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Maths Skills Questions Booklet

Marks :147

Time: 188

Questions 18 (the full questions are given, and each of them contain a
maths element)

Q1.
(a) Mutation is one cause of genetic variation in organisms.

Give two other causes of genetic variation.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

In a species of flowering plant, the T allele for tallness is dominant to the t allele for
dwarfness. In the same species, two alleles CR (red) and CW (white) code for the colour of
flowers. When homozygous red-flowered plants were crossed with homozygous white-
flowered plants, all the offspring had pink flowers.

(b) Name the relationship between the two alleles that code for flower colour.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(c) A dwarf, pink-flowered plant was crossed with a heterozygous tall, white-flowered
plant.

Complete the genetic diagram to show all the possible genotypes and the ratio of
phenotypes expected in the offspring of this cross.

Phenotypes of
Dwarf, pink-flowered × Tall, white-flowered
parents:
Genotypes of
_______________ _______________
parents:

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 Genotypes of offspring: ____________________________________________

Phenotypes of offspring: ___________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Ratio of phenotypes: ______________________________________________

(3)

(d) A population of this species of plant contained 9% of red-flowered plants.

Use the Hardy–Weinberg equation to calculate the percentage of pink-flowered

plants in this population.

Show your working.

Answer _______________ %
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q2.
The diagram below shows part of a DNA molecule.

(a) Name the type of bond between:

complementary base pairs _______________________________________

adjacent nucleotides in a DNA strand _______________________________

(2)

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 (b) The length of a gene is described as the number of nucleotide base pairs it contains.

Use information in above diagram to calculate the length of a gene containing 4.38 ×
103 base pairs.

Answer _______________ nm
(2)

(c) Describe two differences between the structure of a tRNA molecule and the
structure of an mRNA molecule.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) In a eukaryotic cell, the structure of the mRNA used in translation is different from
the structure of the pre-mRNA produced by transcription.

Describe and explain a difference in the structure of these mRNA molecules.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q3.
A scientist investigated birth mass in a population of babies. She determined the birth
mass (b) of babies and grouped this information into different ranges of birth mass.

Her results are shown in the table below.

Birth mass b / kg Range of mass / kg Frequency density

0.0 < b ⩽ 2.0 2.0 5 000

2.0 < b ⩽ 2.5 0.5 20 000

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2.5 < b ⩽ 3.0 0.5 90 000

3.0 < b ⩽ 3.5 0.5 260 000

3.5 < b ⩽ 4.5 1.0 200 000

4.5 < b ⩽ 5.5 1.0 20 000

Frequency density is calculated using this equation

(a) Draw, on Figure 1, a suitable chart to show the distribution of birth mass for this
population of babies.

Figure 1

(4)

(b) Babies with birth mass less than 2.5 kg are classified as low birth mass.

Use information in the table above and the equation to calculate the number of
babies born with low birth mass in this population.

Show your working.

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 Answer _______________
(2)

The scientist also measured the relationship between birth mass and babies
surviving less than 4 weeks. She determined if the mothers of these babies smoked
cigarettes during pregnancy. Her results are shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

(c) State three conclusions that can be drawn from the data in Figure 2.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

3. ________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 9 marks)

Q4.
Freshwater marshes have one of the highest rates of gross primary production (GPP) and
net primary production (NPP) of all ecosystems.

Carbon use efficiency (CUE) is the ratio of NPP:GPP. Freshwater marshes have a high
CUE.

(a) Use your knowledge of NPP to explain why freshwater marshes have a high CUE
and the advantage of this.

Do not refer to abiotic factors in your answer.

Explanation ________________________________________________________

Advantage _________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Freshwater marsh soils are normally waterlogged. This creates anaerobic
conditions.

Use your knowledge of the nitrogen cycle to suggest why these soils contain
relatively high concentrations of ammonium compounds and low concentrations of
nitrite ions and nitrate ions.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

A student investigated the growth rate of a freshwater marsh plant.

The growth rate (R) of a plant can be determined using this equation.

Where
ln = natural logarithm
t = duration of the investigation in days
W1 = plant biomass at the start of the investigation
W2 = plant biomass at the end of the investigation

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 The student used the equation above; however, she substituted height for biomass. This
was because she did not want to destroy the plants to measure their biomass.

(c) State the assumption the student has made and suggest why this assumption might
not be valid.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) At the end of the investigation, the student noted the freshwater marsh plant had
grown 268 mm in height, and now measured 387 mm. She calculated the rate of
growth (R) to be 0.097 mm m–1 day–1

Use this information and, substituting height for biomass, use the equation to
calculate the duration of the student’s investigation.

Give your answer to the nearest full day. Show your working.

______________________________ days
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q5.
(a) Complete the table below with ticks ( ✓) to show which elements are found in the
following biological molecules.

Element
Biological molecules
Carbon Nitrogen Oxygen Phosphorus

Galactose

Phospholipid

RNA

Sucrose

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 (2)

After Watson and Crick proposed the model of DNA structure, scientists investigated the
possible mechanisms for DNA replication.

Two scientists grew a bacterial population, providing them with a nitrogen source
containing only the heavy isotope of nitrogen, 15 N. As soon as all the DNA in this
population contained 15 N, the scientists changed the nitrogen source to one containing
only the lighter isotope of nitrogen, 14 N. They changed the nitrogen source at 0 hours.

During the investigation, the scientists measured the size of the population of bacterial
cells.

Figure 1 shows the scientists’ results.

Figure 1

(b) The generation time for a population of bacteria is the time taken for all the bacteria
to divide once by binary fission.

Use Figure 1 and the following equation to calculate the generation time for this
population of bacteria. Give your answer in hours.

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 Generation time _______________ hours
(2)

At intervals during this investigation, the scientists removed samples of the bacterial
population, isolated the DNA and measured the density of the DNA.

DNA made using 15 N has a higher density than DNA made using 14 N.

Figure 2 shows the scientists’ results.

Figure 2

There are three possible models of DNA replication.

These models are shown in Figure 3.

Figure 3

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 (c) Which of these models, P, Q or R, is supported by the results shown in Figure 2?

Give the letter and name of the model supported and explain why the results do not
support the other models.

Model _______________

Name _____________________________________________________________

Explanation for first

unsupported model __________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Explanation for second

unsupported model __________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

Q6.
The iris in the human eye is a muscular structure. The iris changes the size of the pupil.

The diagram below shows the muscles in the iris.

(a) Suggest and explain how the interaction between the muscles labelled in the

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 diagram above could cause the pupil to constrict (narrow).

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) The fovea of the eye of an eagle has a high density of cones. An eagle focuses the
image of its prey onto the fovea.

Explain how the fovea enables an eagle to see its prey in detail.

Do not refer to colour vision in your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(c) The retina of the human eye has an area of approximately 1.094 × 103 mm2

The circular fovea in a human eye has a diameter of 3 × 103µm

Calculate the area of the fovea as a percentage of the area of the retina.

The area of a circle is πr2. Use π = 3.14 in your calculation.

Show your working.

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 Answer _______________ %
(2)

(d) The retina of an owl has a high density of rod cells.

Explain how this enables an owl to hunt its prey at night.

Do not refer to rhodopsin in your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 10 marks)

Q7.
Yeast cells can respire aerobically or anaerobically. A student used the apparatus shown
in Figure 1 to measure the rate of respiration in yeast.

She:

• positioned the flask in a water bath so that the yeast culture reached a constant
temperature
• then left the apparatus for one hour before starting her investigation.

Figure 1

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(a) Suggest one reason why it was important that the student left the apparatus for one
hour after the yeast culture reached a constant temperature.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) During her investigation, the coloured liquid moved to the right.

Explain why it moved to the right.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter
of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.

The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length.

Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour–1.

Show your working.

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 Answer = ____________________ cm3 hour–1
(2)

Figure 2 shows a typical population growth curve for yeast under laboratory conditions.

Figure 2

(d) Explain why a log scale is used to record the number of cells.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(e) Many yeast cells die during the death phase.

Suggest one reason why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(f) The following equation can be used to make predictions of the growth in the
population of yeast cells under ideal laboratory conditions.

Xt = X0 ert

Xt = the population after a certain time

X0 = the population at the start
e = 2.72 (base of natural logarithm)
r = growth rate
t = time period in hours over which r applies

A population of 2000 yeast cells was left for 10 hours.

The value for the growth rate was 0.5

Assuming no yeast cells died, calculate the predicted size of the population after 10

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 hours. Show your working.

Answer = ____________________
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

Q8.
(a) Describe and explain one feature of the alveolar epithelium that makes the
epithelium well adapted as a surface for gas exchange. Do not refer to surface area
or moisture in your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Doctors measure the health of lungs by calculating the FEV1:FVC ratio.

• FEV1 is the maximum volume of air exhaled in one second.

• FVC is the maximum volume of air exhaled in one breath.

The minimum FEV1:FVC ratio of healthy lungs is 0.7:1

A man with the lung disease emphysema inflated his lungs fully. He then exhaled as much
of this air as quickly as possible in one breath. The figure below shows how the volume of
exhaled air changed during this breath.

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(b) Use the information provided to determine the FEV1:FVC ratio of this man’s lungs.

Go on to determine how many times greater the minimum ratio of healthy lungs is
than his ratio.

FEV1:FVC ratio of man’s lungs = _______________

How many times greater? _______________

(2)

(c) Tidal volume is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled during a single breath when a
person is resting. The tidal volume in a person with emphysema is reduced
compared with the tidal volume in a healthy person.

Suggest and explain how a reduced tidal volume affects the exchange of carbon
dioxide between the blood and the alveoli.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

Q9.
Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) are a group of malignant cancers. In MDS, the bone
marrow does not produce healthy blood cells.

Haematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is one treatment for MDS. In HSCT, the
patient receives stem cells from the bone marrow of a person who does not have MDS.
Before the treatment starts, the patient’s faulty bone marrow is destroyed.

(a) For some patients, HSCT is an effective treatment for MDS.

Explain how.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) MDS can develop from epigenetic changes to tumour suppressor genes. In some
patients, the drug AZA has reduced the effects of MDS. AZA is an inhibitor of DNA
methyltransferases. These enzymes add methyl groups to cytosine bases.

Suggest and explain how AZA can reduce the effects of MDS in some patients.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

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 Scientists investigated the effectiveness of AZA in patients with MDS. A total of 360
patients were randomised in the ratio of 1:1 to receive AZA or conventional drugs
(control).

The figure below shows the scientists’ results.

(c) The control patients were treated with conventional drugs.

Give two reasons why.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) Use the figure above and the information provided to calculate the difference in the
number of patients surviving at 10 months after treatment with AZA compared with
conventional drugs.

Answer _______________
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

Q10.
(a) Describe how a phosphodiester bond is formed between two nucleotides within a
DNA molecule.

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 ___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) The two DNA strands of a particular gene contain 168 guanine bases between
them. The relationship between the numbers of guanine bases (G), adenine bases
(A), thymine bases (T) and cytosine bases (C) in these two strands of DNA is shown
in the following equation.

G = 4(A + T) – C

Use this information and your understanding of DNA structure to calculate the
maximum number of amino acids coded by this gene.

Show your working.

Answer _______________
(2)

(c) Name the protein associated with DNA in a chromosome.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) In the process of semi-conservative DNA replication, the two strands within a DNA
molecule are separated. Each then acts as a template for the formation of a new
complementary strand.

Describe how the separation of strands occurs.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q11.
Trout is a type of fish, often produced commercially in trout farms.

A scientist investigated the growth of farmed trout. She determined the median mass of a
large population of trout at intervals. She started measuring on the day the newly hatched
fish began feeding. Her results are shown on the graph below.

The best fit line shown on the graph is represented using this equation.

median fish mass = (m × days feeding) + 50

where m is the gradient of the best fit line.

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(a) Use the graph above and the equation to calculate the median mass of fish after
195 days’ feeding.

Show your working.

Answer _______________ mg
(2)

(b) A trout body cell contains 80 chromosomes.

The table below shows the number of chromosomes and the mass of DNA in
different nuclei. All the nuclei are from the same trout.

Complete the table below.

Number of Mass of DNA /

Nucleus
chromosomes arbitrary units

At prophase of mitosis 80

At telophase of mitosis 25

From an egg cell

(2)

(c) Give one reason why trout eggs produced by meiosis are genetically different.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

A trout body cell contains 80 chromosomes.

Farmed female trout are treated so that they produce diploid egg cells.

(d) Give the number of chromosomes in body cells of the offspring produced from
treated farmed female trout and untreated farmed male trout.

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 Number of chromosomes _______________
(1)

(e) The offspring produced from farmed trout are sterile. Suggest and explain why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q12.
(a) In the UK in 2016, there were 525 048 deaths. Cancer caused 30.4% of all deaths.
Throat cancer caused 5% of all deaths from cancer.

Calculate the mean number of people who died of throat cancer per month in 2016.

Show your working.

Answer _______________ people per month

(2)

Increased methylation of the promoter region of a tumour suppressor gene causes one
type of human throat cancer.

In this type of throat cancer, cancer cells are able to pass on the increased methylation to
daughter cells. The methylation is caused by an enzyme called DNMT.

Scientists have found that a chemical in green tea, called EGCG, is a competitive inhibitor
of DNMT. EGCG enables daughter cells to produce messenger RNA (mRNA) from the
tumour suppressor gene.

(b) Suggest how EGCG allows the production of mRNA in daughter cells.

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 ___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

The scientists investigated the effect of different amounts of EGCG on the growth rate of
the throat cancer cells grown in vitro. Their results are shown in the graph below.

(c) A reporter who reviewed all of this work concluded that drinking green tea could be
a cure for cancer.

Suggest three reasons why his conclusion might not be valid.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

3 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

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 (Total 8 marks)

Q13.
(a) The figure below shows the mean distance between centromeres and the poles
(ends) of the spindle during mitosis.

Calculate the rate of movement of the centromeres during phase E.

Give your answer in μm minute–1 and to 3 decimal places.

____________________ μm minute–1
(2)

(b) Name the three phases of mitosis shown by C, D and E on the figure above.

Describe the role of the spindle fibres and the behaviour of the chromosomes during
each of these phases.

C _________________________________________________________________

D _________________________________________________________________

E _________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________

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(5)
(Total 7 marks)

Q14.
A scientist investigated a sequence of reactions catalysed by two enzymes, GOx and
HRP. Figure 1 shows this sequence of reactions.

Figure 1

(a) Use Figure 1 to identify all of the products formed when this sequence of reactions
is completed.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) The scientist joined DNA molecules together to make tiny cages. The cages are
exactly 20 nm long, 20 nm wide and 17 nm deep.

He trapped one GOx molecule and one HRP molecule together in each cage. The
GOx molecule and HRP molecule fill 9% of the cage volume.

The volume of a GOx molecule is eight times larger than an HRP molecule.

Use this information to calculate the volume of a GOx molecule. Give the
appropriate unit with your answer.

Show your working.

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 Answer _______________
(3)

The scientist investigated the activity of GOx and HRP enzymes when they are:

• trapped inside cages (T) and

• not trapped (NT), but free in solution with no cages.

Figure 2 shows his results.

The error bars show ± 2 standard deviations.

± 2 standard deviations include 95% of the data.

Figure 2

(c) What can you conclude from Figure 2 about the effect of trapping GOx and HRP
inside cages?

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(d) The design of the scientist’s investigation did not include a suitable control.

Suggest a suitable control.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 8 marks)

Q15.
A meadow is an area of grassland with a wide range of plant and animal species.

A student investigated whether cutting some of the plants in a meadow had any effect on
the biodiversity of insects in that meadow.

The student created two sample areas, called plots, in the meadow. Each plot measured
10 m × 5 m

The student:

• did not cut plants in plot 1

• cut the plants in plot 2 with a lawn mower once a week.

After 10 weeks, the student captured all of the organisms of four insect species found in
each of these plots.

The figure below shows the student’s results.

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(a) Use the information in the figure above to calculate the index of diversity for the
insects captured in plot 1.

The formula to calculate the index of diversity (d) is

where N is the total number of insects of all species and n is the total number of
insects of each species.

Give the answer to 2 significant figures and show your working.

d = _______________
(2)

(b) The student concluded that cutting plants with a lawn mower increased the species
richness of insects in that meadow.

Use information in the diagram above to explain why the student’s conclusion is

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 incorrect.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(c) The student wanted to use the data from plot 1 to estimate the total number of the
beetle species in the meadow.

Suggest how the student should use the data from plot 1 and other information
provided to estimate the total number of the beetle species in the meadow.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________

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(4)
(Total 7 marks)

Q16.
A student investigated the activity of the enzyme amylase. He cut three identical wells (D,
E and F) in starch-agar in a Petri dish. He added 0.2 cm3 of:

• amylase solution to well D

• boiled amylase solution to well E
• water to well F.

After 60 minutes, he covered the starch-agar with iodine solution. The figure below shows
his results.

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(a) Explain the appearance of the agar in the clear area surrounding well D.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) What can you conclude about the activity of amylase from the appearance of the
agar surrounding well E and well F in the figure above?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) The student cut out a piece of agar from the clear area surrounding well D. He
obtained a solution of the substances contained in this piece of agar.

Describe a different biochemical test the student could use with this solution to
confirm that amylase had affected the starch in the clear area surrounding well D.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

The diameter of the clear area around well D is 18 mm

In a different investigation, the student prepared a dilution of the amylase solution. He did
this by mixing amylase solution and water in the volumes shown in the table below.

Amylase solution /
Water / cm3
cm3

1.6 2.4

He prepared a starch-agar Petri dish identical to the figure above, but with a single well.
He added 0.2 cm3 of the diluted amylase solution to this well and left the Petri dish for 60
minutes.

(d) Use all of this information to predict the diameter of the clear area that will form
around the well containing the diluted amylase solution.

Give your answer to the nearest whole number.

Show your working.

Answer __________ mm
(2)

(e) The student used a ruler to measure the diameter in mm of the clear area around
well D in the figure above.

Use this information to explain why the answer to part (d) should be given to the
nearest whole number.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 9 marks)

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Q17.
(a) Describe how an ATP molecule is formed from its component molecules.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________
(4)

A scientist investigated the effect of cyanide on the rate of amino acid uptake in two types
of Escherichia coli, G and H.

• G cells produce enzymes involved in ATP production only on their cell-surface

membrane.
• H cells produce enzymes involved in ATP production on their cell-surface
membrane and in their cytoplasm.

The graph below shows her results.

(b) Use the graph above to calculate the percentage decrease in the rate of amino acid
absorption by H cells in 30 mmol dm–3 cyanide solution.

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 Answer __________ %
(1)

(c) Using the graph above and the information provided, what can you conclude about
amino acid uptake by G cells and by H cells?

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

Q18.
Uronema marinum is a single-celled eukaryotic organism. The diagram below is a
photograph of U. marinum taken through an optical microscope.

(a) Explain why it is not possible to determine the identity of the structures labelled X
using an optical microscope.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) U. marinum cells ingest bacteria and digest them in the cytoplasm.

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 Describe the role of one named organelle in digesting these bacteria.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(c) Calculate the actual length of the cell shown between Y and Z in the diagram above.

The magnification of the image is × 900

Give your answer in μm and to 2 significant figures.

Show your working.

Answer __________ μm
(2)

(d) In large cells of U. marinum, most mitochondria are found close to the cell-surface
membrane. In smaller cells, the mitochondria are distributed evenly throughout the
cytoplasm. Mitochondria use oxygen during aerobic respiration.

Use this information and your knowledge of surface area to volume ratios to suggest
an explanation for the position of mitochondria in large U. marinum cells.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

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Mark schemes

Q1.
(a) 1. Crossing over;

2. Independent segregation/assortment (of homologous chromosomes);

Accept independent assortment of alleles.
Accept meiosis as an alternative for 1 or 2 if neither of these
marks is awarded.

3. Random fusion of gametes

OR

Random fertilisation;
Accept random mating.
2 max

(b) Codominance;
Accept incomplete dominance
1

(c) 1. ttCRCW and TtCWCW;

2. TtCRCW, TtCWCW, ttCRCW and ttCWCW ;

3. Tall pink, tall white, dwarf pink, dwarf white, and ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1;
Accept: any order of genotypes and phenotypes and ignore if
on incorrect answer lines.
Accept: sequence of phenotypes does not need to mirror
genotypes but must be correct.
Accept equivalent ratios e.g. 4:4:4:4.
Allow equivalent of mark points 2 and 3 for cross using
homozygous tall parent i.e. TTCWCW.
Allow one mark for correct dihybrid genotypes of offspring
from incorrect parental genotypes.
3

(d) 1. Correct answer of 42% = 2 marks;;

Accept: 0.42 for 1 mark.

2. Incorrect answer but shows understanding that 2pq =

pink/heterozygous/carriers = 1 mark

OR

Answer = 0.42 = 1 mark OR

Answer = 16.38 / 16.4 = 1 mark;

Accept 1 – (p2 + q2) for 2pq or equivalent using numbers.
Accept: understanding of 2pq by using a calculation involving
2 × two different numbers.
2

Page 36 of 53
 [8]

Q2.
(a) 1. Hydrogen (bonds);

2. Phosphodiester (bonds);
Accept ester/covalent bond
2

(b) Correct answer for 2 marks = 1489/1489.2;;

Incorrect answer but for 1 mark accept:

876

OR

1861 - 1862
2

(c) 1. tRNA is 'clover leaf shape', mRNA is linear;

Must be a comparison
Reject tRNA is double stranded
Accept tRNA is folded for tRNA is ‘clover leaf shaped’

2. tRNA has hydrogen bonds, mRNA does not;

3. tRNA has an amino acid binding site, mRNA does not;

Accept ‘CCA end' for amino acid binding site

4. tRNA has anticodon, mRNA has codon;

2

(d) 1. mRNA fewer nucleotides

OR

Pre-mRNA more nucleotides

OR

mRNA has no introns/has (only) exons

OR

Pre-mRNA has (exons and) introns;

Accept mRNA is shorter OR pre-mRNA is longer

2. (Because of) splicing;

2
[8]

Q3.
(a) Histogram

Page 37 of 53
 1. Linear scale for y axis;

2. Linear scale for x axis;

3. Correct bar widths and touching;

4. All bar heights plotted accurately;

OR

Bar chart accept for 3 marks,

5. Linear scale for y axis;

6. Labelled bars of equal width and not touching;

7. All bar heights plotted accurately;

OR

Graph accept for 2 marks,

8. Linear scale for y axis;

9. All co-ordinates plotted accurately for frequency density;

Reject answers where data for frequency density and birth
mass not used
4

(b) Correct answer for 2 marks = 20 000;;

Accept for 1 mark, rearranged equation (eg number of babies = frequency density ×
range of mass)
2

(c) 1. Survival increases as the birth mass increases;

2. Survival decreases with smoking;

3. Effect of smoking (on number) similar at all birth masses;

3
[9]

Q4.
(a) 1. Low respiration;
Accept less energy lost in respiration

2. More growth/biomass/colonisation;
Allow examples of more carbon-containing molecules eg
glucose
2

(b) 1. Less nitrification

OR

Page 38 of 53
 Fewer/less active nitrifying bacteria;

OR

Nitrification/nitrifying bacteria require oxygen/aerobic conditions;

2. (Less) oxidation/conversion of ammonium (ions) to nitrite (ions)

and to nitrate (ions);
Order must be nitrite then nitrate
Accept ammonia for ammonium ions
Accept correct chemical formulae for ions, eg there will be
little
oxidation/conversion of NH4+ → NO2- → NO3-
Ignore ‘breakdown’ for
oxidation/conversion

3. More denitrification

OR

More/more active denitrifying bacteria

OR

Denitrification/denitrifying bacteria do not require oxygen

OR

Denitrification/denitrifying bacteria require anaerobic conditions;

4. (So more) nitrate (ions) reduced/converted to nitrogen (gas);

Accept correct chemical formulae eg So more
NO3-reduced/converted to N2;
2 max

(c) 1. Assumed that height is (directly) proportional to biomass;

Accept descriptions of ‘is proportional to’, eg correlates to, is
equivalent to

2. (Plants may put biomass into) other named aspect of growth (other
than height)

OR

Height does not include the roots

OR

Some increase in height results from water gain;

Examples of other named aspects of growth could include
root growth, flower/seed/fruit formation, lateral growth, wider
leaves
2

(d) 1. Answer of 12 days = 2 marks;;

2. 12.16 (12.15774433) = 1 mark

Page 39 of 53
 OR

4 days (used 387 and 268, ie not calculated starting length) = 1 mark;
2
[8]

Q5.
(a) 4 rows correct = 2 marks;;
2 or 3 rows correct = 1 mark;
0 or 1 row correct = 0 marks

(b) Correct answer for 2 marks, 0.8376308/0.84/0.8 (hours);;

Accept for 1 mark,

Evidence of 4 x 106 and 3 x 109 (written in any format, for correct readings from
graph)

OR

Evidence of 9.550746785 (correct number of generations)

OR

Evidence of 1.1938443348 (correct generations/ hour)

OR

Evidence of 50.26 (correct generation time in minutes)

Incorrect reading of graph, 3 x 106 and 2 x 109

Accept for 1 mark, calculation carried out correctly

Evidence of 9.380821784 (correct calculation of number of generations)

OR

Evidence of 1.172602723 (correct calculation of generations/ hour)

OR

Evidence of 51.16822503 (correct calculation of generation time in minutes)

OR

Evidence of 0.8528037505 (correct calculation of generation time in hours)

Page 40 of 53
 Incorrect reading of graph, 106.4 and 109.3 OR 106.3 and 109.2

Accept for 1 mark, calculation carried out correctly

Evidence of 9.633591475 (correct calculation of number of generations)

OR

Evidence of 1.204198934 (correct calculation of generations/ hour)

OR

Evidence of 49.82565445 (correct calculation of generation time in minutes)

OR

Evidence of 0.8304275742 (correct calculation of generation time in hours)

OR

Evidence of 0.83, with no other working

Accept correct rounding to any number of decimal places
2

(c) 1. (Model) Q and

(Name) Semi-conservative (replication);

Explanation

2. (Model) P (is unsupported because)

There should be two peaks in generation 1

OR

(Only) one peak is shown in generation 1

OR

There should be 3:1 (ratio) of peaks in generation 2

OR

There should not be an intermediate/15N 14N peak in generation 1/2/3

OR

The original/generation 0/15N peak should be in generation 1/2/3;

3. (Model) R (is unsupported because)

There should be >2 peaks in generation 2/3

OR

There should be one wide/overlapping peak in generation 3;

Accept answers 2. and 3. in either order

Page 41 of 53
 Accept for ‘peak’, density OR distribution
Accept for ‘>2’, many OR several
3
[7]

Q6.
(a) 1. Circular muscle contracts;

2. Radial muscle relaxes;

Accept, for one mark ‘both muscles contract’ or ‘both
muscles relax’ as names of muscles are in the diagram.
Reject muscles constrict.
2

(b) 1. High (visual) acuity;

2. (Each) cone is connected to a single neurone;

Accept no retinal convergence.
Accept ‘bipolar/nerve cell’ for neurone.

3. (Cones send) separate (sets of) impulses to brain;

Accept ‘optic nerve’ for brain.
Reject ‘signals’, ‘messages’ for ‘impulses’.
Accept ‘action potential’.
3

(c) 1. Correct answer of 0.6 (%) = 2 marks;;

Ignore any numbers after 0.6, 2.58, 2.6 and after 0.43.

2. Incorrect answer but shows number sequence 7065 / 7068 / 7069 /

(ignore position of decimal point) = 1 mark

OR

Final answer number sequence has 64 / 65 (ignore preceding

zeros, numbers that follow and position of decimal point) = 1 mark

OR

Final answer is 2.58 / 2.6 (%) = 1 mark

OR

Final answer of 0.43 (%) = 1 mark;

2

(d) 1. High (visual) sensitivity;

Accept retinal convergence.

2. Several rods connected to a single neurone;

Accept ‘bipolar/nerve cell’ for neurone
Accept 2, ‘many’ or

3. Enough (neuro)transmitter to reach/overcome threshold

Page 42 of 53
 OR

Spatial summation to reach/overcome threshold; more for ‘several’

Reject ‘signals’, ‘messages’ for ‘impulses’.
Accept named neurotransmitter.
Accept depolarisation, ‘action potential’ or ‘generator
potential’ for ‘to reach threshold’.
Generator potentials combine to reach threshold/
depolarisation/action potential/generator potential.
3
[10]

Q7.
(a) (So the) oxygen is used/absorbed/respired;
1

(b) 1. Anaerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide;

2. Increase in pressure/volume (of gas);

Reference to either volume or pressure required for the mark
2

(c) 1. Correct answer in range of

4.9 × 10–4 to 4.91 × 10–4 = 2 marks;;
Accept any equivalent mathematical representation of this
answer

2. Incorrect answer buts shows division by 24 = 1 mark

OR
Incorrect answer but shows a number from 1175 to 1178 (ignore position of
decimal point, standard form and any numbers that follow) = 1 mark;
OR
Incorrect answer but show the number 49 (ignore position of decimal point,
standard form and any numbers after 49) = 1 mark;
2

(d) Large range/difference/increase in numbers;

Accept reference to exponential (increase)
Ignore if the answer only refers to numbers being high
Ignore to ‘fit on the scale’
1

(e) Decrease/no glucose/substrate

OR
Increase in ethanol/carbon dioxide/acidity;
Accept decrease/no oxygen as Figure 2 is not linked to
Figure 1.
Accept competition for glucose/oxygen.
Accept any named sugar
Accept decrease in pH
Accept increase in toxins
Ignore food/nutrients
1

Page 43 of 53
 (f) 1. Correct answer of 298000 or 297766 or 297765.59 or 296826 = 2 marks;;
Accept: any equivalent answer with appropriate rounding
e.g. 2.98 × 105,
29.78 × 104 etc.

2. Incorrect answer but working shows 2000 × 2.72 = 1 mark;

OR
Incorrect answer but working shows 2.720.5 × 10 / 2.725 / e0.5 × 10 / = 1 mark
2
[9]

Q8.
(a) Mark in pairs: 1 and 2 OR 3 and 4

1. Flattened cells

OR

Single layer of cells;

Reject thin cell wall/membrane
Accept thin cells
Accept ‘one cell thick’

2. Reduces diffusion distance/pathway;

3. Permeable;

4. Allows diffusion of oxygen/carbon dioxide;

Ignore gas exchange
2

(b) Correct answer for 2 marks = 1.10–1.15;;

Accept for 1 mark,

0.6(1) : 1 (correct FEV1 : FEC ratio)

2

(c) 1. Less carbon dioxide exhaled/moves out (of lung)

OR

More carbon dioxide remains (in lung);

2. (So) reduced diffusion/concentration gradient (between blood and alveoli);

3. Less/slower movement of carbon dioxide out of blood

OR

More carbon dioxide stays in blood;

3
[7]

Page 44 of 53
Q9.
(a) 1. Produce healthy (blood) cells;
Accept produce ‘normal’ /non-MDS cells.

2. No MDS/faulty/cancerous (blood) cells;

Produce only healthy/normal (blood) cells = two marks.
Accept no (cancerous) tumour.

3. Stem cells divide/replicate;

Ignore reference to totipotent/pluripotent/
multipotent/unipotent
Accept ‘clone’ for divide.
3

(b) 1. (AZA) reduces methylation (of DNA/cytosine/gene);

Reject any reference to mutation.

2. (Tumour suppressor) gene is transcribed/expressed;

Accept mRNA produced for transcription/transcribed.
Ignore gene is ‘switched on’ or activated but allow protein is
formed.

3. Prevents rapid/uncontrollable cell division

OR

Cell division can be controlled/stopped/slowed;

Ignore growth.
3

(c) 1. Effect of AZA can be compared;

Comparison on its own is not enough for a mark.

2. Unethical not to treat (control group);

2

(d) 1. Correct answer of 29/28.8 = 2 marks;;

2. Working shows 0.74 and 0.58 = 1 mark

OR

58/57.6 = 1 mark

OR

28 = 1 mark;
2
[10]

Q10.
(a) 1. Condensation (reaction)/loss of water;

2. (Between) phosphate and deoxyribose;

Page 45 of 53
 3. (Catalysed by) DNA polymerase;
Reject if DNA polymerase joins AT/GC OR complementary
nucleotides/bases OR forms hydrogen bonds
2 max

(b) Correct answer for 2 marks = 70;;

Accept for 1 mark,

A = 42 and T = 42

OR

420 (total bases in gene)

OR

210 (bases in template strand)

2

(c) Histone;
1

(d) 1. DNA helicase;

2. Breaks hydrogen bonds between base pairs/ AT and GC/complementary

bases

OR

Breaks hydrogen bonds between polynucleotide strands;

Reject hydrolysis of hydrogen bonds
2
[7]

Q11.
(a) Correct answer of 960 to 1025 (mg) for 2 marks;;

Accept for 1 mark,

m = 4.18 to 5.00
2

(b) Mark each column;;

Number of Mass of DNA /
chromosomes arbitrary units

50

80

40 12.5
2

(c) Independent segregation

OR
Crossing over;

Page 46 of 53
 Accept labelled diagram
Accept (eggs produced) have different combinations of
maternal and paternal chromosomes
1

(d) 120;
1

(e) 1. Too many/extra set/three copies of chromosomes;

Accept 1 paternal, 2 maternal

2. (Homologous) chromosomes do not pair

OR

(Homologous) chromosomes do not separate (evenly);

Accept divide for separate

3. (So) no meiosis;
2 max
[8]

Q12.
(a) 665 (people per month);;

Allow one mark for 7980/7981 in working (number of deaths from throat
cancer per year)
Accept answers not rounded
2

(b) 1. (EGCG) binds to active site of DNMT;

Ignore active site changes shape
Ignore ‘forms enzyme-substrate’ complex

2. (DNMT) cannot methylate (promoter region of tumour suppressor gene);

3. Transcription(al) factor(s) can bind (to promoter region);

4. RNA polymerase (stimulated/activated);

Accept less methylation (of promoter region/tumour
suppressor gene)
3 max

(c) 1. Only investigated in throat cancer

OR

Might not work for other types of cancer;

2. Not all cancers are caused by (increased) methylation (of a tumour

suppressor gene)

OR

There are other causes of cancer;

Page 47 of 53
 3. Only a significant reduction with 20/50/above 10 (µmol)
Allow converse, ie no significant effect with 5/10 (µmol)

4. Do not know how much EGCG is in green tea;

5. Only reduces growth rate (of cancer cells)

OR

No evidence of cancer being cured;

6. In vivo cells/cells in the body might respond (to EGCG) differently

(from those grown in vitro);
3 max
[8]

Q13.
(a) Correct answer for 2 marks, 1.286;;

Accept for 1 mark,

1.28571429 (correct answer not to 3 decimal places)

OR

1.285 (incorrect rounding to 3 decimal places)

OR

Evidence of 0.02142857

OR

Evidence of 19 and 4 and 700

OR

Evidence of 15 and 1800 and 2500

OR

Evidence of 15 and 700

2

(b) 1. C = prophase and

D = metaphase and

E = anaphase;

2. (In) prophase, chromosomes condense;

Accept chromatin for ‘chromosomes’ and for ‘condense’,
shorten and thicken

3. (In) prophase OR metaphase, centromeres attach to spindle fibres;

4. (In) metaphase, chromosomes/pairs of chromatids at

Page 48 of 53
 equator/centre of spindle/cell;

5. (In) anaphase, centromeres divide;

6. (In) anaphase, chromatids (from each pair) pulled to (opposite) poles/ends (of
cell);
Accept for ‘chromatids’, chromosomes but reject
homologous chromosomes

7. (In) prophase/metaphase/anaphase, spindle fibres shorten;

If mark point 1 is not credited = 4 max
Do not carry forward error from 1.
Accept letters for stages as indicated in 1.
Accept for ‘shorten’, contract
5 max
[7]

Q14.
(a) All three correct and no other substances = 1 mark Gluconic acid, water, green
pigment;
Accept in any order
1

(b) Correct answer for 3 marks = 544 and nm3;;;

Accept for 2 marks:

612 (cage volume occupied by enzymes)

OR

68 (volume of HRP)

OR

544 (correct answers with no unit)

Accept for 1 mark:

6800 (cage volume)

3

(c) 1. (Trapping) increases enzyme/GOx/HRP activity;

2. Difference/increase is significant

OR

Difference is not (likely to be) due to chance;

3. (Because) SDs do not overlap;

Accept for ‘standard deviations’, error bars
3

(d) Denatured enzymes

Page 49 of 53
 OR

Inactivated enzymes

OR

Empty cages (in water);

Accept any valid method of denaturing/inactivation
1
[8]

Q15.
(a) Correct answer for 2 marks = 2.7;;
Accept for 1 mark,

79 × 78/6162 in numerator (value of N(N ‒ 1))

OR

2286 in denominator (value of Σn(n ‒ 1) )

OR

22, 41, 14, 2 (correct readings of bar chart for all species)

OR

0.37 – 0.38 (correct calculation using correct numerator and incorrect

figures from bar chart: 22, 63, 77, 79)
2

(b) 1. Same number of (different) species (in both plots)

OR

(Both plots) have 4 species;

1

(c) 1. Determine the area of plot 1.

2. Calculate (total) area of meadow;

3. Divide area of meadow by area of plot;

4. Multiply by number of beetles (per plot)/41;

Accept multiply by incorrect figure taken from figure (eg 43)
4
[7]

Q16.
(a) 1. Amylase hydrolyses starch;

2. (To) maltose;
2

(b) 1. (E) Amylase/enzyme is denatured;

Page 50 of 53
 Accept a description of denaturation

2. (F) amylase is needed for/causes starch hydrolysis/breakdown/digestion

OR

(F) water (alone) does not (cause starch) hydrolysis/breakdown/digestion;

Ignore ‘it is a control’
2

(c) 1. Heat in Benedict’s (solution);

Reject description of non-reducing sugar test

2. Red/green/orange (precipitate/colour) (shows maltose/reducing sugar);

Accept for ‘heat’, water bath
2

(d) Correct answer for 2 marks = 7;;

Accept for 1 mark,

7.2 (correct answer but not rounded)

OR

Evidence of 1.6 ÷ 4.0/0.4/40% (correct dilution factor)

OR

Evidence of 0.08 (correct amylase volume in 0.2cm3)

2

(e) 1. Reduces (human) error/uncertainty;

2. (It is) the resolution of a ruler;

3. (For a ruler measurement) the uncertainty is ±1(mm)

OR

(For a ruler measurement) the true value lies with ±1(mm);

Ignore can only measure to whole numbers
Ignore reliability and precision
Accept, the uncertainty of a ruler reading is (±)0.5(mm) OR
readings of <1mm are not accurate
1 max
[9]

Q17.
(a) 1. and 2. Accept for 2 marks correct names of three components adenine,
ribose/pentose, three phosphates;;
Accept for 1 mark, correct name of two components
Accept for 1 mark, ADP and phosphate/Pi
Ignore adenosine
Accept suitably labelled diagram

Page 51 of 53
 3. Condensation (reaction);
Ignore phosphodiester

4. ATP synthase;
Reject ATPase
4

(b) Correct answer for 1 mark = 57/57.1;

1

(c) 1. (Amino acid uptake by) active transport;

Accept for ‘transport’, process

2. Cyanide reduces/stops amino acid uptake;

3. ATP production stops on membranes

OR

Enzymes not working on membranes;

4. ATP production continues in cytoplasm

OR

Enzymes active in cytoplasm;

3 max
[8]

Q18.
(a) 1. Resolution (too) low;

2. Because wavelength of light is (too) long;

2

(b) 1. Lysosomes;

2. Fuse with vesicle;

Accept phagosome for vesicle

3. (Releases) hydrolytic enzymes;

Accept lysozymes for "hydrolytic enzymes"
Accept ‘Ribosomes/ Rough endoplasmic reticulum form
hydrolytic enzymes = 2 marks
Accept ‘Golgi body forms lysosomes’ = 2 marks
Accept ‘Golgi body / ribosomes / rough endoplasmic
reticulum’ for 1 mark if no other mark awarded.
3

(c) Correct answer for 2 marks = 32;;

Accept for 1 mark,

29 000 (correct conversion to μm)

OR

Page 52 of 53
 32.2 (correct answer but incorrect significant figures)

OR

OR

An incorrect answer that shows division by 900

2

(d) 1. Large(r) cells have small(er) surface area to volume ratio;

2. (Takes) longer for oxygen to diffuse (to mitochondria)

OR

Less/no oxygen diffuses (to mitochondria)

OR

Diffusion distance/pathway is long(er);

Accept converse for all marking points.
2
[9]

Page 53 of 53