0% found this document useful (0 votes)
54 views37 pages

BCECE Physics Question Paper 2015 PDF Download

Uploaded by

neharajmuz74
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
54 views37 pages

BCECE Physics Question Paper 2015 PDF Download

Uploaded by

neharajmuz74
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 37

BCECE – 2015

Time: 1 Hour 30 Minutes No. of Questions: 100

Physics

Instructions to Candidates:
1. This Booklet contains 16 Pages (apart from the OMR answer
sheet).
2. Roll No. should be written in digits as well as in words in the
appropriate Box provided at serial-3 above on the upper portion of
the front cover page of this Test Booklet as per the example given
below:
3. Each Question is of four marks, which will be awarded for the
correct answer. For each incorrect answer one mark will be
deducted from the total marks obtained. Zero mark will be given
for Questions not answered. More than one Answer indicated
against a Question will be declared as incorrect answer.
4. Use of Calculator/Slide Rule/Log Table/Graph Paper/Charts or
any electronic gadget eg. Mobile Phone, Bluetooth, Pager etc., is
not allowed.
5. If there is any difference between English version and the
corresponding translated version in Hindi of any question, then the
English version will be treated as authentic.
6. Any candidate attempting or using unfair means or copying or
detaching any page of question booklet or marking the answer on
the question booklet will be expelled and his candidature will be
rejected.
7. Candidates must also follow the instructions, which may be
given by the Centre Superintendent from time to time.
8. ADDITIONAL BOOKLET/ANSWER-SHEET WILL NOT BE
PROVIDED UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCESOTHER THAN
THAT MENTIONED IN 1 ABOVE.
9. CANDIDATES MUST SUBMIT THE WHOLE BOOKLET
ALONG WITH THE OMR ANSWER-SHEET AT THE END OF
EXAMINATION.
(B) Process for Filling up Part of Answer-Sheet.
I. ANSWER-SHEET IS OF OMR TYPE TO BE READ BY
COMPUTER SCANNER.

1. A ball of mass M, collides elastically and head on with another


ball of mass M2 initially at rest. In which of the following cases the
transfer of momentum will be maximum?
(A) M1>M2
(B) M1=M2
(C) M1<M2
(D) Data is insufficient to predict it.


2. Two particles of equal masses have velocity v1 = 2iˆ m/s and
 
ˆ
v 2 = 2 j m/s. The first particle has an acceleration a= (3iˆ + 3j)
ˆ
1
m/s2 while the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The centre
of mass of the two particles moves in a
(A) circle
(B) parabola
(C) ellipse
(D) straight line

3. A body is kept on a horizontal disc of radius 2 m at a distance of


1 m from the centre. The coefficient of friction between the body
and the surface of the disc is 0.4. The speed of rotation of the disc
at which the body starts slipping is (g=10 m/s2)
(A) 4 rad/s
(B) 2 rad/s
(C) 0.4 rad/s
(D) 2 rad/s

4. A wheel has moment of inertia 5 kgm2. If 105 J of work is done


in producing rotational kinetic energy, then the wheel attains an
angular speed equal to
(A) 200 rad/s
(B) 20 rad/s
(C) 100 rad/s
(D) 10 rad/s

5. A balloon has 5 g of air. A small hole is pierced into it. The air
escapes at a uniform rate with a velocity of 4 cm/s. If the balloon
shrinks completely in 2.5 s, then the average force acting on the
balloon is
(A) 2 dyne
(B) 2 N
(C) 8 dyne
(D) 8 N

6. A body weighs 700 g on the surface of the earth. How much will
1
it weigh on the surface of a planet whose mass is and radius is
7
half that of earth?
(A) 200 g
(B) 400 g
(C) 350g
(D) 50g

7. Three uniform spheres, each having mass m and radius r, are


kept in such a way that each touches the other two. The magnitude
of the gravitational force on any sphere due to the other two is
m2
(A) G 2
r
Gm 2
(B)
4r 2
Gm 2
(C) 2 2
4r
Gm 2
(D) 3 2
4r
8. Which of the following statements is not correct for the decrease
in the value of acceleration due to gravity?
(A) As we go down from the surface of the earth towards its centre.
(B) As we go up from the surface of the earth.
(C) As we go from equator to the poles on the surface of the earth.
(D) As the rotational velocity of the earth is increased.

9. There are four point masses m each on the corners of a square of


side length l. About one of its diagonals, the moment of inertia of
the system is
(A) 2 ml2
(B) ml2
(C) 4 ml2
(D) 6 ml2

10. Two cylinders A and B of radii r and 2r are soldered coaxially.


The free end of A is clamped and the free end of B is twisted by an
angle θ . The twist produced at the junction is
16
(A) θ
17
17
(B) θ
16
(C) θ
(D) Zero
11. A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid
support. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is
(Y is Young’s modulus)
ρL2g
(A)
4Y
ρL2g
(B)
2Y
ρL2g
(C)
Y
ρLg
(D)
Y

12. The -excess pressure inside the first soap bubble is three times
that inside the second bubble. Then the ratio of the volumes of the
first and second bubbles is
(A) 1:3
(B) 3:1
(C) 1:27
(D) 27:1

13. A long capillary tube of radius 0.2 mm is placed vertically


inside a beaker of water. The surface tension of water is 7.0 x 10-2
N/m. Water rises into the capillary tube upto a height of 5 cm. The
angle of contact between the glass and water is (g=10 m/s2)
4
(A) cos-1  
5
5
(B) cos-1  
7
2
(C) cos-1  
7
4
(D) cos-1  
7

14. A metal plate of area 500 cm2 is kept on a horizontal surface


with a layer of oil of thickness 0.5 mm between them. The
horizontal force required to drag the plate with a velocity of 2 cm/s
is (coefficient of viscosity=0.9 kg/m.s)
(A) 180 N
(B) 18 N
(C) 0.018 N
(D) 1.8 N

15. In motors, more viscous oil is used in summer than in winter


due to
(A) the rise in temperature in summer, the viscosity of oil
decreases.
(B) the rise in temperature in summer, the viscosity of oil
increases.
(C) the decrease in surface tension of oil.
(D) the increase in surface tension of oil.
16. Two vessels A and B are identical. A has 1 g hydrogen at 0 °C
and B has 1 g oxygen at 0 °C. Vessel A contains x molecules and B
contains y molecules. The average kinetic energy per molecule in
A is ‘n’ times the average kinetic energy per molecule in B. The
value of ‘n’ is
(A) 16
(B) 8
(C) 32
(D) 1

17. An ideal gas having f degrees of freedom is isobarically heated.


The ratio of the work done by it to the change in its internal energy
will be
2
(A)
f −2
f −2
(B)
2
2
(C)
f
f
(D)
2

18. Pressure remaining constant, at what temperature will the r.m.s.


velocity of a gas be half of its value at 0°C?
(A) 0 °C
(B) 32 °C
(C) -273 °C
(D) -204 °C

19. A diatomic gas undergoes same change of temperature by two


different processes (i) at constant volume and (ii) at constant
pressure. The heat supplied in the two cases will be in the ratio of
(A) 1:1
(B) 3:5
(C) 5:7
(D) 7:5

20. An ideal gas A and a real gas B have their volumes increased
from V to 2 V under isothermal conditions. The increase in internal
energy
(A) will be same in both A and B
(B) will be zero in both the cases
(C) of B will be more than that of A
(D) of A will be more than that of B

21. For a certain gas γ =1.5 , then for this gas


(A) Cv=3R
(B) Cp=3R
(C) Cp=5R
(D) Cv =5R
22. Wien’s constant is 2892 x 10-6 S.I. unit and the value of λ m for
moon is 14.46 micron. The surface temperature of moon is
(A) 200 K
(B) 2000 K
(C) 20 K
(D) 200 °C

23. The temperature of equal masses of three different liquids A, B


and C are 12 °C, 19 °C and 28 °C respectively. The temperature
when A and B are mixed is 16 °C, when B and C are mixed is 23
°C. What is the temperature when A and C are mixed?
(A) 26.02 °C
(B) 22.60 °C
(C) 20.26 °C
(D) 21.62 °C

24. Which of the following constants is not related to radiation?


(A) Solar constant
(B) Boltzmann's constant
(C) Stefan’s constant
(D) Wien’s constant

25. Air conditioners are good example of


(A) conduction
(B) convection
(C) radiation
(D) both conduction and radiation

26. A refrigerator works between 2 °C and 27 °C. To keep the


temperature of the refrigerated space constant, 660 calories of heat
are to be removed every second. The power required is
(A) 60 Watt
(B) 55 Watt
(C) 252 Watt
(D) 231 Watt

27. Two bodies A and B are placed in an evacuated vessel


maintained at a temperature of 27 °C. The temperature of A is 327
°C and that of B is 227 °C. The ratio of heat loss from A and B is
about
(A) 9:4
(B) 6:5
(C) 36:25
(D) 3:2

28. For any given scale X, the ice point is 40° and the steam point
is 120°. For another scale Y, the ice point and steam point are -30°
and 130° respectively. If X reads 50°, then Y would read
(A) -5°
(B) -8
(C) -10°
(D) -12°

29. 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series that each fork gives 4
beats per second with the previous one. The frequency of the last
fork is three times that of the first. The frequency of the first fork is
(A) 52 Hz
(B) 56 Hz
(C) 60 Hz
(D) 110 Hz

30. The velocity of sound is greatest in


(A) steel
(B) ammonia
(C) air
(D) water

31. The equation of a wave is y = 60 cos (1800 t - 6x), where y is


in microns, t in seconds and x in metres. The ratio of maximum
particle velocity to the wave velocity of wave propagation is
(A) 3.6
(B) 3.6 x 10-6
(C) 36 x 10-11
(D) 3.6 x 10-4
32. Two boys stand close to a long straight metal pipe, at some
distance from each other. One boy fires a gun and the other hears
two explosions with a time interval of 1 s between them. If the
velocity of sound in metal is 3630 m/s and in air is 330 m/s, then
the distance between the two boys is
(A) 36.3 m
(B) 363 m
(C) 72.6 m
(D) 726 m

33. The lengths of two organ pipes open at both ends are L and L +
d. If they are sounded together, then the beat frequency will be
2Vd
(A)
L(L + d)
Vd
(B)
L(L + d)
2L(L + d)
(C)
Vd
Vd
(D)
2L(L + d)

34. Two particles P and Q describe simple harmonic motions of


same amplitude a, frequency v along the same straight line. The
maximum distance between the two particles is a 2 . The initial
phase difference between the particles is
(A) zero
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°

35. A car with a horn of frequency 620 Hz travels towards a large


wall with a speed of 20 m/s. Velocity of sound is 330 m/s, The
frequency of echo of sound of horn as heard by the driver is
(A) 700 Hz
(B) 660 Hz
(C) 620 Hz
(D) 550 Hz

36. When the length of a simple pendulum is decreased by 600


mm, the period of oscillation is halved. The original length of the
pendulum was
(A) 800 mm
(B) 1000 mm
(C) 1200 mm
(D) 2400 mm

37. A particle of mass 0.2 kg moves with simple harmonic motion


of amplitude 2 cm. If the total energy of the particle is 4 x 10-5 J,
then the time period of the motion is
(A) seconds
(B) seconds
(C) seconds
(D) seconds

38. Which of the following cannot represent a travelling wave?


(A) y=f(x-vt)
(B) y=ym sin k(x+vt)
(C) y=(x-vt)/(x+vt)
(D) y=Ae-b(x-vt)2

39. Which one of the following emits sound of higher pitch?


(A) Lion
(B) Man
(C) Donkey
(D) Mosquito

40. It is possible to recognize a person by hearing his voice even if


he is hidden behind a solid wall. This is due to the fact that his
voice
(A) has a definite pitch
(B) has a definite quality
(C) has a definite capacity
(D) can penetrate the wall

41. The region surrounding a stationary electric dipole has


(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) doth electric and magnetic fields
(D) neither electric nor magnetic field

42. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate


threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1) show electrostatic attraction
while pairs (2, 3). (4, 5) show repulsion. Therefore, 1 must be
(A) neutral
(B) metallic
(C) positively charged
(D) negatively charged

43. Two spherical conductors of radii 4 m and 5 m are charged to


same potential. If σ1 and σ 2 be the respective values of the surface
density of charge on the two conductors, then the ratio σ1 / σ 2 is
25
(A)
16
16
(B)
25
5
(C)
4
4
(D)
5
10
44. Electric charge of × 10−9 C are placed at each of the four
3
corners of a square of side 0.08 m. The potential at the intersection
of diagonals is
(A) 900 V
(B) 900 2 V
(C) 150 2 V
(D) 1500 2 V

45. A condenser having a capacity of 6 µ F is charged to 100 V and


is joined to an uncharged condenser of 14 µ F. The ratio of charges
after connection and the potential on 6 µ F and 14 µ F condensers
respectively will be
6
(A) and 50 V
14
14
(B) and 30 V
6
6
(C) and 30 V
14
14
(D) and 0 V
6

46. The effective capacitance between points A and B will be


28
(A) µF
9
(B) 5 µF
(C) 4 µF
(D) 18 µF

47. The radius of earth is 6400 km. Its capacitance will be


(A) zero
(B) 7.1 x 10-4 F
(C) 6.4 x 10-4 F
(D) 6.4 x 106 F

48. Eight drops of mercury of equal radii and possessing equal


charges combine to form a big drop. The capacitance of bigger
drop as compared to capacitance of each individual drop is
(A) 16 times
(B) 8 times
(C) 2 times
(D) 32 times
49. A voltmeter reads 6 V at full scale deflection and is graded as
3000 Ω / V . What resistance should be connected in series with it
so that it reads 12 V at full-scale deflection?
(A) 1.8 x 104 Ω
(B) 3.6 x 104 Ω
(C) 5.4 x 104 Ω
(D) 7.2 x 104 Ω

50. In the given circuit, with steady current, the potential drop
across the capacitors must be

(A) V
V
(B)
2
V
(C)
3
2V
(D)
3

51. Eddy currents are produced in a material when it is


(A) heated
(B) placed in a time varying magnetic field
(C) placed in an electric field
(D) placed in a uniform magnetic field

52. In the circuit, the voltmeter resistance is 10000 Ω and the


ammeter resistance is 2 Ω . The voltmeter reads 12 V and ammeter
reads 0.1 A. The value of R is
(A) 118 Ω
(B) 122 Ω
(C) 10022 Ω
(D) 10018 Ω

53. A magnetic dipole of moment 0.72 Am2 is placed horizontally


with the north pole pointing south. The magnetic field of earth is
18 µ T. The neutral point is at
(A) 0.1 m on axial line
(B) 0.2 m on equatorial line
(C) 0.2 m on axial line
(D) 0.16 m on equatorial line

54. A magnetizing field of 5000 A/m produces a magnetic flux of 5


x 10-5 Wb in an iron rod of 0.5 cm? area of cross- section. The
permeability of the rod is (in Wb A-1 m-1)
(A) 4 x 10-6
(B) 3 x 10-5
(C) 2 x 10-4
(D) 1 x 10-3

55. A uniformly charged spherical metal ball of mass M, radius R


and charge q is rotated with an angular velocity ω about one of its
diameter. The ratio of its magnetic dipole moment to the angular
momentum is
q
(A) R
2M
q
(B)
2Mω

(C)
2MR
q
(D)
2M

56. Flux φ (in Weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10Ω varies


with time t (in seconds) according to the equation
φ 6t 2 − 5t + 1
=
The magnitude of the induced current in the circuit at t=0.25 s is
(A) 0.2 A
(B) 0.6 A
(C) 0.8 A
(D) 1.2 A
57. A transformer has an efficiency of 80%. It works at 4 kilowatt
and 100 volts. If the secondary voltage is 240 volts, then the
current in the secondary coil is
(A) 1.333 A
(B) 4 A
(C) 13.33 A
(D) 40 A

58. When inductance of 1 Henry is connected to 200 volts 50 Hz


source, the maximum value of the current is
(A) 0.1 A
(B) 0.9 A
(C) 1 A
(D) 9 A

59. If in a moving coil galvanometer, a current i produces a


deflection θ , then
(A) i ∝ tan θ
(B) i ∝ θ
(C) i ∝ θ2
(D) i ∝ θ

60. An electric heater consumes 1 kilowatt power when connected


across a 100 volt D.C. supply. If this heater is to be used with 200
V, 50 Hz A.C. supply, the value of inductance to be connected in
series with it is
(A) 5.5 H
(B) 0.55 H
(C) 0.055 H
(D) 1.1 H

61. In an oscillating LC ‘circuit the maximum charge on the


capacitor is Q. When the energy is shared equally between the
electric and the magnetic fields, then the change on the capacitor is
(A) Q
Q
(B)
2
Q
(C)
2
Q
(D)
3

62. A 16 µ F capacitor is charged to 20 volts. The battery is then


disconnected and a pure 40 mH coil is connected across the
capacitor so that LC oscillations are set up. The maximum current
in the coil is
(A) 0.2 A
(B) 40 mA
(C) 2 A
(D) 0.4 A

63. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic


waves is/are true?
(1) Electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in any medium.
(2) All electromagnetic waves can ionize living cells.
(3) All electromagnetic waves are transverse waves.
(A) (3) only
(B) (1) & (3) only
(C) (2) & (3) only
(D) (1), (2) & (3)

64. Which of the following electromagnetic waves will cause


heating?
(1) Radio waves
(2) Infrared radiation
(3) X-rays
(A) (2) only
(B) (1) & (2) only
(C) (2) & (3) only
(D) (1), (2) & (3)

65. A linearly polarized electromagnetic wave given as


=E E 0ˆi sin(kz − ωt) is incident normally on a perfectly reflecting
infinite wall at z=a. Assuming that the material of the wall is
optically inactive, the reflected wave will be given as
(A) E r E 0ˆi sin(kz − ωt)
=

(B) E r = − E 0ˆi cos(kz − ωt)

(C) E r = − E 0ˆi cos(kz + ωt)

(D) E r E 0ˆi cos(kz + ωt)


=

66. Which of the following statements is incorrect?


(A) The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always less
than one.
(B) A virtual, erect, same sized image can be obtained using a
plane mirror.
(C) A virtual, erect, magnified image can be formed using a
concave mirror.
(D) A real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using a
convex mirror.

67. A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water


 4
 µ =  . The focal length of mirror in water will be
 3
4
(A) f
3
3
(B) f
4
(C) f
7
(D) f
3

68. A diamond sparkles because of its


(A) hardness
(B) emission of light by the diamond
(C) absorption of light by the diamond
(D) high refractive index

69. By placing a convex lens of focal length equal to 15.0 cm


between an object and a screen separated by a distance of 75.0 cm,
2
the sizes of the images obtained are 6.0 cm and cm. The size of
3
the object must be
(A) 2.0 cm
(B) 4.0 cm
(C) 3.0 cm
(D) 1.5 cm

70. A glass cube is placed on a white paper having spots of red,


blue, yellow and green colour. Then, the one that appears least
raised is
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D) Green

71. The refractive index of air is 1.0003. The thickness of air


column which has one more wavelength of yellow light (λ=600
nm), than the same thickness of vacuum is
(A) 0.02 mm
(B) 0.2 mm
(C) 2 mm
(D) 2 cm

72. Two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are separated co-
axially by a distance d. The power of the combination will be zero
if
d (f1 + f 2 )
(A) =
d (f1 − f 2 )
(B) =

(C) d = f1f 2
(f1 − f 2 )
(D) d =
2

73. The time of coherence is of the order of


(A) 10-2s
(B) 10-4s
(C) 10-6s
(D) 10-8s
74. The first minimum of a single slit diffraction pattern is
observed at angle 2° with a light of wavelength 698 nm. The width
of this slit is
(A) 2 mm
(B) 0.2 mm
(C) 0.02 mm
(D) 0.002 mm

75. When a thin sheet of transparent material of thickness 4 x 10-3


mm is placed in the path of one of the interfering beams in the
Young’s double slit experiment, it is found that the central bright
fringe shifts through a distance equal to four fringes. Wavelength
of light used is 5893 A. The refractive index of transparent material
is
(A) 1.5893
(B) 1.2946
(C) 1.884
(D) 1.9853

λ
76. The intensity at a point where the path difference is (λ=
6
wavelength of light) is I. If I0 is the maximum intensity, then I/I0, is
equal to
(A) 3 /2
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/4
(D) 1/ 2

77. A ray of light from air is incident on the surface of glass with
angle of incidence equal to the angle of polarization. It suffers a
deviation of 22° on entering glass. The angle of polarization is
(A) 22°
(B) 56°
(C) 34°
(D) 68°

78. The photoelectric work function of a surface is 2.2 eV. The


maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted when light of
wavelength 6200 A is incident on the surface is
(A) 0.4 eV
(B) 1.2 eV
(C) 1.6 eV
(D) Photoelectrons are not emitted

79. What potential must be applied on an electron microscope so


that it may produce an electron of wavelength 1 A?
(A) 50 V
(B) 120 V
(C) 150 V
(D) 200 V
80. The de’ Broglie wavelength of thermal neutrons at 27 °C will
be
(A) 1.77 A
(B) 1.77 mm
(C) 1.77 cm
(D) 1.77 m

81. If E and P are the energy and the momentum of a photon


respectively, then on reducing the wavelength of photon
(A) both P and E will decrease
(B) both P and E will increase
(C) P will increase but E will decrease
(D) P will decrease but E will increase

82. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The time


interval between 20% and 80% decay will be
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 40 minutes
(D) 60 minutes

83. If the aluminium nucleus 13 Al27 has nuclear radius of about 3.6
Fermi, then the tellurium nucleus 52 Te125 will have nuclear radius
nearly as
(A) 3.6 Fermi
(B) 6.0 Fermi
(C) 8.9 Fermi
(D) 16.7 Fermi

84. Consider the fusion reaction:

1 H 2 +1 H 2 +1 H 2 →2 H 4 + 0 n1 +1 H1
The atomic masses are 1 H 2 = 2.0141 amu, 1 H1 = 4.0026 amu,
2 He 4 = 4.0026 amu and 0 n1 = 1.008665 . In producing 8.2 x 1013 J
of energy by this reaction, the mas of 1 H 2 fuel required is
(A) 1.433 x 10-1 kg
(B) 2.4 x 10-1 kg
(C) 1.433 x 10-1 g
(D) 2.4 x 10-1 g

85. A positronium atom undergoes a transition from n=4 to n=2.


The energy of the photon emitted in this process is
(A) 1.275 eV
(B) 2.55 eV
(C) 3.4 eV
(D) 3.825 eV

86. The most suitable energy of neutrons which will produce


nuclear fission in a reactor is
(A) 200 MeV
(B) 2 MeV
(C) 40 ev
(D) 0.04 eV

87. A p-n junction diode is connected to a battery of e.m.f. 5.5 V


and external resistance 5.1 k Ω . The barrier potential in the diode is
0.4 V. The current in the circuit is

(A) 1.08 mA
(B) 0.08 mA
(C) 1mA
(D) 1A

88. Generally, the base of a transistor has a thickness of the order


of
(A) 10-6 m
(B) 10-3 m
(C) 0.1 mm
(D) 1 cm

89. The circuit diagram shown performs the logic function of


(A) XOR gate
(B) AND gate
(C) NAND gate
(D) OR gate

90. The equation of an FM signal is e=6 sin (106 t+4 sin104 t).
Then, the modulating frequency is
(A) 1000 Hz
(B) 500 Hz
(C) 300 Hz
(D) 159 Hz

91. The dimensions of solar constant are


(A) [MLT-2]
(B) [M0L0T0]
(C) [ML0T-3]
(D) [M0LT-3]

92. If x=(a-b), the maximum percentage error in the measurement


of x will be
 ∆a ∆b 
(A)  −  × 100
 a − b a − b 
 ∆a ∆b 
(B)  +  × 100
a − b a − b
 ∆a ∆b 
(C)  +  × 100
 a b 
 ∆a ∆b 
(D)  −  × 100
 a b 

93. A body of mass m kg is rotating in a vertical circle at the end of


a string of length r metre. The difference in the kinetic energy at
the top and bottom of the circle is
(A) 5 mgr
(B) mgr
(C) 2 mgr
(D) 4 mgr

94. A long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If


the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored in it
will be
U
(A)
25
U
(B)
5
(C) 5 U
(D) 25 U

95. Two balls of different masses ma and mb are dropped from two
different heights a and b. The ratio of times taken by the two to
drop through these distances is
(A) a : b
(B) b : a
(C) a: b
(D) a 2 : b 2
96. A particle moves along x-axis obeying the equation x = t (t- 1)
(t - 2), where x (in metres) is the position of the particle at any time
t (in seconds). The displacement when the velocity of the particle is
zero, is
2 2
(A) − m, m
3 3 3 3
5 5
(B) − m, m
3 3 3 3
(C) -3m, 3m
(D) -5m, 5m

97. A projectile is given an initial velocity of ˆi + 2ˆj . The Cartesian


equation of its path is (g=10 m/s2)
(A) y=2x-5x2
(B) y=x-5x2
(C) 4y=2x-5x2
(D) y=2x-25x2

98. A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal table. If the


coefficient of friction between the chain and the table is 0.25, then
the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang over
one edge of the table is
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 40%

99. A body of mass M is resting on a rough horizontal plane


surface, the coefficient of friction being equal to µ . At t = 0, a
horizontal force F=F0t starts acting on it, where F, is a constant.
The time T at which the motion starts is
µMg
(A)
F0
Mg
(B)
µF0
µF
(C)
Mg
F
(D)
F0

100. Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line varies with


K
the velocity of the particle v as F = , where K is a constant. The
v
work done by this force in time is
K
(A) 2
t
v
2Kt
(B)
v2
(C) Kt
(D) 2 Kt

You might also like