DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST CODE: AIPTS2024CSAT04 Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper-II
A
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the details carefully and
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your STUDENT ID on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet. Use only Blue and Black ball pen to mark your answer in the OMR sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Old Rajendra Nagar: SRIRAM's IAS TOWERS, 10-B, Mukherjee Nagar: House No. 868, First Floor,
Pusa Road, Bada Bazaar Marg, Old Rajendra Nagar, Opposite Batra Cinema, Above ICICI Bank, Dr.
New Delhi –110060; Ph. 01142437002, 9811489560, Mukherjee Nagar, New Delhi - 110009.
7289088158; Ph.:8447273027; Email: [email protected]
1. Robert is twice as good a workman as James. Directions (Q6 - Q10): Study the following
Both of them together finish a play ground work information carefully and answer the questions
in 28 days. In how many days will Robert alone given below.
finish the work? The given table shows the number of people who
(a) 42 visited four different shopping malls on weekends and
(b) 32 weekdays.
(c) 52 Shopping Malls Weekdays Weekends
(d) 62 Shopping Mall (A) 4800 6800
Shopping Mall (B) 6800 9000
2. A Gasoline Fuel Tank can be filled by two pipes Shopping Mall (C) 12800 9800
in 7 hours and 8 hours respectively. Both the pipes Shopping Mall (D) 15900 10000
are opened at the same time, and it is found that
due to leakage in the Gasoline fuel tank bottom, it 6. What is the average number of people who
took 16 minutes more to fill the Gasoline fuel visited all four shopping Malls together on the
Tank. Find the time taken by Leak to empty the Weekend?
Gasoline fuel Tank. (a) 8900
(a) 46 Hours (b) 9800
(b) 36 Hours (c) 8800
(d) 9900
(c) 56 Hours
(d) 66 Hours
7. Total number of persons who visited Shopping
Mall (E) on the Weekend is the difference between
3. Shraddha walk a certain distance and ride back the number of persons who visited Shopping Mall
on tricycle taking a total time of 55 minutes. (D) on Weekend and weekdays. The number of
Shraddha could walk both ways in 75 minutes. persons who visited Shopping Mall (F) on
How long would it take Shraddha to ride both Weekdays is the difference between the number of
ways? persons who visited Shopping Mall (C) in
(a) 25 weekdays and Weekend. The number of persons
(b) 35 who visited Shopping Mall (E) on weekends is
(c) 45 what percent more or less than the number of
(d) 55 persons who visited Shopping Mall (F) on
weekdays?
4. Arya in first four CAT exams received an (a) 96.6% more
average score of X marks. If he received 60 more (b) 82.25% less
marks than his average marks of four subjects in (c) 76.25% less
his fifth exams. What is the average score for all the (d) 92.75% more
five exams?
(a) X + 10 8. The number of people who visited Shopping
(b) X + 12 Mall (G) on the weekdays is the sum of the
(c) X + 16 number of people visited Shopping Mall (B) in
(d) X + 20 weekend and weekdays. What is the difference
between the number of people who visited the
5. 20 athletes are playing games in the ground. For Shopping Mall (C), Shopping Mall (B) and
all the 20 winners, coach gives points which are Shopping Mall (D) together on Weekdays and the
the first 20 multiples of 7. Find the total number number of people who visited Shopping Mall (G)
of the points given to all the winners. on the weekdays?
(a) 1060
(a) 21600
(b) 4260
(b) 19700
(c) 1470 (c) 22800
(d) 1490 (d) 18070
2
9. Total number of people who visited Shopping 14. P has two daughters, one of whom is Y. The
Mall (A) and Shopping Mall (D) on Weekend is how mother of Z has two daughters Q and Y. X is the
much percent less than the total number of people father of P. Then what is the relation of Z to X?
who visited Shopping Mall (C) and Shopping Mall
(a) Grandfather
(B) together on the Weekdays?
(a) 24.28% (b) Grandson
(b) 65.28% (c) Grand-daughter
(c) 88.28% (d) Father-in-law
(d) 14.28%
15. When will Mr. Rameshwar Dayal have his
10. What is the ratio of the difference between the
number of people who visited Shopping Mall (D) next birthday on the same day if he celebrated his
on weekdays and weekend to the difference birthday on Friday, Jan5, 1897?
between the number of people who visited (a) Jan 5, 1903
Shopping Mall (A) on Weekdays and weekend? (b) Jan 5, 1904
(a) 29:10 (c) Jan 5, 1907
(b) 49:10 (d) Jan 5, 1909
(c) 59:20
(d) 99:70
16. Raghav went for a business meeting to Bhopal
11. The average weight of four friends Alok, on Tuesday. He came to know that he was four
Brijendra, Champak, and Damodar is 65 kg. If days earlier than the scheduled day. If he had
the average weight of Alok, Brijendra, Champak reached there on the following Friday, how many
is 60 kg and the average weight of Brijendra,
days late/early he would have been?
Champak, and Damodar is 70 kg, what is the
weight of friend Damodar? (a) Two days late
(a) 60 (b) 80 (b) One day earlier
(c) 85 (d) 90 (c) One day late
(d) Two days earlier
12. One day, a shopkeeper sold 60% of his stock
of Orange then thrown away 25% of the
remaining ones. The following day, he bought the 17. Hardik and Kunal go to a theatre for watching
same quantity of Orange that he had the day a movie after a gap of every 3 days and every 4
before and combined them with the leftover days respectively. If on 10th February 2020, both
Oranges. He then sold 70% of the Oranges and of them went for a movie together, when will they
threw away the rest. What percentage of the total go together next?
amount of Oranges the shopkeeper had in two (a) 2nd March
days did he throw away?
(b) 22nd February
(a) 20.5%
(b) 33% (c) 28th February
(c) 24.5% (d) 1st March
(d) 29.66%
18. What angle do the hour hand and minute
13. Ajay, Basant and Chaitanya works in a
hand of a clock form at 7:40 P.M.?
factory. They change their positions after every
42min, 32min and 48min respectively. If they all (a) 15°
change simultaneously at 6:00 AM, then find the (b) 10°
time at which they will change simultaneously (c) 20°
again. (d) 18°
(a) 7:30 PM
(b) 4:12 PM
(c) 6:15 PM
(d) 5:12 PM
3
19. Consider the following statements and a 24. Aman salary is first increased by 20% and
question: then decreased by 16.667%. The result is the same
Statement I: The mirror image of a clock shows as Bindu salary increased by 16.667% and then
7:30 o’clock. reduced by 20%. Find the ratio of B's salary to
Statement II: The water image of a clock shows that of A’s.
2:00 o’clock. (a) 100 : 91
Question: What is the actual time? (b) 91 : 100
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (c) 93 : 100
the Statements and the Question? (d) 100 : 93
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question. 25. A glass contains 500 cc of Syrup A and a cup
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the contains 500 cc of syrup B. From the glass, 150 cc
question. of Syrup A is transferred to the cup and mixed
(c) Either Statement I or Statement II alone is thoroughly. Next, 150 cc of this mixture is
sufficient to answer the question. transferred from the cup to the glass. Now, the
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II alone is amount of Syrup B in the glass and the amount of
sufficient to answer the question. Syrup A in the cup are in the ratio
(a) 1 : 1
20. In a state, 45% of the population speaks Hindi, (b) 10 : 13
30% speaks Awadhi, and the remaining (c) 3 : 10
population speaks Bhojpuri. If the population is (d) 10 : 3
500,000, how many people speak Bhojpuri?
26. Akshit is standing in a queue at a ticket
(a) 125,000 people
counter. Suppose the ratio of the number of
(b) 200,000 people
persons standing ahead of Akshit to the number
(c) 250,000 people
of persons standing behind him in the queue is 3 :
(d) 300,000 people
5. If the total number of persons in the queue is
less than 300, then the maximum possible number
21. P scored 50% more than Q in an exam. If Q
of persons standing ahead of Akshit is
scored 300 marks, then how many marks did P
(a) 111
score?
(b) 112
(a) 450
(c) 113
(b) 500
(d) 114
(c) 550
(d) 600 27. In an preliminary test, the score of Aman was
10% less than that of Babita, the score of Babita
22. In the below series find the odd man out: 229 was 25% more than that of Chandan, and the
251 263 279 293 311 331 349 367 score of Chandan was 20% less than that of
(a) 331 Damini. If Aman scored 72, then the score of
(b) 251 Damini was
(c) 279 (a) 20
(d) 349 (b) 40
(c) 60
23. Five boys Ajay, Boman, Charles, Danish and (d) 80
Elvish went for picnic. They sat in a garden in a
circular manner facing the center. Danish is 28. A professor walking at 5/6th of his usual
surrounded by Boman and Charles. Elvish is to speed reaches 6 minutes late to University.
the right of Boman. Which of the following What isthe usual time taken by him to cover
statement is true? that distance?
(a) Boman is third to the right of Ajay (a) 24 minutes
(b) Ajay is second to the left of Danish (b) 30 minutes
(c) Charles is second to the left of Elvish (c) 36 minutes
(d) Boman is third to the right of Charles (d) 40 minutes
4
29. A yacht takes 13 hours for travelling 33. A fruit seller gives discount of 10 % on the
downstream from point A to point B and marked price of Orange, but in the bargain
coming back to point C which is midway makes a profit of 10 %. If the marked price of the
between A and B. If the velocity of the stream Orange is Rs. 330, the cost price of the Orange is:
is 4kmph and the speed of the yacht in still (a) Rs. 220
water is 10 kmph, What is the distance (b) Rs. 270
between A and B? (c) Rs. 320
(a) 62 km (d) Rs. 380
(b) 74 km
(c) 84 km 34. There are n ways of going from Delhi to
(d) 92 km Varanasi, (n + 3) ways of going from Varanasi to
30. 3 single phase water motors working 8 Buxar and (n + 8) ways of going from Buxar to
hours a day, can empty a chamber in 2 days. Bokaro. If the number of ways of going from
How many hours a day must 4 single phase Delhi to Bokaro (via Varanasi and Buxae) is 336,
water motors work to empty the chamber in then find the number of ways of going from Delhi
1 day? to Buxar (via Varanasi).
(a) 9 (a) 28
(b) 10 (b) 38
(c) 11 (c) 48
(d) 12 (d) 58

31. A passenger train starts running at initial 35. If the cost price is 90% of the selling
speed of 20kmph. Its speed increases every price, what must be the profit percent?
hour bycertain amount. If it takes 6 hours to (a) 9.09%
cover a distance of 165 km, then what will be (b) 4.75%
the hourly increment of passenger train (c) 5 %
speed? (d) 11.11%
(a) 2 kmph
(b) 3 kmph 36. How many squares are there in the
(c) 4 kmph following figure?
(d) 5 kmph
32. Consider the following:
1. Saxena, David, Jain and Kumar were District
Collectors at places P, Q, R and S respectively in
1970.
2. In 1972 they were transferred. Saxena and Jam
interchanged places. Kumar and David also
interchanged places. (a) 18
3. One year later in 1973 they were again transferred (b) More than 20 but less than 22
such that David and Jam interchanged places and (c) More than 24
Saxena Kumar were also interchanged. (d) None of these
What should be the next round of transfers so that all
the four persons could have been posted at all the 37. The ages of Mahendra and Rakesh are
four places? in ratio 7:8. After 2 years, the ratio of their
(a) Interchange Saxena and David as well as Jam and ages will be 9:10. What will be the ratio of
Kumar
their ages after 12 years?
(b) Interchange Saxena and Kumar as well as David
(a) 15/17
and Jain
(b) 19/20
(c) Interchange David and Kumar as well as Saxena
and Jain (c) 21/23
(d) It is not possible for all the four persons to have (d) None of these
been posted at all the four places
5
38. A series of figures have been shown below. Direction (Q41 - Q45): The following graph shows
What will be the next figure in the following the production of cars by two companies GMC
series? and Fiat from the years 2021 to 2025. Consider
thegraph and answer the questions that follow.

(a)

(b)
41. Find the average number of cars produced by
GMC from the year 2021 to 2025.
(a) 5800 (b) 5000
(c) (c) 6400 (d) 5900

42. The ratio of the total number of cars produced

by GMC and Fiat in the year 2021 to the total
(d) number of cars produced by GMC and Fiat in the
year 2024 is -
(a) 2:1
39. If the word “CONVERSATION” is (b) 1:2
coded as 365459112965, then the word (c) 1:3
(d) 1:4
APPROPRIATE will be coded in the same
language as: 43. Find the resultant average of the average of
(a) 17796799125 the production of the cars produced by GMC
from the year 2021 to 2025 to the average of cars
(b) 17769799225 produced by Fiat from the year 2021 to 2025.
(c) 15796799125 (a) 5000
(b) 5454
(d) 17796798125 (c) 5700
(d) 5500
40. Consider the following series. 44. In which year, percentage increase in the
j_mb_a__u_b_adj_m_b_d production of the cars by GMC maximum?
(a) 2021-2022
Select the combination of letters that when (b) 2022-2023
sequentially placed in the blanks of the given (c) 2023-2024
series will complete the series. (d) 2024-2025
(a) u b m j m b u b a 45. Find the difference between the cars produced
(b) u b d j m b j b a by GMC in the year 2024 and cars produced by
Fiat in the year 2021.
(c) u b d j m b u b a
(a) 1500
(d) u b d j m b u m a (b) 1450
(c) 2000
(d) 4000
6
46. A survey was conducted on a sample of 1000 49. The fraction of the total expenditures for 1980
persons with reference to their knowledge of and 1990 spent on compensation was about:
English, French and German. The results of the (a) 1/2
survey are presented in the given Venn diagram. (b) 1/3
The ratio of the number of the persons who do not (c) 1/4
know any of the three languages to those who (d) 1/5
know all the three languages is
50. The amount spent in 1980 for materials,
advertising and taxes was about the same as:
(a) the amount spent on research and construction in
1990
(b) the amount spent for compensation in 1990
(c) the amount spent on materials in 1990
(d) 5/3 of the amount spent on advertising in 1990

Directions for the following items:

(a) 1/27
Read the following four passages and answer the
(b) 1/25
items that follow each passage. Your answers to
(c) 1/550
these items should be based on the passages only.
(d) 175/1000

47. Amar, Akbar and Anthony are friends, being Passage 1

looked after by a matron Farah. Amar weighs In recent years, there has been a growing
50% more than Akbar and Anthony weighs 25% concern over the use of plastic products and
less than Amar. Farah weighs a third of the their impact on the environment. Single-use
combined weight of the three boys. All four plastic items such as straws, utensils, and
together weigh 232 kg. The correct arrangement
grocery bags are particularly problematic, as
of the person in the ascending order of their
weights is they often end up in landfills and oceans. This
(a) Anthony, Akbar, Farah, Amar has led to a push for alternatives such as paper
(b) Anthony, Akbar, Amar, Farah straws and reusable bags. However, it is
(c) Akbar, Anthony, Amar, Farah important to note that the manufacturing and
(d) Akbar, Anthony, Farah, Amar disposal of these alternatives also have
environmental impacts, and therefore the most
Direction (Q48 – Q50): Answer these questions
based on the pie-chart given below: effective solution is to reduce the overall use of
single-use plastic products.

51. What is the most logical conclusion that

can be drawn from this passage?
(a) Paper straws and reusable bags are effective
solutions for reducing plastic waste.
(b) The impact of single-use plastic products
on the environment is significant.
(c) The most effective solution for reducing
48. The amount spent on materials for 1980 was plastic waste is to eliminate the use of all plastic
120% of the amount spent on: products.
(a) Research in 1980 (d) The most effective solution for reducing
(b) Advertising in 1990 plastic waste is to reduce the overall use of
(c) Compensation in 1980 single-use plastic products.
(d) Legal affairs in 1980
7
Directions for the following items: Directions for the following items:
Read the following four passages and answer the Read the following four passages and answer the
items that follow each passage. Your answers to items that follow each passage. Your answers to
these items should be based on the passages only. these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage 2 Passage 3
The Fabian Society aims at the reorganization Postcolonialism is a way of thinking about the world
of Society by the emancipation of Land and that emerged in the wake of decolonization. It is
industrial Capital from individual and class concerned with the legacies of colonialism and
ownership, and the vesting of them in the imperialism, and the ways in which they continue to
community for the general benefit. In this way shape the world today. At its core is the recognition
only the natural and acquired advantages of the that colonialism was not just a historical event, but
country be equitably shared by the whole an ongoing process that continues to shape power
people. relations between nations and peoples.
Postcolonialism is concerned with the ways in which
52. Based on the above passage, following power operates within culture, language, and
assumptions have been made: knowledge production. It recognizes that colonialism
1. The Fabian Society advocates for the involved not just the exploitation of land and
abolition of all private property. resources, but also the imposition of European values
2. The Fabian Society aims to promote the fair and ways of thinking on colonized peoples. This
distribution of resources among all members legacy continues to shape the way in which
of society. knowledge is produced and disseminated, and the
3. The Fabian Society seeks to establish a ways in which cultures are valued or devalued.
socialist economic system. One of the key insights of postcolonialism is the
4. Anyone who believes in concentration of recognition that knowledge is always situated within
resources in the hands of a few is an opponent specific social, cultural, and historical contexts. This
of Fabianism. means that knowledge is not objective or neutral, but
5. The Fabian Society aims to promote the is always shaped by power relations and the interests
interests of the vulnerable groups. of those who produce it. Postcolonialism seeks to
Which of the above assumptions are valid? challenge dominant ways of knowing and to explore
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only alternative perspectives that have been excluded or
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only marginalized. Postcolonialism also emphasizes the
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only agency of colonized peoples in shaping their own
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only histories and identities. It recognizes the importance
of local knowledge and cultural practices, and seeks
53. What is one of the assumptions underlying the to challenge the idea that Western values and ways
goals of the Fabian Society as described in the of thinking are universally applicable. Through its
paragraph? focus on power, knowledge, and agency,
(a) The current ownership structure of land and postcolonialism offers a critical perspective on the
industrial capital is equitable and beneficial to world that challenges dominant ways of thinking and
society. opens up new possibilities for understanding and
engagement.
(b) The reorganization of society should prioritize
individual and class ownership of land and industrial 54. According to postcolonialism, which of the
capital. following is a central aspect of colonial legacies?
(c) Equitably sharing natural and acquired (a) Celebration of colonial achievements
advantages among the whole population requires (b) Imposition of European values on colonized
community ownership of land and industrial capital. peoples
(d) The reorganization proposed by the Fabian (c) Erasure of local cultures and practices
(d) Exploration of alternative perspectives and
Society does not consider the general benefit of the
marginalized knowledge
community.

8
55. In the context of postcolonialism, how does Directions for the following items:
knowledge production differ from the traditional Read the following four passages and answer the
view? items that follow each passage. Your answers to
(a) Knowledge is universally applicable across all these items should be based on the passages only.
cultures
(b) Knowledge is shaped by power relations and Passage 5
historical contexts Depression is a complex and multifaceted mental
(c) Knowledge is objective and neutral health condition that affects millions of people
(d) Knowledge is independent of cultural and social worldwide. It is characterized by persistent feelings
influences of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in
activities that were once enjoyable. Individuals with
56. Postcolonialism challenges the notion that
Western values and ways of thinking are: depression often experience changes in appetite,
(a) Universally applicable and superior sleep patterns, and energy levels, which can
(b) Irrelevant in today's globalized world significantly impact their daily functioning.
(c) Inherently superior to all other perspectives Depression is not simply feeling sad or down
(d) Essential for the progress of all societies occasionally; it is a serious medical condition that
requires proper diagnosis and treatment. Common
Directions for the following items:
treatments for depression include therapy,
Read the following four passages and answer the
items that follow each passage. Your answers to medication, lifestyle changes, and support from
these items should be based on the passages only. loved ones. It's crucial for those experiencing
symptoms of depression to seek help from mental
Passage 4
The principal object of management should be health professionals to receive the support and care
to secure the maximum prosperity for the they need to manage their condition effectively.
employer, coupled with the maximum
prosperity for each employee. The words 58. Which of the following statements regarding
'maximum prosperity' are used in their broadest depression is NOT supported by the paragraph?
sense, meaning not only large dividends for the
(a) Depression is characterized by persistent feelings
company or owner but also the development of
every branch of the business to its highest state of sadness and hopelessness.
of excellence, so that the prosperity may be (b) Individuals with depression may experience
permanent. In the past, man has been first; in the changes in appetite, sleep patterns, and energy levels.
future, the system must be first. This in no sense, (c) Depression is a temporary condition that can be
however, implies that great men are not needed. overcome with self-help strategies.
On the contrary, the first object of any good
system must be that of developing first- class (d) Depression requires proper diagnosis and
men. treatment, including therapy, medication, and
support from loved ones.
57. What is the primary message conveyed by the
author in the passage regarding management and 59. On Thursday Virat Kohli said that there are
prosperity? only 150 days left for the start of world cup, hence
(a) Management should prioritize the employer's
he doesn’t want to participate in any other events
prosperity over the employees'.
(b) Management should focus solely on maximizing to avoid injury. On what day World Cup will
dividends for the company or owner. start?
(c) Management should strive for the maximum (a) Saturday
prosperity of both the employer and employees, (b) Sunday
emphasizing development and excellence in every (c) Friday
aspect of the business. (d) Monday
(d) Management should prioritize the development
of great men within the organization.
9
60. Neha Sharma walks 2 km to West and then Options :
turns North and walks 10 km. Again, she turns (a) Only conclusion (II) follows
to West and walks 4 km. After this she turns to (b) Only conclusion (IV) follows
South and walks 18 km. (c) Only conclusion (I) follows
Consider the following statements: (d) No conclusion follows
1. Neha Sharma is 12 km from her starting point.
2. Neha Sharma is in South-East direction from 62. A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16

her starting point. min. in 24 hours. What will be the true time when

Which of the statements given above is/are the clock indicates 10 p.m. on the 4th day?

correct? (a) 11 pm

(a) 1 only (b) 10 pm

(b) 2 only (c) 9 pm

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 8 pm

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. In the following questions, you will be

61. In the following questions, you will be given three statements. Following these

given three statements. Following these statements, you will find four conclusions

statements, you will find four conclusions labeled I, II, III, and IV. Your task is to

labeled I, II, III, and IV. Your task is to assume the given statements as true, even if

assume the given statements as true, even if they seem to contradict commonly known

they seem to contradict commonly known facts, and then determine which of the

facts, and then determine which of the conclusions logically follow from these

conclusions logically follow from these statements.

statements. Statements:

Statements: I. All liquids are solids.

1. Some pens are pencils. II. Some solids are gases.

2. All pencils are erasers. III. All gases are clouds

3. Some erasers are cups. Conclusion:

Conclusions: 1. Some clouds are solids

I. Some pens are cups. 2. Some clouds are liquids

II. Some pencils are cups. 3. Some gases are liquids

III. Some cups are pencils. 4. Some solids are clouds

IV. Some erasers are pens. (a) None follows

(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only III and IV follow
(d) Only I and IV follow
10
Directions for the following items: Another problematic method is to reconstruct former
climates on the basis of pollen profiles. The type of
Read the following four passages and answer the
vegetation in a specific region is determined by
items that follow each passage. Your answers to
identifying and counting the various pollen grains
these items should be based on the passages only.
found there. Although the relationship between
Passage 6 vegetation and climate is not as direct as the
relationship between climate and lake levels, the
In choosing a method for determining climatic method often works well in the temperate zones. In
conditions that existed in the past, arid and semiarid regions in which there is not much
paleoclimatologists invoke four principal criteria. vegetation, however, small changes in one or a few
First, the material—rocks, lakes, vegetation, etc.— plant types can change the picture dramatically,
on which the method relies must be widespread making accurate correlations between neighboring
enough to provide plenty of information, since areas difficult to obtain.
analysis of material that is rarely encountered will
not permit correlation with other regions or with 64. Which of the following statements about the
other periods of geological history. Second, in the difference between marine and continental
process of formation, the material must have sedimentation is supported by information in the
received an environmental signal that reflects a
change in climate and that can be deciphered by passage?
modern physical or chemical means. Third, at least (a) Data provided by dating marine sedimentation is
some of the material must have retained the signal more consistent with researchers’ findings in other
unaffected by subsequent changes in the disciplines than is data provided by dating
environment. Fourth, it must be possible to continental sedimentation.
determine the time at which the inferred climatic (b) It is easier to estimate the age of a layer in a
conditions held. This last criterion is more easily met
sequence of continental sedimentation than it is to
in dating marine sediments, because dating of only a
small number of layers in a marine sequence allows estimate the age of a layer in a sequence of marine
the age of other layers to be estimated fairly reliably sedimentation.
by extrapolation and interpolation. By contrast, (c) Marine sedimentation is much less widespread
because sedimentation is much less continuous in than continental sedimentation.
continental regions, estimating the age of a (d) Marine sedimentation is much more continuous
continental bed from the known ages of beds above than is continental sedimentation.
and below is more risky.
One very old method used in the investigation of past
climatic conditions involves the measurement of 65. It can be inferred from the passage that
water levels in ancient lakes. In temperate regions, paleoclimatologists have concluded which of the
there are enough lakes for correlations between them following on the basis of their study of snow-line
to give us a reliable picture. In arid and semiarid elevations in the southwestern United States?
regions, on the other hand, the small number of lakes (a) There is usually more precipitation during an ice
and the great distances between them reduce the age because of increased amounts of evaporation.
possibilities for correlation. Moreover, since lake
levels are controlled by rates of evaporation as well (b) There was less precipitation during the last ice
as by precipitation, the interpretation of such levels age than there is today.
is ambiguous. For instance, the fact that lake levels (c) The high lake levels during the last ice age may
in the semiarid southwestern United States appear to have been a result of less evaporation rather than
have been higher during the last ice age than they are more precipitation.
now was at one time attributed to increased (d) During the last ice age, cooler weather led to
precipitation. On the basis of snow-line elevations,
lower lake levels than paleoclimatologists had
however, it has been concluded that the climate then
was not necessarily wetter than it is now, but rather previously assumed.
that both summers and winters were cooler, resulting
in reduced evaporation.
11
66. It can be inferred from the passage that an Which of the above statements is/are correct?
environmental signal found in geological material (a) I alone
would not be useful to paleoclimatologists if it (b) II alone
(a) had to be interpreted by modern chemical means (c) I and II
(b) reflected a change in climate rather than a long- (d) II and III
term climatic condition
(c) was incorporated into a material as the material 69. What is the largest value of n such that 10n
was forming divides the product?
(d) also reflected subsequent environmental changes 25 × 33 × 48 × 53 × 67 × 76 × 812 × 99 × 106 × 1512 × 2211
× 2515?
67. Which of the following can be inferred from the a) 65 b) 55
passage about the study of past climates in arid and c) 51 d) 45
semiarid regions?
(a) It is sometimes more difficult to determine past 69. Radha and Hema are neighbours and study in
climatic conditions in arid and semiarid regions than the same school. Both of them use bicycles to go
in temperate regions. to the school. Radha's speed is 8 km/hr whereas
(b) Although in the past more research has been done Hema's speed is 10 km/hr. Hema takes 9 minutes
on temperate regions, paleoclimatologists have less than Radha to reach the school. How far is the
recently turned their attention to arid and semiarid school from the locality of Radha and Hema?
regions. a) 5 km
(c) Although more information about past climates b) 5.5 km
can be gathered in arid and semiarid than in c) 6 km
temperate regions, dating this information is more d) 6.5 km
difficult.
(d) It is difficult to study the climatic history of arid
and semiarid regions because their climates have Directions for the following items:
tended to vary more than those of temperate regions. Read the following four passages and answer the
items that follow each passage. Your answers to
68. A company manufacturing air-conditioners these items should be based on the passages only.
has set a monthly target. The target and realised
values are shown in the bar chart. Passage 7
Cyber fraud has become a growing concern in India,
with advancements in technology creating new
avenues for criminal activities. From online phishing
scams to identity theft and financial fraud,
individuals and organizations are increasingly
vulnerable to cybercriminals. The widespread
adoption of digital platforms for banking, shopping,
and communication has made it easier for fraudsters
to exploit loopholes and target unsuspecting victims.

In recent years, India has witnessed a surge in cyber

fraud cases, prompting authorities to take proactive
measures to address this issue. Law enforcement
agencies, along with cybersecurity experts, are
Consider the following statements based on the working tirelessly to educate the public about
chart: common cyber threats and encourage the adoption of
I. The targeted sales on a monthly basis have been secure online practices. Despite these efforts, cyber
achieved. fraud continues to pose significant challenges due to
II. The overall target value has been exceeded by the evolving nature of cyber threats and the
7.5%. anonymity afforded by the digital landscape.
III. The Sales Department deserves a pat on the back.
12
It is crucial for individuals and businesses to remain 72. If COAT is written as 9 – 8 – 6 - 7 and PARLE
vigilant and take proactive steps to protect their is written as 22 – 6 – 20 - 5 - 11 then how can
sensitive information online. This includes using PORTAL be written in the same code language?
strong passwords, regularly updating security
(a) 22 – 8 – 20 – 7 - 6 - 5
software, being cautious of suspicious emails and
messages, and verifying the authenticity of websites (b) 22 – 7 – 11 – 8 - 9 - 6
before making online transactions. By fostering a (c) 20 – 8 – 20 – 5 - 6 - 7
culture of cybersecurity awareness and (d) 20 – 7 – 11 – 8 - 9 – 22
collaboration, India can mitigate the risks posed by
cyber fraud and create a safer digital environment for Directions for the following items:
all.
Read the following four passages and answer the
items that follow each passage. Your answers to
70. What conclusions can be inferred from the these items should be based on the passages only.
passage provided above? Passage 8
Statement 1: The rise in cyber fraud in India is Indian classrooms have yet to realize the potential of
primarily attributed to the lack of collaboration using students’ home languages as a resource for
between law enforcement agencies and teaching English. Many Indian educators remain
cybersecurity experts. unaware of the cognitive and linguistic advantages of
Statement 2: Cyber fraud cases in India have bilingualism. Researchers, linguists, and
decreased in recent years due to advancements in educationists often discuss the benefits of
cybersecurity measures. bilingualism and the use of students’ native
Statement 3: The anonymity of the digital landscape languages as a classroom resource in various forums.
makes it difficult to track cybercriminals effectively. Paradoxically, teachers on the frontlines often lean
Which statement is false according to the passage? towards maintaining monolingual classrooms. For
(a) Statement 1 only instance, the practice of punishing students for using
(b) Statement 2 only their home language still lingers in many Indian
(c) Statement 3 only classrooms, a situation many of us may have
(d) All statements are true encountered during our school days.

71. Which conclusion can be drawn from the 73. According to the passage, what is the primary
statements?
hindrance to realizing the potential of using
I. Collaboration between law enforcement agencies
students' home languages in Indian classrooms as
and cybersecurity experts is essential to combat
a resource for teaching English?
cyber fraud effectively.
(a) Lack of awareness among Indian educators about
II. Advancements in cybersecurity measures have
the cognitive and linguistic advantages of
led to a decrease in cyber fraud cases in India.
bilingualism.
III. The anonymity of the digital landscape poses a
(b) Resistance from researchers and linguists
significant challenge in tracking cybercriminals.
towards advocating for the use of home languages in
IV. The lack of collaboration between law
classrooms.
enforcement agencies and cybersecurity experts is
(c) Inadequate forums for discussing the benefits of
the sole cause of the rise in cyber fraud cases.
bilingualism and native language use in education.
(a) I and II only
(d) The prevalence of punitive measures against
(b) I and III only
students using their home language in many Indian
(c) II and IV only
classrooms.
(d) I, III, and IV only

13
Directions for the following items: political diplomacy. Addressing these challenges
Read the following four passages and answer the necessitates collaborative efforts, innovative
items that follow each passage. Your answers to policies, and diplomatic engagements to foster
these items should be based on the passages only. regional stability, prosperity, and integration.
Passage 9
North-East India faces a unique set of challenges due 74. Which of the following statements accurately
to its geographical location and proximity to reflects the nuanced nature of trans-border
international borders. The region shares borders with challenges faced by North-East India, as
countries like China, Bhutan, Myanmar, and discussed in the passage?
Bangladesh, presenting both opportunities and (a) The primary trans-border challenge for North-
challenges. Trans-border challenges have emerged East India is environmental degradation due to
as a prominent issue for North-East India, impacting
industrial activities in neighboring countries.
various aspects of social, economic, and political
life. One of the significant trans-border challenges is (b) Trans-border challenges in North-East India
the movement of people and goods across primarily revolve around historical migration
international boundaries. The porous borders, patterns and economic disparities within the region.
combined with historical migration patterns, have (c) One of the significant trans-border challenges for
led to issues related to illegal immigration, North-East India involves the movement of people,
smuggling, and cross-border crimes. This not only illegal immigration, and cross-border crimes.
poses security concerns but also affects the socio- (d) North-East India's trans-border challenges are
economic dynamics of the region. primarily related to political complexities arising
Trans-border challenges extend to environmental from historical and territorial disputes with
and ecological aspects. The region's rich biodiversity neighboring countries.
and fragile ecosystems are shared across borders,
necessitating cooperation and coordination among 75. Which strategic approach is most likely to be
neighboring countries for sustainable environmental effective in addressing the complex trans-border
management. Issues such as deforestation, wildlife challenges faced by North-East India, according
trafficking, and water sharing agreements require to the passage?
cross-border collaboration for effective solutions. (a) Encouraging individual countries to prioritize
North-East India faces trans-border challenges in their own environmental policies without cross-
terms of infrastructure development and border collaboration.
connectivity. The region's remote terrain and limited (b) Focusing primarily on resolving historical and
connectivity with mainland India pose obstacles to territorial disputes with neighboring countries.
economic growth and regional integration. (c) Strengthening cross-border connectivity through
Enhancing cross-border connectivity through infrastructure projects like roads, railways, and
infrastructure projects like roads, railways, and airways.
airways is crucial for promoting trade, tourism, and (d) Adopting strict punitive measures against illegal
overall development in the region. Moreover, immigration and smuggling without addressing
political complexities arising from historical and underlying socio-economic factors.
territorial disputes add another layer of trans-border
challenges. Issues like border demarcation, refugee 76. How many distinct four-digits even numbers
resettlement, and diplomatic relations require can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
nuanced approaches and diplomatic engagements without repetition?
among the concerned nations. North-East India's (a) 130
trans-border challenges encompass a wide range of (b) 160
issues spanning security, environmental (c) 190
sustainability, infrastructure development, and (d) 180
14
Directions for the following items: various ways in which the claim could be as fault
have been investigated and eliminated. A claim can
Read the following four passages and answer the
only be said to be borne out by experimental and a
items that follow each passage. Your answers to
severe test of a claim, as usefully construed by Mayo,
these items should be based on the passages only.
must be such that the claim would be unlikely to pass
Passage 10 it if it were false.
Animal disease surveillance is less developed and Her idea can be explained by some simple examples.
the infrastructure to support the delivery of services Suppose Snell’s law of refraction of light is tested by
is inadequate. Several groups are known to offer some very rough experiments in which very large
animal health services. The untrained “animal health margins of error are attributed to the measurements
workers” and para-veterinarians are more popular of angels of incidence and refractions, and suppose
with farmers as they charge less for consultations that the results are shown to be compatible with the
(compared to veterinarians who are few and charge law within those margins of error. Has the law been
more). Over-the- counter access to antibiotics, supported by experiments that have severely tasted
without prescription, and direct marketing of drugs it? From Mayo’s [perspective the answer is “no”
to farmers are common. Because of this, farmers can because, owing to the roughness of the
treat their animals and only consult when cases measurements, the law of refraction would be quite
become non-responsive to treatment. Drug likely to pass this test even if it were false and some
withdrawal periods are rarely observed, and the other law differing not too much from Snell’s law
occurrence of antibiotic-contaminated milk has been true. An exercise I carried out in my school-teaching
reported. Awareness of antimicrobial resistance days serves to drive this point home. My students had
(AMR) is low and antimicrobial stewardship in conducted some not very careful experiments to test
livestock is yet to be developed. Snell’s law. I then presented them had been
suggested in antiquity and mediaeval times, prior to
77. Assertion (A): The prevalence of untrained the discovery of Snell’s law and invited the students
"animal health workers" and para-veterinarians in to test them with the measurements they had used to
North-East India indicates a lack of access to test Snell’s law; because of the wide margins of error
qualified veterinary services. they had attributed to their measurements, all of these
Reason (R): Farmers prefer untrained workers due alternative laws pass the test. This clearly brings out
to their lower consultation fees compared to the point that the experiments in question did not
qualified veterinarians. constitute a severe test of Snell’s law. The law would
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason have passed the test even if it were false and one of
is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). they historical alternatives true.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A). 78. Which of the following conclusion can be
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. drawn from the passage?
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. (a) Precise measurement is a sufficient condition to
Directions for the following items: ensure validity of conclusions resulting from an
experiment.
Read the following four passages and answer the
(b) Precise measurement is both a necessary and
items that follow each passage. Your answers to
these items should be based on the passages only. sufficient condition to ensure validity of conclusion
resulting from an experiment.
Passage 11
(c) Experimental data might support multiple
Deborah Mayo is a philosopher of science who has
attempted to capture the implications of the new theoretical explanations at the same time, hence
experimentalism in a philosophically rigorous way. validity of theories needs to be tested further.
Mayo focuses on the detailed way in which claims (d) Precise measurement along with experimenter’s
are validated by experiment, and is concerned with knowledge of the theory underpinning the
identifying just what claims are borne out and how. experiment is sufficient to ensure the validity of
A key idea underlying her treatment is that a claim conclusions drawn from experiment.
can only be said to be supported by experiment if the
15
79. As per Mayo’s perspective, which of the 80. When P will be as old as P's father is now, P
following best defines the phrase “scientific will be six times as old as what P's son is now. But
explanation”? at that time P's son will be seven years older than
(a) One which is most detailed in its explanation of what P is now. At present, the sum of the ages of
natural phenomena. P's father and P is 120 years. After 10 years, how
(b) One which survives examinations better than old would P be?
other explanations. (a) 52 years
(c) One which has been thoroughly tested by (b) 40 years
scientific experts. (c) 48 years
(d) One which refutes other explanations (d) 58 years
convincingly.

16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

17
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

18
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

19
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

20