(SB-AITS)

Test-11
Complete syllabus (11th + 12th)
Full Length 07
Date : --/--/--- Duration : 3 Hours 20 Mins M.Marks : 720

Physics : Complete Syllabus

Chemistry : Complete Syllabus

Botany : Complete Syllabus

Zoology : Complete Syllabus

Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
2. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum mark is 720.
3. There are four Sections in the Question Paper, Sections I, II, III, and IV consisting of
Section I (Physics), Section II (Chemistry), Section III (Botany) and Section IV
(Zoology) have 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is divided into two
Sections,
Section A consists of 35 questions (all questions compulsory) and Section B
consists of 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
4. There is only one correct response for each question.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong
MCQ response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed, or written, bits of paper,
pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. Inside the examination room/hall.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the Candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.

1
 Physics
SECTION – A

1. There is a rectangular plate of mass 4. A thin uniform rod XY of length 2 𝑙 is

M kg of dimensions (𝑎 × 𝑏). The plate hinged at one end X to the floor and
is held in horizontal position by stands vertical. When allowed to fall,
striking n small balls each of mass m the angular speed with which the rod
per unit area per unit time. These are strikes the floor is.
striking in the shaded half region of 𝑔
(1) √ 𝑙
the plate. The balls are colliding
elastically with velocity v. What is the 2𝑔
value of v? (2) √ 3𝑙
3𝑔
(3) √ 2𝑙
𝑔
(4) √3𝑙

5. Two spherical conductors of radii 4

It is given 𝑛 = 100, 𝑀 = 3 𝑘𝑔, 𝑚 = cm and 5 cm are charged to the same
0.01 𝑘𝑔, 𝑎 = 1 𝑚, 𝑏 = 2 𝑚, 𝑔 = 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 . potential. If 𝜎1 and 𝜎2 , be the
(1) 2 𝑚 𝑠 −1 respective values of the surface
(2) 4 𝑚 𝑠 −1 density of charge on both the
(3) 10 𝑚 𝑠 −1 conductors, then the ratio 𝜎1 /𝜎2 is.
25
(4) 6 𝑚 𝑠 −1 (1)
6
5
2. Two cylinders A and B, fitted with (2)
4
pistons. A and B contain equal moles 16
(3)
of an ideal monoatomic gas at 400 K. 25
4
Piston in A is free to move, while (4) 5
piston in B is held fixed. Same
amount of heat is given to the gas in 6. In a Young's double slit experiment,
each cylinder. If the rise in the intensity at a point where the
temperature of the gas in A is 42 K, path difference is 𝜆/6 ( 𝜆 being the
then the increase in the temperature wavelength of light used) is 𝐼 . If 𝐼0
5 denotes the maximum intensity, 𝐼/𝐼0
of the gas in B is, (𝛾 = 3).
is equal to.
(1) 35 K 3
(1) 4
(2) 42 K 1
(3) 70 K (2)
√2
(4) 21 K √3
(3) 2
3. A bus is moving with a velocity of 1
(4)
5 𝑚 𝑠 −1 towards a huge wall. The 2
driver sounds a horn of frequency 7. A certain vector in the 𝑥𝑦 plane has
165 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is an x-component of 12 m and a y-
335 𝑚 𝑠 −1 , the numbers of beats heard component of 8 m. It is then rotated
per second by a passenger inside the in the xy plane so that its x-
bus will be. component is halved. Then its new y-
(1) 3 component is approximately.
(2) 5 (1) 14 m
(3) 6 (2) 13.11 m
(4) 7 (3) 10 m
(4) 2.0 m

2
8. A 40.0 kg boy is standing on a plank mm. Assume that 𝐿 >> diameter of
of mass 160 kg. The plank originally the wire. Then the value of m is
at rest, is free to slide on a smooth nearly.
frozen lake. The boy walks along the (1) 1 kg
plank at a constant speed of 2 𝑚 𝑠 −1 (2) 2 kg
relative to the plank. The speed of the (3) 3 kg
boy relative to the ice surface is. (4) 4 kg
8
(1) 𝑚 𝑠 −1 13. A steady current 𝐼 goes through a
5
5
(2) 𝑚 𝑠 −1 wire loop PQR having shape of a
8
2 right-angle triangle with 𝑃𝑄 =
(3) 5
𝑚 𝑠 −1 3𝑥, 𝑃𝑅 = 4𝑥 and 𝑄𝑅 = 5𝑥 . The
5
(4) 𝑚 𝑠 −1 magnitude of the magnetic field at P
2
due.
9. In a room where the temperature is 7𝜇0 𝐼
(1) 48𝜋𝑥
30°𝐶, a body cools from 61°𝐶 to 59°𝐶
48𝜇0 𝐼
in 4 minutes. What time will the body (2)
7𝜋𝑥
take to cool from 51°𝐶 to 49°𝐶 in the (3)
𝜇0 𝐼
same room? 𝜋𝑥
9𝜇0 𝐼
(1) 2 minutes (4) 𝜋𝑥
(2) 6 minutes
14. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a
(3) 4 minutes
Carnot engine as the working
(4) 8 minutes substance. If during the adiabatic
10. A cylindrical tube open at both the expansion part of the cycle, the
ends has a fundamental frequency of volume of the gas increases from V to
1 𝑡ℎ 32 V, the efficiency of the engine is.
390 Hz in air. If ( ) of the tube is
4 (1) 0.75
immersed vertically in water the (2) 0.99
fundamental frequency of air column (3) 0.25
is. (4) 0.5
(1) 260 Hz
(2) 130 Hz 15. A brick of mass m, tied to a rope, is
(3) 390 Hz being whirled in a vertical circle, with
(4) 520 Hz a uniform speed. The tension in the
rope is.
11. Youngs double slit experiment gives (1) The same throughout
interference fringes of width 0.3 mm. (2) Largest when the brick is at the
A thin glass plate made of material of highest point of the circular path
refractive index 1.5 is kept in the path and smallest when it is at the
of light from one of the slits, then the lowest point.
fringe width becomes. (3) Largest when the rope is
(1) Zero horizontal and smallest when it is
(2) 0.3 mm
vertical.
(3) 0.45 mm
(4) Largest when the brick is at the
(4) 0.15 mm lowest point and smallest when it
12. Steel wire of length 𝐿 at 40°𝐶 is is at the highest point.
suspended from the ceiling and then
16. A bar magnet is placed upright on a
a mass m is hung from its free end.
floor (so that the axis of the magnet is
The wire is cooled down from 40°𝐶 to
vertical). A copper ring is held above
30°𝐶 to regain its original length L.
the magnet, with its plane horizontal,
The coefficient of linear thermal
and released. The copper ring falls in
expansion of the steel is 10−5 °𝐶 −1 ,
such a manner that its axis always
Young's modulus of steel is
coincides with that of the magnet.
10 𝑁 𝑚 and radius of the wire is l
11 −2

3
 What will be the acceleration with the horizontal direction with a
which the ring will fall? Acceleration velocity of 8 𝑚 𝑠 −1. The stone reaches
due to gravity is 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 . the ground after a time t and falls at
(1) 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 a distance of d from the foot of the
(2) Less than 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 tower. Assuming 𝑔 = 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 , the
(3) More than 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 tíme t and distanced are given
(4) The answer will depend upon respectively by.
which pole of the magnet is up. (1) 6 s, 64 m
(2) 6 s, 48 m
17. A uniform solid cylinder has a radius (3) 4 s, 32 m
R and length L. If the moment of (4) 4 s, 16 m
inertia of this cylinder about an axis
passing through its centre and 21. If a charged spherical conductor of
normal to its circular face is equal to radius 10 cm has
the moment of inertia of the same potential V at a point distant 5 cm
cylinder about an axis passing from its centre, then
through its centre and perpendicular the potential at a point distant 15 cm
to its length, then from the centre will be.
𝑉
(1) 𝐿 = 𝑅 (1) 3
(2) 𝐿 = √3𝑅 (2)
2
𝑉
𝑅 3
(3) 𝐿 = 3 3
√ (3) 2
𝑉
3
(4) 𝐿 = √ 𝑅 (4) 3 𝑉
2
22. What will be the ratio of de-Broglie
18. A circular coil carrying a certain
wavelengths of proton and α-particle
current produces a magnetic field 𝐵0
of same energy
at its centre. The coil is now rewound
(1) 2:1
so as to have 3 turns and the same
(2) 1:2
current is passed through it. The new
(3) 4:1
magnetic field at the centre is.
(4) 1:4
(1) 𝐵0 /9
(2) 9𝐵0 23. What is the relationship between time
(3) 𝐵0 /3 of flight T and horizontal range R ?
(4) 3𝐵0 (where 𝜃 is angle of projection with
the horizontal)
19. A charge +q is placed at the origin 0 𝑔𝑇
of X-Y axes as shown in the figure. (1) 𝑅 = tan 𝜃
The work done in taking a charge Q 𝑔𝑇 2
(2) 𝑅 = 2 tan 𝜃
from A to B along the straight-line AB 𝑔𝑇 2
is. (3) 𝑅 = tan 𝜃
𝑔𝑇
(4) 𝑅 = 2 tan 𝜃

24. The maximum wavelength of a beam

of light that can be used to produce
photoelectric effect on a metal is 250
𝑞𝑄 𝑎−𝑏 nm. The energy of the electrons in
(1) ( )
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎𝑏 joule emitted from the surface of the
(2)
𝑞𝑄 𝑏−𝑎
( ) metal when a beam of light of
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎𝑏 wavelength 200 nm is used.
𝑞𝑄 𝑏 1
(3) ( − 𝑏) (1) 89.61 × 10−22
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎 2
𝑞𝑄 𝑎 1 (2) 69.81 × 10−22
(4) ( − 𝑏)
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑏2 (3) 18.96 × 10−20
20. From the top of a tower, 80 m high (4) 19.89 × 10−20
from the ground, a stone is thrown in

4
25. A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light platform and begins to walk along the
10
inextensible string of length 𝑙 = 3 𝑚 edge at speed 𝑣0 = 1.0 𝑚 𝑠 −1 relative
is rotating in a circular path of radius to the ground. The angular velocity of
the platform is.
𝑙 in a vertical plane. If the ratio of
maximum tension and minimum (1) 1.2 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
tension in the string is 4, the speed of (2) 0.4 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
the stone at the highest point of the (3) 0.7 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
circle would be (𝑔 = 10 𝑚 𝑠 −1 ) (4) 2.0 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
(1) 20 𝑚 𝑠 −1 30. The angle of minimum deviation for a
(2) 10√10 𝑚 𝑠 −1 prism of refractive index √3 is equal
(3) 5√2 𝑚 𝑠 −1 to the angle of the prism. Then the
(4) 10 𝑚 𝑠 −1 angle of the prism is.
(1) 30°
26. Between the plates of a parallel plate
(2) 45°
capacitor of capacitance C, two
(3) 60°
parallel plates of the same material
(4) 90°
and area, same as the plate of the
original capacitor, are place, If the 31. A ball of mass m moving with a speed
thickness of these plates is equal to v makes a head on collision with an
1 𝑡ℎ identical ball at rest. The kinetic
( ) of the distance between the
5 energy after collision of the balls is
plates of the original capacitor, then three fourth of the original kinetic
the capacitance of the new capacitor energy. The coefficient of restitution
is. is
5
(1) 3 𝐶 (1)
1
3 2
(2) 5
𝐶 (2)
1
3 3
(3) 10
𝐶 (3)
1
10 √2
(4) 𝐶 (4)
1
3
√3
27. A man stands between two parallel 32. An electromagnetic wave in vacuum
cliffs (not in middle). When he claps
has the electric and magnetic fields 𝐸⃗
his hands, he hears two echoes one
and ⃗ , which
𝐵 are always
after 1 second and the other after 2
seconds. If the velocity of sound in air perpendicular to each other. The
is 330 𝑚 𝑠 −1 , the width of the valley is. direction of polarization by 𝑋 and
(1) 330 m that of wave propagation by 𝑘⃗. Then
(2) 495 m (1) 𝑋 ‖𝐸⃗ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑘⃗ ‖𝐸⃗ × 𝐵⃗
(3) 660 m ⃗ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑘⃗ ‖𝐸⃗ × 𝐵
(2) 𝑋 ‖𝐵 ⃗
(4) 990 m
(3) 𝑋 ‖𝐸⃗ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑘⃗ ‖𝐵
⃗ × 𝐸⃗
28. If the power of a body is given by 𝑃 = ⃗ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑘⃗ ‖𝐵
⃗ × 𝐸⃗
(4) 𝑋 ‖𝐵
𝑥𝑣, where 𝑣 is the velocity of the body
then the dimension of 𝑥 is. 33. Taking that earth revolves round the
(1) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 ] sun in a circular orbit of radius
(2) [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] 15 × 1010 𝑚, with a time period of 1
(3) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 2 ] year. The time taken by another
(4) [𝑀2 𝐿𝑇 2 ] planet, which is at a distance of
540 × 1010 𝑚, to revolve round the sun
29. A circular platform is mounted on a in circular orbit once, will be.
vertical frictionless axle. Its radius is (1) 216 years
r = 2 m and its moment of inertia 𝐼 = (2) 144 years
200 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 . It is initially at rest. A 70 (3) 72 years
kg man stands on the edge of the
(4) 36 years

5
34. Assertion: Position-time graph of a 37. The total torque about pivot A
stationary object is a straight line provided by the forces shown in the
parallel to time axis. figure, for L = 3.0 m, is.
Reason: For a stationary object, the
position does not change with time.
(1) Both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both the assertion and the reason
(1) 210 N m
are true and the reason is not the
(2) 140 N m
correct explanation of the
(3) 95 N m
assertion.
(4) 75 N m
(3) The assertion is true but the
reason is false. 38. A cricket ball and a tennis ball are
(4) The assertion is false but the simultaneously thrown upwards from
reason is true the ground with equal initial speeds.
Ignoring air resistance, which of the
35. Three rods of same dimension have following statements is correct?
thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K (1) Both the balls travel the same
respectively. They are arranged as distance in the same time.
shown below. (2) Tennis ball rises the highest.
(3) Tennis ball is in flight the longest.
(4) Tennis ball has a smaller impact
speed.
39. One end of a string of length 1.0 m is
What will be the temperature T of the tied to a body of mass 1 kg. It is
whirled in a vertical circle with
junction?
200 angular frequency 4 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1 . The
(1) °𝐶 tension in the string when the body is
3
100
(2) °𝐶 at the lower most point of its motion
3
(3) 75°𝐶 will be equal to.
50 (Take 𝑔 = 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 )
(4) °𝐶
3 (1) 3 N
(2) 5 N
SECTION – B (3) 21 N
(4) 13 N
36. The threshold frequency of a certain
photosensitive metal is 𝜈0 . When it is 40. When a metallic surface is
illuminated by light of frequency 𝜈 = illuminated by a light of wavelength 𝜆,
2𝜈0 , the stopping potential for the stopping potential for the
photoelectric current is 𝑉0 . What will photoelectric current is 3 V. When the
be the stopping potential when the same surface is illuminated by light
same metal is illuminated by light of of wavelength 2 𝜆, the stopping
frequency 𝜈 = 3𝜈0 ? potential is 1 V. The threshold
(1) √2𝑉0 wavelength of this surface is.
(1) 4 𝜆
(2) 2 𝑉0
(2) 3.5 𝜆
(3) 2√2𝑉0
(3) 3 𝜆
(4) 4 𝑉0
(4) 2.75 𝜆

6
41. For 𝑃⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂ & 𝑄
⃗ = 3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂ (1) 8.5
match the following (2) 9.5
(3) 10.5
A. |𝑃⃗| p. 5√2 (4) 11.5
B. |𝑄⃗| q. −(𝑖 + 𝑗) 45. There is a uniform magnetic field
⃗
C. 𝑃⃗ + 𝑄 r. √38 directed perpendicular and into the
⃗
D. 𝑃⃗ − 𝑄 s. 5𝑖̂ + 7𝑗̂ + 10𝑘̂ plane of the paper. An irregular
shaped conducting loop is slowly
(1) 𝐴 − 𝑟, 𝐵 → 𝑝, 𝐶 → 𝑠, 𝐷 → 𝑞
changing into a circular loop in the
(2) 𝐴 − 𝑝, 𝐵 → 𝑟, 𝐶 → 𝑞, 𝐷 → 𝑠
plane of the paper. Then.
(3) 𝐴 − 𝑞, 𝐵 → 𝑠, 𝐶 → 𝑐, 𝐷 → 𝑞
(1) Current is induced in the loop in
(4) 𝐴 − 𝑟, 𝐵 → 𝑠, 𝐶 → 𝑞, 𝐷 → 𝑠
the anti-clockwise direction.
42. The level of water in a tank is 5 m (2) Current is induced in the loop in
high. A hole of area 10 𝑐𝑚2 is made in the clockwise direction.
the bottom of the tank. The rate of (3) ac is induced in the loop.
leakage of water from the hole is. (4) no current is induced in the loop.
(Take 𝑔 = 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 )
46. A racing car is travelling along a track
(1) 10−2 𝑚3 𝑠 −1
at a constant speed of 40 𝑚 𝑠 −1 . A TV
(2) 10−3 𝑚3 𝑠 −1
cameraman is recording the event
(3) 10−4 𝑚3 𝑠 −1
from a distance of 30 m directly away
(4) 103 𝑚3 𝑠 −1
trom the track as shown in figure. In
43. Six resistances each of value 𝑟 = 6 Ω order to keep the car under view, at
are connected between points A, B what angular speed must the camera
and C as shown in the figure. be rotated?
If 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 and 𝑅3 are the net
resistances between A and B,
between B and C and between A and
C respectively, then 𝑅1 : 𝑅2 : 𝑅3 will be
equal to.

(1) 1 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
(2) 2 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
(3) 4 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
(4) 5 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1
47. The permeability of a material is
(1) 6∶3∶2 628 × 10−6 𝑆𝐼 units. Its magnetic
(2) 1∶2∶3 susceptibility will be.
(3) 5∶4∶3 Take, 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 𝑆𝐼 unit.
(4) 4∶3∶2 (1) 500
(2) 499
44. The acceleration due to gravity at a (3) 50
1 𝑡ℎ (4) 49
height (20) of the radius of the earth
above the earth surface 9 𝑚 𝑠 −2 . Its
value at a point at an equal distance
below the surface of the earth in
𝑚 𝑠 −2 is about.

7
48. The electric field of an 49. A uniform conductor of resistance R
electromagnetic wave in free space is is cut into 20 equal pieces, Half of
given by 𝐸 = 10 cos(107 𝑡 + 𝑘𝑥) 𝑗̂ 𝑉 𝑚−1 , them are joined in series and the
where t and x are in seconds and remaining half of them are connected
meters respectively. It can be inferred in parallel. If the two combinations
that. are joined in series, the effective
(1) The wavelength 𝜆 is 188.4 m resistance of all the pieces is.
(2) The wave number k is (1) 𝑅
−1 𝑅
0.33 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑚 (2) 2
(3) The wave amplitude is 10 𝑉 𝑚−1. 101
(3) 𝑅
(4) The wave is propagating along +x 200
201
(4) 𝑅
direction. 200

Which one of the following pairs of 50. The equation of wave is given by 𝑦 =
𝑥
statements is correct? 𝐴 sin 𝜔 (𝑣 − 𝑎), where 𝜔 is the angular
(1) (c) and (d) velocity and 𝑣 is the linear velocity of
(2) (a) and (b) the wave. The dimensions of a is
(3) (b) and (c) (1) [M]
(4) (a) and (c) (2) [T]
(3) [L]
(4) [K]

8
 Chemistry
SECTION – A

51. Which has maximum bond strength: (3) +3RT

(1) O-O (4) –RT
(2) S-S 56. Maximum number of H-bonding is
(3) Se-Se shown by:
(4) Te-Te (1) H2O
52. Osmotic pressure of solution (2) H2Se
containing 0.6 g urea and 3.42 g (3) H2S
sugar in 100 ml at 27°C (4) HF
(1) 492 atm 57. The number of mole of oxygen in one
(2) 4.92 atm litre of air containing 21% oxygen by
(3) 49.2 atm volume, under standard conditions,
(4) 28.1 atm is
53. Which of the following set react with (1) 0.0093 mole
Tollen’s reagent? (2) 2.10 moles
(A) HCHO (3) 0.186 mole
(B) PhCHO (4) 0.21 mole
58. Which one of the following is the
correct match?
(C)
(1) Cl2 -only reducing agent
(2) HNO2 -only oxidizing agent
(D) CH3 COOH (3) HNO3 -both oxidizing and
(E) HCOOH reducing agent
(4) SO2 -both oxidizing and reducing
(F) D-Fructose
agent
(G) D-Mannose 59. How many electrons present in 4th
(1) A,C,E,F,G,D period which are having electrons of
(2) A,B,E,F,G,D 4d subshell:
(3) A,B,C,E,G,D (1) 10
(4) A,B,C,E,F,G (2) 8
54. What is the molality of C2 H5 OH in (3) Zero
water solution which will freeze at (4) 2
−10℃ ? 60. Values of first four ionisation
[Mol. wt. of C2 H5 OH = 46, K f for water potential of an elements are 69, 371,
= 1.86] 401, 486. It belongs to which of the
(1) 6.315 m following electronic configuration:
(2) 63.15 m (1) 1s², 2s¹
(3) 3.540 m (2) 1s², 2s2 2p¹
(4) 5.3 m (3) 1s², 2s2 2p6, 3s¹
55. For the reaction, C3 H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → (4) (1) and (3) both
3CO2 (g) + 4H2 O(l) at constant
temperature, ∆H − ∆E is
(1) + RT
(2) –3RT

9
61. Which actinoids will show highest 65. CrCl3.6H2O show 3 different coloured
oxidation state +7? compounds due to:-
(1) Np, Pu (1) Ionisation isomerism
(2) Pa, U (2) Coordination isomerism
(3) Am, Cm (3) Optical isomerism
(4) Cf, Es (4) Hydrate isomerism
62. Which is not a property of interstitial 66. Which of the following statements
compound? about [Cr(CO)6] is correct?
(1) Non-stoichiometric
(1) It is paramagnetic and inner
(2) Harder than pure metal
orbital complex
(3) Chemically inert
(2) It is diamagnetic and inner orbital
(4) Having low melting point
complex
63. Which of the following compound is (3) It is diamagnetic and outer orbital
wrongly named? complex
(4) It is paramagnetic and outer
orbital complex
(1)
67. The main product of following
reaction will be:

(2)

(3)

(1)

(4)

64. Match the interhalogen compounds

(2)
of column I with the geometry in
column if and assign the correct code
Column I Column II
(a) XX’ (i) T-shape
(b) XX’3 (ii) Pentagonal
bipyramidal (3)
(c) XX’5 (iii) Linear
(d) XX’7 (iv) Square-pyramidal
(V) Tetrahedral
Codes:
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(v), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

10
68. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and 71. Electrode potential of M2+/M for Ni is
concentrated sodium hydroxide abnormal because of
solution, the oxidation number of (1) High IE1 + IE2
chlorine changes from (2) High hydration energy
(1) Zero to -1 and zero to +3
(3) 𝛥𝛨𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑠𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
(2) Zero to +1 and zero to -3
(3) Zero to +1 and zero to -5 (4) Electronic configuration of Ni2+
(4) Zero to-1 and zero to +5 72.
69.

Product C is:

P (major), P is:
(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)
(4) None of these
73.

70.

Q is:
(1)

Substitution takes place at the (2)

position:
(1) 1
(2) 2 (3)
(3) 3
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4)

11
74. Effective nuclear charge in group (4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason
is correct.
generally.
(1) Increases down the group 78. Which of the following statement is
(2) Decreases down the group not true about glucose?
(3) Remains constant (1) It is an aldohexose
(4) First increases than decreases (2) It contains five hydroxyl groups
(3) It is a reducing sugar
75. For the element X, student Riya
(4) It is an aldopentose
measured its radius as 102 nm,
Ca(OH)2 ∆
student Rahul as 203 nm. and 79. 2CH3 COOH → A → B The product
Rakesh as 100 nm. using same
“B” in above reaction
apparatus. Their teacher explained
that measurements were correct by (1) CH3 − CH = CH − COOH
saying that recorded values by three (2) CH3 CH2 CHO
students were:
(1) Crystal, van der waal's and
(3)
covalent radii
(2) Covalent, crystal and van der
waal's radii
(4)
(3) Van der waal's, ionic and covalent
radii
(4) None is correct
80. When concentrated H2SO₄is added
1.O3 1.OH−
76. CH3 − CH = CH − CH3 → A→ B B to dry KNO3, brown fumes evolve.
2.ZnH2 O 2.∆
These brown fumes are of
is: (1) SO2
(1) CH3 − CHO (2) SO3
(2) CH3 − CH = CH − CHO (3) NO
(4) NO2
(3) 81.

(4)

77. Assertion: H3PO₄is less acidic than

H3PO3
Reason: Oxidation state of
(1)
phosphorus in
H3PO4 < H3PO3.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are
correct and the Reason is a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are (2)
correct but Reason is NOT a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.

12
 84. Match the reactions given in column-
I with the suitable reagent given in
(3) column-II.
Column-I Column-II
Benzophenone →
(i) (a) LiAIH4
Diphenylmethane
(4) Benzaldehyde →
(ii) (b) Dibal-H
1-Pheyl ethanol
Cyclohexanone → Zn(Hg)
(iii) (c)
Cyclohexanol conc.HCl
82. Phenylbenzoate CH3 MgBr
(iv) (d) H3+O
→ Benzaldehyde

(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)
Q R 85. Which of the following ether react
with conc. HBr according to SN2
mechanism:
(1) CH3 CHO

(1)

(2) CH3 OH
(2)

(3) (3)

(4)
(4) CH3 CHO
SECTION – B
86. Which condition is not favorable for
83. Reactivity order of acid derivatives is- combination of atomic orbitals?
(1) Acid chloride > Anhydride > Ester (1) Combining atomic orbitals have
> Amide nearly same energy.
(2) Acid chloride > Ester > Anhydride (2) Combining atomic orbitals must
> Amide have same symmetry.
(3) Anhydride > Acid chloride > Ester (3) The combining orbitals must
> Amide overlap to maximum extent.
(4) Acid chloride > Amide > Ester > (4) The combining orbitals must
Anhydride overlap to a minimum extent.

13
87. Which of the following represent pair 91. The Gibb’s energy for the
of position isomers? decomposition of Al2 O3 at 500℃ is as
follows
(1) 2 4
Al O
3 2 3
→ 3 Al + O2 ; ∆r G = +960 kJ mol−1
The potential difference needed for
(2) the electrolytic reduction of
aluminium oxide (Al2 O3 ) at 500℃ is
at least
CH3— CH2 — NH — CH3 &
(3) (1) 4.5 V
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — NH2 (2) 3.0 V
(3) 2.5 V
(4) 5.0 V
(4)
92. Statement-I: All 2° -Alcohols gives
iodoform test.
Statement II: Ethene reacts with
88. If the rate of reaction increases by 27
water in presence of acid to produce
times, when temperature is increased
ethyl alcohol.
by 30 K, then temperature coefficient
(1) Both statements are incorrect
of the reaction is
(2) Both statements are correct
(1) 3
(3) Statement-I is correct but
(2) 2
statement-II is incorrect
(3) 1
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but
(4) 2.5
statement-II is correct.
89. A first order reaction has a specific
93. ∆S° will be highest for the reaction
reaction rate of 10−2 s −1 . How much 1
time will it take for 20 g of the (1) Ca + 2 O2 (g) → CaO(s)
reactant to reduce to 5 g? (2) CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
(1) 238.6 seconds (3) C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
(2) 138.6 seconds (4) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g)
(3) 346.5 seconds 94. Quantum numbers for some
(4) 693.0 seconds electrons are given below
90. Assertion: Electrode potential of A: n = 4, 𝑙 = 1
hydrogen is pH dependent. B: n = 4, 𝑙 = 0
Reason: Electrode potential of C: n = 3, 𝑙 = 2
hydrogen electrode is always zero. D: n = 3, 𝑙 = 1
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are The correct increasing order of energy
correct and the Reason is a of electrons
correct explanation of the (1) A < B < C < D
Assertion. (2) D < C < B < A
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are (3) D < B < C < A
correct but Reason is NOT a (4) C < B < A < D
correct explanation of the 95. The number of significant figures in
Assertion. 2.653 × 104 is
(3) If the Assertion is correct but (1) 8
Reason is incorrect. (2) 4
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and (3) 7
Reason is correct. (4) 1

14
96. Statement-I: The equilibrium 99. When equal volumes of pH = 4 and
constant of the exothermic reaction pH = 6 are mixed together then the
at high temperature decrease. pH of the resulting solution will be
Statement-II: Since ln
K2
=
∆H° 1
[ − [log 5 = 0.7]
K1 R T1
1
(1) 4.3
] and for exothermic reaction, ∆H° = (2) 4.7
T2

−ve and thereby;

K2
< 1. (3) 5
K1
(4) 5.3
(1) If both statements are correct and
statement-2 is correct 100. Which is the correct graphical
explanation of statement-1. representation based on photoelectric
(2) If both statements are correct but effect?
statement-2 is not correct
explanation of statement-1.
(3) If statement-1 is correct but
statement-2 is wrong.
(4) If both statements are wrong.
97. What is [H + ] in mol/L of a solution
that is 0.20 M CH3 COONa and 0.10 M
in CH3 COOH ?
(K a for CH3 COOH = 2 × 10−5)
(1) 3.5 × 10−4 (1) I & II
(2) 1.0 × 10−5 (2) II & III
(3) 1.8 × 10−5 (3) III & IV
(4) 9.0 × 10−6 (4) II & IV
98. Assertion: AgNO3 reacts with KCN to
form white ppt. of AgCN. This white
ppt. disappears when excess KCN is
added.
Reason: AgCN decomposes to form
siver- carbide and evovle N2gas.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are
correct and the Reason is a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are
correct but Reason is NOT a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason
is correct.

15
 Botany
SECTION – A

101. In green plants, …………………… is 108. F1 progeny of cross between

hydrogen donor and is oxidized to O2. homozygous tall and heterozygous
(1) H2S, O2 tall pea plant is-
(2) H2O, O2 (1) All intermediate plants
(3) O2, H2O (2) All Homozygous tall plants
(4) CO2, H2O (3) All Heterozygous tall plants
(4) Half homozygous and half
102. What is correct for heterotrophic
bacteria from the following heterozygous tall plants
statements-
109. Statement I: Biological names are
(1) These are least abundant in
generally in italics and written in
nature
Latin.
(2) These are decomposers Statement II: Latin origin of
(3) They are pathogenic only in biological name is represented by
human printing in italics
(4) They play important role in (1) Statement I is correct and
recycling nutrients statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect and
103. Intra cellular targets are secreted by
statement II is correct.
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Both Statement I and statement II
(2) Gogi body
are correct.
(3) Lysosome
(4) Both statement I and statement II
(4) Vacuole
are incorrect.
104. Conversion of BPGA from PGAL form
(1) NADH+H+ 110. In Pinus,
(2) NAD+ (1) Phloem lacks sieve tube and
(3) ATP albuminous cells
(4) H2O (2) Pollen grains are liberated at one
celled stage
105. Difference between nucleotide and
(3) Stems are unbranched stem
nucleoside is-
(4) Male and female strobili on same
(1) Sugar
tree
(2) Nitrogen base
(3) Phosphate 111. Essential factor required for growth
(4) 1 and 3 are-
(1) Water
106. Tapetum is-
(2) Oxygen
(1) Protective layer of anther
(3) Nutrients
(2) Outermost layer of anther
(4) All 1, 2, 3
(3) Dense cytoplasmic layer of anther
(4) One nucleate layer of anther 112. What are correct for adventitious
roots?
107. Which of the following is not a
(1) Arise from radicle
characteristic of population-
(2) Found in Monocots only
(1) They interbreed potentially
(3) Help in photosynthesis in many
(2) Individuals live isolated in
plants
population
(4) Provide a proper anchorage to the
(3) Live in groups in well defined
plant parts
geographical areas
(4) Compete for similar resources

16
113. Mark the correct one- (1) Statement I is correct and
(1) Mitochondria - Secretion statement II is incorrect.
(2) Golgi body - Packaging of (2) Statement I is incorrect and
material statement II is correct.
(3) Lysosome - Formed from (3) Both Statement I and statement II
Endoplasmic are correct.
reticulum (4) Both statement I and statement II
(4) Mitochondria - Formation of
glycolipids are incorrect.
119. Double helix model of structure of
114. Pit fields are present between and DNA was proposed by method-
connect- (1) Centrifugation
(1) Two sieve tube elements (2) Replication
(2) Sieve tube elements and (3) X-Ray diffraction
companion cell (4) Chargaff method
(3) Phloem parenchyma and Phloem
120. A cross between AaBB X aaBB yields
fibers
a genotypic ratio of :-
(4) Phloem fiber and companion cells
(1) 3 AaBB : 1 aa BB
115. Productivity is- (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
(1) Rate of biomass production (3) 1 AaBB: 1 aaBB
(2) Amount of biomass produced per (4) All AaBb
unit area
121. ‘Clot buster’ is obtained from
(3) Amount of organic matter
(1) Streptokinase
produced per unit area
(2) Streptococcus
(4) All of them
(3) Penicillin
116. Mark the incorrect one- (4) Penicillium
(1) Two kingdom of classification was
122. Free living gametophyte is-
proposed by Linnaeus
(1) Protonema of liverworts
(2) Two kingdom of classification did
(2) Gemmae bud of mosses
not distinguished between
(3) Prothallus in Equisetum
photosynthetic and non-
(4) All of them
photosynthetic
(3) Two kingdom of classification 123. Amazon rain forest is the example of
includes evolutionary habitat loss as-
relationship of organisms (I) Covering land area changed from
(4) Two kingdom of classification was 14% to 6%
(II) They are slowly being destroyed
used for a very long time (III) Degradation of many habitats by
117. Centrosome get duplicate human activities
during……………………… while move (1) I, II
towards opposite pole during (2) II, III
……………………………………. phase (3) I, III
(1) G1 phase, Prophase (4) I, II, III
(2) S phase, metaphase
124. Mendel performed cross between tall
(3) G2 phase, prophase and dwarf plants. In F2 generation
(4) S phase, prophase both the tall plants and dwarf plants
118. Statement I: Calcium and Sodium were obtained. This represents-
represent inorganic constitute in (1) Intermediate characters
living tissue. (2) Blending of characters
Statement II: NaCl, CaCO3 are also (3) Non-blending of characters
inorganic compounds in living tissue. (4) None of them

17
125. Mark the odd one w.r.t. their process 132. What are the examples of population?
of formation- (I) Bacteria in culture
(1) Roquefort cheese (II) Teakwood trees in forest tract
(2) Toddy (III) cormorants in wetlands
(3) Curd (IV) Pacific salmon fish
(4) Ethanol (1) I, II
(2) II, III
126. Intercalary meristem is present in-
(3) I, II, III
(1) Between mature tissue
(4) I, II, III, IV
(2) At root and shoot apex
(3) Vascular cambium 133. Mark the incorrect one for
(4) In the mature region of shoot photosynthesis-
(1) Mesophyll cells contain large
127. Mark the correct one-
number of chloroplasts
(1) Nuclein - Fredrick Meischer -
(2) Chloroplast align along with
1888
chromatophore in Cyanobacteria
(2) Double helix model – Watson and
(3) Chloroplast get the optimum
crick - 1953
quantity of incident light
(3) Transforming principle – Hershey
(4) Both (2) and (3)
- 1982
(4) All of them 134. Consider the following statement for
Mendel experiment and select the
128. Protists reproduce asexually by-
incorrect one-
(1) Fragmentation
(1) Mendel used artificial
(2) Cell Division
hybridization method of
(3) Cell fusion
emasculation for cross
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Mendel found that F1 progeny
129. Compact mitotic chromosomes are always resemble to one of the
formed during- parents
(1) Interphase (3) F2 progeny is produced by cross
(2) Prophase pollination in progeny
(3) Metaphase (4) F2 generation expressed the
(4) Interkinesis character that is not expressed in
130. Statement I: Essential oils are useful F1 progeny
to human welfare. 135. Which of the following steps require
Statement II: Essential oils have ATP during glycolysis?
identifiable functions. (1) Glucose to Glucose-6-phosphate
(1) Statement I is correct and (2) Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-
statement II is incorrect. 6-phosphate
(2) Statement I is incorrect and (3) Fructose-6-phosphate to
statement II is correct. fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(3) Both Statement I and statement II (4) Both (1) and (3)
are correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II SECTION – B
are incorrect
131. Choose the correct option for pollen 136. Assertion: Natality is addition of
sacs- number of births to initial density in
(1) Pollen sacs are located a period in the population
throughout the length of an Reason: Natality is number of deaths
anther and filament in a population.
(2) Pollen sacs extend longitudinally (1) If assertion and reason is true and
(3) Pollen sacs develop from reason is correct explanation of
sporogenous tissue assertion.
(4) None of them

18
 (2) If assertion and reason is true and (4) If both assertion and reason is
reason is not correct explanation false
of assertion 142. Mark the incorrect one
(3) If assertion is true and reason is (1) Root – Plant growth regulator
false. synthesis
(4) If both assertion and reason is (2) Stem – Vegetative propagation
false (3) Racemose – Acropetal succession
(4) Pedicle – Stalk of leaf
137. An animal cell has 30% adenine in G1
phase. What would be the percentage 143. Statement I: More than one PGR
of cytosine in late G1 phase? effects the event in plant life.
(1) 30% Statement II: PGR controls only of
(2) 50% intrinsic type in plants.
(3) 40% (1) Statement I is correct and
(4) 20% statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect and
138. Middle layers are part of structure of-
statement II is correct.
(1) Pollen grain
(3) Both Statement I and statement II
(2) Ovule
are correct.
(3) Microsporangia
(4) Both statement I and statement II
(4) Anther
are incorrect.
139. Consider the following statement and
choose the incorrect one- 144. Microspores dissociate from each
(1) Phenotype means physical other after they got
appearance of any organism (1) Mature and hydrate
(2) Genotype means expression of (2) Mature and dehydrate
genes in organism (3) Form tetrad
(3) Heterozygous means unidentical (4) Young and dehydrate
alleles of a gene present on same 145. Mark the correct set of option from
locus following-
(4) Homozygous means identical (1) Light - Photochemical
alleles of a gene present on same reaction reaction
(2) Dark - Carbon reaction
locus reaction
140. Formation of mitotic apparatus is (3) Light - In stroma
reaction
done during-
(4) Light - Trapping of light
(1) G2 phase
reaction energy
(2) Anaphase
(3) Prophase 146. Stratification is -
(4) Metaphase (1) Vertical distribution of different
141. Assertion: Nitrogen bases in DNA species occupying different levels
helix are projected inside. (2) Vertical distribution of same
Reason: Both strands of DNA helix
species occupying same levels
are linked together by H-bonds of
(3) Vertical distribution of same
bases.
species occupying different levels
(1) If assertion and reason is true and
(4) Vertical distribution of different
reason is correct explanation of
assertion. species occupying same levels
(2) If assertion and reason is true and 147. In DNA strand, G is linked to C. This
reason is not correct explanation is linkage between
of assertion (1) Purine and pyrimidine
(3) If assertion is true and reason is (2) Pyrimidine and purine
false. (3) Purine and purine

19
 (4) Pyrimidine and pyrimidine (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
148. Match the following column I with
column II: 149. Parasitic multicellular sporophyte is
Column I Column II present in -
A Rivet popper I Robert May (1) Algae
hypothesis (2) Bryophytes
B Species area II Paul Ehrlich (3) Pteridophytes
richness (4) Gymnosperms
C Global III Edward
species Wilson 150. Which of the following product does
diversity not produce during fermentation-
D Term IV Von Humbolt (1) CO2
biodiversity (2) H2O
(3) Lactic acid
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) Ethanol
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

20
 Zoology
SECTION – A

151. Mark the incorrect statement (2) I & II

(1) Each Testis has about 250 (3) I, III & IV
compartments called testicular (4) I & IV
lobules 156. Mark the incorrect one w.r.t.
(2) Each testicular lobule has 1-3 reproductive system of cockroach
highly coiled seminiferous tubules (1) A pair of testes lying one on each
(3) Each seminiferous tubule is lined lateral side in 4th – 6th abdominal
on its inside by male germ cells segment
only (2) A characteristic mushroom shaped
(4) Leydig cells are found in the gland is present in 6th – 7th
interstitial spaces of testicular abdominal segments which
lobules functions as an accessory
152. Which among the following are reproductive gland
examples of phylum Echinodermata: (3) cockroaches are monoecious
a. Echinus (4) Sperms are stored in seminal
b. Asterias vesicles
c. Ophiura 157. Fragments of DNA cutted by
d. Cucumaria restriction enzyme can be joined by.
e. sea lily (1) Polymerase
(1) a, b and e (2) DNA ligase
(2) b, c and d (3) DNAse
(3) a, b, c, d and e (4) Restriction endonuclease
(4) a, c and d 158. The inorganic compound like
153. For diagnosis of AIDS which technique sulphate, phosphate etc., are found in
is used majorly: (1) Acid-soluble pool
(1) ELISA (2) Acid-insoluble fraction
(2) Northern blotting (3) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Widal test (4) None of the above
(4) Mantoux test 159. Which among the following organisms
154. Find out the incorrect statement are exclusively marine?
(1) Normal cells show a property A. Pleurobrachia
called contact inhibition B. Ctenoplana
(2) Virus can be a reason of cancer C. Taenia
occurence D. Fasciola
(3) Benign tumors remains confined E. Ancyclostomata
F. Earthworm
to original location
(1) B, D, F
(4) Metagenesis is the most feared
(2) A, C, D, F
property of malignant tumor (3) C, D, E
155. Along with hypothalamus, limbic (4) A,B only
system is involved in 160. Which one is correct option for given
I. Thermoregulation diagram?
II. Regulation of sexual behaviour
III. Expression of emotional reactions
IV. Motivation
Choose the correct option
(1) II, III & IV

21
 (1) a – Labrum, b – Maxilla, c - (1) 200 mya
Hypopharynx, d - Mandible (2) 500 mya
(2) a – Hypopharynx, b – Mandible, c (3) 350 mya
- Maxilla, d – Labrum (4) 150 mya
(3) a – Labrum, b – Hypopharynx, c - characteristics in different groups
Maxilla, d - Mandible 165. Match the following columns
(4) a – Maxilla, b – Hypopharynx, c - Column – I Column – II
(a) Pills (1) Intra uterine
Mandible, d - Labrum
device
161. Select the correct statement (b) Condoms (2) Prevent
Statement I: Infectious diseases which ovulation
are transmitted through sexual (c) Vasectomy (3) Prevent sperm
contact are called veneral disease from reaching
Statement II: Hepatitis -B, genital the cervix
herpes, HIV are some of common STIs (d) Cu-T (4) Semen contain
(1) Statement I is correct no sperm
(2) Statement II is correct
(3) Both the statements are incorrect a b c d
(4) Both the statements are correct (1) 1 2 4 3
162. Identify the given structural formula (2) 2 3 4 1
and select the correct option (3) 4 2 3 1
(4) 4 3 2 1
166. Which of the following is correct w.r.t.
biopiracy?
(1) The Indian parliament has
recently cleared 2 amendment of
nd

Indian patent bills

(2) biopiracy refers to use of
A B bioresources by multinational
(1) Adenine Uracil companies without proper
(2) Guanine Thymine authorisation
(3) Adenine Guanine (3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Cytosine Thymine (4) None of these
163. Select the correct option for the 167. The term ‘Saltation’ refers to
following (1) Excess of species at a given area
(2) Reduced number of species due to
saline environments
(3) Occurrence of variations gradually
step by step
(4) Single step large mutations
168. Select the correct statements
(1) A-Peripheral Nervous System and regarding the characteristics of
B-Central Nervous System acquired immunity
(2) C-Autonomic Nervous System and (i) Cell-mediated immunity and
E-Cranial Nerves humoral immunity are responsible for
(3) B-Peripheral Nervous System and acquired immunity
D-Spinal Nerves (ii) It is pathogen specific,
(4) A-Central Nervous System and D- characterized by memory
(iii) It is accomplished by different type
Sympathetic Nervous system of barriers
164. Invertebrate were formed and active (1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
by the time of ______. (2) (i), (iii)

22
 (3) (i) only
(4) (i) & (ii) only
169. Which group of animals respire
through lungs?
(1) Earthworm and insects
(2) Sponges, coelenterates and
flatworms
(3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods
(4) Amphibians, reptiles, birds and
(1) A-Hypothalamus; B-
mammals Hypothalamic neurons; C- Portal
170. Which of the following statement circulation; D- Posterior pituitary;
is/are not correct regarding E- Anterior pituitary
connective tissue? (2) A- Epithalamic neurons; B-
(i) They are the most abundant and Hypothalamic vein; C- Pars
widely distributed in the body of distalis; D- Pars intermedia; E-
complex animals Hypothalamus
(ii) They connect and support other (3) A- Hypothalamic neurons; B-
tissues Portal circulation; C- Anterior
(iii) They include diverse tissues such pituitary; D-Posterior pituitary; E-
as bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose, Hypothalamic vein
and other loose connective tissues (4) A- Hypothalamic neurons; B-
(iv) They form the internal and
external lining of many organs Portal circulation; C- Posterior
(v) Blood is an example of a fluid pituitary; D-Anterior pituitary; E-
connective tissue
Hypothalamus
(1) (iv) only
(2) (v) only 174. Read the assertion and reason
(3) (i) and (ii) carefully to mark the correct option
(4) (ii) and (v) out of the options given below:
Assertion: The tertiary follicle further
171. Volume of air remaining in lungs even
changes into graafian follicle
after a forcible expiration is residual
Reason: The graafian follicle ruptures
volume i.e.:
to release secondary oocyte
(1) 500ML-1000ML
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are
(2) 1100-1200 ML
true and reason is the correct
(3) 1000-1100ML
explanation of assertion.
(4) 2500-3000ML
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are
172. Find the correct statement of the given true but reason is not the correct
question explanation of assertion
Statement A: Collagen is the most (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is
abundant protein in biosphere false
Statement B: The acid soluble pellet (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
contains polysaccharides
false
(1) Statement A is correct
(2) Statement B is correct 175. Which of the following conditions are
(3) Both statements are incorrect found in the alveoli of lungs?
(4) Both statements are correct I. High pO2
II. Low pCO2
173. Observe the given diagrammatic
III. High pCO2
representation. Identify A to E
IV. Low pO2
V. Low H+
VI. High H+
Choose the correct option

23
 (1) I, III and V Disease Causative Mode of
(2) III, IV and VI organism infection
(3) I, IV and VI (1) Typhoid Salmonell With
(4) I, II and V a typhi inspired
air
176. The animal possessing the following
(2) Pneumoni Streptococ Droplet
type of germ layers (a and b) are called
a cus infection
__________ and ___________
respectively pneumoni
a
(3) Elephanti Wuchereri With
asis a bancrofti infected
water
and food
(4) Malaria Plasmodiu Bite of
m vivax male
(1) Diploblastic, Triploblastic Anophele
(2) Triploblastic, Diploblastic s
(3) Diploblastic, Diploblastic mosquito
(4) Triploblastic, Triploblastic
177. Which of the following statement is 180. Match the following column I & II and
incorrect? mark the correct option as given below
(1) ADH helps in water elimination Column I Column II
making urine hypotonic A. Asymmetr I. Annelids
(2) Protein free fluid is filtered from ical
blood plasma into the Bowman’s B. Radial II. Coelenterates
capsule symmetry
(3) PCT is lined by simple cuboidal C. Bilateral III. Sponge
brush bordered epithelium IV. Arthropoda
(4) Henle’s loop plays an important V. Ctenophores
role in concentrating the urine VI. Platyhelminthes
178. The ____A____ releasing the ADP and (1) A-I, B-III, II, C-IV, V, VI
Pi goes back to its ____B____ state. A (2) A-III, B-VI, II, C-I, IV, V
new ATP binds and the crossbridge is (3) A-III, B-II, V, C-I, IV, VI
____C____ The ATP is again hydrolysed (4) A-III, B-IV, V, II, C-I, VI
by the ____D____ head and cycle of 181. I. Plasma contains very high amount
cross bridge formation and breakage of minerals like Na+, Ca2+, Mg+, HCO3–
is repeated causing further sliding Fill , Cl–
the appropriate options in the blanks II. Glucose, amino acids, lipids etc. are
A, B, C and D present in the plasma as they are not
(1) A-Myosin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D- always in transit in the body
myosin III. Factors for clotting of blood are
(2) A-Actin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D- present in plasma in an active form
myosin IV. Plasma without the clotting factors
(3) A-Myosin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D- is called serum
actin Find the correct one regarding the
(4) A-Actin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D- above statement
actin (1) Only I is incorrect
(2) Only II is correct
179. Which one of the following options (3) IV is correct
gives the correct match of a disease (4) All are incorrect
with its causative organism and mode
of infection?

24
182. Read the assertion and reason Column I Column II
carefully to mark the correct option I. Glycosuria a. Accumulation
out of the options given below: of uric acid in
Assertion: Various types of grouping joints
of blood is found like ABO and Rh II. Gout b. Mass of
Reason: ABO blood group is based on crystallised
presence or absence of two surface salts within
antigens on RBCs the kidney
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are III. Renal c. Inflammation
true and reason is the correct calculi of glomeruli
explanation of assertion IV. Glomerular d. Presence of
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are nephritis glucose in
true but reason is not the correct urine
explanation of assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is I II III IV
false (1) c b d a
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are (2) a b c d
(3) d a b c
false
(4) b c a d
183. In pBR322, ampR and tetR genes are
187. Statement A: The neural system is
present. When we ligate a foreign DNA
composed of highly specialised cells
at BamH I site, then recombinant
called neurons that can detect stimuli
plasmids will lose the resistance to the
Statement B: The neural system is
(1) Ampicillin
composed of highly specialised cells
(2) Tetracycline
called neurons that can transmit
(3) Both (1) & (2)
stimuli
(4) None of the above
(1) Statement A is correct
184. Statement 1: insulin for curing (2) Statement B is correct
diabetes should only come from (3) Statement A and B are correct
animals (4) Statement A and B are incorrect
Statement 2: Insulin has three peptide
188. Which of the following is/are true for
chains in its active stage
phylum ctenophora?
(1) Statement 1 is correct
Statement A: Sexes are separate in
(2) Statement 2 is correct
ctenophora
(3) Both are correct
Statement B: Fertilisation is external
(4) Both are incorrect
Statement C: Development is indirect
185. Choose the correct option regarding (1) All statements are correct
the concept of Darwin and Hugo de (2) Only statement A is incorrect
Vries (3) Statement B and C are incorrect
(1) According to Darwin mutation (4) Only statement B is correct
cause variation
(2) DeVries believed minor variation
causes evolution
(3) Both 1 and 2
189. Which of the following statement is
(4) Evolution for Darwin was gradual
incorrect?
while De Vries believed mutation
(1) A person of O blood group has anti
causes speciation
A and anti B antibodies in his
SECTION – B blood plasma
(2) A person of B blood group cannot
186. Match the items given in column I donate blood to a person of A blood
with those in column II and select the group
correct option given below

25
 (3) Blood group is designated on the artificially in female
basis of the presence of antibodies tract
in the blood plasma (c) AI (3) Embryo at 8 celled
(4) A person of AB blood group is stage transferred to
universal recipient mother
190. The outline of principal event of (d) ZIFT (4) Female gamete
urination is given below in unorder transferred in
manner fallopian tube
I. Stretch receptors on the wall of (e) ET (5) Zygote tranferred in
urinary bladder send signal to the to fallopian tube
CNS (1) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-5, (d)-3, (e)-4
II. The bladder fills with urine and
(2) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-5, (d)-4, (e)-2
becomes distended
(3) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-5, (e)-2
III. Micturition
(4) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-5, (e)-3
IV. CNS passes on motor messages to
193. Choose the correct option
initiate the contraction of smooth
Statement 1: Ori sequence is also
muscles of bladder and simultaneous
responsible for controlling the copy
relaxation of urethral sphincter
number of the linked DNA Statement
The correct order of steps for urination
2: Ori is a sequence from where
is
replication starts and any piece of
(1) II → I → IV → III
RNA when linked to this sequence can
(2) IV → III → II → I
be made to replicate within the host
(3) II → I → III → IV
cells
(4) III → II → I → IV
Statement 3: In cloning vector,
191. Match the column I with column II pBR322 ori is situated between rop
and select the correct option from the and tetR region
codes given below (1) Statement 1 is correct
Column – I Column – II (2) Statement 2 is correct
I. Structural and a. H-zone (3) Statement 3 is correct
functional unit (4) All are correct
of a myofibril
194. Read the following statements and
II. Protein of thin b. Myosin
choose incorrect one
filament
(1) There are an estimated 200,000
III. Protein of thick c. Sarcomere
varieties of rice in India alone
filament
(2) First transgenic cow produced
IV. The central d. Actin
alpha1 antitrypsin
part of thick
(3) Transgenic mice are being
filament not
developed for use in testing the
overlapped by
safety of vaccines before they are
thin filament
used on humans
I II III IV (4) Probes are tagged by using
(1) a b c d radioactive substances for
(2) a c b d hybridisation
(3) a d c b
195. Which one of the following statement
(4) c d b a
in regard to the excretion by the
192. Pick up correct match human kidneys is correct?
Terms Meaning (1) Our lungs remove large amount of
(a) IVF (1) Embryo transfer done 𝐶𝑂2
inside uterus after in (2) Sweat produced by sweat gland
vitro fertilisation contains NaCl, urea, lactic acid
(b) GIFT (2) Taking sperm from etc.
donor and injecting

26
 (3) Nearly 99 percent of the (1) If both Assertion and Reason are
glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed true and reason is the correct
by the renal tubules explanation of assertion
(4) All of the above (2) If both Assertion and Reason are
196. Identify the structure X correctly true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is
false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
False
200. Identify A, B, C and D correctly

(1) Morula
(2) Blastocyst
(3) Ootid
(4) Blastomere
197. Which of the following pairs of drugs
(1) A – Ejaculatory Duct
Are normally used as medicines to
B – Bulbourethral gland
cope mental illness like insomnia
C – Seminal Vesicle
and depression?
D – Prostate
(1) Heroin, opioids
(2) A – Ejaculatory Duct
(2) Cannabinoids, cocaine
B – Prostate
(3) Barbiturates, amphetamine
C – Bulbourethral gland
(4) Morphine, crack
D – Seminal Vesicle
198. Number of cranial bones are: (3) A – Ejaculatory Duct
(1)8 B – Seminal Vesicle
(2)22 C – Prostate
(3)14 D – Bulbourethral gland
(4)24 (4) A – Ejaculatory Duct
199. Read the assertion and reason B – Bulbourethral gland
carefully to mark the correct option C – Prostate
out of the options given below: D – Seminal Vesicle
Assertion: Mechanism of muscle
contraction is explained by sliding-
filament theory.
Reason: Contraction of muscle fibre
takes place by the pulling of actin
filament towards the centre of A band.

27
 Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology

1. (3) 51. (2) 101. (2) 151. (3)
2. (3) 52. (2) 102. (2) 152. (3)
3. (2) 53. (4) 103. (2) 153. (1)
4. (3) 54. (4) 104. (1) 154. (4)
5. (2) 55. (2) 105. (3) 155. (1)
6. (1) 56. (1) 106. (3) 156. (3)
7. (2) 57. (1) 107. (2) 157. (2)
8. (1) 58. (4) 108. (4) 158. (1)
9. (2) 59. (3) 109. (2) 159. (4)
10. (1) 60. (3) 110. (4) 160. (3)
11. (2) 61. (1) 111. (4) 161. (4)
12. (3) 62. (4) 112. (4) 162. (1)
13. (1) 63. (2) 113. (2) 163. (4)
14. (1) 64. (2) 114. (2) 164. (2)
15. (4) 65. (4) 115. (1) 165. (2)
16. (2) 66. (2) 116. (3) 166. (3)
17. (2) 67. (1) 117. (4) 167. (4)
18. (2) 68. (4) 118. (3) 168. (4)
19. (1) 69. (4) 119. (3) 169. (4)
20. (3) 70. (4) 120. (3) 170. (1)
21. (2) 71. (2) 121. (2) 171. (2)
22. (1) 72. (2) 122. (3) 172. (3)
23. (2) 73. (1) 123. (3) 173. (1)
24. (4) 74. (3) 124. (3) 174. (2)
25. (4) 75. (1) 125. (4) 175. (4)
26. (1) 76. (2) 126. (1) 176. (1)
27. (2) 77. (3) 127. (2) 177. (1)
28. (1) 78. (4) 128. (3) 178. (1)
29. (3) 79. (3) 129. (2) 179. (2)
30. (3) 80. (4) 130. (1) 180. (3)
31. (3) 81. (2) 131. (2) 181. (3)
32. (1) 82. (3) 132. (4) 182. (2)
33. (1) 83. (1) 133. (2) 183. (2)
34. (1) 84. (1) 134. (3) 184. (4)
35. (1) 85. (3) 135. (4) 185. (4)
36. (2) 86. (4) 136. (3) 186. (3)
37. (4) 87. (2) 137. (4) 187. (3)
38. (1) 88. (1) 138. (3) 188. (2)
39. (3) 89. (2) 139. (2) 189. (3)
40. (1) 90. (3) 140. (3) 190. (1)
41. (1) 91. (3) 141. (2) 191. (4)
42. (2) 92. (4) 142. (4) 192. (4)
43. (3) 93. (2) 143. (3) 193. (1)
44. (2) 94. (3) 144. (2) 194. (2)
45. (1) 95. (2) 145. (3) 195. (4)
46. (1) 96. (1) 146. (1) 196. (2)
47. (2) 97. (2) 147. (1) 197. (3)
48. (4) 98. (3) 148. (1) 198. (1)
49. (3) 99. (1) 149. (2) 199. (2)
50. (2) 100. (4) 150. (2) 200. (4)

28
 SB-AITS Test 11 (Full Length 07 - Class 11 & 12) - Solution
S1. (3) S4. (3)

Energy conservation of two

condition (1) and (2)
𝑏 3𝑏
𝐾. 𝐸1 + 𝑃. 𝐸1 = 𝐾. 𝐸2 + 𝑃. 𝐸2
⇒ 𝑀𝑔 × 2 = 𝐹 × ….. (i) 𝑚(2𝑙)2
1
4 ⇒ 𝑚𝑔𝑙 = ⋅ × 𝜔2
𝑑𝑃 𝑏 2
3
𝐹= 𝑛 (𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎) = 𝑛 × (2 𝑚𝑣) × 𝑎 × 1 4𝑙 2
𝑑𝑡 2 ⇒ 𝑔𝑙 = 2 × 3 × 𝜔2
…(ii) ⇒
3𝑔
𝜔 = 2𝑙
From (i) and (ii) 3𝑔
𝑏 𝑏 3𝑏 ⇒ 𝜔 = √ 2𝑙 .
𝑀𝑔 × = 𝑛 × (2 𝑚𝑣) × 𝑎 × ×
2 2 4
⇒ 3 × 10 = 100 × 2 × 0.01 × 𝑣 × 1 × S5. (2)
𝑞
3×2 We have, 𝑉 ∝ 𝑅
4
𝑚
⇒ 𝑣 = 10 𝑠 . ∵ 𝑉 = 4𝜋𝜀 ⋅ 𝑅
1 𝑞

S2. (3) 0
𝑞
Pistong of A is free to move, implies ∵𝜎=
4𝜋𝑅2
heat is added at constatn pressure.
𝑑𝑄 = 𝑛𝐶𝑝 𝑑𝑇1 = 𝑛𝐶𝑣 𝑑𝑇1 + 𝑛𝑅𝑑𝑇1 ∴ 𝑞 ∝ 𝜎𝑅 2 or 𝑉 ∝ 𝜎𝑅
Piston B, the heat is added at Potential is same, i.e. 𝑉1 = 𝑉2
constant Volume.
∴ 𝜎1 𝑅1 = 𝜎2 𝑅2
𝑑𝑄 = 𝑑𝑈 = 𝑛𝐶𝑣 𝑑𝑇2
𝜎1 𝑅2 5
Given that same amount of heat ⇒ Ratio of = = .
𝜎2 𝑅1 4
supplied.
∴ 𝑏𝐶𝑣 𝑑𝑇1 + 𝑛𝑅𝑑𝑇1 = 𝑛𝐶𝑣 𝑑𝑇2 S6. (1)
5 5𝑅 2𝜋 2𝜋 λ 𝜋
Given, 𝛾 = 3 , 𝐶𝑃 = 2 ; 𝐶𝑣 = 3𝑅/2 𝜙= 𝜆
Δ𝑥 = 𝜆
×6= 3
3𝑅 3𝑅
2
𝑑𝑇1 + 𝑅 𝑑𝑇1 = 2
𝑑𝑇2 𝐼 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 + 2√𝐼1 𝐼2 cos 𝜃
5𝑑𝑇1 5
𝑑𝑇2 = = (42)
= 70 𝐾. 𝜋
3 3 𝐼 ′ = 𝐼 + 𝐼 + 2 𝐼 cos = 3 𝐼
S3. (2) 3

Apparent freqeuncy, And 𝐼0 = 𝐼 + 𝐼 + 2 𝐼𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑂° = 4 𝐼

′ 𝑣+𝑣 335+5
𝑣 = 𝑣 ( 𝑜) = 165 ( ) 𝐼
∴ 𝐼 = 4.
3
𝑣−𝑣𝑠 335−5
0
(∵ 𝑣0 = 5 𝑚𝑠 −1 , 𝑣𝑠 = 5 𝑚𝑠 −1 )
340 S7. (2)
= 165 × 330 = 170 𝐻𝑧
𝐴𝑥 = 12 𝑚, 𝐴𝑦 = 8 𝑚
Therefore, the number of beats
heard = 170 − 165 = 5. [𝐴 = 𝐴𝑥 𝑖̂ + 𝐴𝑦 𝑗̂]
Magnitude of vector-
𝐴 = √𝐴2𝑥 + 𝐴2𝑦 = √122 + 82 = √208𝑚
After rotation-

29
 S11. (2)
𝐴 = √𝐴′2𝑥 + 𝐴′2𝑦
Since putting the glass plate does
𝐴 2 not change the width of the fringe.
⇒ √208 = √( 2𝑥 ) + 𝐴′2𝑦 So, the fringe width will remain the
same that is 0.3 mm.
⇒ √208 = √(6)2 + 𝐴′2𝑦 S12. (3)
⇒ 𝐴′2𝑦 = 208 − 36 = 172 𝐹
( )
𝐴
Δ𝑙 =𝑦
⇒ 𝐴′𝑦 = √172 = 13.11 𝑚. ( )
𝑙
S8. (1) 𝑚𝑔 Δ𝑙
⇒ =𝑦× …. (i)
Applying momentum conservation, 𝐴 𝑙

𝑚𝑔 𝑣𝑔 + 𝑚𝑝 𝑣𝑝 = 0 , After cooling
Δ𝑙
(initially both are at rest) 𝑙
= 𝛼 × 10
40𝑣𝑔 + 160𝑣𝑝 = 0 ………(1) (0.001)2
𝑚 = 1011 × 10−5 × 10 × 𝜋 × 10
And also,
So, 𝑚 ≈ 3 𝑘𝑔.
𝑣𝑔/𝑝 = 𝑣𝑔 − 𝑣𝑝 = 2 𝑚/𝑠 ……..(2) S13. (1)
On solving (1) & (2) Here 𝐵𝑃𝑅 = 0 and 𝐵𝑃𝑄 = 0
3
𝑣𝑔 (40 + 160) = 2 × 160 sin 𝛼 = 5
320 8 4
𝑣𝑔 = 200 = 5 𝑚/𝑠 And sin 𝛽 = 5
S9. (2) Also, sin 𝛼 =
𝑟
=
3
The average temperature of the 4𝑥 5

liquid in the first case

61+59
𝑇𝑡1 = 2 = 60°𝐶
The average temperature of the
liquid in the second case
51+49
𝑇𝑡2 = = 50°𝐶
2
The rate of fall of temperature is
Δ𝑇
Δ𝑡
= 𝐾(𝑇𝑡 − 𝑇𝑠 )
(61−59)
4
= 𝐾(60 − 30) …….(1)
12𝑥
(51−49) Or 𝑟 =
= 𝐾(50 − 30) …… (2) 5
t
𝜇0 𝐼
On solving (1) & (2) 𝐵 = 𝐵𝑄𝑅 = (sin 𝛼 + sin 𝛽)
t 30 4𝜋𝑟
= 20 𝜇 𝐼 3 4
4 𝐵 = 4𝜋0 . (12𝑥/5) (5 + 5)
⇒ 𝑡 = 6 𝑚𝑖𝑛. 𝜇 𝐼
S10. (1) Or 𝐵 = 7 ( 0 )
48𝜋𝑥
Fundamental freqeuncy of S14. (1)
cylindrical open tube. 𝑇1 𝑉 𝛾−1 = 𝑇2 (32 𝑉)𝛾−1 ⇒ 𝑇1 =
𝑣
𝑛 = 2 𝐿 = 390 𝐻𝑧 (32)𝛾−1 . 𝑇2
7 2
When it is immersed in water it For diatomic gas 𝛾 = 5 ∴ 𝛾 − 1 = 5
3 2
becomes a closed tube of length 4 of ∴ 𝑇1 = (32)5 . 𝑇2 ⇒ 𝑇1 = 4 𝑇2
the initial length. 𝑇 𝑇
Now, efficiency = 1 − 𝑇2 = 1 − 4 𝑇2 =
Therefore, its fundamental 1 3
1 2

frequency is 1 − 4 = 4 = 0.75.
𝑣 𝑣 2 𝑣
𝑛′ = 3 = 3 𝐿 = 3 (2 𝐿)
4( 𝐿)
4
2
= 3 × 390 𝐻𝑧 = 260 𝐻𝑧.

30
S15. (4) 𝑛𝜇 𝐼
𝐵 = 2𝑅0 (R = Radius of the coil, n =
number of turns)
Here n = 1
𝜇0 𝐼
⇒ 𝐵0 = 2𝑅
Now the same coil is rewound to
have 3 turns.
So, 2𝜋𝑅 = 3(2𝜋𝑅) (R’ = new radius)
𝑅 = 𝑅′
𝑅
At any 𝜃, the equilibrium equation 𝑅′ =
3
for stone. ∴ New magnetic field B’ will be
𝑚𝑣 2 (3)𝜇0 𝐼 3𝜇0 𝐼
𝑇 − 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃 = 𝐵′ = 2𝑅′
= 𝑅
𝑅 2
3
𝑚𝑣 2 9𝜇0 𝐼
⇒𝑇= 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃 + 𝑅 𝐵′ = = 9𝐵0 .
2𝑅
Since, v is constant, S19. (1)
⇒ 𝑇 will be minimum when cos 𝜃 is Potential at point A is 𝑉𝐴 = 4𝜋𝜀
1 𝑞
minimum. 0𝑎

⇒ 𝜃 = 180° corresponds to Potential at point B is 𝑉𝐵 = 4𝜋𝜀

1 𝑞
𝑇𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 . 0 𝑏

S16. (2) Work done in taking a charge Q

As the magnet will fal the flux from A to B is,
through the coil will increase, 𝑊 = 𝑄(𝑉𝐵 − 𝑉𝐴 ) =
𝑄𝑞 1 1
[ − ]
according to lenz law, the coil will 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑏 𝑎
𝑄𝑞 𝑎−𝑏
induce current in order to oppose 𝑊= [ ].
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎𝑏
the flux, That current will reduced S20. (3)
the accleratioin of magnet so Here, 𝑢 = 8 𝑚𝑠 −1 , ℎ = 80 𝑚. The time
𝑎𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝑔 − 𝑎𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 . taken by the stone to reach the
S17. (2) ground is.
Moment of inertia of a cylinder 2ℎ
about its centre and parallel to its 𝑡=√
𝑔
𝑀𝑅2
length = 2×80 𝑚
2 𝑡 = √10 𝑚𝑠−2 = 4 𝑠
Distance, 𝑑 = 𝑢 × 𝑡 = 8 𝑚𝑠 −1 × 4 𝑠
𝑑 = 32 𝑚.
S21. (2)
Potential inside the sphere will be
same as that on its surface i.e, 𝑉 =
𝑘𝑞
𝑉𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 = 10
𝑘𝑞
𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 15
𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡 2
∴ 𝑉
=3
Moment of inertia about its centre ⇒ 𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 𝑉.
2
3
and perpendicular to its length =
S22. (1)
𝐿2 𝑅2
𝑀 (12 + 4
) 𝜆=
ℎ
√2𝑚𝐸
According to question, 1
𝑀𝐿2 𝑀𝑅2 𝑀𝑅2 𝜆∝
+ = ⇒ 𝐿 = √3𝑅. √𝑚
12 4 3 𝜆𝑝 √𝑚 𝛼 √4
S18. (2) 𝜆𝛼
= =
√𝑚 𝑝 √1
The magnetic field due to current 𝜆𝑝 2
=1
carrying circular coil at its centre is 𝜆𝛼
given by S23. (2)

31
 Time of flight in projectile motion is Conductors, the dielectric constant
given by of metal plates will be 𝐾 = ∞
2 𝑢 sin 𝜃 𝜀 𝐴
𝑇= 𝑔
…… (1) 𝐶= 0 𝑡
𝑑−𝑡+
𝐾
Horizontal range in projectile ′ 𝜀0 𝐴
⇒𝐶 =
motion. 2𝑑 2𝑑
𝑑− +
5 5×∞
𝑢2 sin 2𝜃 5𝜀0 𝐴 5
𝑅= …… (2) ⇒ 𝐶′ = 3𝑑
= 3 𝐶.
𝑔
From equation (1) and (2), we get S27. (2)
𝑇𝑔 2
( ) sin 2𝜃
2 sin 𝜃
𝑅= 𝑔
𝑇 2 𝑔2 2 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃
𝑅=
𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃.𝑔
2
𝑇 𝑔
𝑅= 2 tan 𝜃
.
S24. (4)
1 1
𝐾𝐸𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝐸 − 𝑊0 = ℎ𝑐 ( − )
𝜆 𝜆0

6.62×10−34 ×3×108 1 1 2𝑥1 𝑣 330

= 10−9
[200 − 250] = 1 ⇒ 𝑥1 = 2 = = 165
𝑣 2

= 19.86 × 10−20 𝐽. 2𝑥2

= 2 ⇒ 𝑥2 = 𝑣 = 330 𝑚
𝑣
S25. (4)
𝑑 = 𝑥1 + 𝑥2 = 165 + 330 = 495 𝑚.
The ratio of maximum tension to
S28. (1)
the minimum tension is
𝑇2 We know that the power of a body
𝑇
=4 is given by 𝑃 = 𝐹𝑣, where F is force
1
∴ 𝑇2 = 4 𝑇1 and 𝑣 is velocity.
Now, the difference between the Given, 𝑃 = 𝑥𝑣, hence, dimension of
two tensions should be 6 mg. 𝑥 will be ⇒ [𝑥] = [𝐹] = [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 ].
Hence, we have S29. (3)
𝑇2 − 𝑇1 = 6 𝑚𝑔
∴ 4𝑇1 − 𝑇1 = 6 𝑚𝑔
3𝑇1 = 6 𝑚𝑔
𝑇1 = 2 𝑚𝑔
Now, the tension at the top of the
circle is
𝑚𝑣12 𝑚𝑣 2
𝑇1 + 𝑚𝑔 = = 1
𝑟 𝐿
𝑚𝑣12
2 𝑚𝑔 + 𝑚𝑔 = 10/3 𝐼1 𝜔1 = 𝐼2 𝜔2
10 1
𝑣12 = 3𝑔 × = 10 𝑔 (70 × 22 ) × = 200 𝜔2
3 2
∴ 𝑣1 = √10 𝑔 = √10 × 10 = 10 𝑚/𝑠. 140
= 𝜔2 = 0.7 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1 .
S26. (1) 200

Let the plate are be A and S30. (3)

separation be d. So, the initial From prism formula
capacitance will be. sin(𝐴+𝛿𝑚 )/2
𝜀 𝐴 𝜇=
𝐶 = 0𝑑 sin 𝐴/2

Given, sin 𝐴
√3 = sin 𝐴/2 =
2 sin 𝐴/2 cos 𝐴/2
= 2 cos 𝐴/
The combined thickness of the sin 𝐴/2

metal plates 2
𝑑 𝑑 2𝑑
𝑡=5+5= 5 𝐴 √3
cos 2 = = 𝑐𝑜𝑠30°
Since, the metal plates are the good 2
𝐴
2
= 30° or 𝐴 = 60°.

32
S31. (3) 540 3/2
= ( 15 ) = (36)3/2 = 63
Applying the principle of
conservation of linear momentum, 𝑇2 = 216 year.
we get
S34. (1)
𝑚𝑣 = 𝑚𝑣1 + 𝑚𝑣2 or 𝑣 = 𝑣1 + 𝑣2 ……
(i) For stationary object the velocity is
By definition of coefficient of zero hence the slope of the position-
restitution time graph will be zero, hence the
𝑣 −𝑣 𝑣 −𝑣 given reason is the correct
𝑒 = 2 1 = 2 1 or 𝑣2 − 𝑣1 = 𝑒𝑣 ….
𝑢1 −𝑢2 𝑣−0 explanation of the assertion.
(ii) S35. (1)
KE after collision Let the temperature at the point of
1 3 1
∴ 2 𝑚(𝑣12 + 𝑣22 ) = 4 × 2 𝑚𝑣 2 or 𝑣12 + 𝑣22 contact of three rod is T, as we
3 know that total incoming of heat is
= 4 𝑣 2 ….. (iii)
equal to total outgoing heat.
Squaring eq. (i), we get 𝑣12 + 𝑣22 + 𝐾𝐴(Δ𝑇)
𝑄=
2𝑣1 𝑣2 = 𝑣 2 …… (iv) 𝐿
(3𝐾)𝐴(100−𝑇) (2𝐾)𝐴(𝑇−50) (𝐾)𝐴(𝑇)
Subtracting (iii), from equation (iv),, So, = +
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
we get Therefore 6𝑇 = 4000°𝐶
1
2𝑣1 𝑣2 = 4 𝑣 2 ……. (v) or 𝑇 = (
200
) °𝐶.
3
Squaring (ii), we get S36. (2)
𝑣22 + 𝑣12 − 2𝑣1 𝑣2 = 𝑒 2 𝑣 2 ……. (vi) For light of frequency 2𝜈0 , we have
Using (iii) and (v) in (vi), we get 2ℎ𝜈0 = ℎ𝜈0 + 𝑒𝑉0 ….. (i)
3 2 1 1
4
𝑣 − 4 𝑣 2 = 𝑒 2 𝑣 2, 2 𝑣 2 = 𝑒 2 𝑣 2 ⇒ ℎ𝜈0 = 𝑒𝑉0
or 𝑒 =
1
. For light of frequency 3𝜈0 , we have
√2
3ℎ𝑣0 = ℎ𝑣0 + 𝑒𝑉 ……. (ii)
S32. (1)
⇒ 2ℎ𝜈0 = 𝑒𝑉
From (i) and (ii), we get 𝑉 = 2𝑉0.
S37. (4)
Torque about point A,

3
In electromagnetic wave the 𝜏 = 80 × 2 × sin 30 ° + 70 × 3 ×
3
direction of propagation of wave, cos 60° − 60 × 2
electric field and magnetic field are = 60 + 105 − 90 = 75 𝑁 − 𝑚.
mutually perpendicular, i.e., wave S38. (1)
perpendicular to E and B or along For cricket ball,
𝐸 × 𝐵. While polarization of wave
takes place parallel to electric field 0 − 𝑢12 = 2 𝑔𝑠1
vector. ⇒ 𝑠1 = −
𝑢12
S33. (1) 2𝑔

𝑟1 = 15 × 1010 𝑚, 𝑟2 = 540 × 1010 𝑚 For tennis ball,

𝑇1 = 1 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟, 𝑇2 =? 0 − 𝑢22 = 2 𝑔𝑠2
𝑇 2 ∝ 𝑅3 𝑢2
⇒ 𝑠2 = − 2 2𝑔
𝑇2 𝑅 3/2
𝑇1
= (𝑅2 ) 𝑢1 = 𝑢2 = 𝑢
1

33
 So, we get, = 10−3 𝑚3 /𝑠.
𝑢2 𝑢2 S43. (3)
𝑠1 = − ,𝑠 =− 𝑟 𝑟
2𝑔 2 2𝑔 ( + )×𝑟
3 2 5
𝑅1 = 𝑟 𝑟 = 11 𝑟
+ +𝑟
⇒ 𝑠1 = 𝑠2 . 3 2

S39. (3) Net resistacne between B and C

Tension, 𝑇 = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑟 + 𝑚𝑔 𝑟 𝑟
(𝑟+ )× 4
3 2
𝑅2 = 𝑟 𝑟 = 𝑟
𝑟+ + 11
3 2

Net resistance between A and C is

𝑟 𝑟
(𝑟+ )× 3
2 3
𝑅3 = 𝑟 𝑟 = 11 𝑟
𝑟+ +
2 3

5 4 3
∴ 𝑅1 : 𝑅2 𝑅3 = 𝑟: 𝑟: 𝑟
11 11 11

= 5: 4: 3.
= 1 × (4)2 × 1 + 0.5 × 10 = 13 𝑁. S44. (2)
𝑔𝑅2 20×20
S40. (1) Given, 𝑔ℎ = 9 = = 21×21 𝑔
𝑅 2
Let threshold wavelength be 𝜆0 (𝑅+ )
20

9×21×21
Therefore, work function for the Or 𝑔 =
ℎ𝑐 20×20
surface will be 𝑊 = 𝜆 𝑑
0
𝐸−𝑊 Now, 𝑔𝑑 = 𝑔 (1 − 𝑅)
Stooping potential 𝑉 = where E 𝑅
𝑒 9×21×21
is the energy of the incident beam =
20×20
(1 − 20
𝑅
)
ℎ𝑐
( 𝜆 ) and e is the charge on an 𝑔𝑑 = 9.5 𝑚𝑠 −2.
electron. S45. (1)
Given, Due to change in the shape of the
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
3𝑒𝑉0 = 𝜆 − 𝜆 loop, the magnetic flux linked with
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
0
the loop increases. Hence, current
𝑒𝑉0 = 2𝜆
− 𝜆0 is induced in the loop is such
Multiplying the second equation by direction that it opposes the
3 and subtracting it from the first increases in flux, therefore,
2ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
we get 𝜆 − 2𝜆 = 0 induced current flows in the
0
anticlockwise direction.
Solving we get 𝜆0 = 4 𝜆.
S41. (1)
𝑃⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂
|𝑃⃗ | = √22 + 32 + 52 = √38
𝑄⃗ = 3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂
|𝑄⃗ | = √32 + 42 + 52 = 5√2
𝑃⃗ + 𝑄 ⃗ = 5𝑖̂ + 7𝑗̂ + 10𝑘̂ S46. (1)
𝑃⃗ − 𝑄 ⃗ = −𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ By the diagram,
S42. (2)
Height of the surface of water in the
tank, ℎ = 5 𝑚
Area of hole,
𝐴 = 1 𝑐𝑚2 = 1 × 10−4 𝑚2
We know that rate of leakage of
water,
𝑄 = 𝐴𝑣 = 𝐴√2 𝑔ℎ
= 10−4 × √2 × 10 × 5

34
 Relation between linear and We know that physical quantities
angular speed is, having the same dimensions are
𝜔=
𝑉⊥40 cos 30°
= added or subtracted. Therefore, the
𝑟 𝑟
ℎ 30 dimensions of a should be the same
Here ⇒ 𝑟 = cos 30° = cos 30° 𝑥
as the dimensions of 𝑣.
𝑉 40 4 3
⇒ 𝜔 = 𝑟⊥ = 30 cos2 30° = 3 × 4 = 𝑥
⇒ [𝑎] = [𝑣 ]
1 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠. 𝐿
S47. (2) ⇒ [𝑎] = [𝐿𝑇 −1 ] = [𝑇].
Relative permeability of a material S51. (2)
is, Bond strength ∝ extent of
𝜇𝑟 = 1 + 𝜒 overlapping ∝
1
∝
1
𝜇 size Bond Length
As, 𝜇𝑟 = 𝜇
𝜇
0 In S-S Bond, size of S atoms is
⇒𝜇 =1+𝜒 larger So e density is dispersed &
0
𝜇
∴𝜒 =𝜇 −1 lone pair-lone pair repulsion is less
0
628×10−6 as compared to O atom which is
⇒𝜒= −1
4𝜋×10−7 smaller in size and has more e
⇒ 𝜒 = 499. density. Bond strength in S-S Bond
S48. (4)
is max, instead of having 3p-3p
If 𝐸 = Asin(𝑘𝑥 + 𝜔𝑡)
overlapping due to less lone pair-
Then, wave propagation occurs in lone pair repulsion.
x-direction. S52. (2)
Amplitude is A, wave number is k,
∴ i = 1 [Both urea and sugar are
wavelength is 2𝜋/𝑘 and wave
nonelectrolyte]
velocity is 𝜔/𝑘
n
Hence, π = i ( ) RT
V
𝐴 = 10 𝑉/𝑚 1×0.02×100×0.0821×300
π= ⇒ 4.92
𝑐 = 𝜔/𝑘 100
3 × 108 = 107 /𝑘 Total moles = moles of urea + moles
𝑘 = 0.033 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑚 of sugar
2𝜋 W w 0.6 3.42
𝜆 = = 60𝜋 = 188.4 𝑚. ⇒ + ⇒ +
𝑘 Mw mw 60 342
S49. (3) ⇒ 0.01 + 0.01 ⇒ 0.02
𝑅
Resistance of each piece = 20 S53. (4)
Compounds with –CHO and
When 10 such pieces are connected
in series its effective resistance is. hemiacetal group can give Tollen’s
𝑅 𝑅 Reagent test.
𝑅𝑆 = (20) × 10 = 2 S54. (4)
When remaining 10 pieces are
∆Tf = i(k f × m) i = C2 H5 OH non-
connected in parallel, its effective
0 − (−10) = electrolyte = 1
resistance is.
(𝑅/20) 𝑅 1(1.86 × m) ∆Tf = Tf° − Tf
𝑅𝑃 = = 200 10
10 m= ⇒ 5.3 ∴ Tf° of water
When these two combinations are 1.86
= 0℃
connected in series, its effective
resistance is. S55. (2)
𝑅 𝑅 101 For the reaction,
𝑅𝑒𝑓𝑓 = 𝑅𝑆 + 𝑅𝑃 = + = 𝑅.
2 200 200 ∆ng = 3 − (5 + 1) = −3
S50. (2)
Given, ∴ ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT
𝑥
∴ ∆H − ∆U = −3RT
𝑦 = 𝐴 sin 𝜔 (𝑣 − 𝑎) S56. (1)
Number of Hydrogen Bond in H2 O = 4

35
 Number of Hydrogen Bond in HF = 2 OR ⇒ [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl]Cl2 . H2 O
H2O and H2Se doesn't form OR ⇒ [Cr(H2 O)4 Cl2 ]Cl. 2H2 O
Hydrogen Bond ⇒Three hydrate isomers.
S57. (1) S66. (2)
21 [Cr(CO)6 ]
Volume of O2 = 100 × 1000 = 210 mL
Moles of O2 at STP Cr ⇒ [Ar]3d5 4s¹ & CO ⇒ SFL
210 ⇒ Pairing occurs
= 22400 = 0.0093 mole
S58. (4)
Oxidation state of S in SO2 is +4.
So if can undergo oxidation to +6.
Or undergo reduction to –2.
S59. (3)
4d is filled after 4th period. So 4d
contain zero electron in 4th period.
S60. (3) ⇒ diamagnetic & inner orbital
After removal of one electron. The complex.
sudden jump occurs therefore, S67. (1)
valence e− = 1
1s 2 2s1 have only 3e− so only 3 IP
values are possible for this
configuration.
But in question there are 4 IP
values mentioned so correct
answer will be option (3). S68. (4)
S61. (1) This reaction is
0 −1
The highest oxidation state in 6NaOH + 3Cl2 → NaCl +
actinoids +7 is exhibited by Np & hot & conc
+5
Pu & it is unstable. NaCIO3 + 3H₂O
S62. (4) In Cl₂, the oxidation number of CI
Interstitial compound have high is O but in NaCIO3 the oxidation
melting point as they are hard number of Cl is +5 and 1 in NaCl.
compound. S69. (4)
S63. (2)
Correct name of

2-methyl pent 3-yn-1-oic acid

S64. (2)
XX' → Linear
XX'3 →Example: CIF3 → T-shape
XX'5 → Example: BrF5 → Square
S70. (4)
pyramidal −O − CH3 − is ortho & Para
XX'7 →Example: IF7 Pentagonal directing.
bipyramidal S71. (2)
S65. (4)
CrCl3 . 6H2 O → [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Cl3

36
 Electrode potential of M 2+ /M for Ni Calcium salts of acids other than
is abnormal because of high formic acids on heating together
hydration energy (fact). give ketones.
S72. (2) S80. (4)
Halogen, which is present at para When nitrate salts are treated with
position w.r.t – NO2 group will be concentrated H2SO4, it gives brown
replaced due to formation of stable fumes
carbanion intermediate. of NO2
S73. (1) 2KNO3 + H2 SO4 → 2KHSO4 + HNO3
4HNO3 → 4NO2 + O2 + 2H2 O
Brown fumes
S81. (2)
By Aldol condensation process
S82. (3)
Cumene is oxidised in presence of
oxygen to form
cumenehydroperoxide. In presence
of dilute aqueous acids, cumene
S74. (3) hydroperoxide undergoes
Zeff remains constant down the hydrolysis to form a mixture of
group. phenol and acetone.
S75. (1) S83. (1)
We know that radius order of atom Reactivity α leaving tendency of
is Van der Waal's radius > Crystal leaving group.
radius > covalent radius
S76. (2)
A(Ozonolysis) = CH3 − CHO
B(Aldol condensation) S84. (1)
= CH3 − CH = CH − CHO
S77. (3)
H3PO₄is less acidic then H3PO3
because H3PO3 contains only two
O-OH group which can be easily
ionized as compared H3PO₄ which
contains 3-OH group. Oxidation
state of P in H3PO₄ is +5 whereas
in H3PO₄it is +3.
S78. (4)

S85. (3)
In (3), neither 3° carbocation nor a
benzyl carbocation is formed.
Therefore, it will prefer to go via SN2
mechanism.
It is an aldohexose sugar. S86. (4)
When extent of overlapping is
S79. (3) minimum, the orbitals do not form

37
 a sufficiently strong bond therefore According to Aufbau principle
it is not a favourable condition. (1) Larger the (n + 𝑙); larger will be
S87. (2) energy
• Positional isomers are (2) Same value of (n + 𝑙) ; smaller
constitutional isomers with the (n) lesser will be energy
same carbon skeleton and will ∴ D<B<C<A
have the same functional group. S95. (2)
• They differ from each other in
the position of the functional
groups on the carbon chain and S96. (1)
the phenomenon is known as Conceptual
positional isomerism. S97. (2)
S88. (1) Applying Henderson-Haselbalch
T2 −T2 30−0
=2 10 =2 10 ⇒ 23 ⇒ 8 equation,
T2 −T1 30−0 [Salt]
=3 =3
10 ⇒ 33 ⇒ 27 →
10 i.e., pH = pK a + log [Acid] , K a = 2 × 105
temperature coefficient is 3. ∴ pK a = 5 − log 2 = 4.7
S89. (2) [Salt] 0.20
= 0.10 = 2
0.693 [Acid]
t1/2 = 10−2
second
pH = 4.7 + log 2 = 5
For the reduction of 20 g of ∴ [H + ] = 10−5
reactant to 5g, two t1/2 is required. S98. (3)
0.693
∴t=2× second = 138.6 Silver nitrate reacts with KCN to
10−2
second form a white precipitate of silver
S90. (3) cyanide. In excess KCN, this white
O RT precipitate dissolves to form
Ecell = Ecell − log[H + ]
nF potassium argentocyanide.
O
Ecell =0 AgNO3 + KCN → AgCN + KNO2
[Ecell ≠ 0] AgCN + KCN → KAg(CN)2
S91. (3) S99. (1)
∆G 960×1000
Ecell = − nF = − 4×96500
V Let 1 L of pH = 4 and 1 L of pH = 6
= 2.487 V ≈ 2.5V solution be mixed.
S92. (4) ∴ (10−4 + 10−6 ) moles of H + in 2 L
Alkan-2-ol, gives iodoform test 10−4 +10−6
Or, 2
moles in 1 L
S93. (2) 1+0.01
Or, 10−4 ( 2 ) moles in 1 L
∆S° would be highest for the
reaction for which ∆ng is most ∴ pH = − log10 (5 × 10−5 ) = 5 −
positive. log 5 = 5 − 0.7 = 4.3.
In this case, S100. (4)
CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g) For photoelectric effect
∆ng = +1 which is maximum for KE = h(ν − ν0 )
this case. KE = hν − hν0
S94. (3)
Energy = (n + 𝑙)
A=n=4 l=1 =4+1=5
B=n=4 l=0 =4+=4
C=n=3 l=2 =3+2=5
D=n=3 l=1 =3+1=4

38
 ν0 = Threshold frequency Heterozygous Aa cross with
∴ [KE of e− increases after crossing homozygous aa plant and produce
threshold frequency] Aa and aa in 1:1 genotype ratio. BB
S101. (2) cross with BB will produce BB
NCERT XI, pg. no. 135. genotype
S102. (2) S121. (2)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 13 NCERT XII, pg. no. 153
S103. (2) S122. (3)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 96 NCERT XI, pg. no. 31
S104. (1) S123. (3)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 156 NCERT XII, pg. no. 222
S105. (3) S124. (3)
Nucleoside form nucleotide after NCERT XI, pg. no. 55
linkage with phosphate S125. (4)
S106. (3) Ethanol is industrial product while
NCERT XII, pg. no. 5 the others are household product.
S107. (2) S126. (1)
NCERT pg. no. 191 Intercalary meristem occurs
S108. (4) between mature tissues.
When crossing between S127. (2)
homozygous tall and heterozygous NCERT XII, pg. no. 81
tall plants they are all tall but S128. (3)
genetically are half homozygous NCERT XI, pg. no. 14
and half heterozygous. S129. (2)
S109. (2) NCERT XI, pg. no. 122
NCERT XI, pg. no. 4 S130. (1)
S110. (4) NCERT pg. no. 108.
NCERT XI, pg. no. 33 S131. (2)
S111. (4) NCERT XII, pg. no. 5
NCERT XI, pg. no. 171. S132. (4)
S112. (4) NCERT XI, pg. no. 191, 196
Adventitious roots provide S133. (2)
anchorage and support to plant NCERT XI, pg. no. 136
pats. S134. (3)
S113. (2) F2 progeny is produced by self-
NCERT XI, pg. no. 96. pollination in plants produced in
S114. (2) F1 generation.
Old NCERT pg. no. 88 S135. (4)
S115. (1) NCERT XI, pg. no. 156
NCERT XII, pg. no. 206 S136. (3)
S116. (3) NCERT XII, pg. no. 193
NCERT XI, pg. no. 10 S137. (4)
S117. (4) According to Chargaff rule-
NCERT XI, pg. no. 122. A=T and G=C
S118. (3) And A+T=G+C
NCERT XI, page no. 105. So, C would be 20% in cell.
S119. (3) S138. (3)
NCERT XII, page no. 81 NCERT XII, pg. no. 5
S120. (3)

39
S139. (2) S158. (1)
Genotype is the genetic Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
constitution of an organism where NO-105
all genes do not get expressed. S159. (4)
S140. (3) Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
NCERT XI, pg. no. 122 NO-42
S141. (2) S160. (3)
NCERT XII, pg. no. 81 Refer to Class XI OLD NCERT Page
S142. (4) NO-112
NCERT XI, pg. no. 62 S161. (4)
S143. (3) Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
NCERT XI, pg. no. 178. NO-47
S144. (2) S162. (1)
NCERT XII, pg. no. 6 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S145. (3) 107
NCERT XI, pg. no. 136 S163. (4)
S146. (1) Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
NCERT XII, pg. no. 206 231
S147. (1) S164. (2)
NCERT XII, pg. no. 80 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S148. (1) 138
NCERT XII, pg. no. 221 S165. (2)
S149. (2) Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
In Bryophytes, sporophyte is NO-44, 45
multicellular and derive nutrition S166. (3)
from photosynthetic gametophyte Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
S150. (2) NO-185
Water is product of complete
S167. (4)
oxidation, while fermentation is
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
incomplete oxidation
NO-119
S151. (3)
S168. (4)
Refer to Class XI old NCERT Page
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
NO-27
NO-135
S152. (3)
S169. (4)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
45
183
S153. (1)
S170. (1)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
Refer to Class XI OLDNCERT Page
140
NO-104
S154. (4)
S171. (2)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
141
187
S155. (1)
S172. (3)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
236
110
S156. (3)
S173. (1)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
114
241
S157. (2)
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
NO-167

40
S174. (2) S188. (2)
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO- Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
32 42
S175. (4) S189. (3)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
189 195
S176. (1) S190. (1)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
38 212
S177. (1) S191. (4)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- Refer to Class XI NCERT
209&211 locomotion and movement
S178. (1) S192. (4)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO-
222 48
S179. (2) S193. (1)
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO- Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO-
131, 132, 133 169
S180. (3) S194. (2)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO-
S181. (3) 184
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- S195. (4)
194 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S182. (2) 213
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- S196. (2)
194 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO-
S183. (2) 36
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO- S197. (3)
169 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO-
S184. (4) 143
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO- S198. (1)
182 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S185. (4) 224
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO- S199. (2)
119 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO-
S186. (3) 222
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- S200. (4)
227&214 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page NO-
S187. (3) 27
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
231

41