its complex parasitism ecology as its roots establish connections with the host, extracting water and
nutrients. While this dependency aids early growth, cultivating sandalwood becomes challenging as it
competes with host trees, limiting their vitality and hindering the overall plantation process.
Statement 2 is correct: Indian Sandalwood (Santalum album) has been assessed for The IUCN Red List of
Threatened Species in 2018 and it is listed as Vulnerable on the list.
Statement 3 is correct: Indian Sandalwood has a long history of use in traditional medicine. It is believed
to have anti-inflammatory, antimicrobial, and antioxidant properties. It is also thought to promote
relaxation and sleep.
Source:
https://www.iucnredlist.org/species/31852/2807668#assessment-
https://www.currentscience.ac.in/Volumes/119/04/0699.pdf
Microsoft Word - Dec25G.doc (currentscience.ac.in)

[10]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.17)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The snow leopard is a species of large cat in the genus Panthera of the family Felidae. The range of the
Snow Leopard extends from the Himalaya in the south, across the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau and the
mountains of Central Asia to the mountains of southern Siberia in the north. It occurs in the Altai, Sayan,
Tien Shan, Kunlun, Pamir, Hindu Kush, Karakoram, and outer Himalayan ranges and in smaller isolated
mountains in the Gobi region. It occurs in 12 countries: Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the IUCN-World Conservation Union's Red List of Threatened Species, the
snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, snow leopard's geographical range encompasses a large part of the
western Himalayas, including the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, Himachal
Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas. Hence these are found
only in the Himalayan states of India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI) Program is the first-
ever scientific exercise that reports Snow leopard population of 718 individuals in India. It is released by
the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. Wildlife Institute of India (WII)is the National
Coordinator for this exercise and there are two conservation partners, the Nature Conservation
Foundation, Mysuru and WWF-India.
Based on Survey, the estimated population in different states are as follows: Ladakh (477), Uttarakhand
(124), Himachal Pradesh (51), Arunachal Pradesh (36), Sikkim (21), and Jammu and Kashmir (9).
Source: https://moef.gov.in/wp-content/uploads/2018/03/Project-Snow-Leopard-2008.pdf
Government of India releases the Status Reports of Snow Leopards in India | Wildlife Institute of India, an
Autonomous Institute of MoEF, Govt. of India (wii.gov.in)
About Snow Leopard | WWF India
https://wii.gov.in/status_snow_leopard_2024
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-first-snow-leopard-count-wildlife-conservation-
threats-9141070/

Q.18)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Soy sauce is a fermented sauce made from soybeans, wheat, and salt. The
fermentation process is carried out by bacteria and fungi, which convert the proteins and
carbohydrates in the soybeans and wheat into amino acids and other flavorful compounds. The main
bacteria involved in soy sauce fermentation are lactic acid bacteria (LAB). The main fungi involved in soy
sauce fermentation are koji mold (Aspergillus oryzae) and yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).
Statement 2 is correct: Chocolate relies on fungi to get its distinct flavor through a process called
fermentation. After the cacao beans are harvested from the cacao tree, they are fermented by yeasts and
bacteria. This fermentation process breaks down the complex sugars in the beans into simpler sugars,
which are then converted into acids and other flavor compounds.
Statement 3 is correct: Aspirin is a pain reliever that is used to treat headaches, fever, and inflammation.
Aspirin is produced from salicylic acid, which is derived from the fungus Fusarium telemorphum.
Statement 4 is correct. Specific fungal strains, such as Penicillium species, play a crucial role in cheese
ripening by enzymatically hydrolyzing milk proteins and fats. This controlled biodegradation fosters

[11]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
the development of characteristic textures, flavors, and rinds, transforming fresh curds into the diverse
array of cheeses we enjoy.
Source:
Secret fungi in everyday life | Kew
Salicylic Acid (Aspirin) - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf (nih.gov)
https://www.govtwomencollegeslm8.org/e_content/Botany/I%20B.Sc%20Chemistry%20-
%20Allied%20Botany/English/Unit%201/Economic%20impo%20fungi.pdf

Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) are a group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen,
chlorine, and fluorine. They are colorless, volatile liquids or gases with a faint ethereal odor.
Options 1, 2 and 4 are correct: HCFCs are non-flammable and have a low toxicity. They are also relatively
stable and do not react easily with other chemicals. HCFCs are less harmful to the ozone layer than CFCs,
but they still have some ozone-depleting potential. Under the Montreal Protocol, the production and
consumption of HCFCs is being phased out. HCFCs are used in a variety of applications, including:
1) Refrigerants in air conditioners and refrigerators
2) Foam blowing agents
3) Degreasing Solvents
4) Aerosol propellants
5) solvents
6) fire retardants
7) Cleaning agents
Option 3 is incorrect: The Hydrocarbons- propane and butane are used as Natural refrigerants and
they don't have Hydrochlorofluorocarbons. The most commonly used in natural refrigerants are
ammonia ( NH3), carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrocarbons (propane or isobutane). These substances were
used as refrigerants until the 1930s before fluorinated gases (f-gases) became more common in
refrigeration systems. Natural refrigerants make no or only a small contribution to global warming
compared with fluorinated refrigerants. Thus, Natural refrigerants do not contain HCFC.
Source: https://www.epa.gov/ghgemissions/overview-greenhouse-
gases#:~:text=Hydrofluorocarbons%20are%20used%20as%20refrigerants,in%20both%20vehicles%20an
d%20buildings.
Natural Refrigerants: Sustainable Refrigeration Options (gea.com)
Hydrocarbons | Natural refrigerants for lowering GWP | Danfoss

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The current account records a nation’s transactions with the rest of the world—specifically its net trade in
goods and services, its net earnings on cross-border investments, and its net transfer payments—over a
defined period of time, such as a year or a quarter.
Option 1 is correct: Medical tourism in India helps in earning foreign currency and is equivalent to
service export. It reduces current account deficit and promotes surplus.
Option 2 is correct: Exports lead to net income from abroad, so export promotion can help in
promoting current account surplus.

[12]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Option 3 is correct: At present many Indian students study abroad which lead to drain of forex. Making
India destination of higher education will not only check the outward movement of Indian students but
will also help in earning forex by attracting foreign students.
Option 4 is incorrect: Foreign Portfolio Investment forms a part of capital account. Therefore,
promotion of Foreign Portfolio Investments in India will not promote Current Account Surplus.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/finance/india-may-have-achieved-
current-account-surplus-say-experts/articleshow/100631435.cms?from=mdr
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/current-account-surplus.asp

Q.21)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
1) Payment banks emerged in India in 2014, on the basis of recommendations of Nachiket Mor
Committee. Payment banks are a differentiated banking model offering limited banking services. They
are governed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2) Payment banks are not permitted to undertake any lending activities, which means they cannot
provide loans or credit facilities to customers.
3) However, there is a special exemption made for lending to their own employees. The payment
banks are permitted to lend to their own employees. But the loans must be funded from banks' own
funds and not from customers' deposits.
4) Also, the Payment bank must have a formal policy approved by its board outlining the conditions and
limitations for employee loans.
Hence statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
Knowledge Base:
Key Features of Payment Banks:
1) Services offered: Savings accounts and current accounts, money transfer and remittance services,
Bill payments and mobile recharge, Issuing Debit cards and offering limited ATM access, mobile
banking facilities.
2) They cannot setup subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities.
3) They are required to invest minimum 75 per cent of its "demand deposit balances" in Statutory
Liquidity Ratio (SLR) eligible Government securities/treasury bills with maturity up to one year
4) They are required to hold maximum 25 per cent in current and time/fixed deposits with other
scheduled commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity management.
5) The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks is Rs. 100 cr.
Source:
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php/Payment_Banks#:~:text=Payments%20Banks%20are%20different
iated%20or,can%20it%20undertake%20lending%20business.
https://www.rbi.org.in/commonperson/English/scripts/Notification.aspx?Id=2281

Q.22)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does use Open Market Operations (OMOs) to
control inflation. OMOs allow the RBI to influence the money supply in the economy by selling and
buying government securities.

[13]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Statement II is incorrect: When the RBI sells government securities to banks or other institutions, it
essentially withdraws money from the system. This reduces the amount of reserves banks hold, limiting
their capacity to create new loans. With fewer loans being granted, the overall money supply in the
economy contracts.
When RBI buys G-secs, it injects extra money into the system. Therefore, when RBI buys the
government securities, the money supply in the economy may increase.
Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/o/openmarketoperations.asp

Q.23)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: The first Global Stocktake was a landmark event held at COP 28, in Dubai, UAE
in 2023. It aimed to comprehensively assess the collective progress of all countries party to the Paris
Agreement. This "progress" includes not just mitigation actions but also adaptation efforts. The
Stocktake utilized various data sources, including national reports, scientific assessments, and
independent reviews, to paint a holistic picture.
Statement-II is incorrect: Every five years, under the Paris Agreement, countries are required to
submit updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). These NDCs represent each
country's individual climate action plan. They outline specific targets and strategies for reducing
emissions and adapting to climate change. The five-year cycle ensures regular updates and reflects
evolving national circumstances and scientific understanding. The global stocktake can help member
countries in framing better NDCs.
Source: https://unfccc.int/topics/global-stocktake
https://unfccc.int/topics/global-stocktake/.

Q.24)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In economics, it is said that the level of savings equals the level of investment. Investment needs to be
financed from saving. If people save more, it enables the banks to lend more to firms for investment. An
economy where savings are very low means that the economy is choosing short term consumption over
long-term investment. To starve the economy of investment can lead to future bottlenecks and shortages.
A rise in aggregate savings would yield larger investments associated with higher GDP growth. As a
result, the high rates of savings increase the amount of capital and lead to higher economic growth in
the country.

Source:
https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/bs_viewcontent.aspx?Id=2486#:~:text=The%20results%20of%20Grang
er%20causality,coming%20from%20the%20household%20sector.

[14]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.25)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Town of Export Excellence (TEE) was launched by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to promote
exports from micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs). As of now, 43 towns have been recognized
as TEEs.
Pair 1 is correct: Ludhiana (Punjab) was identified as a TEE for Wollen knitwear in 2003. Ludhiana is
known for its woollen knitwear industry, producing a wide range of woollen garments such as sweaters,
shawls, and socks. The city's cold climate and historical expertise in textile manufacturing contribute to
its specialization in woollen knitwear.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Madurai (Tamil Nadu), was identified as a TEE in 2004 for Handloom products and
not for leather. The city produces a variety of handwoven textiles, including sarees, dhotis, and fabrics
with intricate designs and vibrant colours. Madurai's handloom products are renowned for their quality
and craftsmanship.
Pair 3 is correct: Jodhpur (Rajasthan), was identified as a TEE for Handicrafts in 2004. Jodhpur is
known for its rich cultural heritage and traditional handicrafts. The city's artisans specialize in crafting a
wide range of handicraft items such as wooden furniture, metalwork, pottery, and textiles. Jodhpur's
handicrafts are characterized by their intricate designs and vibrant colors, reflecting the region's cultural
diversity.
Pair 4 is correct: Bhilwara (Rajasthan), was chosen as a TEE for its Textiles products in 2009. It is a
major center for textile manufacturing in India. The city's textile industry is known for producing a
variety of fabrics, including cotton, synthetic, and blended textiles.
Knowledge Base:
Towns that manufacture goods worth Rs. 750 Crore or more are eligible for recognition as TEE,
highlighting their potential for export growth. However, for TEE recognition in the Handloom, Handicraft,
Agriculture, and Fisheries sectors, the threshold limit is Rs. 150 Crore.
Benefits for TEE:
1) They can avail financial assistance under Market Access initiative scheme.
2) Common service providers in TEE are entitles for Authorisation under Export promotion capital
goods scheme.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1795643
https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/urban-poverty-alleviation-1/schemes-urban-poverty-
alleviation/towns-of-
exportexcellence#:~:text=Towns%20producing%20goods%20of%20Rs,150%20Crore.

Q.26)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is an autonomous society functioning under the
overall aegis of the Union Ministry of Agriculture, Cooperation, and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of
India.
Statement a is correct: SFAC is implementing the central schemes of Government of India namely VCA
(Venture Capital Assistance), EGCGS(Equity Grant and Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme) for economic
inclusion of small and marginal farmers in agribusiness activities. Venture Capital Assistance is financial
support in the form of an interest free loan provided by SFAC to qualifying projects to meet shortfall in
the capital requirement for implementation of the project.

[15]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Statement b is correct: SFAC is a pioneer in organizing small and marginal farmers into Farmers Interest
Groups, Farmers Producers Organizations, and Farmers Producers Companies. This effort aims to
empower farmers with bargaining power and economies of scale. SFAC also enhances the accessibility
and affordability of agricultural inputs for small and marginal farmers, while establishing forward and
backward linkages in supply chain management.
Statement c is correct: The National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) was introduced in 2016 as an
electronic trading platform connecting existing Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee (APMC)
mandis across India. SFAC has been designated as an implementing agency for e-NAM, facilitating free
agricultural trade and providing price discovery to farmers.
Statement d is incorrect: Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is an Autonomous Society (not a
Multistate Co-operative Society) promoted by Ministry of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers’ Welfare,
Government of India. It was registered under Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860 on 18th January 1994
Source: http://sfacindia.com/Aboutus.aspx
http://sfacindia.com/RTI.aspx#:~:text=and%20Banks.%20Thereafter%2C-,SFAC,-
was%20registered%20as

Q.27)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In Indian economy as rupee appreciates imports become cheaper as the
importer needs to pay less rupees for the dollars billed.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In Indian economy as rupee appreciates, exports become less profitable,
because the exporter earns less rupees for exchanging dollar.
Statement 3 is correct. An appreciating rupee is bad for NRIs repatriating money home as the dollars
are now less valuable.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/dess/pdf/handbook_in_economics.pdf
https://sansad.in/getFile/loksabhaquestions/annex/6/AU2167.pdf?source=pqals

Q.28)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Assets are the items your company owns that can provide future economic benefit. Liabilities are what
you owe other parties.
The assets of the Issue Department shall consist of gold coin, gold bullion, foreign securities, rupee coin
and rupee securities to such aggregate amount as is not less than the total of the liabilities of the Issue
Department as hereinafter defined.
The liabilities of the Issue Department shall consist of notes issued i.e notes in circulation and notes
held in the banking department, deposits i.e deposits of central government, scheduled commercial
banks etc.
Source: https://rbi.org.in/scripts/publicationsView.aspx?id=15762

Q.29)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[16]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Horizontal tax devolution is the process of allocating the share of central taxes among the states based on
certain criteria or parameters. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the
formula and the weightage for these parameters.
The 15th Finance Commission has suggested the following parameters and weightage for horizontal tax
devolution for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26
Parameter Weightage (%)
Income distance 45
Population (2011) 15
Area 15
Forest and Ecology 10
Demographic Performance 12.5
Tax and Fiscal Efforts 2.5
The order of the parameters based on their weightage is:
Tax and Fiscal Efforts (2.5%) <Forest and Ecology (10%) <Demographic Performance (12.5%) <Population
(15%) <Income distance (45%)
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/finance/15th-finance-commission-
keeps-tax-devolution-to-states-at-42-suggests-fiscal-deficit-glide-path/articleshow/80629623.cms

Q.30)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Human capital consists of the knowledge, skills, and health that people invest in and accumulate
throughout their lives, enabling them to realize their potential as productive members of society.
Investing in people through nutrition, health care, quality education, jobs and skills helps develop human
capital.
Statement 1 is correct: Investment in education is widely recognized as a fundamental aspect of human
capital development. Parents send their children to foreign nations to acquire quality education with
the aim of increasing their future income potential. Education equips individuals with knowledge, skills,
and abilities that enhance their productivity and earning potential over time.
Statement 2 is correct: Health is another crucial component of human capital formation. An individual's
health directly impacts their ability to participate in economic activities. For instance, a healthy worker is
more productive, while a sick worker may be unable to work, leading to productivity losses. Therefore,
the Government provides free healthcare benefits to all, contributes to human capital development by
ensuring a healthy and productive workforce.
Statement 3 is correct: Migration in search of better economic opportunities is a form of investment
in human capital. People often move from rural to urban areas or migrate to other countries in pursuit
of higher-paying jobs. Although migration involves various costs, such as transportation expenses and
adjusting to a new environment, the potential for increased earnings in the new location outweighs these
costs. Therefore, individuals spending on travel expenditure to move to new places to earn more is
considered an investment on human capital formation.
Statement 4 is correct: A company training its employees to learn applications of Artificial Intelligence is
an investment on human capital as it helps the employees to acquire new skills.
Source: https://www.worldbank.org/en/publication/human-capital/brief/the-human-capital-project-
frequently-asked-questions#HCP2:~:text=invest%20in%20and-,accumulate,-
throughout%20their%20lives https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keec104.pdf

[17]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.31)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
India is a sovereign state, which implies that India is neither a ‘dependency’ nor a ‘dominion’ of any
other nation. The term ‘sovereign’ has been included in the Preamble of the Constitution of India.
Statement 1 is correct: The term sovereignty implies that there is no authority above it in matters
pertaining to both internal as well as external affairs. Being sovereign means that a state has the
authority to govern itself without interference from external powers. Internally, India has the authority
to make laws, establish institutions, and govern its people. Externally, India has the power to conduct
diplomatic relations, negotiate treaties, and participate in international organizations independently.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While having a Head of State elected by the people is an important aspect of
democracy, it is not directly related to the concept of sovereignty. Sovereignty pertains to the state's
authority and independence in decision-making rather than the specific mechanisms of governance such
as how the Head of State is chosen.
Statement 3 is correct: A sovereign state has the legal capacity to acquire foreign territory. As a
sovereign state, India possesses the inherent authority to expand its territorial boundaries through
legal means. Sovereignty, in its essence, denotes the supreme power and authority of a state to govern
itself without interference from external sources.
Statement 4 is correct: In the context of sovereignty, the statement "India can cede any part of its
territory to a foreign State" refers to the authority of a sovereign nation to voluntarily transfer control
or ownership of a portion of its territory to another state through legal agreements or treaties. Within
this framework, a sovereign state possesses the legal capacity to make decisions regarding its territorial
integrity and boundaries.
Statement 5 is incorrect: While the Constitution deriving its powers from the people is a fundamental
aspect of ‘democracy’, it does not directly explain the significance of India as a ‘sovereign’ State.
Sovereignty is more concerned with the State’s ultimate authority and autonomy in governing itself
rather than the specific source of its constitutional powers. Hence, the statement given is incorrect.
Source: M. Laxmikanth, Chapter 4 (Preamble of the Constitution)

Q.32)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The National Security Act (NSA) of 1980 deals with preventive detention of individuals. The Act
empowers the Central and the State Governments to make orders for detaining certain persons. The
orders for preventive detention can be made if someone poses a threat to India's defense, foreign
relations, or security. Also, preventive detention can be made if it's deemed necessary to regulate a
foreigner's stay in India or arrange for their expulsion.
Statement-I is correct: Section 13 of the NSA the maximum period for which a person can be detained
under preventive detention shall be 12 months from the date of detention. Also, the orders for
preventive detention must have been confirmed by the Advisory Board constituted under Section 9 of
this Act.
Statement-II is incorrect: Article 22 of the Constitution contains provisions pertaining to preventive
detention. It provides that no law can allow preventive detention of a person for more than 3 months
unless an Advisory Board has reported within three months that there is sufficient reason for the
detention. The Advisory Board shall be comprised of individuals who are currently or have previously

[18]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
served as High Court Judges or are eligible for such an appointment. However, the Parliament is
empowered to prescribe a longer period for preventive detention. Accordingly, the Parliament has
prescribed 12 months as the maximum preventive detention period under the NSA.
Source: https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-
08/ISdivII_NSAAct1980_20122018%5B1%5D.pdf
M. Laxmikanth, Chapter 7 (Fundamental Rights)

Q.33)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
1) Parliamentary democracy is a type of government where the party, or a group of parties, with the
most seats in Parliament forms the government, and their leader becomes the Prime Minister. The
Members of Parliament are chosen directly by the citizens.
2) Members of Parliament chosen by the Prime Minister form the cabinet and handle executive tasks.
Parties not in power act as the opposition, regularly challenging the majority.
3) The key principles of parliamentary democracy include the executive being accountable to the
legislature, which in turn is responsible to the voters.
4) Collective responsibility is fundamental in this system, with the government needing ongoing
support from Parliament. Therefore, government formation and legislative decision-making are
closely connected in this system.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/75118/1/Unit-16.pdf

Q.34)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act of 2023, also known as the Women’s
Reservation Bill of 2023, has been enacted to enable greater participation of women as public
representatives in policy-making at State and national levels. True empowerment of women requires
greater participation of women in the decision-making process as they bring different perspectives and
enrich the quality of legislative debates and decision-making.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act reserves 1/3rd of the total seats for women in the Lok Sabha,
Legislative Assembly of every State, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of
Delhi. It does not reserve seats for women in Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Councils of the States.
Hence, the statement given is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act seeks to provide reservation for a term of 15 years. However, it also
empowers the Parliament to further extend the reservation period through a legislative enactment.
Statement 3 is correct: The provision of reservation of seats for women is applicable not only for the
unreserved seats, but also on the reserved seats. Out of the total seats reserved for Scheduled Castes
(SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs), around 1/3rd of them shall also be reserved for women. Hence, the given
statement is correct.
Source:
https://prsindia.org/files/bills_acts/bills_parliament/2023/Constitution_(128th_Amendment)_Bill_2
023.pdf

[19]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.35)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The phrase "hold office during the pleasure of the President" indicates that the respective office bearers
serve at the discretion of the President of India, meaning they can be removed from their positions by the
President.
Option 1 is incorrect: As per Article 148, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is an independent
authority responsible for auditing the accounts of the Government of India and state governments. The
CAG is appointed by the President of India and holds office until they reach the age of 65 years, unless
they resign or are removed earlier. The CAG can only be removed in like manner and on like grounds as
a Judge of the Supreme Court. Therefore, the CAG does not hold office at the pleasure of the President.
Option 2 is incorrect: Article 324 deals with provisions related to the Chief Election Commissioner and
the Election Commissioners. The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed from his office except
in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Further, the other Election
Commissioner cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Hence, the given option is incorrect.
Option 3 is correct: Article 76 of the Constitution of India establishes the office of the Attorney General
of India. The Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country and the primary legal advisor to
the government. This Article also provides that the Attorney General shall hold office during the
pleasure of the President.
Option 4 is incorrect: Article 338A empowers the President to notify rules regarding the service
conditions of the members of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCST). The members of
NCST are appointed for a fixed tenure of 3 years. The Chairperson can only be removed from office by
the President for misconduct. This can happen after the Supreme Court, following a reference made by
the President, conducts an inquiry according to the procedure outlined in Article 145(1)(i) of the
Constitution and recommends the Chairperson's removal. Also, specific conditions have been provided
for the removal of the Chairperson of NCST, which are: a) he is adjudged an insolvent, b) engaged during
his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office, c) in the opinion of the
President, on unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. Hence, there are specific
conditions for his removal, and he does not hold office during the removal of the President.
Source: https://cag.gov.in/en/page-constitutional-provisions#:~:text=Sixth%20Schedule-
,Article%20148%20-%20Comptroller%20and%20Auditor-
General%20of%20India,Judge%20of%20the%20Supreme%20Court.
https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part15.pdf#:~:text=*%20Provided%20that%20the%20Chief%20E
lection%20Commissioner,varied%20to%20his%20disadvantage%20after%20his%20appointment:
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1985537/
https://ncst.nic.in/content/ncst-cp-vicecp-and-members-conditions-service-and-tenurerules-2004

Q.36)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 72 of the Constitution confers upon the President the authority to pardon individuals who have
been convicted of offenses under; Union Law, sentenced by a court martial, or given the death penalty.
Statement 1 is incorrect: While generally the exercise of pardoning power of the President is not
subject to judicial review. In Epuru Sudhakar V. Govt. of A.P.case SC has laid down grounds for judicial

[20]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
review under Article 72 and Article 161 i.e. arbitrary, irrational, mala fide (made in bad faith), or
discriminatory
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court examined the pardoning power of the President under
different cases and laid down the following principles like, the petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral
hearing by the President and the power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union
cabinet etc.
Statement 3 is correct: The principle of "res judicata" applies to pardon petitions. If a person's petition
for pardon has been rejected by the President, they cannot file another petition for the same offense.
Even if they file another petition, they cannot obtain a stay. This prevents repeated requests and
ensures finality in the decision-making process.
Knowledge Base:
Principles laid down by the Supreme court in various cases, regarding the pardoning power of the
President:
1) No Right to Oral Hearing: A person seeking a pardon (the petitioner) does not have the right to a
hearing before the President.
2) Independent Review of Evidence: The President can review the evidence in a case independently and
come to a different conclusion than the court.
3) No Obligation to Provide Reasons: The President is not required to provide reasons for their decision
to grant or deny a pardon
Source: M Laxmikanth- Indian polity, Chapter 17 President.

Q.37)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In case of self-executory fundamental rights, the rights have been enshrined in the constitution and the
Parliament does not require to pass any law to give effect to such rights. Most of the Fundamental rights
are self-executory in nature.
In case of non-self-executory fundamental rights, the makers have entrusted the parliament to give effect
to these rights in future. Article 17 (Abolition of untouchability), 21A (The right to education), 23
(Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour), 24 (prohibition of children in factories) are
example of non-self-executory rights.
Freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under article 19 (1)(a) is a self-executory right.
Source: M Laxmikanth

Q.38)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Marine Protected areas (MPAs) are designated regions in the ocean, seas, or
coastal areas where human activities are regulated to conserve and protect marine ecosystems and
biodiversity. These areas are established with the goal of safeguarding habitats, species, and ecological
processes within their boundaries. MPAs come in various forms, including marine reserves, marine parks,
marine sanctuaries, and marine conservation zones.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While some MPAs allow sustainable fishing and regulated tourism, not all do.
Some are strict "no-take" zones, prohibiting any extractive activities. Extractive activity is any action
that removes, or extracts, any resource. Extractive activities include fishing, hunting, logging, mining, and

[21]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
drilling. MPAs vary greatly in their regulations and activities permitted. While sustainable practices and
controlled tourism are increasingly incorporated, complete protection zones still exist.
Types of MPAs based on activity restrictions;
1) Strict "No-Take" Zones: These MPAs offer the highest level of protection, prohibiting all extractive
activities like fishing, mining, and resource extraction. They aim to conserve biodiversity and
ecological processes with minimal human interference. Examples: Great Barrier Reef Marine Park
(Australia), Apo Island Marine Reserve (Philippines).
2) Multiple-Use MPAs: These allow a diverse range of activities, but with regulations and restrictions in
place. They often aim to balance conservation with sustainable use practices. Examples: Channel
Islands National Marine Sanctuary (USA), Marine Protected Area Network in Belize.
3) Zoned MPAs: These divide the area into zones with different levels of restrictions. For example, a
core zone might be a "no-take" zone, while a buffer zone allows regulated fishing or tourism.
Examples: Ningaloo Marine Park (Australia), Marine Protected Area Network in Kenya.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India's first Marine National Park and first Marine wildlife sanctuary were
established in the Gulf of Kutch in 1980 and 1982 respectively.
Statement 4 is correct: India has recognized 12 protected areas as trans-boundary protected areas
within the framework of the IUCN Transboundary Protected Area program. Among these sites, two are
marine protected areas: Sundarbans National Park and Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve.
Source:
https://wii.gov.in/images/images/documents/GIZ/Reference.pdf
https://www.gujarattourism.com/saurashtra/jamnagar/marine-national-park.html
https://education.nationalgeographic.org/resource/importance-marine-protected-areas/

Q.39)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Article 244 within Part X of the Constitution outlines a unique administrative framework for designated
regions known as ‘Scheduled Areas’ and ‘Tribal Areas’. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution pertains to
the governance and supervision of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in all states except Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The administration of the tribal areas of these four states is dealt
under Schedule 6 of the Indian constitution.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The power to declare an area to be a scheduled area resides with
the President of India, not the Governor of the state.
The President also has the authority to modify (increase or decrease) the area, adjust its boundaries,
revoke its designation, or issue new orders for redesignation, in consultation with the respective state's
Governor.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor is required to submit a report to the President, not the Prime
Minister, regarding the administration of such areas. The report has to be submitted annually, or
whenever requested by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The power to decide whether any act of Parliament or the State legislature
will apply to the scheduled areas or not, or apply with specified modification and exceptions, lies with
the Governor of the state, not the President.
The Governor also has the authority to establish regulations for maintaining peace and ensuring good
governance in the scheduled area. This can be done after consulting the Tribal advisory council.
Hence none of the statements is correct.
Source: M Laxmikanth- Indian polity, Chapter 37- Scheduled and Tribal areas.

[22]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.40)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The original 1961 Maternity act, did not have specific provisions for adopting
mothers. The provisions of Maternity Benefit amendment Act, 2017 regarding paid maternity leave:
1) Biological mothers: 26 weeks for the first two childbirths, and 12 weeks for each subsequent child.
2) Adoptive mothers: 12 weeks for adopting a child below 3 months old
3) Surrogate mothers (commissioning mothers): 12 weeks from the date the child is handed over
Statement 2 is correct: Article 15(3) of the Indian Constitution empowers the state to make special
provisions for women and children. While Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination based on various grounds
including sex, Article 15(3) carves out an exception. It allows the state to enact special
provisions specifically for the benefit of women. This is based on the recognition that historical and
social factors create disadvantages for women, requiring affirmative action to achieve true equality
Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
Source: https://labour.gov.in/sites/default/files/the_maternity_benefit_act_1961_0.pdf
M Laxmikant- Indian Polity, Chapter 7- Fundamental rights

Q.41)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Option a is incorrect. The social and economic status of shudras improved during this period.They
were now allowed to listen to the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Puranas. They could also perform
some domestic rituals that were earlier prohibited for them and could now even worship a new god
called Krishna. From the 7th century onwards, they were generally represented as agriculturists.
Option b is correct. The castes proliferated into numerous sub-castes in Gupta period due to primarily
two reasons 1. Assimilation of large number of foreigners and 2. Absorption of Tribal Communities into
Brahminical Society.
Option c is incorrect. The number of untouchables especially chandelas increased enormously. A
distinction was made between Shudras and untouchables, the latter being treated lower in status than
the Shudras. The practice of untouchability intensified (especially hatred for chandalas). The Chinese
traveler Fa-Hien mentions in his memoirs that the chandalas lived outside the village and had to maintain
distance from the upper castes. The chandalas suffered such glaring lack of privilege that whenever they
entered towns or market places they would strike a piece of wood to announce their arrival, so that the
others might not touch them and get polluted.
Option d is incorrect. During the Gupta period, significant shifts occurred in the societal structure. The
dominance of the Brahmins not only persisted but also strengthened, as evidenced by the substantial
land grants they received from rulers. In exchange for this patronage, Brahmins presented the Gupta
kings as possessing divine attributes legitimizing their authority and status.
Knowledge Base: Buddhism no longer received royal patronage, and its glory as in the days of Maurya’s
and Kushanas was nowhere to be found. The Gupta rulers gave patronage to Bhagvatism, which was
centred around the worship of Bhagvat or Vishnu and his incarnations.
Source: Old NCERT-RS Sharma – page 142, 143

Q.42)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

[23]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
The Mansabdari system was a key administrative and military structure implemented during the Mughal
Empire, particularly under the reign of Emperor Akbar. It aimed to organize and centralize the
administrative and military functions of the empire.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Mashrut Jagirs was given on certain conditions like increase of sawar rank for
a short period. It was watan jagir that was given to mansabdar in his hometown. Jagirs allotted to
mansabdar were of several types. Some of which were-
1) Tankha Jagirs were given in lieu of salaries,
2) Watan Jagirs were assigned to Zamindar or rajas in their local dominions. (Under Jahangir some
Muslim nobles ware given jagirs resembling to watan jagir called al-tamgha.)
3) 3.Inam jagir- jagirs which involved no obligation of service and were independent of rank were called
Inam jagirs.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Mansabdar rank comprised two components: Zat and Sawar. Zat
determined the number of soldiers allotted to each Mansabdar, ranging from 10 to 10,000, while Sawar
denoted the number of horses under their command.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Jahangir introduced du-aspah sih-aspah system to mansabdari whereas Shah
Jahan introduced the month-ratio or month-scale system. The term du-aspah sih-aspah literally means
trooper with two or three horses. Under this system, selected nobles could be allowed to maintain a large
quota of soldiers, without making any change in their Jat rank. It implied that a mansabdar or noble
holding du-aspah sih-aspah rank had to maintain double the quota of troopers indicated by his sawar
rank.
Source: TNSCERT Volume II-Page 37,38,
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20234/1/Unit-15.pdf

Q.43)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Paumacariyam is a Jaina version of Ramayana. It is written in Prakrit. Vimalasuri, the author of
Paumacariyam, dates the text 530 years after the death of Mahavira. Some scholars date it slightly later to
the early centuries CE. It was used to propagate Jaina ethics. The story as claimed by Vimalasuri is the
same one as told by Mahavira to Indrabhuti, which was then narrated by the latter to his disciples. The
story is also called Raghavacarita and it is sometimes also called puranam akhyanam. Thus the genre is
similar to the Brahmanical one. However, the narrative and the intention are different.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/84168/3/Unit-3.pdf

Q.44)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Option a is correct: Kashida is the general term used to signify Kashmiri embroidery. It originally
started with the darn stitch (darning stitch is about making rows of straight running stitches near each
other) used by darners to finish a shawl. It is a simple running stitch which gives a woven effect on a
shawl.
Kashmir embroidery is done on different base materials, like wool, cotton, and silk. Wool is obtained
from the animals found at high altitudes in different parts of the state, such as the Ibex from Eastern
Ladhak, the Goat of Angora from Tibet and Camel of Bokhara.
Kashida is a very fine variety of embroidery done exclusively by hand. It includes ari work, needle work,
sozni work and Jamavar. Kashida embroidery is executed on the base of cream coloured cotton, woollen

[24]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
or silk background. The embroidery designs resembles nature, such as sprays of flowering shrubs, birds,
cypress trees and cones.
Option b is incorrect: Chikankari is a traditional embroidery style from Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh..
Embroidery was done on white cotton. Jahangir supported the growth of Chikankari by establishing
numerous workshops. The patronage and support has extended the knowledge of the embroidery
throughout modern-day India
Option c is incorrect: Phulkari embroidery is being practised in the region of Punjab and it is the rural
handmade embroidery tradition of Punjab, hence also known as the folk embroidery of Punjab. It is
executed on the base of coarse cotton cloth known as khaddar. Traditionally, Phulkari was embroidered
by women using their own hands but now, the Phulkaris are embroidered using machines and modern
techniques and materials.
Option d is incorrect: Kantha is a form of embroidery often practised by rural women of Bengal region
particularly in West Bengal, Tripura and Odisha. The traditional form of Kantha embroidery was done
with soft dhotis and sarees, with a simple running stitch along the edges.
Source:
https://homescience10.ac.in/storage/pages/ecurriculum/Bsc_FD_Sem_4/Kashida%20of%20kashmir.
pdf
https://www.theheritagelab.in/chikankari-embroidery/#:~:text=executed%20by%20women.-
,Jahangir,-supported%20the%20growth
https://www.caleidoscope.in/art-culture/phulkari-embroidery-
punjab#:~:text=are%20embroidered%20using-,machines,-and%20modern%20techniques

Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect. The Raja Krishna Deva of the Kakatiya dynasty, with Warangal as his capital, initiated
the construction of Golkonda Fort on a granite hill. Later, during 1495–1496, Sultan Kali Kutub Khan
reconstructed and renamed the mud fort into a granite fort, calling the place Muhammed Nagar.
Amuktamalyada was authored by Krishnadevraya of Vijayanagar empire.
Pair 2 is correct. Akbar commissioned the construction of the fortified city of Fatehpur Sikri in Uttar
Pradesh, which served as his capital for a short period and is renowned for its architectural splendor,
including the Buland Darwaza and the Jama Masjid.
Pair 3 is correct. Alauddin Khilji introduced the system of dagh (branding) and huliyah (description) and
cash payment to soldiers. This was meant to strengthen his control over the army.
Pair 4 is correct. Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty founded the Vikramshila monastery near Bhagalpur in
Bihar, and like Nalanda university, it also attracted students from all parts of India and from Tibet. Many
Sanskrit texts were translated into tibetan language at this monastery. The most celebrated name
associated with the Vikramshila University was that of the Buddhist scholar Dipankara(called Atisa), who
was greatly respected in Tibet.
Source: TNSCERT Volume II, Old NCERT-RS Sharma

Q.46)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The correct chronological order of the construction of above temple along with other relevant details are
as follows:

[25]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
2- Dashavatar temple: Dashavatar temple of the Gupta period, dedicated to Lord Vishnu, is the earliest
known Panchayatan Temple in north India. The figures of Ganga and Yamuna adorn the carved doorway
leading to the sanctum sanctorum. The large carved panels along the side walls depict scenes from
Vaishnava mythology. It was constructed in around early 6th century.
4- Brihadeeshwara Temple: Brihadeeshwara Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva located in
Thanjavur in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It is also known as Periya Kovil, RajaRajeswara Temple and
Rajarajesvaram. Built by emperor Raja Raja Chola I and completed in 1010 AD (11th century).
3- Hoysaleshwara Temple: The Hoysaleshwara Temple poised on a star-shaped base is a twin-shrined
temple and is perhaps the largest Shiva temple built by the Hoysalas. It is also referred to as Halebidu
temple and was constructed in the 12th century.
1-Konark Sun Temple: The Konark Sun Temple was build in around 1240 (13th century). It is located in
Odisha on the shores of Bay of Bengal. The shikhara of the temple was an immense structure reportedly
reaching a height of 70 meters. However, its considerable weight proved too much for the site, leading to
its collapse in the nineteenth century. The expansive compound is situated within a quadrilateral
precinct, and the jagamohana, or dance pavilion (mandapa), is the only part that remains. Although
currently inaccessible, it is reputed to be the most extensive enclosed space in Hindu architecture.
Source: Class XI, Introduction to Indian Arts, Ch-6 (Temple Architecture and Sculpture)
https://thanjavur.info/thanjavur-tourism/brihadeeswarar-temple-thanjavur/
https://uptourism.gov.in/en/post/Dashavatar-Temple-Deogarh

Q.47)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Rummindei Pillar Edicts, also known as the Lumbini Pillar Inscription, is one of the Minor Pillar
Edicts of Ashoka, the third emperor of the Mauryan Empire. It is located in Lumbini, Nepal, the birthplace
of the Buddha. The edict records Ashoka’s visit to Lumbini in the 20th year of his reign, and his
personal offerings and reverence at the spot. It also declares Lumbini as a tax-free zone and a place of
pilgrimage for Buddhists. The edict is written in Brahmi script and Prakrit language.
Knowledge Base:
1) The Kalinga Edicts were a series of Major rock edicts issued by Emperor Ashoka after his conquest of
the Kalinga region (modern-day Odisha) around 260 BCE. These edicts offer valuable insights into
Ashoka's transformation from a ruthless conqueror to a champion of peace and Dhamma.
2) Mansehra Rock Edicts are major edicts found in Mansehra district, Khyber Pakhtunkhwa,
Pakistan. It focused on Dhamma principles and moral instructions for the public, emphasizing
truthfulness, non-violence, and respect for elders.
3) The Sannati Rock Edicts are major rock inscriptions found in Sannati, Karnataka, India. They
contain Ashoka's proclamations promoting Dhamma (Buddhist teachings) and the welfare of his
subjects.
Source: Nitin Singhania- INDIAN ARCHITECTURE, SCULPTURE AND POTTERY

Q.48)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Ghiyas ud din Balban was the ninth Sultan of the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi. He ruled from 1266 to 1287 CE.
He was a capable and efficient administrator and a strong military leader. He is best known for his policy
of "Blood and Iron", which he used to suppress internal rebellions and external threats.

[26]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
His reign (1266-1287 CE) witnessed significant internal rebellions and external threats, particularly from
Mongol invasions. To consolidate his power and maintain order, Balban adopted a harsh and ruthless
approach, relying on force and intimidation. This included severe punishments like public executions,
mutilation, and mass killings, along with a strong spy network and military to suppress dissent. This
policy earned him the association with the "Blood and Iron" approach.
Source: https://tripurauniv.ac.in/Content/pdf/StudyMaterialsDetail/BA%202nd%20Semester/BA-
2ND(History)-History%20of%20India%20(1207-1757%20AD).pdf
https://hpuniv.ac.in/hpuniv/upload/uploadfiles/files/M_A_%20History%20%20Sem_II%2C%20C-
%20222.pdf

Q.49)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Tagavi or Takavi or Taqavi loans were a type of agricultural loans that were given by the state to the
peasants during medieval India.
Agricultural loans during medieval India
1) The first instance of the state's involvement in extending credit to agriculture was during the rule of
Ala-ud-Din Khalji (1296- 1316) in the first half of the 14th century when loans were advanced against
the surplus produce of farmers.
2) During the reign of Muhammad Tughluq (1325-51), another instance of state involvement in
agriculture was observed when loans were advanced to farmers to encourage cultivation. A few years
later, the emperor constituted a whole body of officials assigned to allow advances (termed sondhar)
to the farmers of the Delhi-Doab region.
3) This practice continued through the Mughal era (16th and 18th century) when the administration
issued instructions to its revenue officials to allow advances termed as taccavi (meaning bestowing
strength) to the peasantry. These advances were to be made from the treasury to help farmers buy
seeds and cattle.
Source: https://www.cgdev.org/blog/takavi-lending-mughal-empire
https://www.britannica.com/topic/taccavi
Cover Page.cdr (nabard.org)

Q.50)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Gandhi-Nehru-Das pact was an agreement signed in 1924 between Mahatma Gandhi, Motilal
Nehru, and Chittaranjan Das, the leaders of the Indian National Congress. The pact aimed to resolve the
differences between the ‘no-changers’ and the ‘pro-changers’ factions within the Congress. The ‘no-
changers’ wanted to continue the non-cooperation movement and boycott the British institutions, while
the ‘pro-changers’ wanted to enter the legislative councils and work for reforms from within.
The pact stipulated that the Congress would accept the Swarajists, the group of pro-changers led by Das
and Nehru, as its representatives in the councils. In return, the Swarajists agreed to abide by the
Congress discipline and support the constructive programme of Gandhi, which included spinning khadi,
promoting Hindu-Muslim unity, and eradicating untouchability.. The Gandhi-Nehru-Das pact was seen
as a compromise that preserved the unity of the Congress and the national movement.
Source: https://www.inc.in/brief-history-of-congress/1915-1925
https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/congress-foundation-day-9084918/
https://www.heritagetimes.in/deshbandhu-chittaranjan-das-who-solved-the-communal-problem-in-
bengal/

[27]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.51)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN) mission aims to enhance the
socio-economic status of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) by addressing gaps in health,
education, and livelihoods. This involves improving basic infrastructure in PVTG communities,
habitations, and families, aligning with existing schemes of nine Ministries/Departments.
Statement 1 is correct: The Mission's unique feature lies in inter-ministerial convergence, where 9
Government of India Ministries collaborate for the welfare of vulnerable tribal communities. The Union
Ministry of Tribal Affairs has been designated as Nodal Ministry for this mission. Each Ministry
covered under the mission, oversees the implementation of its schemes, contributing to the overall
wellbeing of tribals.
Statement 2 is correct: PM-JANMAN aims to uplift the socio-economic conditions of all 75 Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) by ensuring basic facilities and services reach their families and
habitations. As per the 2011 census, there are 75 PVTG communities spread across 18 States and the Union
territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Statement 3 is correct: The mission focuses on providing essential infrastructure like roads and mobile
connectivity, electricity, Anganwadi facilities, and improving education and health access in PVTG
habitations. It also emphasizes skill development, vocational training, and income generation to enhance
the livelihoods of PVTGs and improve their overall quality of life.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The funds for the 11 interventions come from the Development Action Plan
for Scheduled Tribes (DAPST) grants of respective Ministries/Departments under their identified
schemes within the mission. Thus, there is no provision for setting up dedicated fund under NABARD.
Source: https://adiprasaran.tribal.gov.in/pm-janman/janman_Download/PM-JANMAN-
Operational%20Guidelines.pdf

Q.52)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) develops as microbes like bacteria, viruses, and fungi undergo changes
over time, leading them to become unresponsive to antimicrobial medications.
This phenomenon renders infections more challenging to treat, heightening the likelihood of disease
transmission, severe illness, and fatalities. To combat this health problem,
Statement 1 is correct: Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and antiparasitic –
are medicines used to prevent and treat infectious diseases in humans, animals and plants.
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites no longer respond to
antimicrobial medicines. As a result of drug resistance, antibiotics and other antimicrobial medicines
become ineffective and infections become difficult or impossible to treat, increasing the risk of disease
spread, severe illness, disability and death.
Statement 2 is correct: However, bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics as a natural, adaptive
reaction. Antibiotic- resistant bacteria can then spread from the treated patient to other persons and
they can therefore carry antibiotic- resistant bacteria.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s NAP-AMR aims to prevent the transmission of resistant bacteria
through infection prevention and control, optimized use of antibiotics in all sectors, and
enhanced investments for AMR activities, research and innovations. However, it does not aim to achieve
zero transmission of drug resistant bacteria by 2030.

[28]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Knowledge Base: The National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) outlines interventions,
activities, and outcomes under specific objectives in key focus areas. Each activity is assigned a
timeline—short term (S) for achievements within one-year, medium term (M) for 1-3 years, and long
term (L) for 3-5 years.
Source: https://cdn.who.int/media/docs/default-source/antimicrobial-resistance/amr-spc-
npm/nap-library/national-action-plan-on-amr-(india).pdf?sfvrsn=9f396e90_1&download=true
https://www.who.int/publications/m/item/comprehensive-review-of-the-who-global-action-plan-
on-antimicrobial-resistance-evaluation-brief-september-
2021#:~:text=The%20Global%20Action%20Plan%20on,to%20develop%20national%20action%20plans.
https://www.businesstoday.in/latest/world/story/drug-resistant-bacteria-linked-to-indian-
eyedrops-can-spread-person-to-person-report-375925-2023-04-03

Q.53)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Nanofibers provide great opportunities for creating products with new properties via various physical
and chemical modifications during or following the production process. They present promising solutions
to address fundamental challenges across a range of fields including energy, environmental sustainability,
and medical treatments.

Statement 1 is correct: Nanofibers represent one-dimensional nanomaterials with diameters ranging

from tens to hundreds of nanometers. These structures possess distinct characteristics, including a high
surface area-to-volume ratio, interconnected nano porosity, and efficient mass transport properties,
making them valuable for various applications.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to its nanoscale dimension, nanofiber naturally has a high surface area-to-
volume ratio. The surface area to volume ratio increases as the radius of the nanofiber decreases. This
quality is highly desirable in applications like sensors and affinity membranes where a large surface
area is desired
Statement 3 is correct: The biodegradable nature of natural nanofibers makes them an ideal choice for
delivering drugs within the human body. This is especially evident in natural polymers, which, due to
their biodegradability, biocompatibility, and low toxicity, stand out as ideal choices for specific
biomedical applications including drug delivery.
Source: https://atira.in/diving-into-nanofibers-guide/
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC10477438/#:~:text=natural%20and%20synthetic-
,polymers,-can%20be%20explored
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[29]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.54)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Every car is equipped with two fundamental safety mechanisms designed to protect occupants both
before and after an accident. The pre-accident safety system comprises features such as traction control,
anti-lock braking systems, and electronic stability control, while the post-accident safety system includes
seatbelts and airbags.
Statement 1 is correct: The Anti-Lock Braking System (ABS) functions through a series of processes:
1) Wheel speed sensors located on each wheel monitor their individual speeds. and the electronic
control unit (ECU) interprets signals from these sensors.
2) If a drastic reduction in speed is detected in any wheel, the ECU signals the respective wheel's
valves to decrease brake pressure, closing the valves.
3) Subsequently, as the wheels regain acceleration, the ECU instructs the valves to reopen, increasing
brake pressure and applying brakes.
4) This cycle repeats until brake application returns to normal.
This prevents wheel lock-up during hard braking, ensuring the vehicle slows down without losing grip.
This allows the driver to maintain control and make steering adjustments, helping to avoid accidents.
Statement 2 is correct: Seat belts utilize a retracting mechanism (retracting means drawing back)
consisting of a spool connected to a spring-loaded device. When the webbing is pulled out, the spool
moves counterclockwise, turning the spring in the same direction and retracting back. The retractor is
designed to have a locking mechanism that holds the spool from rotating back when pulled with force,
mimicking a collision.
This retractor mechanism stops you from being violently thrown forward and instantly pulls you back,
stopping you from hitting the dashboard or the headrest in case you are sitting in the back.
Statement 3 is correct: Airbags rely on a chemical compound called sodium azide for inflation. Upon
detecting structural deformation, sensors trigger an electrical signal to ignite a small amount of igniter
compound within the canister containing sodium azide. This ignition produces heat, causing sodium
azide to decompose rapidly, generating nitrogen gas, which inflates the airbags, thereby providing
protection.
Source: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/the-science-of-seatbelts-and-airbags-in-your-
cars-cyrus-mistry-road-accident-death-1997446-2022-09-07
https://www.financialexpress.com/what-is/anti-lock-braking-system-meaning/1767273/

Q.55)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Recently, Scientists at Raman Research Institute (RRI) have designed a new image-correction algorithm
that can enhance the study of ultracold atoms. RRI is an autonomous institute of the Department of
Science and Technology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
Statement-I is correct: An ultracold atom refers to an atom cooled to temperatures close to absolute
zero, which corresponds to –273 degrees Celsius and –460 degrees Fahrenheit. At such temperatures,
the atoms exhibit quantum properties, which are behaviours governed by the principles of quantum
mechanics.
Statement-II is correct and explains the Statement-I: At extremely low temperatures approaching
absolute zero, atoms adhere to the rules of quantum mechanics instead of classical physics. This
explains why an ultracold atom (cooled down to absolute zero temperature) exhibits quantum properties.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2002915

[30]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.56)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Formic acid, also known as methanoic acid, is a simple carboxylic acid with the chemical formula HCOOH.
It is found naturally in certain plants and insects, including ants.
Statement 1 is correct: Formic acid is an irritant that can cause pain and irritation. The pinch from an
ant's mandibles also contributes to the pain and irritation. When an ant bites, it injects formic acid
into the skin. Formic acid is an irritant that can cause pain and irritation. The pinch from an ant's
mandibles also contributes to the pain and irritation.
Statement 2 is correct: The pain and irritation caused by ant bite can be neutralized or alleviated by
using substances like moist baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) or calamine solution, which contains zinc
carbonate. Baking soda is alkaline, so it can help neutralise the acidic effects of formic acid. Calamine
solution contains zinc carbonate, which has soothing and drying properties. It helps to relieve itching,
irritation, and inflammation associated with insect bites and stings, including ant stings.
But statement 2 is not the reason why an ant bite causes pain and irritation. It is only a remedy to pain
and irritation caused by ant bites. The reason why ant bites cause pain and irritation is it injects formic
acid, which is an irritant.
Source: Class VII: Science; chapter- Acids, Bases and Salts https://www.mountsinai.org/health-
library/poison/bee-poison

Q.57)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
An ejecta halo refers to a luminous patch observed on the lunar surface, formed as a result of an object
colliding with the Moon's surface. For instance, during the landing of the Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-
3 on the Moon, this collision led to the occurrence of a lunar phenomenon known as an 'ejecta halo'.
The ISRO scientists have calculated that approximately 2.06 tonnes of lunar Epi regolith were ejected and
displaced across an area of 108.4 m² around the landing site of the Vikram lander. Epi regolith constitutes
the upper layer of the lunar surface, consisting of lunar rocks and soil, commonly referred to as moon
dust.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/chandrayaan-3-vikram-ejecta-halo-
on-lunar-surface-9004228/

Q.58)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In recent years, the Government has implemented various policy measures to promote the indigenous
design, development, and manufacturing of defence equipment. These initiatives include prioritizing
procuring capital items from domestic sources through Défense Acquisition Procedure (DAP)-20 and
establishing Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs) within the country.
Options 1 and 3 are correct: In the 2018-19 budget, the government announced the creation of two
defence industrial corridors (DICs) to develop a holistic defence manufacturing ecosystem in the country.
One corridor spans Uttar Pradesh, encompassing six nodes: Aligarh, Agra, Jhansi, Kanpur, Chitrakoot,
and Lucknow. The second corridor is located in Tamil Nadu, comprising five nodes: Chennai, Hosur,
Coimbatore, Salem, and Tiruchirappalli.

[31]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Options 2 and 4 are incorrect: The Government has so far established only two defence corridors in
India. Furthermore, the Union Minister of State for Defence stated in Parliament that there are no plans
to create any additional defence industrial corridors in the country.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/current-affairs/no-proposal-to-establish-new-
defence-industrial-corridor-in-country-govt-123032401165_1.html
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1913309

Q.59)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Asbestos is a fibrous material which can be turned into ropes, cloth and sometimes found in corrugated
roofs. It was valued for its remarkable properties: insulation, fire resistance and resistance to corrosion.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Asbestos is a naturally occurring mineral in rock and soil. It has been mined
and used for thousands of years, making it common in both natural and man-made environments. When
asbestos is released into the air, it becomes harmful if ingested or inhaled.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Asbestos is resistant to heat, electricity, and corrosion, which led to its
widespread use in military, construction, and other industries. Thus, not a good conductor of heat and
electricity. Companies utilized asbestos in various products such as building materials, insulation,
fireproofing materials, and brakes due to its durability against heat, electricity, and corrosion. Its
inclusion in materials like cloth, paper, cement, and plastic made them heat-resistant and stronger.
Statement 3 is correct: Inhaling asbestos fibers can lead to their entrapment in the lungs, causing
scarring and inflammation over time. This can result in breathing difficulties and serious health issues.
According to the American Public Health Association, around 255,000 people worldwide die annually
from asbestos-related diseases, including mesothelioma, lung cancer, laryngeal cancer, ovarian cancer,
pharyngeal cancer, stomach cancer, and colorectal cancer. Thus, Asbestos is a potential carcinogenic
substance.
Statement 4 is correct: Asbestos mining was banned in India in 1993 when the government stopped
reissuing licenses. Despite this ban, India remains the largest importer of asbestos globally. In 2021,
India accounted for 44% of global asbestos imports, primarily sourcing from Russia and Brazil.
Chrysotile (a type of asbestos) is still legally utilized in India, particularly in roofing sheets, insulation, and
brake linings, all of which are imported. Although nearly 70 countries have banned asbestos due to its
detrimental effects, countries such as India, China, and the USA have yet to enforce a comprehensive
ban on its usage.
Source: https://www.asbestos.com/asbestos/
https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/story/asbestos-natural-environment-how-safe-are-we
https://enb.iisd.org/articles/rotterdam-convention
http://ibasecretariat.org/alpha_ban_list.php
https://www.theguardian.com/global-development/2022/dec/19/we-are-all-exposed-to-it-the-
human-face-of-indias-asbestos-
timebomb#:~:text=India%20banned%20asbestos%20mining%20in,mineral%20than%20any%20other%2
0country.

Q.60)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[32]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
In recent years, India has witnessed significant progress in scientific advancements, particularly in fields
such as Space science, digital initiatives, transport and communication technologies etc. Following are
some of the notable achievements of India.
Statement 1 is correct: National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) has set up to provide the country with
supercomputing infrastructure to meet the increasing computational demands of academia, researchers,
MSMEs, and startups. It is a first of its kind attempt to boost the country’s computing power. National
Super Computing Mission is steered jointly by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and
Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced
Computing (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
Statement 2 is correct: The state-of-the-art PARAM Shakti supercomputing system is a supercomputing
facility established at IIT Kharagpur under build approach of NSM with a peak computing power of 1.66
Petaflops. PARAM Shakti is designed and commissioned by C-DAC to cater to the computational needs of
IIT Kharagpur and nearby Research, Engineering and scientific institutes of the region. The system is built
with the latest cutting-edge hardware and software technologies. As part of the NSM Phase 1
Deployment, PARAM Shakti HPC System with a peak performance of 1.66PF has been installed at IIT
Kharagpur.
PARAM Shivay is the supercomputer of 837 TFLOPS capacity, built at the cost of Rs 32.5 crore under the
National Super Computing Mission at Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Banaras Hindu University
(BHU).
Source: https://dst.gov.in/national-super-computing-mission
https://nsmindia.in/node/155
https://nsmindia.in/node/156

Q.61)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Operation Kaveri was a rescue operation launched by the Indian
government on April 24, 2023, to evacuate Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Sudan. The
operation is a response to the crisis in Sudan that began on April 15, 2023. The operation was led by the
Indian Armed Forces and the Ministry of External Affairs.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Operation Ajay was a rescue operation by the Indian government,
following the Hamas attack on Israel. India evacuated 1,309 Indian Nationals from Israel under Operation
Ajay in six special flights.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Operation Ganga was an evacuation mission carried out by the Indian
government to rescue its citizens stranded in neighboring countries of Ukraine, following the Russia –
Ukraine conflict.
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1920783#:~:text='Operation%20Kaveri'%20is%20
a%20rescue,to%20the%20crisis%20in%20Sudan
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1802675
https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=India-has-evacuated-1%2C309-Indian-Nationals-from-Israel-
under-Operation-Ajay%3A-Dr-S-Jaishankar&id=472763#:~:text=%40sansad_tv-
,India%20has%20evacuated%201%2C309%20Indian%20Nationals%20from%20Israel%20under%20Opera
tion,Indian%20national%20from%20Gaza%20Strip.

[33]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.62)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The atmosphere of the Earth comprises five major and several secondary layers. The major layers of the
atmosphere are the troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere.

Statement a is correct: The troposphere, where most of the weather-related phenomena occur, is the
densest layer of the atmosphere. As one goes higher, the air becomes less dense. The troposphere is the
lowest part of the atmosphere. The weight of air above compresses it, making the troposphere the
densest layer. It also contains 99% of the atmosphere's water vapor and aerosols, adding to its density.
The troposphere extends from the Earth's surface up to an average altitude of about 12 kilometers (7.5
miles).
Statement b is correct: The stratosphere extends from about 12 kilometers (7.5 miles) to 50 kilometers
(31 miles) above the Earth's surface. It is characterized by its relatively stable and dry air, as well as the
presence of the ozone layer, which absorbs and blocks most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.
Commercial jet aircraft typically fly within the lower stratosphere because it offers less turbulence
and smoother flying conditions. The maximum height that commercial flights generally allowed to reach
is 42,000 feet (12.8 km). Hence, the given statement is correct.
Statement c is incorrect: The mesosphere is not the hottest but rather one of the coldest layers of the
Earth's atmosphere. As altitude increases within the mesosphere, temperatures drop significantly,
reaching an average of about minus 85 degrees Celsius (minus 120 degrees Fahrenheit) at its upper
boundary. This extreme cold makes the mesosphere the coldest region within Earth's atmospheric
system.
Statement d is correct: The thermosphere extends from about 80 kilometers (50 miles) to 700
kilometers (440 miles) above the Earth's surface. It is characterized by increasing temperatures with
altitude due to the absorption of solar radiation. The International Space Station (ISS) orbits within the
thermosphere, typically at altitudes ranging from about 420 kilometers (260 miles) to 460 kilometers (290
miles) above the Earth's surface. Hence, the given statement is correct.
Source: https://climate.nasa.gov/news/2919/earths-atmosphere-a-multi-layered-
cake/#:~:text=Earth's%20atmosphere%20has%20five%20major,Troposphere.

Q.63)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

[34]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Black soil is also called ‘regur soil’ or ‘black cotton soil’. It is dark grey to black in color and mostly found
in the peninsular regions in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, western Andhra Pradesh, southern Tamil
Nadu, and northern Karnataka.
Statement 1 is correct: Black is considered the most suitable for the cultivation of Cotton crop. Black soil
is generally called black Cotton soil for this reason.
Statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of Statement II: Montmorillonite and beidellitic
are the types of clay mineral commonly found in black soils. It possesses several properties that
contribute to soil fertility. Montmorillonite clay particles have high water retention capacity, helping soil
retain moisture essential for Cotten plant growth. Hence, the given statement is correct.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/vocational/pdf/kegr105.pdf
https://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/jess101.pdf
https://www.britannica.com/science/montmorillonite
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/materials-
science/montmorillonite#:~:text=Montmorillonite%20(MMT)%20is%20a%20natural,13%E2%80%935).

Q.64)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct: Ocean acidification, driven primarily by the absorption of carbon dioxide from
the atmosphere, leads to a decrease in the pH of oceanwater. This rise in acidity interferes with the
ability of marine organisms, such as oysters and corals, to form their hard shells made of calcium
carbonate (CaCO3). The decreased pH reduces the availability of carbonate ions (CO32-), which are
essential building blocks for calcium carbonate. Without an adequate supply of carbonate ions, these
organisms struggle to produce their protective shells.
Statement-II is correct: Ocean acidification increases the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in
oceanwater. This is because the more carbon dioxide dissolves, leads to the formation of carbonic acid
(H2CO3). This subsequently dissociates into hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions. As ocean acidification
increases, available carbonate ions (CO32-) bond with excess hydrogen, resulting in fewer carbonate
ions available for calcifying organisms to build and maintain their shells, skeletons, and other calcium
carbonate structures, Therefore, Statement-II provides the necessary understanding why increasing
ocean acidity impedes the ability of organisms like oysters and corals to form hard shells, making it the
correct reason for Statement-I.
Source: https://www.noaa.gov/education/resource-collections/ocean-coasts/ocean-
acidification#:~:text=Impacts%20of%20ocean%20acidification%20on%20shell%20builders&text=Howev
er%2C%20as%20ocean%20acidification%20increases,and%20other%20calcium%20carbonate%20struct
ures.

Q.65)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Seismic waves generated by earthquakes provide critical insights into the structure and dynamics of the
Earth's interior. These waves can be broadly categorized into two main types: body waves and surface
waves. Body waves propagate through the Earth's interior, penetrating deep into its layers. There are
two primary types of body waves: P-waves (primary waves) and S-waves (secondary waves). Surface
waves, on the other hand, travel along the Earth's surface and are responsible for much of the damage
observed during earthquakes. Surface waves include Love waves and Rayleigh waves.

[35]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Statement 1 is correct: P-waves, or primary waves, are compressional waves that travel through solids,
liquids, and gaseous mediums. The particles in the material vibrate parallel to the direction of wave
propagation, compressing and expanding the material as they move. This parallel propagation creates
density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material.

Statement 2 is correct: S-waves are also called secondary waves. The direction of vibration of S-waves is
perpendicular to the wave direction. S-waves cannot travel through liquids or gaseous mediums. They
can travel only through solid mediums. On the other hand, P-waves can travel through all three
mediums.
Statement 3 is correct: The ‘shadow zone’ for a wave implies a region from where that particular wave
cannot pass. When seismic waves encounter boundaries between different layers of the Earth's interior,
they undergo refraction and reflection, leading to the formation of specific zones known as shadow
zones. For S-waves, there is a larger shadow zone than the P-waves. Seismographs within 105° from the
epicenter detect both P and S-waves, while beyond 145°, only P-waves are recorded. This creates a
shadow zone between 105° and 145° where neither wave type is detected. The shadow zone of S-waves is
notably larger than that of P-waves, covering over 40% of the Earth's surface, while the shadow zone of
P-waves appears as a band between 105° and 145° from the epicenter.

Source: https://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy203.pdf

Q.66)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
India has a vast solar resource, with about 300 clear and sunny days in a year and an estimated solar
potential of 748 GW. India has set a target of achieving 500 GW of installed capacity from non-fossil fuels
by 2030, of which solar energy is expected to contribute 300 GW.
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the International Renewable Energy Agency’s (IRENA) Renewable
capacity statistics 2023, India ranks fourth globally for installed renewable energy capacity in 2023. India
also ranks fourth globally for wind power capacity and fifth for solar power capacity.

[36]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Statement 2 is incorrect: The majority of India’s solar energy capacity comes from Ground Mounted
Solar power plants. As of September 2023, the total installed solar capacity was about 71.79 GW. Of this,
only about 11.08 GW came from the grid connected solar rooftop. Ground Mounted Solar power plants
account for more than 55 GW of installed solar power capacity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Rajasthan has the highest installed solar power capacity among the Indian
states. Of the total installed solar capacity, Rajasthan contributes 17, 839 MW and Gujarat contributes
10,133 MW. Uttar Pradesh contributes 2,526 MW solar Capacity.
Source: https://www.irena.org/Publications/2023/Mar/Renewable-capacity-statistics-2023
https://www.investindia.gov.in/sector/renewable-energy
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1992732

Q.67)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution deals with the President's power to consult the Supreme Court.
Statement a is correct: Article 143 (1) of the Constitution says, “If at any time it appears to the President
that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of public importance that it is
expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for
consideration”. So, the President can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on a question of law of
public importance that is likely to arise in the future.
Statement b is correct: The duties of the Attorney General of India shall be:
1) To appear on behalf of the Government of India in all cases in the Supreme Court in which the
Government of India is concerned.
2) To represent the Government of India in any reference made by the president to the Supreme
Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
3) To appear (when required by the Government of India) in any high court in any case in which the
Government of India is concerned.
Statement c is correct: Under Article 143, the Supreme Court's response to the President's reference is
an advisory opinion. It's not a formal judicial pronouncement like a judgment in a regular case. It serves
as expert legal advice, but the President retains the final decision-making authority.
Statement d is incorrect: The Constitution (Article 143) authorizes the president to seek the opinion of
the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:
(a) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen, or which is likely to arise.
(b) On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement or
other similar instruments.
In the first case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the president. But,
in the second case (on any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant,

[37]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
engagement or other similar instruments), the Supreme Court ‘must’ tender its opinion to the
President.
Source: Laxmikanth

Q.68)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: In a landmark judgment (Common Cause v. Union of India & Anr.) delivered on
9th March, 2018, the Supreme Court of India held that a person in persistent vegetative state can opt
for passive euthanasia, and that a person can execute a living will to refuse medical treatment in case
of a terminal illness. In response to the apprehensions of misuse of advance directives (or living wills),
such as those expressed by the Law Commission of India in its 241st Report, the court also issued
comprehensive guidelines on the procedure for execution of an advance directive as well as for giving
effect to passive euthanasia. The guidelines (recently modified in 2023) will remain in force until
Parliament enacts legislation on the subject.
Statement II is correct and is the correct explanation of Statement I: In the Common Cause judgement
in 2018, the Supreme Court held that the right to die with dignity is an intrinsic facet of the right to
life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Article 21 comprehends dignity as its essential
foundation and hence, each individual must have the right to decide whether or not to accept medical
intervention in case of terminal illness. The right to live with dignity includes autonomy in relation to
the process of dying and choosing to not undergo pain and suffering. Such interpretation is in
consonance with Article 1 of UDHR that defines a dignified life and Articles 6, 7, 17, and 18 of ICCPR that
broaden the conceptualization of the right to a dignified life.
Source: Forum IAS Current Affairs classes by Dipin Sir
https://www.scobserver.in/journal/supreme-court-review-2023-right-to-
life/#:~:text=On%2024%20January%202023%2C%20a,the%20remainder%20of%20their%20life.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/sc-allows-living-will-for-passive-euthanasia-
recognises-right-to-die-with-dignity/story-xkMj8MAcnddS2AJUogjzcL.html
https://ohrh.law.ox.ac.uk/right-to-die-with-dignity-a-fundamental-right-indian-supreme-court-
allows-passive-euthanasia-and-living-
wills/#:~:text=Society)%20v.,case%20of%20a%20terminal%20illness.

Q.69)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
mRNA vaccines and traditional vaccines are both effective tools for preventing infectious diseases, but
they differ in their mechanisms of action, composition, and potential impacts.
Option a is incorrect: mRNA vaccines do not contain any virus, but only a piece of genetic material that
instructs the cells to make certain proteins to fight against specific pathogens. Traditional vaccines
contain a weakened or inactivated form of the virus, or a part of it, to trigger the immune system.
Option b is incorrect: mRNA vaccines have a shorter shelf life compared to traditional vaccines,
primarily due to their instability at higher temperatures. Current mRNA vaccines require extremely cold
storage temperatures (often around -70°C) to maintain their stability and effectiveness.
Option c is incorrect: mRNA vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity and may require more doses or
boosters than traditional vaccines, because they may not elicit a strong and durable memory response

[38]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
from the immune system. Traditional vaccines, especially live vaccines, can provide lifelong protection
against some diseases, such as measles and chickenpox.
Option d is correct: mRNA vaccines can activate both types of immune responses, cellular and humoral
immunity, while traditional vaccines may only stimulate one type, depending on the vaccine. This may
give mRNA vaccines an advantage over traditional vaccines in terms of protection and prevention of
transmission. Cellular immunity is the ability of the immune system to recognize and destroy infected
cells, while humoral immunity is the ability of the immune system to produce antibodies that neutralize
the virus in the blood and other fluids.
Knowledge Base:

Source: https://www.vumc.org/viiii/infographics/how-does-mrna-vaccine-compare-traditional-
vaccine
https://medlineplus.gov/genetics/understanding/therapy/mrnavaccines/#:~:text=Most%20vaccines
%20contain%20a%20weakened,is%20necessary%20for%20protein%20production.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8195316/
https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/mrna-vaccine-vs-traditional-vaccine
https://www.news-medical.net/health/What-are-the-Different-Types-of-Vaccines.aspx

Q.70)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
1) The Diverse Epigenetic Epidemiology Partnership (DEEP) is a partnership of 20 research groups
from around the world that aims to improve global health by exploring the effects of genomic and
environmental diversity on disease risk across the global population.
2) DEEP study researchers are interested in studying the differences in disease mechanism and disease
risk prediction that are associated with DNA methylation. DNA methylation refers to modifications
to DNA which help in turning genes on or off (transcription). The DEEP study ultimately aims to
identify disease mechanisms and drug targets that work for all.
3) Recently, CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) is collaborating with 20 research
groups across the world on a ground-breaking integrated genomics and epigenomics study. It aims to
understand the genetics behind Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) in diverse populations,
including South Asians. It is a five-year international project.
Option a is incorrect: Explore the potential of artificial intelligence in the healthcare sector: the DEEP
project may use new technologies like artificial intelligence and big data analytics in the processing of
health data, but it's not the main focus of DEEP.

[39]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Option b is incorrect: Collect and preserve the genetics of vulnerable tribal populations and endangered
animals: DEEP is specifically focused on understanding disease risk in humans, not on genetic
preservation efforts.
Option d is incorrect: Sequence 10,000 genomes of Indians to better understand the link between
genetics and disease outbreaks: While DEEP studies genetics and disease, its goal is broader than just
sequencing a specific number of genomes in a particular population or solely focusing on outbreaks.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/csir-ccmb-study-to-understand-
genetics-behind-diseases/article67412977.ece
https://www.deep-epigenetics.org/

Q.71)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Due to the fragmentation of land holdings and the absence of organization, Indian producers face
challenges in attaining the full value of their produce and advancing. To address these issues, NABARD
has created a dedicated fund called the "Producers Organization Development Fund" (PODF). This fund
aims to address the issues of timely credit availability, enhance the capacity of producers, strengthen
Producer Organizations, and foster market connections.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Producers Organisation Development Fund (PODF) is initiated by the
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), not the Department of Agriculture
and Farmer Welfare. NABARD established the PODF in 2011 with an initial corpus of Rs. 50 crores to cater
to the specific needs of producers.
Statement 2 is correct: Producers Organization Development Fund (PODF) will be used to support
Producers Organizations across three levers, viz. credit support, capacity building & market linkage.
Following are the credit support options provided under PODF for market linkages
1) Creating retail units similar to rural haat and rural mart.
2) Establishing marketing infrastructure for selling their produce.
3) Assisting in marketing connections between buyers and Producer Organizations.
4) Forming alliances between Producer Organizations and user companies or retail chains to improve
market connections.
5) Encouraging collaboration with government schemes and departments to develop essential
infrastructure facilities whenever feasible.
Statement 3 is correct: The Producers Organisation Development Fund (PODF) is designed to aid
producers' organizations through various financial assistance. This support comes in various forms,
including direct loans for term purposes, composite loans that address both working capital and term
loan requirements, and working capital loans provided as part of composite loans.
Source: https://www.nabard.org/auth/writereaddata/File/eligible-activities.pdf
https://agritech.tnau.ac.in/banking/pdf/Financing%20and%20supporting%20Producer%20Organisatio
ns.pdf

Q.72)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governor recently launched UPI Lite X, a new feature that will allow users
to send and receive money while being completely offline.

[40]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Statement 1 is correct: UPI Lite X enables users to carry out transactions even without an internet
connection, such as in underground stations or remote areas. This feature works on devices with Near
Field Communication (NFC) support. NFC allows wireless data transmission over short distances using
radio waves, thus requiring both sender and receiver to be situated in proximity. On the other hand, UPI
lite feature works just like normal UPI, thus it requires internet connectivity of transactions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UPI Lite is a feature where users can make small-value payments instantly
without needing a UPI PIN. It transfers funds from the sender's on-device wallet directly to the
recipient's bank account. In contrast, UPI Lite X utilizes NFC to transfer money between on-device
wallets (of sender and receiver), bypassing bank accounts altogether.
Source: https://bfsi.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/fintech/explained-what-is-upi-lite-x-and-
how-is-it-different-from-upi-
lite/103577131#:~:text=They%20can%20now%20send%20or,in%20locations%20with%20no%20connecti
vity https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/save/upi-lite-x-launched-how-it-is-different-
from-upi-upi-lite/articleshow/103509173.cms?from=mdr

Q.73)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced new norms based on the Basel III capital framework for
All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs), which will take effect from 1st April 2024.
Options a and b are incorrect: The new norms mandates AIFIs to maintain a minimum total capital of 9
per cent by April 2024. This includes a minimum tier-I capital of 7 percent and common equity tier-I
(CET-1) capital of 5.5 percent. This may create a short-term liquidity crunch in the economy, potentially
leading to decreased credit flow to the economy and increased interest rate in the economy. Hence,
increased credit flow to the public and decrease in the prevailing interest rate in the economy are not
the most likely consequences of the above action by the RBI.
Option c is correct: The recently introduced regulations by the RBI impose restrictions on AIFIs
regarding their investments in capital instruments of banking, financial, and insurance entities.
Additionally, these norms require AIFIs to enhance their Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR),
which serves as a buffer against significant financial crises in a country. Therefore, the implementation of
these new regulations by the RBI is most likely to contribute to the overall enhancement of a nation's
financial stability.
Option d is incorrect: The Basel III framework aims to improve risk management and financial stability,
potentially leading to improved creditworthiness for AIFIs. Therefore, decreased credit rating of AIFIs
is not the likely consequence of implementing newly announced norms to AIFI by the RBI.
Knowledge Base:
There are five AIFIs regulated by the RBI in India: Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank), National
Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
Development (NaBFID), National Housing Bank (NHB), and Small Industries Development Bank of India
(SIDBI).
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/rbi-introduces-basel-iii-capital-
framework-for-all-india-financial-institutions/article67331511.ece
https://bfsi.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/policy/rbi-issues-new-prudential-regulations-for-
all-india-financial-institutions/103903855

[41]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.74)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Public Account of India is where the government functions essentially as a banker, managing
transactions but not owning the funds. This fund, established under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution,
handles transactions where the government acts as a mere custodian of money, not the owner.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect: According to Article 266(1), Consolidated Fund of India comprises all
revenues received by the Government of India as well as all loans acquired through the issuance of
treasury bills, loans, or ways and means advances, and all repayments received by the Government on
loans. Therefore, money received by the Government of India from the sale of treasury bills and the
operation of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Options 3 and 4 are correct: Article 266(2) stipulates that all public funds, excluding those designated for
the Consolidated Fund and Contingency Fund of India, received by or on behalf of the Government of
India, must be credited to the Public Account of India. These funds are not owned by the government and
must be repaid to their rightful owners eventually. As money received by the government from people's
investments in the Small Savings scheme and Public Provident Fund (PPF) does not belong to the
government, therefore, it is categorized under the Public Account of India.
Source: http://yojana.gov.in/public-account.asp
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/public-account
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/consolidated-fund

Q.75)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct: The Supreme Court, in the D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal case, established
specific guidelines to be followed during arrests. The D K Basu guidelines issued by the Court required
police personnels to follow certain guidelines while making arrests. For instance, the guidelines
mandate the police personnel carrying out the arrest and handling the interrogation of the arrestee
should bear accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with their designations. The
particulars of all such police personnel who handle interrogation of the arrestee must be recorded in a
register.
Statement-II is incorrect: Article 20 of the Constitution deals with the protection in respect of
conviction for offences. It says:
1) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the
commission of the act charged as an offence.
2) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
3) No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Correct explanation for statement I:
1) Article 20 does not exclusively empower Supreme Court to issue guidelines to safeguard interest
of arrested persons.
2) Article 22 of the Indian Constitution deals with the safeguards provided to the arrested persons.
3) Supreme Court liberally interpreted and applied the provisions of Article 22 and Article 21 (Right
to Live with Dignity) while issuing the D.K. Basu guidelines.
Knowledge Base:

[42]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Difference between Arrest and Conviction: An arrest occurs when law enforcement takes someone into
custody, believing they have committed a crime or are about to commit one. A conviction signifies that a
court has found the individual guilty of the crime beyond a reasonable doubt.
Source:
https://barnala.punjabpolice.gov.in/d-k-basu-case-
guidelines/#:~:text=A%20person%20who%20has%20been,has%20been%20arrested%20and%20is
https://www.alec.co.in/judgement-page/dk-basu-v-state-of-west-
bengal#:~:text=Fundamental%20Rights%20under-,Article,-21%20and%20only

Q.76)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Stefan-Boltzmann law, a key principle in physics, describes how an object's temperature affects the
radiation it releases. This law states that objects above absolute zero (0 Kelvin or -273°C or -459°F) emit
radiation proportionate to the fourth power of their absolute temperature.
Statement-I is correct: When an object becomes sufficiently hot, it emits radiation that is visible as light.
Both the sun and Earth's surface act as blackbodies, absorbing and emitting all radiation with 100 percent
efficiency. The sun, with its average surface temperature of about 6,000K (5,727°C or 10,340°F), emits
radiation with shorter wavelengths due to faster molecular vibrations. This results in most of the sun's
radiation falling in the visible region of the spectrum. In contrast, the cooler Earth, with an average
surface temperature of 288K (15°C or 59°F), emits radiation with longer wavelengths, primarily in the
infrared region of the spectrum.
Statement-II is correct but does not explain the Statement-I: The Sun is a huge, glowing sphere of hot
gas. Most of this gas is hydrogen and helium. Carbon, nitrogen and oxygen make up major part of earths
atmosphere. Earth's atmosphere is composed of about 78 percent nitrogen, 21 percent oxygen, 0.9
percent argon, and 0.1 percent other gases. However, this does not explain why the Sun emits visible light
radiation and Earth emits infrared radiation. The Sun and the Earth emit radiation in different spectrum
mainly due to their different temperature.
Source: https://www.ces.fau.edu/nasa/module-2/correlation-between-temperature-and-
radiation.php

Q.77)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act,2024, was passed recently by the Parliament.
The act seeks to prevent use of unfair means in public examinations and defines several offences in
relation to public examinations.
Statement 1 is correct: The aim of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act 2024 is to
curb unfair practices in public examinations. These exams are conducted by authorities listed in the
Act's Schedule or designated by the Central government and do not cover examinations held by the
State governments.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The act does not include the board exams conducted by the CBSE. According
to the act, the Public examinations refer to examinations conducted by authorities specified under the
Schedule to the Bill, or notified by the central government. These include: (i) Union Public Service
Commission, (ii) Staff Selection Commission, (iii) Railway Recruitment Board, (iv) National Testing Agency,

[43]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
(v) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection, and (vi) Departments of the central government and their
attached offices for recruitment.
Statement 3 is correct: All offenses under the act are cognizable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable.
However, no action will be considered an offense if it can be proven that the accused exercised due
diligence. Investigations under the Act will be conducted by an officer not below the rank of Deputy
Superintendent or Assistant Commissioner of Police.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Act empowers the central government to transfer the investigation to any
existing central investigating agency. Thus, no new dedicated investigating agency was created under the
act.
Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-public-examinations-prevention-of-unfair-means-bill-2024
https://prsindia.org/files/bills_acts/acts_parliament/2024/The_Public_Examinations_(Prevention_o
f_Unfair_Means)_Act,_2024.pdf

Q.78)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: No alliance among Germany, France, Belgium, Italy, and Greece was formed to
mitigate migration issues due to ongoing conflict in West Asian nations.
Option b is incorrect: The World Health Organization (WHO) was notified by the International Health
Regulations National Focal Point (IHR NFP) of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern
Ireland (United Kingdom) about a human case of swine-origin influenza A(H1N2) virus infection. So far,
cases of influenza A(H1N2) among humans have been reported in European countries Austria, Denmark,
France, and the Netherlands but not in Greece, Italy and Germany. Human infections have primarily
occurred through direct contact with infected animals or contaminated environments.
Option c is incorrect: A coalition of European nations, spearheaded by Latvia and Britain, is establishing
a ‘Drone Coalition’ to supply and facilitate the production of thousands of drones for the Ukrainian
military. Denmark, Estonia, Germany, Lithuania, the Netherlands, Sweden, and Ukraine have signed a
letter of intent alongside Latvia to participate in this drone coalition. However, they are not formed by
Greece, Germany, France, Italy, and the Netherlands.
Option d is correct: The farming sector in the European Union currently contributes to 11% of the total
greenhouse gas emissions. To address this, the E.U. is revamping its Common Agricultural Policy, which
provides nearly $60 billion in subsidies each year. These new policies aim to align with the European
green deal's goal of achieving climate neutrality by 2050. They require farmers to set aside at least 4%
of their land for non-productive purposes, adopt crop rotation practices, and cut down on fertilizer
use by at least 20%. However, many farmers fear that these measures will make European agriculture
less competitive against imports. This concern, combined with dissatisfaction over national agricultural
policies, has led to recent protests by farmers in countries like France, Belgium, Greece, Germany,
Italy, and the Netherlands.
Source: https://time.com/6632372/farmer-protests-europe-france-germany-brussels/
https://www.who.int/emergencies/disease-outbreak-news/item/2023-DON496
https://www.defensenews.com/global/europe/2024/02/15/european-coalition-to-rush-first-person-
view-drones-to-ukraine/

Q.79)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[44]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Biodiversity encompasses the range of life forms within a specific area. It comprises three main types:
genetic diversity, species diversity, and ecological diversity.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Genetic diversity refers to the variety of genotypes (not phenotype) within a
population, encompassing the range of inherited traits. In genetics, a phenotype is a set of observable
traits or characteristics of an organism.
Statement 2 is correct: Species diversity represents the diversity of living organisms within a specific
area encompassing the multitude of different species within a given area or ecosystem.
Statement 3 is correct: Ecosystem diversity encompasses the variety of habitats, the communities
inhabiting a particular geographic location, the beneficial functions they offer, and the underlying
processes sustaining the ecosystem. It refers to different types of ecosystems with its unique
combinations of living organisms and physical environments like grasslands, desert, mangroves etc
Source: Forum IAS red book -Pg no 41
https://neprimateconservancy.org/biodiversity-ecosystem-diversity/

Q.80)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Indian Constitutional provisions on election-related matters acts as the cornerstone for the democratic
functioning of the country. These provisions are enshrined in Part XV (Articles 324-329) of the Indian
Constitution.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 326 of the Constitution deals with elections to the House of the People
and State Legislative Assemblies based on adult suffrage. It specifies that every Indian citizen who is at
least 18 years old on the date determined by the legislature is eligible to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 328 mentions that the State Legislature can enact laws related to
elections to its Houses, including the preparation of electoral rolls, provided such laws do not conflict
with the Constitution or with laws passed by Parliament.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The supreme court in the Vishwanath Pratap Singh Versus Election
Commission of India (2022), has clearly declared that the right to contest elections is neither a
fundamental nor a Constitutional right in India. It is a right conferred only by a statue. While the
Constitution guarantees the right to vote, it does not provide for the right to contest elections.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Article 329 states that no election to either House of Parliament or to the
House or either House of the Legislature of a State shall be called in question except by an election
petition presented to such authority and in such manner as may be provided for by or under any law
made by the appropriate Legislature. Hence the disputes related to parliamentary election cannot
challenged in the Supreme Court and it can be done only based on manner as prescribed by the
appropriate legislature.
Source: https://www.constitutionofindia.net/parts/part-xv/

[45]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
https://main.sci.gov.in/supremecourt/2022/21689/21689_2022_7_54_38065_Order_09-Sep-
2022.pdf
https://main.sci.gov.in/supremecourt/2022/21689/21689_2022_7_54_38065_Order_09-Sep-
2022.pdf#:~:text=Right%20to%20contest%20an%20election%20is%20neither,constitutional%20right%2
0%E2%80%94%20a%20right%20originating%20in

Q.81)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Rani Chennamma, also known as Kittur Chennamma, was the Queen of the princely
state of Kittur in Karnataka. She led the Kittur Revolt of 1824. She became the Queen of Kittur (now in
Karnataka) upon her marriage to Raja Mallasarja of the Desai family. In 1824, she fought a war to protect
Kittur's control. Angry with the British's Doctrine of Lapse policy, which ignored her adopted son's right
to rule Kittur, she bravely battled the British. She initially won the battle, which led to the death of John
Thackeray from the British East India Company. Thackeray initially launched and had led the battle for
the East India Company. However, the British army again attacked the Kittur Fort and captured it. She
was imprisoned and jailed at the fort in Bailhongal, where she died in 1829. Thus, she led one of the
earliest woman-led anti-colonial struggles.
Option b is incorrect: Abbakka Rani, also known as Abbakka Mahadevi, was a prominent historical figure
from Karnataka. She was one of the earliest freedom fighters in India, resisting Portuguese colonization
in the 16th century. Born in Ullal near Mangalore, she displayed remarkable military prowess and
strategic acumen. Despite facing imprisonment, her legacy endures as a symbol of courage and resilience.
Option c is incorrect: Rani Velu Nachiyar, also known as Veeramangai, was amongst the first queen to
resist British colonial rule in India. Born into royalty as the princess of Ramanathapuram, she received
extensive training in warfare, martial arts, and languages. After her husband's death at the hands of
British soldiers, she led a rebellion against the British alongside the Marudhu Brothers. Following an
agreement with the Nawab of Arcot, she returned to Sivaganga to rule, granting authority to the Marudu
brothers. Rani Velu Nachiyar's legacy as a courageous freedom fighter endures, as she passed away on
December 25, 1796.
Option d is incorrect: Rani Gaidinliu, born on January 26, 1915, in present-day Tamenglong district of
Manipur. She was a prominent Naga spiritual and political leader belonging to the Rongmei tribe.
Joining the Heraka movement at 13, she aimed to revive the Naga tribal religion and establish self-rule,
opposing British colonialism in Manipur, Nagaland, and Assam. Despite being arrested at 16 and
sentenced to life imprisonment by the British, she continued her activism upon release in 1947, earning
recognition from Jawaharlal Nehru as the "daughter of the hills" and being bestowed the title of 'Rani' for
her courage.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/research/rani-chennamma-the-queen-of-kittur-who-led-
an-armed-rebellion-against-the-british-9170865/
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/kittur-to-host-national-launch-of-i-too-am-
rani-chennamma-campaign-on-february-21/article67842116.ece
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=148944#:~:text=Chennamma%20was%20born%20in
%20Kakati,son%20who%20died%20in%201824.
https://ignca.gov.in/abbakka-rani-the-unsung-warrior-queen/
https://sivaganga.nic.in/tourism/eminent-personalities/
https://amritmahotsav.nic.in/unsung-heroes-detail.htm?56

[46]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.82)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Painted Grey Ware (PGW) is a pottery tradition that is grey in color and
decorated with black designs. This type of pottery was first discovered at Ahichhatra (Bareilly district)
during the excavations in 1940. The earliest dates of this pottery are reported from Atranjikheda and
Noh, which are 11th century BCE and 9th century BCE respectively. This tradition is mostly confined to
Uttar Pradesh, Northern Rajasthan and east-northern India. Noh in Rajasthan is one of the important
sites of this pottery tradition.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Sanauli, tehsil Barot, district Baghpat, U.P. is under excavation by the ASI
since September 2005. Subsequently, ASI identified the site as a prominent cemetery site of late
Harappan period (early 2nd millennium B.C.). The excavations have so far brought to light 125 burials all in
north-south orientation; most of them are primary burials. Evidence for secondary and multiple burials
have also been noted. In some burials, animal’s bones are also found next to the human bones.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Isampur is a Paleolithic site located in the Gulbarga district of Karnataka.
Isampur is one of the earliest Lower Palaeolithic (Acheulian) sites in the Indian subcontinent. Isampur
offers a unique glimpse into the entire toolmaking process. Archaeologists have found evidence of all
stages, from quarrying the raw material (limestone) to finished and discarded tools.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Neolithic site of Burzahom, located in the Srinagar district of India,
reveals shifts in human habitation from the Neolithic to the Megalithic and early Historic periods. In
Burzahom (modern-day Kashmir), individuals constructed pit-houses, excavated into the ground with
accessible steps, possibly serving as shelter during cold weather.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/64787/1/Unit10.pdf
https://www.gujarattourism.com/kutch-zone/kutch/surkotada-indus-valley-civilization.html
https://anthro.du.ac.in/e-
resources2020/mks/Excavation%20of%20an%20Acheulian%20workshop%20at%20Isampur.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/fess103.pdf

Q.83)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct: By the late 1600s, the EIC had effectively removed competition from Portuguese
and Dutch traders in the Indian Ocean region. Through a combination of military victories, diplomatic
negotiations, and economic strategies, the EIC gained dominance over trade routes and markets
previously controlled by the Portuguese and Dutch.
The EIC's victory over the Portuguese
1) In 1612, Captain Thomas Best achieved victory over the Portuguese in the waters off Surat.
Impressed by this success, Mughal emperor Jahangir granted permission to the English in early 1613
to establish a factory at Surat, with Thomas Aldworth taking charge.
2) Bombay was presented to King Charles II as part of the dowry from the King of Portugal during his
marriage to Princess Catherine in 1662. In 1668, Bombay was transferred to the East India Company,
and an annual payment of only ten pounds was agreed upon.
The EIC's victory over the Dutch:
1) In the 17th century, the English and Dutch clashed over Eastern trade due to conflicting
commercial interests. The pinnacle of their enmity occurred at Amboyna in 1623, where a massacre
intensified their rivalry. After prolonged warfare, a compromise in 1667 led to the British withdrawing

[47]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
claims in Indonesia, and the Dutch retired from India to concentrate on their more profitable trade
in Indonesia.
Thus by 17th century, the English were rid of two arch-rivals in India.
Statement-II is incorrect: While the EIC did engage in manufacturing and trade, its dominance was not
primarily based on producing superior products at cheaper prices. Factors such as military power,
political alliances, control over key ports and trade routes, and favorable trade agreements with local
rulers played significant roles in the company's success.
Source: Spectrum’s A Brief History of Modern India

Q.84)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The term defection means a situation when a member of a political party leaves his party and joins hands
with other parties. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of
India through the Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act of 1985. This Schedule was subsequently
amended through the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act of 2003.
Statement-I is correct: The 91st Amendment Act provided that a member disqualified under the
provisions of the 10th Schedule shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political position.
S/he cannot hold remunerative political position during the period from the time of disqualification until
the end of the term in office or, if contesting an election, until declared elected, whichever happens first.
Remunerative political position shall mean:
1) Any office under the Government of India or the State Government where the salary or
remuneration for such office is paid out of the public revenue of the Government of India or the
Government of the State.
2) Any office under a body which is wholly or partially owned by the Government of India or the
Government of a State and the salary or remuneration for such office is paid by such body.
Statement-II is correct: The Y.B. Chavan Committee was among one of the first committees to look into
the problem of defections in India. The Committee had submitted its report in 1969. It's important
recommendations were:
1) No person who was not a member of the lower House should be appointed as Minister/Chief
Minister.
2) It also recommended that the defector should be debarred for one year or till such time he resigned
his seat and got re-elected, from appointment to the office of a Minister, Speaker, Deputy Speaker,
or any post carrying salary and allowances to be paid from the Consolidated Fund of the Union or the
States or the funds of the Government Undertakings.
Although, both the given statements are correct, Statement-II is not a correct explanation for
Statement-I. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 was not directly based on the
recommendations of the Y.B. Chavan Committee of 1969. In fact, the recommendations of the
Committee could never be implemented as The Constitution (Thirty-second Amendment) Bill, 1973 could
not be passed. This is because of dissolution of the Fifth Lok Sabha on 18 January 1977. The 91st
Amendment was based on the recommendations of the Standing Committee on Home Affairs.
Source:
https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Reference_Notes/English/15072022_111659_1021205175.pd
f
https://www.india.gov.in/sites/upload_files/npi/files/amend91.pdf

[48]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.85)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct: Republic Day is celebrated in India on the 26th of January each year. Republic
Day marks the adoption of India's constitution and the country's transition to a republic on January 26,
1950. The Constitution gave the citizens of India the power to choose their own government and paved
the way for democracy. Adoption of the constitution indicated, the supreme power is held by the people
and their elected representatives, with an elected president in India.
January 26 was specifically chosen because it is on this day ‘Purna Swaraj’ Day was celebrated in 1930
after the Indian National Congress’s Resolution at the Lahore session in 1929.
Statement-II is incorrect: The Constituent Assembly adopted the Objective Resolution on January 22,
1947. The resolution was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946. The resolution provided
the guiding principles and philosophy for the Constitution of India. It later became the Preamble to the
Constitution of India..
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1749614

Q.86)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Rare Earth Elements (REE) are a group of 17 elements starting with lanthanum in the periodic table of
elements and include scandium and yttrium. While they exist in moderate amounts in the Earth's crust,
they are not concentrated sufficiently to be economically viable for exploitation. REEs are
characterized by high density, high melting point, high conductivity, and high thermal conductance.
Statement-I is correct: India has 5th largest reserves of REE in the world. It accounts for 6% of the
world’s reserves of the REE. However, despite huge reserves, India accounts for only 1% of the global
output of REE. Also, India is heavily dependent on China for the availability of REE. For example, during
2018-19, India imported 92% of REE by value and 97% of REE by volume from China.

Statement-II is correct: At present, the majority of REE is extracted and produced by the public-sector
enterprises. IREL (India) Limited (erstwhile Indian Rare Earths Limited), is a Government of India
Undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is one of the largest producers of the REE.
IREL is the only entity processing monazite to produce Rare Earth (RE) compounds. Only a few private
players like Cochin Minerals and Rutile Ltd (CMRL), Beach Minerals Co. Pvt. Ltd, V.B. Minerals and Resins
Pvt. Ltd etc. are operating in this sector. Because of limited domestic demand, entrepreneurs might not

[49]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
have found it appealing to invest in this sector. Even though India manufactures significant quantities of
industrial products like mobile phones, electronic goods, and vehicles, it heavily depends on China for
rare earth procurement due to China's much lower prices.
Statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I: While India has the world’s fifth largest
reserves of rare earth minerals, India could only accounts for only 1% of the global output of REE. Its
because,
1) Rare earths mining and extraction processes are capital intensive, consume large amounts of energy,
and release toxic by-products.
2) India contains Light Rare Earth Elements (LREE) while Heavy Rare Earth Elements (HREE) which
are used in most applications are not available in extractable quantities due to Indian geological
formations.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/rare-earths-
miner-irel-eyes-400-expansion-for-clean-energy/articleshow/99421245.cms?from=mdr
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/10012020172151RareEarth_2019_AR.pdf
https://southasiajournal.net/the-production-of-rare-earth-why-india-failed/

Q.87)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct: As per Article 79, the President is an integral part of the Parliament. However,
s/he is not a member of either the Lok Sabha (House of the People) or the Rajya Sabha (Council of States),
which are the two houses of the Indian Parliament. The President's role in the Parliament is primarily
ceremonial and symbolic, with powers related to the functioning of the legislative process. The President
is a part of the Parliament because s/he is integral to the passing of any legislation in India. The assent
of the President is needed for a Bill to become law.
Statement-II is correct: India has a Parliamentary system of government, where the executive branch
(headed by the Prime Minister) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament) and derives its legitimacy
from the majority party or coalition in the lower house (Lok Sabha). The Parliament plays a central role in
lawmaking, policymaking, and oversight of the government.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I: The President is an integral part of the
parliament, because no bill can be enacted into an act without the authorization of the president. Hence
the president is an integral part of the Constitution. It's not because we follow the parliamentary system
of government.
Source: https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/indian-parliament
Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.88)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe. Hydrogen occurs naturally on earth in
compound form with other elements in liquids, gases, or solids. It is also the lightest element. Hydrogen,
as an elemental form, serves as an energy carrier requiring production from other substances. It can be
generated or extracted from diverse sources like water, fossil fuels, or biomass, and utilized as an energy
source or fuel.
Statement-I is correct: Presently, the primary method of hydrogen production relies heavily on fossil fuel
processing. When factoring in the expenses associated with storage, distribution, and establishing

[50]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
refueling stations, the overall price of hydrogen for end users far exceeds that of conventional fossil
fuels. However, with the advancements in technology, it is possible to achieve cost reductions in
hydrogen-based fuels. But generally, at present, conventional fossil fuels like gasoline are cheaper than
hydrogen-based fuels.
Statement-II is correct: Hydrogen possesses the highest energy density per unit mass (energy density)
among common fuels. In fact, hydrogen carries approximately three times more energy per unit
compared to gasoline. This indicates that for a given mass or weight of hydrogen fuel, it contains
significantly more energy potential than an equivalent amount of gasoline. Although hydrogen excels in
energy density per unit weight, it falls short in terms of energy density per unit volume when
compared to gasoline. Specifically, as a liquid, hydrogen has approximately four times less energy
content per unit volume than gasoline.
Hence, Both the statements I and II are independently correct, but statement II is not the correct
explanation for statement I.
Knowledge Base:
1) Energy density per unit volume: This measure quantifies the amount of energy stored in a material
per unit volume. It is typically expressed in units such as joules per cubic meter (J/m³) or watt-hours
per liter (Wh/L). This measure is useful when considering the spatial requirements of energy storage
systems, such as batteries or fuel tanks. For example, a battery with a high energy density per unit
volume can store more energy in a smaller physical space.
2) Energy density per unit weight: This measure quantifies the amount of energy stored in a material per
unit weight. It is typically expressed in units such as joules per kilogram (J/kg) or watt-hours per
kilogram (Wh/kg). This measure is useful when considering the weight constraints of energy storage
systems, such as in transportation applications. For example, a fuel with a high energy density per
unit weight allows vehicles to travel longer distances without needing to carry excessive amounts of
fuel.
Source: https://www.cnbc.com/2019/02/21/musk-calls-hydrogen-fuel-cells-stupid-but-tech-may-
threaten-tesla.html
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/engineering/hydrogen-energy-
systems#:~:text=However%2C%20the%20unit%20cost%20of,of%20any%20conventional%20fossil%20fu
el.
https://stillwaterassociates.com/how-does-the-cost-of-hydrogen-stack-up-against-gasoline/
https://www.energy.gov/eere/fuelcells/hydrogen-
storage#:~:text=On%20a%20mass%20basis%2C%20hydrogen,44%20MJ%2Fkg%20for%20gasoline.

Q.89)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Global Partnership for Financial Inclusion (GPFI) is a collaborative platform established to address
financial inclusion challenges globally. Through its inclusive approach, the GPFI aims to advance access
to financial services, particularly for underserved populations, and foster economic empowerment
worldwide.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The GPFI is not restricted solely to G20 countries but encompasses interested
non-G20 nations and relevant stakeholders. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The GPFI was officially established during the G20 Summit held in Seoul in
2010, not during the New Delhi Summit in 2023. Thus, this statement is inaccurate.

[51]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Statement 3 is incorrect: The 'Global Findex' database is released by the World Bank (and not GPFI).
The database assesses indicators such as account ownership and access to financial services globally, but
it is not under the purview of the GPFI.
Statement 4 is correct: India and Italy have been appointed as new co-chairs of the Global Partnership
for Financial Inclusion (GPFI) for three years from 2024 (i.e. for the period 2024-26). This was announced
during India’s Presidency of G20 in 2023.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Hyderabad/india-italy-to-be-long-term-co-chairs-
of-gpfi-from-2024/article66592919.ece
https://www.gpfi.org/about-gpfi

Q.90)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita, 2023 (BNS2) has been proposed as a replacement for the Indian
Penal Code (IPC) of 1860, marking a significant legislative development in India's criminal justice system.
The BNS2 introduces several amendments and additions to the existing legal framework, aiming to
address contemporary issues and enhance legal efficacy. For example, it adds ‘community service’ as a
form of punishment for certain offenses (However, the term ‘community service’ has not been defined). It
will be effective on July 1, 2024.
Statement 1 is correct: The BNS2 removes sedition as an offense. Instead of sedition, it penalizes the
following:
1) exciting or attempting to excite secession, armed rebellion, or subversive activities
2) encouraging feelings of separatist activities
3) endangering the sovereignty or unity and integrity of India
The India Penal Code of 1860 (IPC) defines sedition as bringing or attempting to bring hatred, contempt,
or exciting disaffection towards the government. This provision has not been included in BNS2.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Marital rape has not been an offense mentioned under the IPC. Justice Verma
Committee had recommended making the offense of rape gender-neutral and including marital rape as
an offense. However, even BNS2 does not make specific provisions for marital rape. Also, it does not make
the offense of rape as gender neutral. Hence, the statement given is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct: The BNS2 criminalizes mob lynching. It includes murder or grievous hurt by
five or more people on specified grounds as an offense. The specified grounds for this purpose are race,
caste, sex, language, or personal belief. Persons charged with such offense shall be punishable with life
imprisonment or death. Hence, the given statement is correct.
Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-bharatiya-nyaya-second-sanhita-2023

Q.91)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a multi-disciplinary body. It is entrusted with the power to
investigate offenses related to money laundering and violation of foreign exchange laws.
Statement 1 is incorrect: ED was established on May 1, 1956, as an 'Enforcement Unit' within the
Department of Economic Affairs to handle violations of Exchange Control Laws under the Foreign
Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1947. In 1957, the unit was renamed the 'Enforcement Directorate’.
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) was enacted in the year 2002, and ED was already in
existence at that time. However, ED has been given powers to enforce the provisions of PMLA. It can

[52]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
conduct investigations to trace the assets obtained from the proceeds of crime or can provisionally
attach the properties of offenders and can ensure the prosecution of offenders and confiscation of their
properties by the Special Court.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1960, administrative control of ED shifted from the Department of
Economic Affairs to the Department of Revenue of the Ministry of Finance. It does not come under the
administrative control of the Department of Internal Security of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, the
statement given is incorrect.
Statement 3 is incorrect: ED has the power to conduct searches and raids, and even arrest citizens
under the PMLA, as validated by the Supreme Court in a landmark verdict in 2022.
Knowledge base:
ED is empowered to enforce the provisions of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (FEOA) of 2018. ED
is mandated to attach the properties of the fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India.
Apart from FEOA and PMLA, ED is also responsible for the enforcement of following Acts:
1) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): The ED has been tasked with the
responsibility of investigating suspected breaches of foreign exchange laws and regulations, as well as
adjudicating and imposing penalties on individuals found to have violated these laws. Earlier, before
repealing, it was also responsible to enforce the provisions of FERA.
2) The Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974
(COFEPOSA), 1974: Under this, ED is empowered to initiate the cases of preventive detention
concerning the violations of the FEMA.
Source: https://enforcementdirectorate.gov.in/what-we-do
https://enforcementdirectorate.gov.in/history-ed

Q.92)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently, Parliament has passed the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners
(Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, which supersedes the Election
Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991. The
new law addresses the appointment, remuneration, and dismissal procedures for both the Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs).
Under the provisions of this legislation, the President of India appoints the Chief Election
Commissioner and other Election Commissioners based on the recommendations put forth by the
Selection Committee. This Committee comprises the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the
Leader of the Opposition or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha. A committee
led by the Cabinet Secretary is responsible for compiling a list of eligible candidates to present to the
Selection Committee. Hence, option b is the correct answer.
Knowledge Base: As per the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners
(Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023,
1) Eligibility for the positions (of both CEC and ECs) requires individuals to currently hold or have
previously held a position equivalent to that of a central government Secretary.
2) The salary of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) shall be
equivalent to the salary of a Supreme Court Judge.
Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-chief-election-commissioner-and-other-election-
commissioners-appointment-conditions-of-service-and-term-of-office-bill-2023
https://sansad.in/getFile/BillsTexts/RSBillTexts/PassedRajyaSabha/CRC-CEC-
E12132023113818AM.pdf?source=legislation
https://newsonair.gov.in/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=473705

[53]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
Q.93)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Essequibo is a conflicted region between Guyana and Venezuela. Recently,
Venezuelan President indicated the possibility of invading Guyana over the disputed Essequibo region.
This region holds significant oil reserves, which assisted in the economic development of Guyana. After
some deliberations, the presidents of both nations decided to avoid using force against each other but the
issue remains sensitive.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Buenos Aires is the capital of Argentina. Recently, massive protests have
erupted in the Capital region against the proposed economic reforms. The protests are staged due to
Government’s plans to deregulate the economy, slash labour rights, removing government subsidies
on everyday items. Presently, Argentina is suffering 200% inflation and 40% poverty levels.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Cabo Delgado, Mozambique, faces a surge in deadly insurgent attacks (by
an insurgent outfit Al-Shabab), prompting tens of thousands to flee. Despite security efforts, attacks
persist, disrupting stability. Displaced individuals, including many women and children, seek refuge
elsewhere. Insurgents target civilian infrastructure, posing a threat to vital transportation routes.
Insurgency is caused due to complex factors such as marginalization and economic disparities, grievance
against government, and foreign influence.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/news/world/yearender-2023-from-west-asia-to-south-america-
global-conflicts-that-shook-the-world-this-year-11703328116245.html
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-latin-america-68085197
https://www.globalr2p.org/countries/mozambique/

Q.94)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Energy Transition Index, which benchmarks 120 countries on their current energy system
performance and on the readiness of their enabling environment, finds that while there has been broad
progress on clean, sustainable energy, there are emerging challenges to the equity of the transition – just,
affordable access to energy and sustained economic development – due to countries shifting their focus
to energy security.
Released by World Economic Forum (WEF), the Energy Transition Index (ETI) is a tool for energy
decision makers that evaluates countries' energy system performance and their readiness for a secure,
sustainable, affordable, and reliable energy future. The ETI also assesses countries' preparedness to
address new energy security challenges, and the need for infrastructure upgrades and financing.

[54]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
The 2023 ETI benchmarks 120 countries. Sweden topped the list, followed by Denmark, Norway,
Finland, and Switzerland. India ranked 67th, and one of its notable achievements is universal access to
electricity
Source: https://www.weforum.org/publications/fostering-effective-energy-transition-
2023/#:~:text=The%20Energy%20Transition%20Index%2C%20which,the%20transition%20%E2%80%9
3%20just%2C%20affordable%20access

Q.95)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Nobel Prize, established by the will of Swedish inventor Alfred Nobel, is one of the most prestigious
awards recognizing exceptional contributions in various fields.
Statement 1 is correct: The Nobel Prizes are currently awarded annually for exceptional work in six
categories: Physics, Chemistry, Medicine or Physiology, Literature, Peace, and Economic Sciences.
But originally the Nobel prizes were awarded in five categories. The Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences
was not originally included, and it was established in 1968 by the Bank of Sweden and was first awarded
in 1969.
Statement 2 is correct: While the Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, Norway, the other Nobel Prizes
are awarded in Sweden. The Nobel Prizes in Physics, Chemistry, and Economic Sciences are awarded by
the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences in Stockholm, while the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine is
awarded by the Karolinska Institute, also in Stockholm. The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded by the
Swedish Academy, also based in Stockholm. Therefore, all Nobel Prizes are awarded in Sweden, except
the Nobel Peace Prize.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Claudia Goldin became the third (not the first) woman to receive the Nobel
Prize in economics (2023) as the US professor was awarded for her research into the factors that explain
pay gaps between men and women.
Before it, only two women have been awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics. Elinor Ostrom was awarded
the Prize in 2009, while Esther Duflo won in 2019.
Source: https://www.nobelprize.org/prizes/facts/nobel-prize-facts/
https://www.nobelprize.org/prizes/
https://www.un.org/en/about-us/nobel-peace-
prize#:~:text=2001%20%2D%20United%20Nations%20and%20Kofi,organized%20and%20more%20peac
eful%20world%E2%80%9D.

Q.96)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Afghanistan is a landlocked country located in South Asia and Central Asia, bordered by several
countries. Its neighboring countries include:
1) Iran to the west
2) Turkmenistan to the northwest
3) Uzbekistan to the north
4) Tajikistan to the northeast
5) China to the northeast,
6) Pakistan to the south and east
7) India to the south and east

[55]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
It does not share border with Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan.

Source: https://www.britannica.com/event/Durand-Line

Q.97)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Haifa port is the largest port of Israel, but it was not destroyed in Hamas’s
attack on Israel as the war between Israel and Hamas is going in the Southern parts of Israel and the port
is situated in northern Israel. This port was mainly in news in early 2023 as an Indian company has
acquired the Haifa Port.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Chancay Port, a major project by China in South America, is located in
Peru's Chancay town. It's set to become a key hub linking South America and Asia. Owned mainly by
China's Cosco Shipping, it's their first port control in South America. Construction started in 2018 as
part of China's Belt and Road Initiative. This port will give China direct access to South America's
resources, boost trade between Peru and China, and help export copper from Peru and soy from Brazil.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: India’s connection with Russia’s Arctic region has been growing, with a
significant portion of cargo handled by the Murmansk port.
In the first seven months of 2023, Murmansk port handled 8 million tonnes of cargo, and 35% of this was
from India, primarily coal destined for India’s east coast. The seaport of Murmansk is one of the largest
ice-free ports in Russia.
Source: https://theprint.in/opinion/jewpanishads/why-adanis-purchase-of-haifa-port-is-israels-
message-to-america/1569634/
https://forumias.com/blog/chancay-port-chinas-new-mega-port-project-in-south-
america/#gsc.tab=0
https://forumias.com/blog/india-accounts-for-35-of-cargo-handled-by-russias-arctic-murmansk-
port-this-year/#gsc.tab=0

Q.98)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Syrian military accused Israel of air strikes on the outskirts of Israel capital Damascus and says
attack from Golan Heights an ‘act of aggression.’
The Golan Heights is a hilly region situated above the upper Jordan River valley to the west. It was a
part of Syria when it came under Israeli control in 1967 after a six-day war and was unilaterally

[56]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
annexed by Israel in December 1981. Recently, India has also supported a United Nations Resolution
that calls upon Israel to withdraw from Golan Heights.
In 1894, Baron Edmond de Rothschild, a French-Jewish banker, purchased land in the Golan for Jewish
settlement. This initiative was followed by groups from the United States, Canada, and Europe. However,
Arab hostility and Ottoman land laws hindered Jewish colonization efforts. After World War I, the Golan
came under French mandate as part of Syria, and later, in 1941, it became part of independent Syria.
Following the Arab-Israeli War of 1948–49, Syria fortified the western crest of the Golan Heights, leading
to conflict with Israel. During the Six-Day War in June 1967, Israeli forces seized control of the Golan
Heights from Syria. The region was then placed under Israeli military administration. Syria consistently
calls for the complete withdrawal of Israeli forces from the Golan Heights and the restoration of
Syrian sovereignty over the region.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/india-favours-un-resolution-expressing-
concern-over-israel-not-withdrawing-from-golan-heights-101701287693224.html

Q.99)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Genetically Modified (GM) crops are those whose genetic material has been altered using genetic
engineering techniques. These modifications are typically aimed at introducing desirable traits such as
resistance to pests, diseases, and herbicides, as well as improving tolerance to environmental stresses
such as drought or salinity. GM crops have been developed to enhance agricultural productivity, improve
crop yields, and address challenges related to food security and sustainability.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, Bt cotton is the only genetically modified (GM) crop approved for
commercial cultivation. However, the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) has approved to
test/ field trials of a new kind of cotton seed that contains the Cry2ai gene but not approved for

[57]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
commercial cultivation. This cotton seed has been developed by Hyderabad-based Bioseed Research
India. The Cry2Ai gene is derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
Statement 2 is correct: The Cry2ai gene, derived from Bacillus thuringiensis, can make a plant toxic to
pink bollworms. The pink bollworm is a destructive pest to cotton. The pink bollworm has developed
resistance to Bt. Cotton that has been approved for commercial cultivation. In this context, new
technologies are being explored that can protect the cotton crops from pest attacks. Cry2ai is an
improved version that offers significant potential to safeguard cotton crops from pink bollworms. Hence,
the given statement is correct.
Knowledge Base:
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
1) Established under The Manufacture, Use, Import, Export, And Storage Of Hazardous Micro
Organisms Genetically Engineered Organisms Or Cells Rules, 1989.
2) It comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC)
3) It is chaired by the Additional Secretary, Department of Environment Forests and Wildlife.
4) The committee is tasked with reviewing and approving proposals related to the release of
genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment. This encompasses various
activities, including experimental field trials aimed at evaluating the performance and safety of
genetically modified organisms in real-world conditions.
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=191120#:~:text=Bt.%20cotton%20is%20the%20only
%20Genetically%20Modified,unapproved%20GM%20crops%20are%20banned%20in%20India.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/explained-what-is-the-status-of-transgenic-crops-
in-india/article66968448.ece

Q.100)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Schengen Area, representative of European integration and cooperation, stands as a testament to
the shared vision of its member states for a unified, border-free Europe.
Statement 1 is correct: The Schengen Area is a region comprising numerous European countries that
have abolished passport and other types of border control at their mutual borders. This means that
individuals can travel between Schengen member states without undergoing passport checks or other
border control procedures. This free movement extends not only to citizens of member states but also
to residents of these nations, including individuals holding residence permits or other legal
documentation. This border-free arrangement has significantly facilitated travel and commerce within
Europe, promoting integration and cooperation among member states.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Schengen Agreement abolishes systematic passport checks at
internal borders, it does not completely prohibit police checks within the Schengen Area. Police checks
can be conducted by national authorities to ensure security and enforce laws, but these checks should
not be equivalent to border controls. The purpose of these police checks is to maintain public order and
security within the Schengen Area while allowing for the free movement of individuals.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Membership in the European Union (EU) is not a prerequisite for joining the
Schengen Area. While many Schengen member states are also EU members, the Schengen Agreement
itself is a separate intergovernmental agreement that allows for cooperation on border control and free

[58]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 - Solutions |
movement. Several non-EU countries, such as Iceland, Norway, Switzerland, and Liechtenstein, are
part of the Schengen Area. Also, Cyprus and Ireland are the EU members, but are not a part of the
Schengen Area regime.
Statement 4 is correct: Recently, Bulgaria and Romania have been the newest States to have joined the
Schengen Area in 2024. Hence, the given statement is correct.
Source: https://home-affairs.ec.europa.eu/policies/schengen-borders-and-visa/schengen-area_en

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PTS 2024 - Test Code: 121401

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PTS 2024 - Test Code: 121401

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121401 |

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