LE ONLINE UPCOMING BATCHES (May 2024)

6th May Warriors Droppers Platinum | CLAT - 2025

(Monday)
Warriors Droppers Gold | CLAT - 2025
10:30 AM

6th May Fighters Freshers Platinum | CLAT - 2025

(Monday)
Fighters Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2025
8:00 PM

6th May Achievers Freshers Platinum | CLAT - 2026

(Monday)
Achievers Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2026
8:00 PM

11th May Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Platinum | CLAT - 2025
(Saturday)
Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Gold | CLAT - 2025
4:00 PM

11th May Achievers Weekend For Freshers Platinum | CLAT - 2026

(Saturday)
Achievers Weekend For Freshers Gold | CLAT- 2026
4:00 PM

13th May Fighters Freshers Platinum | CLAT-2025

(Monday)
Fighters Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2025
4:00 PM

13th May Achievers Freshers Platinum | CLAT-2026

(Monday)
Achievers Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2026
4:00 PM
 20th May Warriors Droppers Platinum | CLAT - 2025
(Monday)
Warriors Droppers Gold | CLAT - 2025
10:30 AM

20th May Fighters Freshers Platinum | CLAT - 2025

(Monday)
Fighters Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2025
8:00 PM

20th May Achievers Freshers Platinum| CLAT-2026

(Monday)
Achievers Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2026
8:00 PM

25th May Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Platinum | CLAT - 2025
(Saturday)
Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Gold | CLAT - 2025
4:00 PM

25th May Achievers Weekend For Freshers Platinum | CLAT - 2026

(Saturday)
Achievers Weekend For Freshers Gold | CLAT- 2026
4:00 PM

27th May Fighters Freshers Platinum | CLAT-2025

(Monday)
Fighters Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2025
6:00 PM

27th May Achievers Freshers Platinum | CLAT-2026

(Monday)
Achievers Freshers Gold | CLAT - 2026
6:00 PM

www.toprankers.com 7676 56 4400

 IMPORTANT ONE LINERS
NATIONAL

Indian Government’s Stake Sale in State-Run Companies Falls Short in 2023/24

 The Indian government aimed to raise funds through the sale of stakes in state-run companies in the fiscal year
2023/24.
 The achieved amount of 165 billion rupees fell short of the internal target by about 9%, reaching $1.98 billion.

UP Leads with Most GI-Tagged Products

 The northern Indian state of Uttar Pradesh has taken the lead in having the highest number of Geographical Indication
(GI) certified products in the country.
 With the recent addition of 15 new products, Uttar Pradesh now boasts a total of 69 GI-tagged products, surpassing
Tamil Nadu’s 58.

Vedanta’s BALCO: First Indian Company Certified with ASI Performance Standard
 Chhattisgarh-based Bharat Aluminium Company Limited (BALCO), a unit of Vedanta Aluminium, has achieved the
Aluminium Stewardship Initiative (ASI) Performance Standard V3 Certification.
 The certification recognizes BALCO’s adherence to 11 principles and 62 criteria across three sustainability pillars:
Environment, Social, and Governance.

Record Growth in Indian Defence Exports: A Milestone Achievement

 MoD announced that India’s defence exports surged to a record Rs 21,083 crore in the fiscal year 2023-24, marking a
remarkable growth of 32.5% from the previous year.

Bundelkhand Wheat Variety Gets GI Tag

 The indigenous wheat variety from the Bundelkhand region in Uttar Pradesh, locally known as Kathiya Gehu, has been
granted the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag. This is the first farm produce from Uttar Pradesh to receive
this honor.
 Uttar Pradesh has emerged as a leader in acquiring GI tags, becoming the first state to achieve a remarkable 69 GI tags.

India to Establish First Privately Managed Strategic Petroleum Reserve by 2029-30

 India is embarking on establishing its first privately managed strategic petroleum reserve (SPR) by 2029-30.
 It’s aligning with models seen in countries such as Japan and South Korea.
 India plans to construct two new SPRs, including an 18.3 million barrels facility in Padur, Karnataka, and a 29.3 million
barrels SPR in Odisha.

Excavation Unearths 5,200-Year-Old Harappan Settlement in Kachchh, Gujarat

 In a collaborative project involving researchers from Kerala University and various other institutions, a significant
archaeological excavation has revealed a 5,200-year-old Harappan settlement at Padta Bet, near Khatiya village in
Kachchh district, Gujarat.

Manohar International Airport in Goa Launches Digi Yatra System

 The Manohar International Airport in Mopa, Goa, has become the 14th airport in India to launch the Digi Yatra system.
 The Manohar International Airport is the second international airport in Goa, after the Dabolim airport, which is a civil
enclave in a military airbase.

Mansukh Mandaviya’s Plan to End Urea Imports by 2025

 India aims to halt urea imports by the end of 2025 by boosting domestic production and promoting alternative
fertilizers.
 This is in response to the nation’s significant reliance on imports, which currently satisfy around 30% of its annual
urea demand.

135
 Urea production has risen steadily, reaching 284.95 lakh tonnes in 2022-23.
 The PM-PRANAM scheme, launched in 2023, incentivizes states and UTs to promote alternative fertilizers and
balanced fertilizer usage.

Sagar Kavach 2024: Coastal Security Exercise in Lakshadweep Islands

 A two-day coastal security exercise called Sagar Kavach 01/24 was conducted off the Lakshadweep Islands from April
1-2, 2024.
 The exercise involved the participation of all maritime security agencies, including the Indian Navy, Indian Coast
Guard, Marine Police, Fisheries, Customs, and other security agencies.

Innovative Election Initiative: Punjab Launches ‘Booth Raabta’ Website

 Punjab’s Malerkotla district has introduced the ‘Booth Raabta’ website. Spearheaded by District Election Officer and
Deputy Commissioner, Dr. Pallavi, this platform, accessible via boothraabta.com.

Indian Coast Guard Inaugurates Aquatic Centre at Mandapam, Tamil Nadu

 Indian Coast Guard Director General Rakesh Pal inaugurated the Indian Coast Guard Aquatic Centre at ICGS
Mandapam near Rameshwaram, Tamil Nadu, as part of his four-day visit to the maritime force’s bases in Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh, and Puducherry.

Miraj’s Sitars and Tanpuras Awarded Geographical Indication Tags

 The small town of Miraj in Maharashtra’s Sangli district is known for its craftsmanship in making musical instruments,
particularly sitars and tanpuras.

Tri-Service Planning Conference: Parivartan Chintan

 The inaugural Tri-Service Planning Conference, dubbed ‘Parivartan Chintan,’ convened in New Delhi on April 8, 2024,
orchestrated by the Ministry of Defence.
 Chief of the Indian Army, General Manoj Pande; Air Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhary of the Indian Air Force; and Admiral
R. Hari Kumar of the Indian Navy were among the representatives.

India Secures Second Overseas Port: Sittwe Agreement Approved by MEA

 In a strategic move to bolster its maritime presence and enhance regional connectivity, India has gained operational
control over the Sittwe Port in Myanmar, following approval from the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
 The agreement allows India Ports Global (IPGL), a company fully owned by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and
Waterways, to manage the entire port on the Kaladan River, marking India’s second overseas port acquisition after
Chabahar in Iran.

Sangeet Natak Akademi Organizes ‘Shakti – A Festival of Music and Dance’ in Shaktipeeths
 The Sangeet Natak Akademi (SNA) is organizing the festival ‘Shakti – A Festival of Music and Dance’ from April 9 to
17, 2024. The festival is celebrated in seven different Shaktipeeths (sacred sites) across the country.

Indian Army Conducts Anti-Tank Guided Missile Training Exercise in Sikkim

 In a significant training endeavor, the Trishakti Corps of the Indian Army executed a rigorous Anti-Tank Guided Missile
(ATGM) exercise in Sikkim, operating at an altitude of 17,000 feet.

Gopi Thotakura: First Indian Pilot to Embark on Space Tourism with Blue Origin
 Gopi Thotakura is making history as the first Indian pilot to venture into space as a tourist, joining Blue Origin’s NS-
25 mission.

"Prime Minister Narendra Modi Makes History with Newsweek Cover Feature"

Source: The Economic times

 "Prime Minister Narendra Modi is on track to create a historic milestone by becoming the first Indian Prime Minister
since Indira Gandhi to be featured on the cover of Newsweek. In an extensive interview, PM Modi delved into a wide
range of subjects, including China, economic reforms, the forthcoming Lok Sabha elections, the Quad alliance, and the
significance of democracy in India."

136
"India Extends Support to Nepal with Ambulance and School Bus Donations"

Source: India Today

 In a gesture of solidarity and support, India has donated 35 ambulances and 66 school buses to various organizations
in Nepal, bolstering infrastructure in the crucial sectors of health and education. Indian Ambassador to Nepal, Naveen
Srivastava, officiated the handover ceremony alongside Finance Minister Barshaman Pun.

The government told e-commerce to remove Bournvita and similar drinks from the 'health drinks' category
 The government has directed all e-commerce platforms to remove drinks like Bournvita from the health drinks
category on their portals.
 "National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), a statutory body constituted under section (3) of the
Commission of Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act 2005 after its inquiry under Section 14 of CRPC Act 2005
concluded that there is no 'health drink' defined under FSS Act 2006, rules and regulations submitted by FSSAI and
Mondelez India Food Pvt Ltd," the Commerce and Industry Ministry said in an advisory to all e-commerce companies.

India achieved a record addition of 18 GW in renewable energy capacity during FY24.

 In the fiscal year 2023-24, India recorded an unprecedented addition of 18.48 GW in renewable energy capacity,
marking a remarkable 21% increase from the previous year's 15.27 GW, as per the Ministry of New & Renewable
Energy's recent data.
 There is a need to add at least 50 GW of renewable energy capacity annually for the next six years to meet the
ambitious target of 500 GW of renewables by 2030.

Guwahati's Bihu performance sets Guinness World Record

 Assam's groundbreaking accomplishment was marked by its entry into the Guinness Book of World Records, with
more than 11,000 dancers and drummers captivating audiences with the traditional ‘Bihu’ dance and ‘dhol’
performances at a single location. This historic event took place at Sarusajai Stadium in Guwahati, organized as part
of the State Government’s endeavor to establish a new world record in the Guinness Book.
About Assam:
Chief Minister: Himanta Biswa Sarma
Capital: Dispur
Folk Dance: Bihu
Governor: Gulab Chand Kataria

MRF solidifies its position as the 'second strongest tyre brand globally'
 MRF has been positioned as the second-strongest global tyre brand, as revealed in a recent report by Brand Finance,
a U.K.-based brand valuation consultancy. The assessment considered multiple criteria, with MRF excelling in several
areas, including being the world's second fastest-growing tyre brand. Garnering an impressive score of 83.2 out of
100, MRF attained a AAA- brand rating. Notably, the report recognized MRF as the most valuable Indian tyre brand
and the sole Indian tyre manufacturer within the top 10 rankings. Moreover, MRF demonstrated commendable
performance in the Sustainability Perception Value category, underlining its commitment to environmental
responsibility.
About MRF:
Founder: K. M. Mammen Mappillai
Founded: 1946, Chennai
Headquarters: Chennai

Kerala adopts Water Budget to tackle summer water shortage for the first time

Source: Business Standard

 Kerala, known for its abundant rivers, streams, and backwaters, experiences lush greenery due to ample rainfall.
However, certain areas still suffer from severe water scarcity in summers. To address this, the state has introduced a
pioneering Water Budget system, the first of its kind in India. Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan unveiled the
details of the initial phase, covering 94 grama panchayats across 15 block panchayats.

137
About Kerala:
Capital: Thiruvananthapuram
Official bird: Great hornbill
Governor: Arif Mohammed Khan
Chief minister: Pinarayi Vijayan

Jyotiraditya Scindia is scheduled to inaugurate India Steel 2023 at the Mumbai

 India Steel 2023 is set to commence at the Mumbai Exhibition Centre in Goregaon, Mumbai, on April 19th, with Union
Minister of Steel Jyotiraditya Scindia leading the inauguration. This event is organized jointly by the Union Ministry of
Steel, the Department of Commerce under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and FICCI (Federation of
Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry).

Mangrove Pitta bird found in Odisha

During a groundbreaking census in Odisha's Bhitarkanika region, forest officials spotted 179 Mangrove Pitta birds
renowned for their vivid colors. These unique avians are only found in the mangrove forests of Bhitarkanika in Odisha and
Sundarbans in West Bengal. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has designated the species as
"Near Threatened" after evaluation.
About Odisha:
Founded: 1 April 1936
Area: 155,707 km²
Chief minister: Naveen Patnaik
Capital: Bhubaneswar

Central Government Committee on LGBTQ+ Community Welfare

 In the landmark Supriyo Chakraborty vs. Union of India Case 2023, the Special Marriage Act of 1954 was challenged
for its exclusion of same-sex marriages, citing a violation of Article 14 of the fundamental rights.
 The committee, chaired by Union Home Secretary Rajiv Gauba, comprises six members including secretaries from key
ministries.

India’s Commitment To Debris Free Space Missions

 During the 42nd Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC) annual meeting, ISRO Chairman S.
Somanath unveiled India’s commitment to realizing debris-free space missions by 2030. This pledge is in harmony
with worldwide endeavors to guarantee the sustainability of space exploration. Chairman Somanath emphasized
ISRO’s robust plan for space exploration and utilization, underscoring the significance of sustainability in forthcoming
missions.
About ISRO:
Headquarters: Bengaluru
Founded: 15 August 1969
Founder: Vikram Sarabhai

The Indian Navy conducted the 'Poorvi Leher' mega exercise to test maritime preparedness
 The Indian Navy recently executed the 'Poorvi Leher' mega drill along the East Coast to evaluate operational protocols
and readiness against maritime security threats in the area. This comprehensive exercise involved the active
participation of naval vessels, submarines, aerial assets, and specialized naval units.

Shompen tribes in Andaman & Nicobar Islands vote for the first time
 Shompen tribe members in Andaman and Nicobar Islands cast their votes for the first time for the lone Lok Sabha seat
in the union territory. They voted at polling station 411, known as 'Shompen Hut', and took selfies at a designated cut-
out saying "I vote for sure", created by the Election Commission of India.

The 34th Seng Khihlang Festival ended in Wahiajer, Meghalaya

 The 34th Seng Khihlang festival, an esteemed occasion for followers of the Khasi Indigenous Faith, recently concluded
in Wahiajer, Meghalaya. Commencing on April 19, 2024, the festival honored the unity and customs of the indigenous
community. Central to this annual assembly was the symbolic interchange of the Monolith, a treasured ceremony
symbolizing the enduring unity among believers. This year, the revered Monolith was brought to Wahiajer from Seng
Khasi Shaid Shaid, situated in the West Khasi Hills.

138
Thrissur Pooram 2024, the largest temple festival, was celebrated
 Kerala, in southern India, is celebrated for its diverse blend of religions, landscapes, rituals, and histories, creating a
vibrant tapestry of culture. Amongst this rich diversity, the Thrissur Pooram festival shines as a significant
representation of Kerala's profound cultural heritage.

Satellite data shows growing glacial lakes in Indian Himalayas

 The Himalayan Mountains, termed the "Third Pole" for their extensive glaciers, are undergoing notable shifts due to
global climate changes. Glacial melting creates and expands lakes, raising risks such as Glacial Lake Outburst Floods
(GLOFs). Monitoring these transformations is crucial albeit challenging, aiding in understanding environmental effects
and mitigating potential hazards.

 CSIR HQ unveils India's biggest Climate Clock for Earth Day

 To mark Earth Day, the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) revealed India’s largest Climate Clock at its
New Delhi headquarters. This move highlights CSIR’s dedication to raising awareness about climate change and its
negative consequences.

Karnataka and Gujarat lead India’s clean energy transition, says report
 A recent report by the IEEFA and Ember assesses India’s state-level progress in transitioning to clean electricity.
Karnataka and Gujarat lead, while states such as Jharkhand, Bihar, West Bengal, and Uttar Pradesh are behind,
highlighting the need for more efforts in renewable energy integration and decarbonization.

The Indian Historical Records Commission introduces a new logo and motto
 The Indian Historical Records Commission (IHRC) was founded in 1919 as the primary advisory entity for archival
affairs in India. It acts as a national platform for creators, custodians, and users of records, offering guidance to the
Government of India on record management and their utilization in historical research. The IHRC is overseen by the
Union Minister of Culture.

IAF Successfully Tests Air-Launched Ballistic Missile

 The Indian Air Force (IAF) reached a notable achievement with the successful testing of a new variant of an air-
launched medium-range ballistic missile. This missile, named ROCKS or Crystal Maze 2, underwent testing from a Su-
30 MKI fighter jet in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Only 8% women candidates in first two Lok Sabha phases

 Only eight percent of the total 2,823 candidates in the first two phases of the Lok Sabha elections were women,
highlighting a significant gender bias issue, according to political activists who suggest that discussions about
women's empowerment lack substance. The first phase saw 135 women candidates, while the second phase had 100,
totaling 235 women candidates across both phases.

Village Defence Guard member killed in J&K gunfight

 An unidentified exchange of fire between gunmen and a Village Defence Guard member resulted in the member's
death on Sunday morning in Panara village, located in the Basantgarh area of Udhampur district in Jammu and
Kashmir.

Nainital Forest Fire

 Uttarakhand Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami announced on Saturday that Indian Army and Air Force helicopters
are aiding in containing forest fires in the state. The fires, which have ravaged for more than 36 hours, have now
reached Nainital, causing substantial damage to green cover. Additionally, a large fire erupted in the Ladiyakata region
of the Nainital Air Force Centre on Friday, persisting for over 36 hours and spreading rapidly through dense
mountainous forests.

Government awards IREDA Navratna status

 The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA), a public sector entity, has been awarded the prestigious
'Navratna' status by the government, as per a recent filing with stock exchanges. This elevates the total count of
Navratna PSEs (Public Sector Enterprises) in India to 17.

139
Drone farming to double by FY25, gaining a big boost
 Industry estimates suggest that the current utilization of drones in agriculture stands at around 3,000, a number
projected to exceed 7,000 by FY25. The government's emphasis on promoting drones for tasks like crop mapping,
analysis, and applying nutrients and pesticides has manufacturers anticipating a substantial surge in demand for these
UAVs in the coming years.

INTERNATIONAL
International Year of Millets 2023: A Recap
 The International Year of Millets (IYM) 2023, concluded with a closing ceremony held at the Food and
Agriculture Organization (FAO) headquarters in Rome, Italy, on March 29th, 2024.
 The event served as a platform to assess the accomplishments and insights gained from the year-long
celebration.
 In March 2021, the United Nations General Assembly designated 2023 as the International Year of Millets
following a proposal by India, supported by over 70 countries.

Indian Engineering Exports Surge: UAE, Russia, and Saudi Arabia Lead the Way
 India’s engineering exports soared by 15.9% year over year in February 2024, marking the third consecutive month
of growth and reaching a record high of $9.94 billion for the fiscal year 2023–2024.
 Out of 34 engineering panels, 28 reported higher exports in February 2024, with notable growth in various sectors.

Germany Legalizes Recreational Cannabis

 On April 1, 2024, Germany became the largest European Union (EU) nation to legalize recreational cannabis use.
 Under the new law, adults over 18 are now permitted to carry up to 25 grams of dried cannabis and cultivate up to
three marijuana plants at home.
 Germany joins Malta and Luxembourg as countries with the most liberal cannabis laws in Europe.

Abdel Fattah al-Sisi Sworn in for Third Term as Egyptian President

 Egypt’s President Abdel Fattah al-Sisi, 69, has commenced his third term as the leader of the nation, extending his
tenure until 2030.
About Egypt:
Capital: Cairo
Currency: Egyptian Pound
Official language: Arabic
Prime minister: Mostafa Madbouly

Zimbabwe Declares State of Disaster over Devastating Drought

 Zimbabwe, along with Zambia and Malawi, has declared a state of disaster due to a severe drought sweeping across
southern Africa.
 President Emmerson Mnangagwa cited an “El Nino-induced drought” causing below-normal rainfall, affecting over
80% of the country.

Romania Unveils World’s Most Powerful Laser

 A research center in Romania has revealed the world’s most potent laser, based on the groundbreaking inventions of
Nobel Physics Prize winners Gerard Mourou and Donna Strickland.
 The heart of this groundbreaking laser lies in Chirped-Pulse Amplification (CPA) technology, developed by Mourou
and Strickland.

Peter Pellegrini Wins Slovakia Presidential Elections: Pro-Russia Stance Solidified

 In Slovakia’s recent presidential election, Peter Pellegrini emerged victorious, reinforcing the pro-Russian stance of
Prime Minister Robert Fico’s government.

140
U.S. and Britain Forge Alliance to Enhance AI Safety
 The United States and Britain have joined forces to bolster the safety measures surrounding artificial intelligence (AI)
amidst concerns over upcoming advanced AI iterations.
 Commerce Secretary Gina Raimondo and British Technology Secretary Michelle Donelan signed the memorandum of
understanding in Washington.

India Lifts Export Restrictions on Essential Goods for Maldives amid Diplomatic Strain
 India has removed export restrictions on essential commodities for the Maldives, including items like eggs, potatoes,
onions, rice, wheat flour, sugar, and dal, for the fiscal year 2024-25.
 India has emerged as the Maldives’ significant trade partner, with bilateral trade reaching $973.37 million in 2022-
23, up from approximately $740 million in the previous fiscal year.

China Surpasses India as Largest Importer of Russian Crude

 China has surpassed India as the primary importer of Russian crude oil via sea routes, with China importing 1.82
million barrels per day (bpd) in March compared to India’s 1.36 million bpd.
 In March, China imported 1.82 million bpd of Russian crude by sea, exceeding India’s 1.36 million bpd.

111-Year-Old John Alfred Tinniswood Becomes World’s New Oldest Man

 Guinness World Records (GWR) has shared a video of the world’s oldest living man, 111-year-old John Alfred
Tinniswood, from England.

Briton, nicknamed ‘Hardest Geezer’, becomes first person to run length of Africa
 British national Russ Cook, known as the “Hardest Geezer,” has successfully completed a challenging trek that took
him over 352 days to finish.
 During his journey, he covered more than 10,000 miles, passed through 16 countries, and took over 19 million steps.

Simon Harris Becomes Ireland’s Youngest Prime Minister

 Simon Harris, aged 37, has been elected as Ireland’s youngest-ever prime minister, succeeding Leo Varadkar who
resigned last month.

India-Kazakhstan to Enhance Counter-Terror Cooperation in Response to Moscow Attacks

 In the wake of the recent terrorist attack in Moscow, believed to be perpetrated by extremists from Central Asia
potentially influenced by Pakistani seminaries, India and Kazakhstan convened in Astana to bolster their collaboration
against terrorism.

UK’s First Woman High Commissioner to India: Lindy Cameron

 Lindy Cameron, a distinguished Oxford University alumna and former CEO of the UK’s National Cyber Security Centre,
has been appointed as the first woman high commissioner to India.

US, Japan Announce Plans to Send Japanese Astronaut to Moon

 In a joint announcement, President Joe Biden and Japanese Prime Minister Fumio Kishida revealed that Japanese
astronauts will join future NASA lunar missions as part of the Artemis program.

India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise DUSTLIK 2024: Strengthening Bilateral Relations

 The fifth edition of the India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise DUSTLIK is set to commence on April 15, 2024, in
Termez District, Uzbekistan.
 The fourth edition of the joint military exercise took place on February 20 last year at the Foreign Training Node,
Pithoragarh in Uttarakhand.

Russia’s Successful Angara-A5 Rocket Test Launch

 Russia successfully tested its Angara-A5 space rocket for the first time on April 11, 2024.
 The test launch was conducted from the Vostochny Cosmodrome in the Far East of Russia.

141
About Russia:
Capital: Moscow;
Currency: Russian Ruble;
Prime Minister: Mikhail Mishustin;
President of Russia: Vladimir Putin.

"The Complex Dynamics Driving the Israel-Iran Conflict"

Source: Business standard

 "The ongoing confrontation between Israel and Iran transcends a simple interstate conflict, embodying a nuanced
interaction of power dynamics and ideological discord arising from a deeper struggle-the collision between the 'Deep
State' and Islamist factions in the Middle East. Originating in the early 20th century, this conflict has been molded by
pivotal historical events, evolving power dynamics, and profound ideological disparities, significantly influencing the
historical trajectory of the Middle East."

The United States and Japan are partnering to send a Japanese astronaut on a lunar mission to the Moon
 President Joe Biden has declared that Japanese astronauts will partake in forthcoming National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) lunar missions, highlighting strengthened bonds between the United States (US) and Japan.
 In the future, two Japanese astronauts will join NASA's lunar missions, and one of them will become the first non-
American to land on the Moon.
About United States:
President: Joe Biden
Capital: Washington, D.C
Currency: U.S. dollar

About Japan:
Prime Minister: Fumio Kishida
Capital: Tokyo
Currency: Japanese yen
Nepal has joined as a founding member of the International Big Cats Alliance
 Nepal has been established as one of the founding members of the International Big Cats Alliance. At the alliance's
launch under India's leadership, Minister for Energy Shakti Bahadur Basnet presented the letter declaring Nepal's
founding member status to Indian Minister for Forest and Climate Change Bhupendra Yadav.
About Nepal:
Capital: Kathmandu
Prime minister: Pushpa Kamal Dahal
Currency: Nepalese Rupee

Syria has recently gained recognition as the world's largest narco-state, as reported

Source: Mint
 Syria has reportedly attained the status of the world’s largest narco-state, primarily deriving its foreign currency
income from manufacturing and exporting Captagon, an immensely addictive amphetamine often dubbed as the “poor
man’s coke.” As per Collins Dictionary's classification, Syria qualifies as a narco-state due to the substantial
involvement of narcotics trade, particularly Captagon, which contributes over 90 percent to its foreign currency
revenue, defining a significant portion of its economy.
About Syria:
President: Bashar al-Assad
Prime Minister: Hussein Arnous
Capital: Damascus
Currency: Syrian pound

142
India inaugurated its 16th Visa Application Center (VAC) in Kushtia

Source: New Delhi Times

 High Commissioner Pranya Verma inaugurated the 16th Indian Visa Application Centre (IVAC) in Kushtia, Bangladesh.
The opening ceremony was graced by Mahbubul Alam Hanif, a Member of Parliament representing Kushtia-3. The
IVAC aims to enhance convenience and accessibility for residents of Kushtia and neighboring areas applying for Indian
visas.
About Bangladesh:
Capital: Dhaka
Prime minister: Sheikh Hasina
Currency: Bangladeshi Taka

The India-Russia Business Dialogue 2023 kicked off in New Delhi

 The inaugural session of the "India-Russia Business Dialogue" 2023 convened in New Delhi on April 17th, with the
presence of S Jaishankar, India's External Affairs Minister, and Denis Manturov, Deputy Prime Minister of Russia. At
this event, representatives from Russian and Indian businesses gathered to discuss strategies for strengthening
practical cooperation between the two nations, with a focus on initiatives such as the Inter-Governmental Commission
(IGC).
About Russia:
Capital and largest city: Moscow
Official and national language: Russian
President: Vladimir Putin
Prime Minister: Mikhail Mishustin

India Delivers First Batch of BrahMos Missiles to Philippines

 In a significant move reflecting the deepening military cooperation between India and the Philippines amid rising
tensions in the South China Sea.
 India has successfully delivered the first batch of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines.
 This delivery marks the fruition of a $375 million deal signed in January 2022.

Discover Milky Way’s Second-largest Known Black Hole

 Recently, European astronomers achieved a significant breakthrough by discovering the largest known stellar black
hole within our Milky Way galaxy. Dubbed as ‘BH-3’, this astronomical giant possesses a mass 33 times greater than
that of our Sun and is situated at a relatively close distance of just 2,000 light-years from Earth.
 The revelation of ‘BH-3’ came about through observations made by the Gaia Space Observatory, an advanced mission
operated by the European Space Agency (ESA). Launched back in 2013, the Gaia telescope has been specifically
engineered to meticulously map the positions, movements, and attributes of countless celestial objects with
unparalleled precision.

IMF team to visit Pak next month to negotiate new bailout package
 Muhammad Aurangzeb, Pakistan's Finance Minister, has announced that an upcoming IMF team will visit Islamabad
next month to discuss a new long-term bailout package. This negotiation aims to secure a staff-level agreement for the
financially challenged country by mid-July. After his week-long trip to Washington, the minister shared that the details
of the new International Monetary Fund program will be defined later. Dawn News quoted Aurangzeb saying, “We
will begin delving into the specifics of the program by mid-May.”

Bhutan leads Earth Day with Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference
 Bhutan is taking the lead on Earth Day 2024 with the Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference. Its
objective is to raise $1 billion within ten years, focusing on conserving crucial tiger habitats essential for biodiversity
and the livelihoods of millions of people.

143
Prabowo Subianto named Indonesia's President-Elect amid controversy
 The electoral commission of Indonesia has formally announced Prabowo Subianto as the president-elect. This decision
came after the country's highest court dismissed challenges to his overwhelming win, which were filed by two other
presidential candidates. Subianto, who is presently the defense minister, obtained 58.6% of the votes, totaling over
96 million ballots. This figure is more than double the number of votes received by each of his competitors.

India’s IFSCA and Kuwait’s CMA signed an MoU for information sharing
 On Tuesday, the Indian Embassy in Kuwait hosted the second edition of the India-Kuwait Investment Conference.
Additionally, both nations signed a Memorandum of Understanding to exchange information on technologies and
innovation in the financial and regulatory sectors.
 The conference was held with the support of the Indian Business and Professional Council (IBPC), Union of Investment
Companies (UIC) and Kuwait Chamber of Commerce and Industry (KCCI).
Air India broadens its collaboration with Japan’s ANA
 Air India and All Nippon Airways (ANA), Japan's largest airline, have established a codeshare partnership. Effective
from May 23, 2024, this agreement enables passengers of both airlines to seamlessly combine flights between India
and Japan with a single ticket.
About Japan:
Capital: Tokyo
Prime Minister: Fumio Kishida
Currency: Japanese yen

China Launches Shenzhou-18 Crew to Tiangong Space Station

Source: The economic times

 In the latest advancement of China’s space program, the Shenzhou-18 mission saw the successful launch of a three-
member crew aboard the Shenzhou-18 spacecraft.
 The Shenzhou-18 spacecraft, dubbed the “Divine Vessel,” lifted off atop a Long March-2F rocket from the Jiuquan
Satellite Launch Centre.

Rajnath Singh: Talks with China smooth, India won't yield

 Rajnath Singh, the Defence Minister, stated that discussions between India and China are progressing smoothly in a
positive atmosphere, affirming India's firm stance. He is currently in Ahmedabad campaigning for BJP candidates in
the Lok Sabha elections, emphasizing India's enhanced military strength and its commitment to fostering friendly
relations with neighboring nations.

Shehbaz Sharif appoints Ishaq Dar as Deputy PM of Pakistan

 Pakistan's Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif has strategically appointed Foreign Minister Ishaq Dar as the Deputy Prime
Minister of the country with immediate effect, as reported by Samaa TV.

India's Chinese import bill has risen 2.3 times in 15 years and is expected to increase further
 India's imports from China surged to over $101 billion in the fiscal year 2023-24, a substantial increase from
approximately $70 billion recorded in 2018-19. According to a report by the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI),
the country's share of industrial goods imports from China has escalated from 21% to 30% over a span of 15 years.
The GTRI report anticipates a significant rise in Chinese imports in the forthcoming years. Notably, goods imported
from China have witnessed a growth rate 2.3 times faster than India's overall imports during the same 15-year period.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

India’s First AI-Based Film ‘IRAH’ Trailer Unveiled
 Amidst the growing buzz around Artificial Intelligence (AI), the trailer and song launch event for India’s first
Hindi film on this subject, “IRAH,” took place in Mumbai.
 Produced by Big Films Media and directed by Sam Bhattacharjee, “IRAH” is set to hit theaters nationwide on
April 4th, 2024, through Iamplex Digital Theatrical Distribution.

144
WHO Launches CoViNet: A Global Network for Coronaviruses
 The World Health Organization (WHO) has introduced CoViNet, a global initiative aimed at enhancing the detection,
monitoring, and assessment of coronaviruses worldwide.
 CoViNet expands upon the existing WHO COVID-19 reference laboratory network to encompass a broader spectrum
of coronaviruses, including SARS-CoV-2, MERS-CoV, and potential novel strains of public health concern.
 CoViNet leverages the expertise of 36 laboratories from 21 countries across all six WHO regions.

DRDO successfully conducted a flight test of the new generation ballistic missile called ‘Agni-Prime
 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and India’s Strategic Forces Command (SFC) have
successfully conducted a flight test of the new generation ballistic missile called ‘Agni-Prime’.
 The test occurred at Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, off Odisha’s coast.
 Agni-P, also known as Agni-Prime, is a medium-range ballistic missile (MRBM) developed by DRDO.
About DRDO
Founded: 1958;
Headquarters: DRDO Bhavan, New Delhi;
Agency executive: Sameer V. Kamat, Chairman, DRDO.

Enhancing Air Defence Capabilities: Indian Army Inducts Akashteer System

 The Indian Army has commenced the induction of the indigenous Akashteer system.
 This automated air defence control and reporting system, developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).

Tata Advanced Systems Ltd (TASL) Launches India’s First Privately-Built Sub-Metre Resolution Surveillance
Satellite
 Tata Advanced Systems Ltd (TASL), in collaboration with Satellogic, has successfully launched India’s inaugural
private sector-built sub-metre resolution earth observation satellite, TSAT-1A.
 The collaboration between TASL and Satellogic resulted in the successful launch of TSAT-1A from the Kennedy
Space Center, Florida, aboard Elon Musk’s SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket on April 7.

Indian Army Enhances Air Defence with Igla-S MANPADS

 The Indian Army has bolstered its Very Short Range Air Defence (VSHORAD) capabilities with the acquisition of Igla-
S Man Portable Air Defence Systems (MANPADS) from Russia.

ISRO’s Chandrayaan-3 Mission Awarded the Prestigious John L. “Jack” Swigert, Jr. Award for Space Exploration
 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)’s Chandrayaan-3 mission team has been awarded the 2024 John L.
“Jack” Swigert, Jr. Award for Space Exploration by the US-based Space Foundation.
 The Chandrayaan-3 mission, launched by ISRO on July 14, 2023, was a groundbreaking achievement for India.

GUJCOST Designated as Nodal Centre for ISRO’s START Programme

 GUJCOST has been appointed as the Nodal Centre for ISRO’s START programme, aimed at nurturing aspiring
scientists and engineers in the field of space science and technology.
 Under the START programme, GUJCOST will conduct live classes, acting as the central hub for knowledge
dissemination.
 The inaugural online programme, titled “Exploration of Solar System,” invites registrations until April 19.

Chandrayaan-4: ISRO Chief Somanath Shares Plans for Next Moon Mission in 2040
 Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) chief S Somanath has revealed that the upcoming phase of the
Chandrayaan project is in progress.
About ISRO:
Founder: Vikram Sarabhai;
Headquarters: Bengaluru;
Founded: 15 August 1969;
Chairman: Sreedhara Somanath.

145
India’s Commitment to Debris-Free Space Missions by 2030
 At the 42nd Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC) annual meet, ISRO Chairman S. Somanath
announced India’s pledge to achieve debris-free space missions by 2030.
 Additionally, plans for India’s own space station, ‘Bharatiya Antriksh Station,’ by 2035 are underway.

APPOINTMENT & RESIGNATIONS

Joyshree Das Verma Becomes New President of FICCI Ladies Organisation
 Joyshree Das Verma has taken over as the 41st National President of the FICCI Ladies Organisation (FLO) for
the year 2024-25.
 FLO is the oldest women-led and women-centric business chamber of South East Asia.

Moushumi Basu Takes Over as New President of JNU Teachers Association

 Moushumi Basu, a professor at the School of International Studies, has been appointed as the next JNUTA
president.
 The teachers’ body has appointed Meenakshi Sundriyal and Pradeep K Shinde as vice-presidents of JNUTA.

Ms Sheyphali Sharan Takes Charge as Principal Director General, Press Information Bureau
 Ms Sheyphali B. Sharan has assumed charge as the Principal Director General, Press Information Bureau, upon the
superannuation (retirement) of Shri Manish Desai.

Veteran Dealmaker Atul Mehra Joins Axis Capital as MD & CEO

 Axis Capital has appointed Atul Mehra as the new Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO).
 The market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has approved the Initial Public Offering (IPO) of
two firms – Kross and Saraswati Saree Depot.

Santosh Kumar Jha Appointed as New CMD of Konkan Railway Corporation

 Santosh Kumar Jha, an Indian Railway Traffic Services (IRTS) officer of the 1992 batch, will assume the role of
Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRCL) on April 1, 2024.
 Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRCL) is a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Railways.

Sanjay Nayar Appointed as New ASSOCHAM President

 The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), a prominent industry chamber, has
appointed Sanjay Nayar as its new President.
 Nayar has replaced Ajay Singh, the Co-Founder of SpiceJet airline, whose tenure has ended.
 He was the former Chief Executive of KKR India, a leading investment firm.

Tata International Appoints Rajeev Singhal as MD

 Tata Group’s global trading and distribution arm, Tata International, has announced the appointment of Rajeev
Singhal as its new Managing Director (MD).
 Singhal’s appointment to the new position is effective from April 1, 2024.
 He succeeds Anand Sen, who superannuated (retired) on March 31, 2024.

EC Ropes in Ayushmann Khurrana to Urge Youth to Vote

 The Election Commission of India (ECI) has roped in popular actor Ayushmann Khurrana to encourage the youth to
exercise their franchise in the upcoming Lok Sabha elections.
About Election Commission of India:
Formed: 25 January 1950;
Headquarters: New Delhi;
Chief Election Commissioner of India: Rajiv Kumar.

146
Rakesh Mohan Appointed to World Bank Economic Advisory Panel
 The World Bank Group has appointed former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) deputy governor Rakesh Mohan as a
member of its Economic Advisory Panel.
 This panel will be chaired by Lord Nicholas Stern, the IG Patel Professor of Economics and Government at the London
School of Economics.
 World Bank Group Chief Economist Indermit Gill will co-chair the panel.
About World Bank:
Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States;
Founded: July 1944, Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, United States;
President: Ajay Banga;
Founders: John Maynard Keynes, Harry Dexter White;
CFO: Anshula Kant.

Meenesh Shah Elected as Chairman of NCDFI

 The National Cooperative Dairy Federation of India Ltd. (NCDFI), the national-level apex dairy cooperative, has elected
its new Board of Directors.
 In the elections held, Dr. Meenesh Shah was unanimously chosen as the new Chairman of the organization.

Wipro Appoints New CEO: Srinivas Pallia

 Wipro, the IT giant, has announced the resignation of its CEO, Thierry Delaporte.
 In his place, the company’s Board of Directors has appointed Srinivas Pallia as the new Chief Executive Officer and
Managing Director, effective April 7, 2024.
About Wipro:
Founder: M.H. Hasham Premji;
Owner: Azim Premji;
Headquarters: Bengaluru;
Founded: 29 December 1945, India.

Former Judge Najmi Waziri to Head Committee for Delhi Forest Protection
 The Delhi High Court has appointed former judge Najmi Waziri to lead a committee focused on safeguarding the
forests in the national capital.
 The Court modified its earlier order, issued on December 21, 2023, to nominate Justice Waziri to chair the committee.

IPS Officer Love Kumar Appointed as IG in Special Protection Group

 Indian Police Service (IPS) officer Love Kumar has been appointed as the Inspector General (IG) in the Special
Protection Group (SPG) for a period of two years, according to an official notification issued by the Department of
Personnel and Training (DoPT).

Centre Appoints Manoj Panda as New Finance Commission Member

 Manoj Panda, renowned economist and former director of the Institute of Economic Growth, has been appointed as a
full-time member of the Sixteenth Finance Commission by the Centre.

Harendra Singh Appointed as Coach of Indian Women’s Hockey Team until 2028 Olympics
 Former Indian hockey player and Dronacharya awardee Harendra Singh has been selected by Hockey India as the
coach of the senior national women’s hockey team. He will replace Janneke Schopman.

Sushil Sharma Appointed CMD of SJVN Limited

 The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) panel has recommended Sushil Sharma for the position of Chairman &
Managing Director (CMD) of SJVN Limited.

Former Pakistan PM Yousuf Raza Gillani Elected as Senate Chairman

 Former Pakistan Prime Minister Yousaf Raza Gillani and Pakistan Muslim League-Nawaz (PML-N) leader Syedal Khan
Nasir have been elected as Pakistan’s Senate chairman and deputy chairman, respectively.

147
Sachidananda Mohanty Appointed as Member, University Grants Commission (UGC)
 Sachidananda Mohanty has been appointed as a Member of the University Grants Commission (UGC) for a period of
three years with immediate effect.
About UGC:
Founded: November 1956;
HQ: Delhi.

Jagjit Pavadia Re-elected to International Narcotics Control Board

 India has been elected to several key bodies at the United Nations.
 This includes a significant victory by its nominee, Jagjit Pavadia, who was re-elected for a third term to the
International Narcotics Control Board (INCB).
 Jagjit Pavadia was re-elected to the INCB by secret ballot for a third term, from March 2025 to 2030.
About International Narcotics Control Board:
Headquarters: Vienna International Centre (Vienna, Austria);
President: Jallal Toufiq;
Founded: 1968.

"Senior IPS Officer Anurag Kumar Assumes Role as Joint Director of CBI"

Source: PSU Watch

 "In a notable development within India's law enforcement domain, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has
endorsed the appointment of senior IPS officer Anurag Kumar as the Joint Director of the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI). This decision, effective immediately, reflects the government's trust in Kumar's leadership and
capabilities to fulfill this pivotal role."

Kristalina Georgieva secures a second term as IMF Chief before Spring Meetings
 The IMF's Executive Board has selected Kristalina Georgieva for a second consecutive 5-year term as IMF Managing
Director, starting from October 1, 2024.
 The announcement was made just before IMF and World Bank spring meetings in Washington next week, which are
expected to draw thousands of delegates, observers and journalists from the fund’s 190 member countries.
About IMF :
Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States
Managing Director: Kristalina Georgieva
Membership: 190 countries (189 UN countries and Kosovo)

Senior bureaucrat Vandita Kaul has been appointed as the Secretary of the Department of Posts
 In a noteworthy development, Vandita Kaul, a seasoned professional with extensive experience in financial services
and banking, has been appointed as the Secretary of the Department of Posts. She will succeed Vineet Pandey upon
his superannuation.
About India Post:
Established: 1 October 1854
Headquarters: New Delhi, Delhi
India Post is an Indian government-operated postal system in India and is the trade name of the Department of Post under
the Ministry of Communications.

Sekhar Rao is now the interim MD and CEO of Karnataka Bank

Source: The Economic times
 Karnataka Bank, headquartered in Mangaluru, has received approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to appoint
Sekhar Rao, the bank’s executive director, as the interim Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer (MD and CEO).
The interim appointment is effective for three months from April 15, 2023, or until a regular MD and CEO are
appointed, whichever occurs first. This transition follows the conclusion of Mahabaleshwara M S's term as the bank’s
MD and CEO on April 14, 2023.
About Karnataka Bank:
Founded: 18 February 1924

148
Headquarters: Mangaluru
Tata Electronics appoints Randhir Thakur as CEO & MD
 The Tata Group has appointed Dr. Randhir Thakur as the CEO and Managing Director of Tata Electronics Pvt Ltd
(TEPL) to enhance its semiconductor manufacturing capabilities, aiming to outpace competitors in the nation's
flourishing precision machining sector. Until recently, Dr. Thakur held a position at Intel, a global leader in electronic
chip and circuit manufacturing, serving as the President of Intel Foundry Services. With his extensive experience in
the manufacturing domain, Dr. Thakur is poised to lead TEPL into a new era of innovation and growth.

Nalin Prabhat Appointed as Director-General of NSG

 Nalin Prabhat, a Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the Andhra Pradesh cadre, has been appointed as the Director-
General of the National Security Guard (NSG).

Subhash Chopra appointed as chairman of Delhi election management committee

 The Congress on Sunday appointed Subhash Chopra as the chairman of the 18-member election management and
coordination committee for the Lok Sabha election in Delhi. Deepak Babaria, the Delhi in-charge at the All India
Congress Committee, said that the appointment had the backing of the party’s top leadership.
CRPF ADG Nalin Prabhat has been appointed as the NSG chief
 Senior IPS officer Nalin Prabhat appointed as Director General of NSG, currently serving as Additional Director General
in CRPF. Approved by ACC until August 31, 2028. Previously, NSG's additional charge was held by SSB chief Daljit
Singh Chawdhary. ACC also approved the appointment of Intelligence Bureau Additional Director Sapna Tewari as
Special Director in the agency.
Citroen India appoints MS Dhoni as brand ambassador
 French automaker Citroen has appointed cricketing legend Mahendra Singh Dhoni as its brand ambassador to bolster
its presence and awareness in the Indian market. This strategic move by the Stellantis Group aims to establish a strong
foothold and enhance its brand identity in the competitive Indian passenger vehicle market.
OpenAI Appoints Pragya Misra as Its First Employee in India
 OpenAI has welcomed Pragya Misra as its inaugural team member in India, naming her the head of government
relations. This comes during the nation's ongoing elections, crucial for shaping AI regulations in the world's most
populous country. Misra's role centers on leading OpenAI's public policy affairs and partnerships, with a focus on
government relations and regulatory frameworks.
About OpenAI:
Founded: December 11, 2015
Headquarters: San Francisco, California, United States
CEO: Sam Altman
Chairman: Bret Taylor

Hans Chuang: SMG APJ General Manager

 Hans Chuang is now the SMG General Manager for Asia Pacific and Japan (APJ), based in Taiwan. He will lead Intel's
operations in the Asia-Pacific region, focusing on revenue growth, creating new opportunities, and enhancing
relationships with partners and customers.

Santhosh Viswanathan: VP and MD-India Region

 Intel has acknowledged India's fast economic growth by establishing it as a separate region in its SMG organization.
Santhosh Viswanathan, leveraging his expertise, has been named Vice President and Managing Director for the India
region to enhance value and customer-centric initiatives.
Intel CEO: Patrick P. Gelsinger
Intel Headquarters: Santa Clara, California, United States;
Intel Chairperson: Omar Ishrak.

Gita Sabharwal from India is now the UN Resident Coordinator in Indonesia

 António Guterres, the UN Secretary-General, has named Gita Sabharwal from India as the new UN Resident
Coordinator in Indonesia. Sabharwal began her role on Monday, bringing almost thirty years of experience in
development, aiding climate transition, sustainable peace, governance, and social policy. She also focuses on using
digital technology and data to speed up the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

149
Naima Khatoon shatters glass ceiling as first female AMU Vice-Chancellor
 President Droupadi Murmu has made history by appointing Professor Naima Khatoon as the first female Vice-
Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University (AMU), shattering a century-old barrier. This move, perceived as a part of the
BJP government's efforts to connect with Muslim women, comes just before the second phase of the Lok Sabha
election.

FSIB recommends MDs for SBI and Indian Bank

 The Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) has recommended candidates for the positions of Managing Director
(MD) at State Bank of India (SBI) and Indian Bank. Rana Ashutosh Kumar Singh has been proposed for SBI MD, while
Asheesh Pandey has been recommended for Indian Bank MD.

Narsingh Yadav is now the Chair of WFI's Athletes Commission

 The Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) has fulfilled the requirements set by the United World Wrestling (UWW), the
international governing body for wrestling. To lift WFI's suspension, UWW mandated the establishment of an Athletes
Commission within the federation to address wrestlers' grievances.

Arun Alagappan Appointed Executive Chairman of Coromandel International

Source: Times of India
 Coromandel International Ltd. (CIL), a leading provider of agri-solutions, has announced a significant leadership
transition.
 Arun Alagappan, the former Executive Vice Chairman, has been appointed and re-designated as the Executive
Chairman of the company.

Arvinder Singh Lovely steps down as Delhi Congress chief.

 Party officials announced that Arvinder Singh Lovely, the Delhi Congress president, has resigned from his position. In
his resignation letter to Congress president Mallikarjun Kharge, Lovely mentioned the alliance with Delhi Chief
Minister Arvind Kejriwal's Aam Aadmi Party for the 2024 Lok Sabha election as one of the factors contributing to his
resignation.

Sunil Kumar Yadav (IRS) is the new Director at the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
 The Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has added Sunil Kumar Yadav, an Indian Revenue Service (IRS)
officer, to its leadership team as the new Director.

Sarvadanand Barnwal named Director in Department of Land Resources

 Sarvadanand Barnwal, a 2010 batch Indian Statistical Service (ISS) officer, has assumed the role of Director in the
Department of Land Resources. This appointment, effective from Friday, April 26, 2024, was authorized by the
Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT).

AWARDS & RECOGNITION

Vineet Jain Honoured with ENBA Lifetime Achievement Award 2023
 Vineet Jain, the managing director of the Times Group, received the prestigious Exchange4Media News
Broadcasting Awards (ENBA) Lifetime Achievement Award 2023 for his significant contributions to Indian
television news.

Professor Meena Charanda Honoured with ‘International Culture Award’ 2024

 Professor Meena Charanda, Principal of Kalindi College, Delhi University, has been awarded the prestigious
‘International Culture Award’ for the year 2024.
 Prof. Charanda received this honour in recognition of her remarkable work in the field of education and social
service.

Dr. Karthik Kommuri Honoured at National Fame Awards 2024

 In recognition of his efforts, Dr. Kommuri was felicitated with the Distinguished Overseas Dental Specialist
(Orthodontics and Orofacial Pain) title at the National Fame Awards 2024, held at The Club in Mumbai.

150
SJVN Awarded for Outstanding Corporate Social Responsibility
 SJVN Limited, a leading public sector undertaking, has been honored with two prestigious awards at the 15th CIDC
Vishwakarma Awards 2024.
 The awards were given by the Construction Industry Development Council (CIDC) in recognition of SJVN’s remarkable
contributions to corporate social responsibility (CSR).

GAIL Wins 15th CIDC Vishwakarma Award for Barauni – Guwahati Pipeline
 GAIL (India) Limited has been honored with the prestigious 15th CIDC Vishwakarma Award in the ‘Achievement
Award for Best Construction Projects’ category for its remarkable accomplishment in the Barauni – Guwahati Natural
Gas Pipeline project (BGPL).

Aleksei Navalny and Yulia Navalnaya Honoured with Freedom Prize

 The late Russian dissident Aleksei Navalny and his wife, Yulia Navalnaya, will receive the Freedom Prize of the Media
from a leading German forum, the Ludwig Erhard Summit.
 The Freedom Prize has been awarded to other prominent figures, including Russian politician Garry Kasparov in 2023
and Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy in the past.

Jain Acharya Lokesh Muni Honored with American President’s Volunteer Award 2024
 The American President’s Volunteer Service Award was established in 2003 during George Bush’s presidency.
 The award is given to individuals who have provided at least 500 hours of voluntary service in the United States.
 Jain Acharya Lokesh Muni has become the first Indian monk to be honoured with the American President’s Gold
Volunteer Service Award.

"Harvard Honors Avantika Vandanapu as South Asian Person of the Year"

Source: E-buzz
 In a remarkable achievement, Indian-American actress Avantika Vandanapu, best known for her role as Karen Shetty
in the 2024 musical comedy “Mean Girls,” has been honored with the prestigious “South Asian Person of the Year”
award by Harvard University. This accolade recognizes Vandanapu’s outstanding contributions to the arts and her
role in promoting South Asian representation in global media.

Nandini Gupta clinches the title of Femina Miss India World 2023
 In a recent grand ceremony, Nandini Gupta from Rajasthan was crowned as Femina Miss India World 2023, marking
her victory in the 59th edition of the beauty pageant. The first runner-up was Shreya Poonja from Delhi, while the
second runner-up was Thounaojam Strela Luwang from Manipur. The event was graced with dazzling performances
by Kartik Aaryan and Ananya Panday, and it was hosted by Manish Paul and Bhumi Pednaker. Nandini Gupta is set to
represent India at the 71st Miss World pageant, scheduled to be held in the United Arab Emirates.
About Nandini Gupta:
Born: 13 September 2003 (age 20 years), Kota
Education: Lala Lajpat Rai College of Commerce and Economics, St. Paul's Senior Secondary School
Height: 1.78 m
Title: Femina Miss India World 2023

Raj Subramaniam received the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman award

Source: Business standard

 Raj Subramaniam, CEO of FedEx and an Indian-American, received the prestigious Pravasi Bharatiya Samman award,
the highest civilian recognition from India for individuals of Indian descent. Due to travel restrictions, he was awarded
by India’s Ambassador to the US, Taranjit Singh Sandhu, at a ceremony held at India House.
About Raj Subramaniam:
Born: 14 September 1967
Education: Syracuse University (1987–1989)
Organization: FedEx

151
Utsa Patnaik Wins Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023
 Utsa Patnaik, a highly esteemed economist with recognition at both national and international levels, has been
selected as the recipient of the esteemed Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023. This award is an annual honor presented
by the Malcolm & Elizabeth Adiseshiah Trust, acknowledging exceptional social scientists chosen by a national-level
jury from the submitted nominations. The award ceremony, where the recipient will be presented with a citation and
a cash prize of ₹2 lakh, is slated to take place in Chennai. The specific date for the ceremony will be announced by the
Trust shortly. Notably, in 2022, the award was conferred upon the Indian economist Prabhat Patnaik.

Kaushik Rajashekara Honored with International Fellowship by the Engineering Academy of Japan
 Kaushik Rajashekara, a distinguished professor at the University of Houston’s Cullen College of Engineering, has been
elected as an International Fellow of the prestigious Engineering Academy of Japan.
 In 2022, Rajashekara received the prestigious Global Energy Prize, considered the most coveted prize in the field of
international energy.

Deepika Soreng Honoured with Asunta Lakra Award

 Deepika Soreng, the promising forward of the India Women’s Hockey Team, has been honoured with the prestigious
Hockey India Asunta Lakra Award for Upcoming Player of the Year during the Hockey India 6th Annual Awards 2023.

Deepika Soreng Honored with Asunta Lakra Award

 Deepika Soreng, a talented forward of the India Women’s Hockey Team, has been bestowed with the esteemed Hockey
India Asunta Lakra Award for Upcoming Player of the Year at the Hockey India 6th Annual Awards 2023. This accolade
acknowledges her exceptional performance and promising potential as an emerging star in the sport. Notably, the
year 2023 marked a significant milestone in Deepika’s hockey journey as she made her debut for the Indian team
during the Women’s Junior Asia Cup.

Pavuluri Subba Rao awarded Aryabhatta Award for astronautics contributions

 Pavuluri Subba Rao, Founder, CEO, and Chairman of Ananth Technologies, receives the Aryabhatta Award from the
Aeronautical Society of India for his significant contributions to promoting astronautics in India.

Mohammed Salem won at World Press Photo 2024

 Mohammed Salem is a Palestinian photographer who works for the news agency Reuters. In 2024, he won a very
important award called the World Press Photo of the Year award. The World Press Photo award is a prestigious
international competition for photojournalists (photographers who capture news events).

2024 Laureus World Sports Awards announced

 The 2024 Laureus Sports Awards in Madrid were a grand celebration of top athletes and their remarkable
achievements. The event honored several sporting icons who have made a lasting impact in their respective fields.
Novak Djokovic, the world's top-ranked tennis player, made history by winning the Laureus World Sportsman of the
Year award for the fifth time.

Randeep Hooda Receives Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award

 At Mumbai's Dinanath Mangeshkar Natyagrih, a distinguished event honored actor Randeep Hooda with the Lata
Deenanath Mangeshkar Award. This recognition celebrates his significant impact on Indian cinema, particularly his
role in the film "Swatantrya Veer Savarkar".
About Randeep Hooda:
Born: 20 August 1976 (age 47 years), Rohtak
Spouse: Lin Laishram (m. 2023)
Parents: Ranbir Hooda, Asha Hooda

T.N. CM Stalin rewards chess grandmaster D. Gukesh with ₹75 lakh

 On Sunday, April 28, 2024, Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M.K. Stalin presented a ₹75 lakh incentive to chess prodigy D.
Gukesh, who emerged as the youngest victor of the recently concluded FIDE Candidates tournament held in Canada.

 Mr. Stalin handed over the cheque to the grandmaster in the former’s camp office in Chennai , in the presence of Tamil
Nadu’s Minister for Youth Welfare and Sports Development Udhayanidhi Stalin and the chess player’s parents.

152
Gina Justus from Sharjah wins Cambridge Dedicated Teacher Award regionally
 Gina Justus, an English High School teacher at the Sharjah Girls Branch in the UAE, has won the regional title for the
MENA region at the 2024 Cambridge Dedicated Teacher Awards. This accolade recognizes her exceptional mentorship
and commitment to charity work.

Sana, the AI anchor from India Today Group, excels at Global Media Awards
 Sana, the AI-powered news anchor created by the India Today Group, has garnered significant acclaim at the esteemed
International News Media Association (INMA) Global Media Awards in London. This pioneering AI innovation has won
two prestigious awards, establishing itself as a leader in AI-driven journalism.

Alok Shukla secures the esteemed Goldman Environmental Prize for 2024
 Alok Shukla, an acclaimed environmental activist and convener of Chhattisgarh Bachao Andolan, has been chosen for
the esteemed 2024 Goldman Environmental Prize. This award, also dubbed as the "Green Nobel Prize," recognizes
grassroots environmental leaders globally for their remarkable efforts in environmental preservation.

BOOKS & AUTHOR

Sam Pitroda’s New Book ‘The Idea of Democracy’
 Renowned author Sam Pitroda has written a new book titled ‘The Idea of Democracy’, which explores the current
state of democracy and its potential challenges in countries like India and the United States.
 Pitroda has also served as the founder and first Chairman of India’s Telecom Commission.

Goa Governor P.S. Sreedharan Pillai releases "Heavenly Islands of Goa" book
Governor P.S. Sreedharan Pillai of Goa is on a literary journey to showcase the state's abundant natural heritage through
captivating books. His recent work, "Heavenly Islands of Goa," reflects his commitment to preserving and promoting
Goa's lesser-known aspects.

EAM Jaishankar Receives Book ‘India’s Nuclear Titans’

Source: Telangana today

 External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar received a copy of the book ‘India’s Nuclear Titans,’ edited by Soumya Awasthi
and Shrabana Barua.
 The book traces the evolution of India into a nuclear state while highlighting the pivotal roles played by renowned
figures like Homi Bhabha, Vikram Sarabhai, Abdul Kalam, and K. Subrahmanyam, among others.

"The Winner’s Mindset" by Shane Watson

In "The Winner’s Mindset," Watson offers insights and strategies that helped him overcome fears and achieve success in
cricket. Although not a conventional autobiography, the book serves as a compelling self-help guide, providing a peek
into the mindset essential for reaching new heights.

IMPORTANT DAYs
India Celebrates National Maritime Week 2024
 On March 29, 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honoured with the ‘Merchant Navy Flag’, pinned on
his lapel by Secretary T.K. Ramachandran of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
 This marked the beginning of the National Maritime Week celebrations, which span from March 29 to April 5.
 National Maritime Week is celebrated to honour the services of seafarers and commemorate a proud moment
in India’s maritime history.

World Autism Awareness Day 2024: 2nd

 World Autism Awareness Day is on April 2nd every year. It aims to raise awareness and support for people with
autism. The theme for 2024 is “Empowering Autistic Voices.”
 The United Nations established World Autism Awareness Day in 2007.

153
Prevention of Blindness Week 2024, 1st to 7th April
 Many people around the world suffer from blindness or vision problems. To address this, the Indian government has
declared April 1 to April 7 as Prevention of Blindness Week.
 In 1960, Jawaharlal Nehru and Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur started the National Society for the Prevention of Blindness.
 The theme for Prevention of Blindness Week 2024 is decided by the World Health Organization (WHO), the
International Agency for the Prevention of Blindness, and other non-governmental organizations (NGOs).

United Nations Observes International Mine Awareness Day on 4th April

 The United Nations Observes International Mine Awareness Day on 4th April.
 The theme for International Day for Mine Awareness & Assistance in Mine Action 2024 is ‘Protecting Lives, Building
Peace’.
 The idea for a Mine Awareness Day was first proposed by the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in
1980.

NATO Celebrates 75 Years of Collective Defense

 The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is marking its 75th anniversary this year.
 The alliance, founded in 1949, will hold a special event in Brussels, Belgium to commemorate this milestone.
 NATO was originally founded by 12 countries, including the United States, Canada, and several Western European
nations.
About NATO:
Secretary-General: Jens Stoltenberg;
Founded: 4 April 1949, Washington, D.C., United States;
Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.

260th Raising Day of Army Medical Corps

 The Army Medical Corps (AMC) celebrated its 260th Raising Day on 03rd April 2024. Raised in the year 1764.
 The Chief of Army Staff, Gen Manoj Pande, and the Chief of Air Staff, Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari, attended an event
in New Delhi.
About Army Medical Corps:
Founded: 3 April 1943;
Corps Lieutenant: General Daljit Singh.

National Maritime Day 2024

 National Maritime Day is observed annually on April 5 in India.
 On April 5, 1919, the first Indian commercial ship, SS Loyalty, embarked on a journey to the United Kingdom, breaking
the British monopoly on sea routes.
 The theme for National Maritime Day 2024 is “Navigating the future: safety first!”

International Day of Sport for Development and Peace 2024

 Every year on April 6th, the world celebrates the International Day of Sport for Development and Peace (IDSDP).
 The global theme for IDSDP 2024 is “Sport for the Promotion of Peaceful and Inclusive Societies”.

World Health Day 2024: Celebrating the Right to Health

 World Health Day is celebrated every year on April 7th, the founding date of the World Health Organization (WHO).
 In 2024, the theme for World Health Day is “My Health, My Right”.
 The World Health Organization was established on October 24, 1945 as part of the United Nations’ efforts to promote
global peace, security, and better living conditions for all.
About World Health Organization (WHO):
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland;
Founded: 7 April 1948;
Director General: Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus.

154
National Library Day 2024: 6th April
 National Library Day is celebrated every year on April 6th. On this day, people come together to celebrate the
important role that libraries and librarians play in our society.

National Handmade Day 2024: 6th April

 National Handmade Day is an annual celebration held on the first Saturday of April, which this year falls on April 6,
2024.
 The theme for National Handmade Day 2024 is ‘Buy a Handmade Product’.

National Safe Motherhood Day 2024

 National Safe Motherhood Day, observed annually on April 11th, is a crucial occasion to highlight the importance of
maternal health and well-being.
 The official theme for National Safe Motherhood Day 2024 has not yet been announced.

World Homeopathy Day 2024: Celebrating the Power of Natural Healing

 World Homeopathy Day is observed on April 10th every year. The theme for World Homeopathy Day 2024 is
“Homeoparivar: One Health, One Family.” Homeopathy is a form of alternative medicine that believes in the power of
tiny homeopathic substances to cure the symptoms of a condition.

Pune Celebrates Yoga Mahotsav Ahead of International Yoga Day

 The ‘Yoga Mahotsav’ was held in Pune, Maharashtra, to mark the 75-day countdown to the International Day of Yoga.
Organized by the Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga and the National Institute of Naturopathy, Ministry of Ayush.

President of India Inaugurates Homoeopathy Symposium on World Homoeopathy Day

 The President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu, inaugurated a two-day Homoeopathy Symposium organized by the
Central Council for Research in Homoeopathy in New Delhi on World Homoeopathy Day (April 10, 2024).
 The theme of the symposium, “Empowering Research, Enhancing Proficiency,” is highly relevant in the 21st century.

World Parkinson’s Day 2024:

 World Parkinson’s Day is observed annually on April 11 to raise awareness about Parkinson’s disease, a
neurodegenerative disorder that affects millions of people worldwide.
 The date is chosen to mark the birthday of Dr James Parkinson, the British physician who first described the symptoms
of the disease in his groundbreaking essay, ‘An Essay on the Shaking Palsy,’ published in 1817.

World Chagas Disease Day 2024

 The World Health Organization (WHO) observes World Chagas Disease Day every April 14th to raise awareness about
the neglected tropical disease that affects millions of people, especially in Latin America.
 The 72nd World Health Assembly dedicated this day to the disease in 2019.
 In 2024, the theme for World Chagas Disease Day is “Tackling Chagas disease: detect early and care for life”.
About WHO:
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
Founded: 7 April 1948

Ambedkar Jayanti 2024:

 Ambedkar Jayanti 2024, celebrated on April 14, commemorates the birth anniversary of Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar.
 BR Ambedkar, born on April 14, 1891, in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.

105 Years of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

 The Amritsar Massacre, also known as the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, remains one of the darkest episodes in India’s
struggle for independence.
 On April 13, 1919, General Dyer ordered his soldiers to open fire on an unarmed gathering in Jallianwala Bagh,
Amritsar, leading to hundreds of deaths and injuries.
 In 2024, India observes 105th anniversary of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

155
April 15: Pohela Boishakh

Source: Hindustan Times

 The first day of the Bengali calendar is called Poila Boishakh, often referred to as Bangla Noboborsho. It is observed
on April 14 in Bangladesh and April 15 in the Indian states of West Bengal, Tripura, Jharkhand, and Assam (Barak
Valley), according to the lunisolar calendar. The Bengali business class begins its fiscal year on this day as well.
 About West Bengal :
 Founded: 1947
 Area: 88,752 km²
 Chief minister: Mamata Banerjee
 Capital: Kolkata

World Hemophilia Day 2023 observed on 17th April

World Hemophilia Day is commemorated annually on April 17th to raise awareness about hemophilia and other inherited
bleeding disorders. The day was initiated in 1989 by the World Federation of Hemophilia (WFH) as a tribute to the
birthday of WFH founder Frank Schnabel. Its purpose is to educate the public about hemophilia disease and advocate for
better treatment and support for individuals affected by bleeding disorders.

World Heritage Day 2023 was celebrated on April 18th

Source: News18
On April 18th, World Heritage Day, also known as the International Day for Monuments and Sites, is observed globally.
This day aims to raise awareness about the importance of preserving cultural heritage, including historical structures,
landmarks, and archaeological sites. It encourages people to appreciate the diversity of global heritage and actively
participate in its conservation and protection. Each year, World Heritage Day focuses on a specific theme related to
cultural heritage. In 2022, the theme was "Heritage and Climate," while in 2023, it shifted to "Heritage Changes."

World Liver Day 2023 Observed globally on 19 April

It is observed on 19 April to spread awareness about the diseases related to the liver. The liver is the second largest organ
in the body. After the brain, it is also the second most complex organ in the body. It performs various crucial functions
associated with digestion, immunity, metabolism, and the storage of nutrients within the body.

National Civil Service Day 2024- Honouring the Steel Frame of India
 National Civil Service Day is celebrated annually on April 21st in India. This year, the theme for National Civil Service
Day 2024 is yet to be announced.
 The first ever National Civil Services Day in India was celebrated on April 21, 2006. It was recognized to commemorate
the first Home Minister of India – Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Celebration of the 2550th Bhagwan Mahaveer Nirvan Mahotsav

 On the auspicious occasion of Mahaveer Jayanti, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will tomorrow inaugurate the 2550th
Bhagwan Mahaveer Nirvan Mahotsav at 10 AM at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi.
 Prime Minister Modi will release a commemorative stamp and coin and also address the gathering on the occasion.
 Bhagwan Mahavir, the 24th Tirthankar, illuminated the path of peaceful co-existence and universal brotherhood
through Jain principles like Ahimsa (Non-Violence), Satya (Truthfulness), Asteya (Non-Stealing), Brahmacharya
(Chastity) and Aparigraha (Non-attachment).

National Civil Service Day 2024: 21 April

 National Civil Service Day is commemorated annually on April 21st to acknowledge and appreciate the diligent efforts
of civil servants across diverse departments and organizations. This observance serves to recognize their pivotal role
in ensuring the effective functioning of the administrative machinery. Following Independence, Sardar Vallabh Bhai
Patel famously described civil servants as the "steel frame" of India, underscoring their indispensable contribution to
nation-building. He officially proclaimed that National Civil Service Day would be an annual occasion to honor the
invaluable contributions of civil servants to the nation. The inaugural National Civil Services Day in India was
celebrated on April 21, 2006, marking the beginning of this meaningful tradition.

156
22 April- World Earth Day
 World Earth Day, celebrated on April 22 annually, marks the birth of the modern environmental movement in 1970.
It emphasizes the vital need to preserve Earth, our sole habitat supporting life, fostering awareness about its
importance.

World Book and Copyright Day 2024, celebrating books and copyright
 World Book and Copyright Day, observed annually on April 23rd, aims to promote reading, books, and copyright
protection. This global celebration honors authors and encourages reading while highlighting the significance of
safeguarding the rights of writers and publishers.

April 23- Hanuman Jayanti

 Hanuman Jayanti, a Hindu festival, marks the birth of the revered Hindu deity and devoted follower of Lord Rama.
Celebrated in most Indian states, the festival occurs on the full moon day of the Hindu month of Chaitra.

National Panchayati Raj Day: April 24th annually

 National Panchayati Raj Day, observed each year on April 24th, marks the inception of India's Panchayati Raj system.
Introduced through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1993, this decentralized governance model aims to
empower Gram Panchayats as local self-governing bodies at the village level.

World Immunization Week 2024 is observed from April 24 to 30

 World Immunization Week is observed annually from April 24 to 30, focusing on raising awareness about
vaccination's vital role in protecting against preventable diseases and showcasing humanity's achievements in
immunization, notably eradicating smallpox and near-defeating polio.

World Malaria Day is observed annually on April 25th

 World Malaria Day on April 25 raises awareness about preventing, treating, and controlling the mosquito-borne
disease prevalent in tropical regions. It highlights global efforts towards eradicating malaria and promoting a healthier
world.

World Intellectual Property Day

 This annual celebration on April 26 was established by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) in 2000.
It aims to increase awareness of the impact of patents, copyrights, trademarks, and designs on everyday life,
highlighting the role of intellectual property rights in fostering innovation and creativity.

April 26th is observed as International Chernobyl Disaster Remembrance Day in 2024.

 On April 26th each year, we mark International Chernobyl Disaster Remembrance Day, dedicated to honoring the
victims of the Chernobyl nuclear disaster and promoting awareness of this tragic incident. The explosion at the
Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant in Ukraine, then part of the Soviet Union, on April 26, 1986, released a significant
radioactive cloud, affecting around 8.4 million people with harmful nuclear radiation.

World Veterinary Day 2024 Observed on 27th April

Source: Nagaland Post

 This year, World Veterinary Day will be celebrated on Saturday, April 27, 2024. The theme for 2024 is “Veterinarians
are Essential Health Workers,” highlighting the vital role veterinarians play in safeguarding public health and
promoting the well-being of animals and the environment.
 The World Veterinary Association (WVA) established World Veterinary Day in 2000, and it was first celebrated on
April 29 of that year.

World Day for Safety and Health at Work 2024: April 28

 World Day for Safety and Health at Work, celebrated annually on April 28th worldwide, aims to promote global efforts
in preventing occupational accidents and diseases.
29 April - International Dance Day
April 29, observed annually as World Dance Day, serves as a reminder to governments, politicians, and institutions to
recognize the significance of dance

157
Celebrating India's Healthcare Initiative - Ayushman Bharat Diwas 2024.
 Ayushman Bharat Diwas, observed on April 30 every year, aims to raise awareness about the Ayushman Bharat Yojana
and its objectives. This year, it falls on Tuesday, April 30, 2024, as established by the government to emphasize the
scheme's goal of improving access to affordable and quality healthcare services, particularly for the underprivileged.

OBITUARIES
Veteran Actress Barbara Rush Passes Away at 97
 Barbara Rush, a Golden Globe-winning actress, embarked on her journey in the entertainment industry in the 1950s.
 Her breakthrough role came in 1954 with the science-fiction film “It Came from Outer Space,” which earned her the
Golden Globe Award for Most Promising Newcomer.

World’s Oldest Man, Juan Vicente Pérez, Dies at 114

 He was alive for 114 years. Now that Pérez has passed away, the title of “world’s oldest man” is expected to go to a
112-year-old man from Japan named Gisaburo Sonobe.

Legendary Cinematographer Gangu Ramsay Passes Away at 83

 Gangu Ramsay, the second-eldest son of FU Ramsay, passed away in Mumbai. He was 83 years old.
 Gangu Ramsay was a renowned cinematographer and filmmaker who was part of the iconic Ramsay Brothers banner.

Former New Zealand Legspinner Jack Alabaster Passes Away at 93

 New Zealand Cricket (NZC) took to social media to announce the demise of former legspinner Jack Alabaster, who
passed away.

Father of Indian psychoanalysis Sudhir Kakar passed away at 85

 Sudhir Kakar, India’s leading psychoanalyst known for his unparalleled understanding of Indian men and women, died
at 85.

About Sudhir Kakar:

 Sudhir Kakar was a novelist and author in the fields of cultural psychology and the psychology of religion.
He had been a lecturer at Harvard University, Senior Fellow at the Centre for Study of World Religions at Harvard, and
visiting professor at the universities of Chicago, McGill, Melbourne, Hawaii and Vienna.

RANKS & REPORTS

India Ranks Second in Hepatitis B and C Cases Worldwide
 The World Health Organisation’s (WHO) 2024 Global Hepatitis Report reveals that India is second only to China in
the number of Hepatitis B and C infections, with 3.5 crore cases.

JNU Tops QS World University Rankings by Subject 2024: A Landmark Achievement for India
 Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) has secured the top position in the QS World University Rankings by Subject
2024, reaffirming its status as India’s premier academic institution.

Hurun Global Unicorn Index 2024: Unveiling the State of Global Startup Ecosystem
 In 2024, the global unicorn landscape witnessed significant developments and challenges, as outlined in the Hurun
Global Unicorn Index.
 While the United States maintained its lead with 703 unicorns and China followed with 340, India ranked third with
67 unicorns.

India Overtakes China in Digital Services Exports: Key Findings from WTO Report
 In 2023, India emerged as a frontrunner in digital services exports, surpassing China, as outlined in the World Trade
Organisation (WTO) report.
 The report highlights significant growth in digitally delivered services globally, with India’s exports reaching $257
billion, marking a 17 percent increase from the previous year.

158
World Cybercrime Index Unveiled: Russia and Ukraine Top List
 A newly developed World Cybercrime Index sheds light on the origins and prevalence of cybercrime across the
globe.
 Russia and Ukraine emerge as the top two hubs of cybercrime, according to the index.
 India secures the 10th position, scoring notably in impact, professionalism, and technical skills.

Prestigious John Dirks Gairdner Global Health Award for Dr. Gagandeep Kang
 Dr. Gagandeep Kang, an Indian researcher, has been awarded the 2024 John Dirks Canada Gairdner Global Health
Award for her achievements in global health research.

Top Indian Banks in Asia-Pacific Region: S&P Global Report

 According to a recent report by S&P Global, three Indian banks—State Bank of India (SBI), HDFC Bank, and ICICI
Bank—have secured positions among the top 50 banks in the Asia-Pacific region based on their assets.

SPORTS
Novak Djokovic Becomes the Oldest World No. 1 in ATP Rankings History
 Novak Djokovic, the 24-time Grand Slam champion, continues to break records on the ATP Tour. As of this week, he
begins his 419th week as the World No. 1, extending his huge record.
 On Sunday, April 9, 2024, Djokovic will surpass Roger Federer’s record and become the oldest World No. 1 in ATP
Rankings history at the age of 36 years and 321 days.

Maharashtra Men’s and Women National Kho Kho Champion

 Maharashtra team emerged as the undisputed champion at the 56th National Kho Kho Championship 2023-24,
clinching both the men’s and women’s titles.
 The championship was held at Delhi’s Karnail Singh Stadium and the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium.

Bindyarani Devi Wins Bronze, Mirabai Chanu Qualifies for Paris Olympics 2024 at IWF World Cup
 The IWF World Cup 2024 was held in Phuket, Thailand from March 31 to April 11, 2024.
 The event was organized by the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF).
 The IWF is the world governing body for men’s and women’s weightlifting, with 193 member countries.
 It is headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland, and its current president is Mohamad Hassan Jaloud.

Bilquis Mir: The First Indian Woman on the Paris Olympics Jury
 Bilquis Mir, a canoeist from Jammu and Kashmir, is set to make history as the first woman from India to represent
the country as a jury member at the upcoming Summer Olympics in Paris.

Max Verstappen of Red Bull Dominated the Japanese Grand Prix

 Triple world champion Max Verstappen of Red Bull dominated the Japanese Grand Prix, leading a one-two finish for
his team alongside teammate Sergio Perez.
 Verstappen was back to his best after a brake issue in the previous race in Australia saw him retire.

Sri Lankan Star Kamindu Mendis and England’s Maia Bouchier Crowned ICC Players of the Month
 The International Cricket Council (ICC) has named Sri Lankan cricketer Kamindu Mendis as the ICC Men’s Player of
the Month for March 2024.
 On the women’s side, England’s Maia Bouchier has been awarded the ICC Women’s Player of the Month for March
2024.
About ICC Headquarters: Dubai, United Arab Emirates;
Founded: 15 June 1909;
CEO: Geoff Allardice;
Chairman: Greg Barclay.

159
Asian Wrestling Championship: Udit Bags Silver, Abhimanyu and Vicky Claim Bronze Each
 India’s 19-year-old Udit won the silver medal in the men’s 57kg category at the Asian Wrestling Championships
2024 in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan.
 Abhimanyou (men’s 70kg) and Vicky (men’s 97kg) also won the bronze medals in their respective weight divisions
to take India’s tally to three medals after the opening day of the competition.

The Arjun-Jeevan duo has secured the Challenger crown

 In the finals of the $82,000 Challenger tennis tournament held in Cuernavaca, Mexico, the third-seeded duo of Arjun
Kadhe and Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan defeated the second-seeded team of Piotr Matuszewski and Matthew Romios
with a score of 7-6(5), 6-4 to clinch the doubles title.
 The champion team collected $4665 and 75 ATP points.
 The runners-up got $2700 and 50 points.

Kagiso Rabada sets record for fastest 100 IPL wickets

 In a match between Punjab Kings and Gujarat Titans at IS Bindra Stadium, Kagiso Rabada made history by claiming
his 100th wicket in the Indian Premier League (IPL). This feat made him the fastest bowler to achieve this milestone,
doing so in just 64 IPL matches. Rabada, known for his right-arm pace bowling, surpassed the previous record held
by Lasith Malinga, who reached the 100-wicket mark in his 70th match. The pivotal wicket leading to Rabada's
achievement was that of Wriddhiman Saha.
About Kagiso Rabada:
Born: 25 May 1995 (age 28 years), Johannesburg, South Africa
Current teams: Punjab Kings (Cricket Bowler)
Parents: Mpho Rabada, Florence Rabada
Height: 1.91 m

Rohit Sharma becomes 2nd player after MS Dhoni to play 250 matches in IPL
 Rohit Sharma, the former captain of the Mumbai Indians, etched his name in the annals of Indian Premier League
(IPL) history by becoming only the second player to feature in 250 IPL matches.
 The only player ahead of him in terms of IPL appearances is the iconic MS Dhoni, who has graced the tournament
with 256 matches.

Max Verstappen wins first Chinese Grand Prix

 Max Verstappen of Red Bull Racing showcased sheer dominance at the eagerly anticipated Chinese Grand Prix,
securing a decisive victory and extending his lead in the 2024 World Championship. His win in this Formula One
race, the first in China in five years, was characterized by leading from start to finish, leaving no room for doubt
about his performance.

Gukesh Etches Name in Chess History as Youngest Challenger

 Indian chess prodigy Dommaraju Gukesh, at only 17 years old, achieved a historic milestone by winning the FIDE
Candidates tournament. This victory makes him the youngest-ever challenger in the history of the World Chess
Championship and the first teenager to claim this prestigious tournament title.

Casper Ruud won Barcelona Open; Rybakina clinched Stuttgart Open

 Casper Ruud, ranked World No. 6, secured a remarkable victory by defeating Stefanos Tsitsipas in the ATP Barcelona
Open 500 singles final. Ruud's 7-5, 6-3 victory marked a significant milestone in his professional career, earning him
his largest trophy yet.

Top 10 IPL wicket-takers from Chahal to Bumrah

 In the history of the Indian Premier League (IPL), many bowlers have made their mark with exceptional
performances. As the 2024 IPL progresses, let's explore the top 10 bowlers with the most wickets in the tournament.
Yuzvendra Chahal, the crafty leg-spinner of the Rajasthan Royals, leads the pack as the highest wicket-taker in IPL
history.

160
T20 World Cup ambassador Usain Bolt optimistic about cricket in USA
 Legendary sprinter Usain Bolt has been appointed as the official ambassador for the upcoming ICC Men’s T20 World
Cup, hosted by the West Indies and the United States from June 1 to 29. Bolt, renowned as the fastest man alive,
brings his cricket passion and worldwide appeal to energize the tournament and expand the sport's reach.

Yuvraj Singh Named ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024 Ambassador

Source: India Today

 The International Cricket Council (ICC) has announced the appointment of Indian cricket legend Yuvraj Singh as an
ambassador for the upcoming ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024.
 The announcement comes with just 36 days remaining until the highly anticipated global event for T20 cricket
commences.

Sana Mir Named Ambassador of ICC Women’s T20 World Cup Qualifier

Source: Crictracker
 The International Cricket Council (ICC) has announced the appointment of Pakistan cricket legend Sana Mir as the
ambassador for the upcoming ICC Women’s T20 World Cup Qualifier.
 The Women’s T20 World Cup Qualifier will witness 10 teams battling it out for two coveted spots at the ICC
Women’s T20 World Cup 2024 in Bangladesh.

Yakshagana Exponent Subrahmanya Dhareshwar Passes Away

Source: The Hindu

 The world of Yakshagana, a traditional theatre form of Karnataka, has lost a towering figure.
 Subrahmanya Dhareshwar, a senior and well-known Yakshagana ‘bhagavatha’ (background singer), passed away in
Bengaluru. He was 66 years old.

Indian athletes excel at 21st U-20 Asian Athletics Championship 2024

 India's athletes maintained their remarkable medal streak at the 21st U-20 Asian Athletics Championship 2024 as
Harshit Kumar secured a gold medal in the fiercely contested Hammer throw event. His exceptional throw of 66.7
meters earned India another prestigious gold at the championship.

Velavan Senthilkumar of India wins Batch Open Squash

 Velavan Senthilkumar of India clinched his eighth Professional Squash Association Tour title by winning the Batch
Open Challenger tournament. In the final, he defeated French player Melvil Scianimanico with scores of 11-6, 11-9,
11-6. This victory marked Senthilkumar's 12th appearance in a Professional Squash Association final. Ranked 58th
globally, he also triumphed over Hong Kong's Andes Ling in the semifinals with scores of 11-2, 11-1, 11-6 in just 22
minutes.

MS Dhoni Sets New IPL Record in CSK’s Dominant Win

 The Chennai Super Kings (CSK) clinched a commanding 78-run victory against the Sunrisers Hyderabad (SRH) on
Sunday, which could influence the course of both teams' 2024 Indian Premier League (IPL) journeys. This decisive
win notably improved CSK's net run rate, moving them to the third position in the league rankings. Conversely, SRH
faced their second consecutive loss, dropping to the fourth position.
About MS Dhoni:
Born: 7 July 1981 (age 42 years), Ranchi
Spouse: Sakshi Dhoni (m. 2010)
Parents: Pan Singh Dhoni, Devaki Devi
Awards: Padma Bhushan (2018), Padma Shri (2009), Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (2008)

161
 SUMMITS AND MOUS
UAE’s Masdar to Host World Future Energy Summit
 Masdar, the UAE’s prominent clean energy company, is set to host the World Future Energy Summit (WFES) from
April 16 to 18 at the Abu Dhabi National Exhibition Centre (ADNEC).
 The UAE Consensus agreed at COP28.
 Masdar aims to achieve a renewable energy portfolio capacity of 100GW by 2030.

EU-India Collaboration: Driving Innovation in EV Battery Recycling

 The European Union (EU) and India have embarked on a collaborative effort to nurture startups in the field of
Electric Vehicle (EV) battery recycling.
 This initiative is a direct outcome of the India-EU Trade and Technology Council (TTC) announced in April 2022,
aimed at enhancing cooperation in clean and green technologies.

PhonePe Partners with eSewa, HAN Pokhara to Promote UPI in Nepal

 PhonePe, in collaboration with eSewa and the Hotel Association of Nepal (HAN) Pokhara, is set to promote UPI
during the Fewa New Year Festival in Nepal.

BANKING & ECONOMY

Microsoft and OpenAI Unveil $100 Billion ‘Stargate’ AI Supercomputer
 Tech giants Microsoft and OpenAI have revealed plans to construct an unprecedented artificial intelligence
supercomputer known as “Stargate.”

MGNREGS Wage Rates Revised: Hikes Range between 4-10%

 The Union rural development ministry announced the revision of wages under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Scheme on March 27, following clearance from the Election Commission amidst the ongoing
Lok Sabha polls and the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) in force.
 Haryana boasts the highest wage rate for unskilled workers at Rs 374 per day.
 Conversely, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland have the lowest wage rates at Rs 234.

RBI Data Reveals: Credit Cards Breach 100 Million Mark in India
 As of December 2023, India witnessed a surge in credit card usage, with the total number crossing the 100 million
mark.
 In December 2023, the total number of outstanding credit cards reached 97.9 million, with a record addition of 1.9
million cards during the month alone.

UPI Ends FY24 with Record Transactions Worth ₹199 Lakh Crore
 Unified Payments Interface (UPI) concluded FY24 on a remarkable note, achieving new milestones in transaction
volume and value during March 2024.
 UPI transactions are expected to surpass 100 crore transactions per day by FY27, according to a report by PwC
India.

SEBI Unveils SCORES 2.0: Enhancing Investor Complaint Redress System

 The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has launched SCORES 2.0, an upgraded version of its Complaint
Redress System (SCORES), to strengthen mechanisms for addressing investor complaints.

‘One Vehicle, One FASTag’ Norm Implemented

 The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has introduced the ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag‘ norm, which aims to
prevent the use of a single FASTag for multiple vehicles or linking multiple FASTags to a particular vehicle.
 This new norm has come into effect from April 1, 2024.

162
World Bank Raises India’s Growth Projection: FY24 GDP at 7.5%
 The World Bank has revised India’s GDP growth projection for FY25 to 6.6%, indicating a moderate yet steady
growth trajectory.
 FY25 growth projection raised to 6.6% by the World Bank, reflecting a slight increase of 20 basis points.

PepsiCo’s Investment in Ujjain: A Game-Changer for Madhya Pradesh

 PepsiCo India announces a massive investment of ₹1,266 crore to establish a cutting-edge flavour manufacturing
facility in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
 Scheduled to commence operations in the first quarter of 2026.

India to Build First Commercial Crude Oil Strategic Storage

 India aims to bolster its strategic petroleum reserves (SPRs) by constructing its first privately managed storage
facility in partnership with a private company by 2029-30.

Adani Green Energy Ltd Surpasses 10,000 MW Operating Portfolio: Leading India’s Renewable Energy Sector
 Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) has achieved a significant milestone by surpassing 10,000 MW of renewable energy
capacity in its operational portfolio.
 AGEL has commissioned 2,000 MW of solar capacity at the Khavda solar park in Gujarat.
 This makes AGEL the first company in India to exceed the 10,000 MW mark in renewable energy capacity.

Government Approval of Onion Export to Friendly Countries

 In response to requests from friendly nations including Bangladesh, the United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Mauritius,
and Bhutan, the Indian government has granted approval for the export of onions.
 India, a significant global exporter of onions, had enforced a ban on onion exports in December 2023.
 India has agreed to export 50,000 tonnes of onions to Bangladesh, 550 tonnes to Bhutan, 3,000 tonnes to Bahrain,
1,200 tonnes to Mauritius, and 14,400 tonnes to the United Arab Emirates.

RBI Monetary Policy, Repo Rate to Remain Steady for Seventh Time
 RBI Monetary Policy Committee has decided by majority 5:1 to keep policy rates unchanged, Governor Shaktikanta
Das announced on April 5.

It is the first bi-monthly monetary policy of 2024-25. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor also announced MSF &
Bank rates to continue to be at 6.75%. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor has kept the policy rate unchanged at
6.5 per cent.

RBI Imposes Penalties on IDFC First Bank and LIC Housing Finance
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed monetary penalties on two financial institutions – IDFC First Bank and
LIC Housing Finance – for non-compliance with various regulations.
 The RBI has imposed a penalty of ₹1 crore on IDFC First Bank for non-compliance with certain directions on ‘Loans
and Advances – Statutory and Other Restrictions’.

RBI Postpones Implementation of New Rules for Exchange-Traded Forex Derivatives

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has deferred the implementation of new regulations governing exchange-traded
forex derivatives to May 3.
 The RBI rules by closing positions before April 5.
 India’s bond markets in global indexes from June onwards.

57 Companies Responsible for 80% of World’s Carbon Emissions

 According to a report released by the think tank ‘InfluenceMap’, just 57 companies are responsible for 80% of the
world’s carbon emissions from fossil fuels and cement over the past seven years.

HDFC Bank Becomes First Private Bank to Open Branch in Lakshadweep

 Private lender HDFC Bank has opened a branch at Kavaratti Island in Lakshadweep, making it the only private sector
bank to have a presence in the Union Territory.

163
About HDFC Bank:
CEO: Sashidhar Jagdishan (27 Oct 2020)
Founded: August 1994, Mumbai;
Headquarters: Mumbai.

Adani Green Energy Builds World’s Largest Renewable Energy Park in Khavda, Gujarat
 Adani Green Energy Limited, an Adani Group company, is building the world’s largest renewable energy park in
Khavda, Kutch district of Gujarat.
 According to Vineet Jain, Managing Director of Adani Green Energy, the total capacity of the Khavda plant will be 30
GW.

MUFG to Acquire 20% Stake in HDB Financial Services, Valuing at $9-10 Billion Pre-IPO
 In a significant move, Japan’s MUFG is set to purchase a 20% stake in HDB Financial Services, a subsidiary of India’s
HDFC Bank.
 Bank of Tokyo-Mitsubishi UFJ (MUFG) is making a significant investment by acquiring a substantial stake in HDB
Financial Services.

Ashneer Grover Ventures into Fintech with ZeroPe Medical Loan App
 Ashneer Grover is the co-founder and former managing director of the fintech company BharatPe.
 After his high-profile exit from BharatPe in 2022, Grover has now ventured into the fintech space again with a new
app called ZeroPe.

"IPPB Rolls Out Service Charges for AePS Transactions"

Source: Mint
 India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has implemented service charges for Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS)
transactions, effective from June 15, 2022. AePS is a bank-led model allowing online financial transactions at Point of
Sale (PoS) terminals through Aadhaar authentication, enabling various banking services.
"RBI Rejects Two More Applications for Small Finance Bank Establishment"

Source: Times now

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has rejected two more applications for setting up small finance banks: Dvara
Kshetriya Gramin Financial Services Private Limited and Tally Solutions Private Limited.
Dvara Kshetriya Gramin Financial Services applied for a small bank licence in April 2021 whereas Tally Solutions
had applied in August 2021.
About RBI :
Established: 1 April 1935
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Governor: Shaktikanta Das

Pakistan Tops Asia with Highest Cost of Living and 25% Inflation Rate: Asian Development Bank"
 The Asian Development Bank (ADB), based in Manila, reported that Pakistan's inflation rate is projected to reach
25% in the current fiscal year (2024), which is the highest among all Asian countries.
 With this inflation rate, Pakistan has become the most expensive nation in Asia, surpassing its previous status as the
highest in South Asia.
 The ADB's Asian Development Outlook forecasts a 15% inflation rate for Pakistan in the next fiscal year, which
remains the highest among 46 countries.
About ADB:
Established: 1966
Headquarters: Manila, Philippines
President: Masatsugu Asakawa
Membership: 68 members, including 49 regional members (countries in Asia and the Pacific) and 19 non-regional
members (countries outside the region)
Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance has introduced a premium payment option through WhatsApp

164
 The prominent private life insurer, Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance, has partnered with Meta (formerly Facebook) to
launch premium payment options on WhatsApp.
About Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance:
Founded: 2001
Headquarters: Pune, Maharashtra
MD & CEO : Tarun Chugh

SBI re-launches the 400-day 'Amrit Kalash' retail term deposit scheme
 State Bank of India (SBI), India's largest lender by assets, has reintroduced its retail term deposit scheme, Amrit
Kalash. The scheme features a special tenor of 400 days, offering an interest rate of 7.6% for senior citizens and
7.1% for others. Initially launched on February 15, 2023, and valid until March 31, 2023, the scheme has been
reintroduced to provide customers with another chance to benefit from SBI's attractive interest rates.
About SBI:
Chairperson: Dinesh Kumar Khara
Headquarters: Mumbai
Founded: 1 July 1955

The Rupee Vostro Account system facilitates foreign banks to transact in Indian rupees with domestic banks

Source: Times of India

 The Rupee Vostro Account system is a financial arrangement that allows foreign banks to transact in Indian rupees
with domestic banks. The term "vostro" originates from the Latin phrase "in nostro vostro," meaning "in our account,
in your account." Here, the domestic bank is the "vostro" bank, and the foreign bank is the "nostro" bank. Regulated
by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), this system enables foreign banks to maintain accounts with domestic banks,
streamlining trade and investment activities in India. It provides a secure and transparent platform for foreign banks
to conduct rupee transactions without needing a local branch in India.
About RBI:
Established: 1 April 1935
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Governor: Shaktikanta Das

RBI imposes Rs.60.3 lakh penalty on five co-operative banks

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has levied penalties totaling Rs. 60.3 lakh on five co-operative banks for violating various
regulatory norms. Among these, Rajkot Nagarik Sahakari Bank faced a penalty of Rs. 43.30 lakh for non-compliance with
RBI directives related to 'ban on loans and advances to directors and their relatives, and firms/concerns in which they are
interested', 'prohibition on opening saving bank accounts in the names of certain bodies/organizations', and 'maintenance
of deposit accounts'. Furthermore, The Kangra Co-operative Bank (New Delhi), Rajdhani Nagar Sahkari Bank (Lucknow),
and Zila Sahakari Bank, Garhwal (Kotdwar, Uttarakhand) were each penalized Rs. 5 lakh by the central bank. Additionally,
the District Co-operative Bank (Dehradun) incurred a penalty of Rs. 2 lakh.
About RBI:
Established: 1 April 1935
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Governor: Shaktikanta Das

India’s outward FDI declined 39% to $28.64 billion in FY24

In the fiscal year ending March 2024, India's overseas direct investment (FDI) saw a significant decline of 39% to $28.64
billion, as per RBI data. This decline is notable compared to the $46.96 billion FDI recorded in the previous fiscal year. Out
of the total FDI, $9.62 billion was invested through the equity route, constituting about 34% of the total financial
commitment in FY2024. Additionally, loan commitments decreased from $7.73 billion to $5.24 billion in the same period.
Indian companies also issued overseas guarantees amounting to $14 billion in FY2024, lower than the $20.09 billion
issued in FY2023. It's noteworthy that the highest outward FDI in FY2024 was observed in March.
About RBI:
Established: 1 April 1935
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Governor: Shaktikanta Das

165
RBI approves Cred for payment aggregator operations
 Bengaluru's fintech unicorn Cred has secured provisional approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for its
Payment Aggregation (PA) business. Upon securing final approval, Cred will be able to diversify its services,
extending beyond credit card bill payments to encompass merchant payments, placing it alongside companies such
as Razorpay.
About Cred:
Founded: 2018
Headquarters: Bangalore, Karnataka, India
CEO: Kunal Shah

About RBI:
Established: 1 April 1935
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Governor: Shaktikanta Das

Ashok Leyland and South Indian Bank collaborate for dealer financing solutions
 South Indian Bank has entered into an agreement with Ashok Leyland Limited to finance their dealers through the
Bank’s dealer finance program.
 Under this collaboration, the Bank will offer exceptional finance options to Ashok Leyland Limited's dealers.
 This partnership is geared towards assisting Ashok Leyland Limited's dealer partners in optimizing vehicle
inventory funding.
About Ashok Leyland:
Founded: 7 September 1948
Headquarters: Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India
Owned by: Hinduja Group

About South Indian Bank:

Founded: 1929
Headquarters: Thrissur, Kerala, India
MD & CEO: P. R. Seshadri
Tagline: Experience Next Generation Banking

SBI closed at Rs.766.1 with 2.6% monthly returns

 Yesterday, the State Bank of India closed at Rs.766.1, showing a 3-month return of 21.33%. This significant growth
reflects positive market sentiment towards the bank's performance, benefiting investors.
About SBI:
Chairperson: Dinesh Kumar Khara
Headquarters: Mumbai
Founded: 1 July 1955

Razorpay, Airtel Payments Bank launch UPI Switch, revolutionizing payments

 Razorpay and Airtel Payments Bank have launched the UPI Switch, a pioneering cloud-based infrastructure set to
transform digital payments. This innovative solution aims to boost success rates by 4-5% and process up to 10,000
transactions per second (TPS), providing businesses with unparalleled efficiency and scalability.

BharatPe introduces BharatPe One, revolutionizing payments

 BharatPe introduces BharatPe One, an all-in-one payment device reshaping digital transactions. This innovative
product combines POS, QR, and speaker features into a single device, offering unmatched convenience for both
merchants and customers.

RBI issues new guidelines for ARCs starting April 24, 2024
 The RBI has released a detailed master direction for asset reconstruction companies (ARCs), effective from April 24,
2024. These guidelines seek to improve the regulatory framework for ARCs, ensuring their financial stability and
efficacy in handling distressed assets.

166
Tata Power Solar partners with Indian Bank to boost rooftop solar installations
 Tata Power Solar Systems Limited (TPSSL) and Indian Bank have joined forces to promote solar rooftop systems in
residential properties. This collaboration intends to provide financing solutions for installations under the Pradhan
Mantri Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana scheme, including support for 3-10 KW installations under the regular scheme.
About Indian Bank:
Founded: 15 August 1907
Headquarters: Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India
MD & CEO: Shanti Lal Jain

RBI restricts Kotak Mahindra from online customer onboarding and new credit card issuance
 The RBI has instructed Kotak Mahindra Bank to halt the process of acquiring new customers via its online and
mobile banking platforms. According to the RBI's statement, issued under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act,
1949, the directive also includes suspending the issuance of new credit cards.
About Kotak Mahindra Bank:
Founder: Uday Kotak
Founded: 21 November 1985
Headquarters: Mumbai
CEO: Ashok Vaswani

Adani’s Vizhinjam Port Approved as India’s First Transshipment Hub

Source: The Economic times

 Adani Group’s Vizhinjam Port in Kerala has received approval from the government to operate as India’s inaugural
transshipment port.
 Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ) initiated the Vizhinjam transshipment project in 2015, with
a planned completion by 2019.

RBI Directs Talkcharge to Cease PPI Operations and Refund Balances

Source: Business Standard

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has instructed Talkcharge Technologies to halt the issuance and operation of its
Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) or wallets.

S&P Global Ratings: Banks may need to slow loan growth in FY25.
According to S&P Global Ratings, Indian banks are expected to maintain strong credit growth, profitability, and asset
quality in the current fiscal year due to robust economic growth. However, they may need to reduce their loan growth as
deposit growth, particularly in retail deposits, is not matching the pace. In the Asia-Pacific 2Q 2024 Banking Update, S&P
Global Ratings Director SSEA Nikita Anand stated that the sector's credit growth is anticipated to moderate to 14% in
FY25 from 16% in FY24 if deposit growth remains sluggish

Sensex and Nifty trade strong; bank stocks gain over 1%

 The Sensex and Nifty, India's benchmark indices, are showing strong trading trends. The Sensex has risen by 585.13
points to reach 74,315.29, while the Nifty has gained 120 points, reaching 22,539.95. Analysts expect a short-term
alignment with global markets and stress the importance of ongoing results on individual stocks. Arvinder Singh
Nanda from Master Capital Services Ltd highlights that the market's future depends on critical domestic and global
economic data, such as India's fiscal deficit, Q4FY24 results, and indicators like China's PMI and Euro Zone's CPI.

RBI's Guidelines for Voluntary Conversion of Small Finance Banks into Universal Banks
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released guidelines for the voluntary conversion of Small Finance Banks (SFBs)
into Universal Banks, effective immediately. These guidelines, titled "Guidelines for 'on-tap' Licensing of SFBs in
Private Sector," dated December 5, 2019, outline the pathway for SFBs to transition into universal banks.
About RBI :
Established : 1 April 1935
Headquarters : Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Governor : Shaktikanta Das

167
 MADHYA PRADESH
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)
BHOPAL

13th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

8:45 AM CLAT 2025

13th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

8:45 AM CLAT 2026

13th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Intelligent) |

8:45 AM CLAT 2026

13th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

13th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026
 JABALPUR

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2025

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2025

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2026

INDORE

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

10:30 AM CLAT 2026

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Intelligent) |

10:30 AM CLAT 2026

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025
 GWALIOR

20th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

20th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

5:00 PM CLAT 2025

20th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2026

Bhopal Centre: 127, 2nd and 3rd Floor, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal 910 910 8421

Jabalpur Center: 2nd Floor, above Indian Bank, MR4 Road Vijaynagar 910 910 8170

Indore Center: 3rd Floor, Gravity Tower, Janjeerwala Square, Opp. Agarawal Stores, Indore 910 910 8434

Gwalior Center: Building No. 15/16, 2nd Floor, Bansi Plaza, Patel Nagar, City Centre 788 010 2021
 RAJASTHAN
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)

JAIPUR(BAPU NAGAR)

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026

20th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

20th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

20th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026
 JAIPUR(VAISHALI NAGAR)

13th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

13th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

13th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026

27th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

27th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

27th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026
 JAIPUR (JLN) MARG

8th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

2:00 PM CLAT 2025

8th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

8th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026

JODHPUR

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 AM CLAT 2025

Jaipur - Bapu Nagar: S-17 Mangal Marg, Bapu Nagar 910 910 8430

Jaipur - Vaishali Nagar: Office no. 1 and 2, 1st Floor, Vaibhav Complex, Vaishali Nagar 910 910 8430

Jaipur - JLN Marg: Unit No. D, 1st Floor of Nawal Tower A-1, JLN Marg 910 910 8430

Jodhpur Center: B-13, Sector-B, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur, Rajasthan 910 910 8419
 MAHARASTRA
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)
NAVI MUMBAI

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2025

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2025

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2026

ANDHERI

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2025

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2025

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2026
 THANE

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2025

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2025

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

12:30 PM CLAT 2026

NAGPUR

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

11:30 AM CLAT 2025

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026

Navi Mumbai Center: 701, The Affaires Sector 17, Sanpada, Off Palm Beach Marg 900 498 0841

Andheri Center: 101, 1st Floor, Vertex Vikas building, MV road 900 498 0841

Thane Center: 301/302, 3rd Floor, Malhar & Ulhas CHS LTD., Dadapatil Wadi, Gokhale Road, Naupada 720 836 9556

Nagpur Center: Plot No. 68, 2nd Floor, Kate's Galaxy, Hill Road, Ram Nagar 910 910 8171
 UTTAR PRADESH
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)
KANPUR

20th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

11:00 AM CLAT 2025

20th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

20th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026

LUCKNOW (ALIGANJ)

14th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

12:10 PM CLAT 2025

LUCKNOW (HAZRATGANJ)

13th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:30 PM CLAT 2025
 PRAYAGRAJ

20th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

11:00 AM CLAT 2025

20th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026

Kanpur Center: 113/121 B 1st Floor, Swaroop Nagar 903 905 4942
Lucknow Center: B1/18, Sector-H, Near Mahalaxmi Sweets, Puraniya Chauraha, Aliganj, Lucknow 903 905 4728

Lucknow - Hazratganj: 4th floor, Shagun Palace, Above Starbucks, Sapru Marg 910 910 8172

Prayagraj Center: 56A/1A/1, Lal Bahadur Shastri Marg, Civil lines, Prayagyaj 951 117 1754
 CHATTISGARH
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)

RAIPUR

1st May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

11:00 AM CLAT 2025

1st May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:30 PM CLAT 2025

BHILAI

6th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2025

9th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2026

Raipur Center: 1st Floor, Gomti Tower, Opposite Olympus Gym, Shankar Nagar 982 610 8104
Bhilai Center: Shop No. 162, Near Miraj Cinemas, New Civic Centre 700 095 4770
 PUNJAB
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)

CHANDIGARH SEC36D

6th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

11:00 AM CLAT 2025

8th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

5:00 PM CLAT 2025

18th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

18th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2026

18th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

2:00 PM CLAT 2025

18th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

2:00 PM CLAT 2026
 CHANDIGARH SEC 8C

11th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2025

11th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

10:00 AM CLAT 2026

11th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2025

11th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

4:00 PM CLAT 2026

13th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

5:00 PM CLAT 2025

27th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

2:00 PM CLAT 2025

Chandigarh Center: SCO-6-7, Sec-8C above vanity, 2nd floor, Chandigarh 814 601 4766
 JHARKHAND
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)

RANCHI

6th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2026
"JHARKHAND "

13th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2025

13th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

3:00 PM CLAT 2025

Ranchi Center: Arcade Complex, 1st Floor, Circular Road, Lalpur 910 267 3728
 BIHAR
Offline Upcoming Batches (May 2024)
PATNA

14th May Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors) |

11:00 AM CLAT 2025

14th May Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters) |

5:00 PM CLAT 2025

14th May 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers) |

5:00 PM CLAT 2026

Patna Center: 3rd Floor, Govind Bhawan, Road, Dak Bunglow, Fraser Road Area, Patna 764 501 9145
 LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25
CLAT POST MOCK
TR ID. (In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120

1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy has response Sheet.
to be detached and taken by the candidates. 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question shading the circles. Indicate only the most
booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for appropriate answer by shading from the options
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. provided. The answer circle should be shaded
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet completely without leaving any space.
for a fresh booklet so obtained. 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance. to take necessary precautions before marking
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled the appropriate circle.
carefully. 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card duly
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be Signed by the invigilator, as the same has to be
sought on the Questions Paper produced at the time of Admission.
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. not fold.
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
shall result in the cancellation of his/her the space provided on the OMR response Sheet.
examination. Candidate should sign in the space provided on
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, the OMR response Sheet.
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
prosecuted. booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No., and
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law sign in the space/column provided in the
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 attendance sheet.
multiple Choice Questions. 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks will 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
be deducted for every wrong answer or where OMR response Sheet other than the details
candidates have marked more than one required and in the spaces provided for.
response.

168
 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The prospects for a political career in Germany for a thirty-year-old Austrian without friends or
funds, without a job, with no trade or profession or any previous record of regular employment, with no experience
whatsoever in politics, were less than promising, and at first, for a brief moment, Hitler realized it.

He had returned to Munich at the end of November 1918, to find his adopted city scarcely recognizable. Revolution
had broken out here too. Though a moderate Social Democratic government under the real power in Bavarian
politics passed to the Right.

What was the Right in Bavaria at this chaotic time? It was the Regular Army, the Reichswehr; it was the monarchists,
who wished the Wittelsbach back. It was a mass of conservatives who despised the democratic Republic established
in Berlin; and as time went on, it was above all the great mob of demobilized soldiers for whom the bottom had
fallen out of the world in 1918, uprooted men who could not find jobs or their way back to the peaceful society they
had left in 1914, men grown tough and violent through war who could not shake themselves from ingrained habit.

Armed free-corps bands (______) all over Germany and were secretly equipped by the Reichswehr. At first they were
mainly used to fight the Poles and the Balts on the disputed eastern frontiers, but soon they were backing plots for
the overthrow of the republican regime. In March 1920, one of them, the notorious Ehrhardt Brigade, led by a
freebooter, Captain Ehrhardt, occupied Berlin and enabled Dr. Wolfgang Kapp, a mediocre politician of the extreme
right, to proclaim himself Chancellor.

In Munich, at the same time a different kind of military coup d’etat was more successful. On March 14, 1920, the
Reichswehr overthrew the Hoffmann Socialist Government and installed a right-wing regime under Gustav von
Kahr. And now the Bavarian capital became a magnet for all those forces in Germany which were determined to
overthrow the Republic, set up an authoritarian regime. It was in this fertile field in Munich that Adolf Hitler got his
start.

When he had come back to Munich at the end of November 1918, he had found that his battalion was in the hands
of the “Soldiers’ Councils”. Shortly thereafter the Communist regime was overthrown, Hitler began what he terms
his “first more or less political activity”.

Apparently Hitler’s service on this occasion was considered valuable enough to lead the Army to give him further
employment. He was assigned to a job in the Press and News Bureau of the Political Department of the Army’s
district command. The German army, contrary to its traditions, was now deep in politics, especially in Bavaria, where
at last it had established a government to its liking. To further its conservative views, it gave the soldiers courses of
“political instruction”, in one of which Adolf Hitler was an attentive pupil. One day, according to his own story, he
intervened during a lecture in which someone had said a good word for the Jews. His anti-Semitic harangue
apparently so pleased his superior officers that he was soon posted to a Munich regiment as an educational officer,
a ‘Bildungsoffizier’, whose main task was to combat dangerous ideas – pacifism, socialism, democracy; such was the
Army’s conception of its role in the democratic Republic it had sworn to serve.

This was an important break for Hitler, the first recognition he had won in the field of politics he was now trying to
enter.

1. Going by the passage, which of the following is one (a) They sprang up all over Germany and were
of Hitler’s ideologies that led him to rise in power? secretly equipped by the Reichswehr.
(a) Anti-Semitism (b) Democracy (b) They overthrew the Hoffman socialist
(c) Socialism (d) Pacifism government and installed a right wing regime.
(c) Initially, they were used to fight the Poles and
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Balts on the disputed eastern frontier.
the armed free corps? (d) One of the Armed free corps, led by Captain
Ehrhardt, occupied Berlin.

169
3. Which among the following ultimately represented 5. ‘Armed free-corps bands (______) all over Germany
the Right wing in Bavaria as political chaos and were secretly equipped by the Reichswehr.’
prevailed? Which of the following expression will fill in the
(a) The monarchists. blank accurately to make the sentence coherent?
(b) The Reichswehr. (a) Beefed up. (b) Sprang up.
(c) The great mob of demobilized soldiers. (c) Pulled up. (d) Eked out.
(d) Conservatives.
6. What were the armed free-corps bands mentioned
4. As inferred from the passage, the German Army in the passage primarily used for?
promoted its conservative views (a) Fighting against the Regular Army
(a) through press and news bureau. (b) Supporting the republican government in Berlin
(b) by giving courses in political instruction for (c) Opposing right-wing politicians like Dr. Wolfgang
soldiers. Kapp
(c) by encouraging revolutions to fulfil its desire to (d) Engaging in conflicts on disputed eastern
establish revolutions as a permanent condition. frontiers
(d) by setting up an authoritarian regime.

Passage (Q.7-Q.12): I will be going back to my village tomorrow. My brother has died,” our cook announced matter-
of-factly. “Oh no!” I exclaimed, my hands instinctively coming up to my heart as I connected with his inevitably deep
grief. “I’m so sorry. That’s horrible. Is there anything I can do for you?”
“Anyway, he was old, and it is all in God’s plan,” he replied stoically, definitely not reeling in the ocean of grief I’d
expected.
Moored to my western understanding about life, death seems like a horrible calamity. Unless, of course, one is very
sick and suffering, any death before a very ripe old age, meaning late 80s or even 90s, is a grave tragedy.
In India, however, life is seen as that which we are compelled to endure in order to fulfil our karmic debts, to eat the
metaphoric fruits of our past karma, with the ultimate goal being freedom from the cycle of life, and eternal merging
into God.
I have found myself struck, again and again, by Indians’ ability to walk toward death so freely, even eagerly.
In the west, we tend to see illness and death as a failure. We even see ageing as a failure.
This collective aversion to the inevitable is largely due to the separate boxes we’ve stuffed life and death into.
Funerals are either closed casket or the deceased is dressed up and beautified so completely that they look like
they’re going to the prom rather than into a grave. We have clear-cut boundaries between places of grieving and
places of celebration, times of grieving and times of rejoicing, times and places where we whisper or wail about
death, while the rest of the time we pretend it’s only one of several options.
In India, cremations take place at cremation ghats, or riverbanks, and the fires and smoke are seen by all around.
Death is woven seamlessly into the fabric of life.
Here, in India, sadness at the loss of a loved one feels more like a wave on the surface of the ocean, turbulent for a
while but mitigated by the mourners’ anchoring in the peace and stillness of the depths of the ocean. They seem to
have an inherent grounding in ‘This is all God’s plan. We must accept it.’
A lot of this, of course, is due to theological differences in cultures. In the Hindu tradition, while the loss of a loved
one is sad for us, ultimately it is seen as good for the deceased, for they have walked one step closer to merging with
God.
But the biggest difference is the belief that ultimately we are not our bodies. And as Krishn says in the Bhagwad Gita,
we are the eternal soul, that which cannot be burnt by fire, wet by water, dried by the wind, or cut with knives. So,
while in the midst of grief it is hard for anyone to be philosophical, nonetheless that awareness, that cultural and
spiritual river of Knowing flows beneath and through the grief, enabling an awareness that we won’t be going
anywhere, and it will be merely like moving from one room to another room.

7. We can infer from the passage that (c) The author believes that the theological
(a) The author is a Christian with a deep ideologies of India and the west have common
understanding of Indian religion. threads.
(b) The author is a westerner residing in India. (d) The author is highly influenced by the Indian
culture.

170
8. ‘Moored to my western understanding about life, 10. In India, which of the following helps to understand
death seems like a horrible calamity.’ What does the death based on theological perspective?
underlined word mean in the context of the passage? (a) Aversion. (b) Acceptance.
(a) Tied. (b) Secured. (c) Communication. (d) Ideology.
(c) Linked. (d) Chained.
11. Which of the following reflects the most appropriate
9. What is the author trying to communicate? title for the passage?
(a) Unlike the West, death in India is seen as woven (a) The Perception of Life and Death.
seamlessly into the fabric of life with the deeply (b) Ideological and Cultural Differences.
entrenched belief that the soul is immortal. (c) God’s Plan.
(b) The West perceives death shallowly and in a (d) Life, Death and the River of Knowing.
compartmentalized manner with a collective
aversion towards it. 12. Where is this passage likely sourced from?
(c) The theological differences in cultures of West (a) A memoir of a traveler's experiences in India
and India are stark, especially concerning the (b) An article discussing cultural perspectives on
outlook towards death. life and death
(d) For the author, death is some kind of spiritual (c) A philosophical treatise on Hindu beliefs
and cultural osmosis, the absolute readiness to (d) A fictional story set in a Western country
go at any moment, the conscious surrender to
whatever is God’s plan.

Passage (Q.13-Q.18): They look like mirrors: 32 rectangles neatly arranged in eight rows on the rooftop of a
supermarket called Grocery Outlet in Stockton, California. Shimmering beneath a bright sky, at first glance they
could be solar panels, but the job of this rig is quite different. It keeps the store from overheating. Tilted toward the
sun, the panels absorb almost none of the warmth beating down on them; they even launch some into space,
improving the performance of the systems that keep things inside cold. The feat relies on a phenomenon called
radiative cooling: Everything on Earth emits heat in the form of invisible infrared rays that rise skyward. At night,
in the absence of mercury-raising daylight, this can chill something enough to produce ice. When your car's
windshield frosts over, even if the thermometer hasn't dipped below freezing? That's radiative cooling in action. To
Aaswath Raman, who was a key mind behind Grocery Outlet's shiny tiles, that effect seemed like an opportunity.
"Your skin, your roof, the ground, all of them are cooling by sending their heat up to the sky," he says.

Raman, is the co-founder of SkyCool Systems, a start-up trying to flip the script on the technology we depend on to
create chill. As the world warms, demand for air conditioning and refrigeration is going up. But these systems
themselves expel a tremendous amount of heat, and the chemical compounds they use can escape skyward, where
they act as a planet-warming greenhouse gas. According to the Birmingham Energy Institute in the UK, these
substances and the power involved accounted for at least 11 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions in 2018.
By 2050, more than 4.5 billion air conditioners (A) / 40 percent of all electricity (B) / are projected to
consume nearly (C) / and 1.6 billion refrigerators (D). If it goes mainstream, SkyCool's tech - and similar
approaches in the works from competitors and other researchers - could slow the cycle by naturally lowering
building temperatures and easing the energy burden on conventional methods.

13. The rig installed on the rooftop of a Grocery Outlet (c) The design works as per the phenomenon of
in Stockton works on a specific principle. Which of radiative cooling: the process by which a body
the following reflects the one? loses heat and cools down.
(a) The feat that is there on the rooftop of a Grocery (d) The device installed on the rooftop of a Grocery
Outlet works on a phenomenon called radiative Outlet in Stockton relies on radiative cooling: the
cooling: the process by which a body absorbs process by which a body absorbs moisture from
heat to stay warm. the environment to keep itself cool.
(b) The rig installed on the rooftop of a Grocery
Outlet in Stockton works as per the radiative 14. Which 'opportunity' does the statement, ‘To
cooling: the process by which various bodies Aaswath Raman, who was a key mind behind
absorb heat from the surrounding to keep the Grocery Outlet's shiny tiles, that effect seemed like
environment cool. an opportunity’, talk about?

171
 (a) Raman thought he had a chance to build his own parts to form a meaningful sentence and choose the
company. option that represents the correct arrangement.
(b) By applying the principles of radiative cooling by (a) BCAD (b) CBDA
naturally slowing down the cycle of rising (c) CDAB (d) ADCB
temperature of the earth by taking down the
burden from mother nature. 17. SkyCool Systems, Raman's start-up has the goal to
(c) By seeing an opportunity to install solar panels 'flip' which script?
over his own grocery store by applying the (a) Increase the production of air conditioners and
principles of radiative cooling. refrigerators.
(d) Raman saw establishing a manufacturing plant (b) SkyCool Systems have enabled radiative cooling
of air conditioners and refrigerators, as an in special types of air conditioners and
opportunity. refrigerators.
(c) Overturn our dependency on technologies like
15. In the given passage, what does the phrase 'mercury- air conditioning and refrigeration to create chill.
raising' mean? (d) Raman has a plan to create new air conditioners
(a) Moving. (b) Chilly. and refrigerators using the old ones.
(c) Lifeless. (d) Hot.
18. What is the tone of the passage?
16. In the passage, a sentence is highlighted, divided into (a) critical and skeptical
four parts and jumbled, which when arranged will (b) optimistic and innovative
form a logical and coherent sentence. Rearrange the (c) analytical and scientific
(d) emotional and personal

Passage (Q.19-Q.24): There is no doubt as to democracy’s advantage on matters like individual rights or rule of
law. Still, discussions about which system is more effective in addressing major national challenges draw heavy
attention, especially given China’s world-shaking rise and deepening frustration in the West over political infighting.

Now two simultaneous crisis — climate change and the pandemic — are putting governments to the test. Their
performances are being scrutinized in a number of studies, with this result: While democracies do perform slightly
better on average in dealing with these problems, neither democracy nor an authoritarian system has shown a clear
and consistent edge.

Sweeping theories for the supposed advantages of one system or the other has been of little help in predicting how
these crises would play out.

It was once widely held, for instance, that authoritarian nations like China would, because of their centralized
authority and generational timelines for plans, be uniquely equipped to tackle challenges like climate change.

But Beijing’s pledges for reducing greenhouse gasses have been thwarted by political infighting and short-term
imperatives of just the sort that China’s propagandists say are characteristic of democracies.

At the same time, while some democracies have excelled in dealing with climate-related matters, others have
struggled, particularly the United States, which this month saw yet another climate plan collapse amid congressional
gridlock.

And than there is the pandemic.

Predictions that democracy’s transparency and sensitivity to public opinion would make them better equipped to
handle the virus have fared poorly. So have declarations that authoritarian systems would excel because of their
ability to move decisively and proactively; many did not.

Multiple studies have found that both systems have, on average, performed roughly the same in managing the
pandemic, going by metrics like excess deaths.

172
 Democracies have done slightly better. But experts stress that this small gap may not reflect that democracies are
better equipped but rather that countries with, for example, stronger health systems may be likelier to be
democratic.

Either system can function effectively, as the pandemic has shown, with individual democracies and authoritarian
governments alike among the world’s best performers in slowing the virus’s spread.

And either system can falter, as with China’s pushing pandemic restrictions to the point of cratering its own
economy, or the U.S.’ climate plans collapsing under the opposition of a senator who represents one-half of 1% of
the population.

This undermines theories that either system wields an innate advantage in certain crises, but it hints at another
lesson: (______________)

19. What can be inferred from the expression ‘sweeping IV. Predictions that democracy's transparency and
theories’? sensitivity to public opinion would make them
(a) Taking a general idea and applying it too better equipped to handle the virus have fared
widely, without allowing exceptions. poorly.
(b) Taking an idea and applying it wholesale, with (a) I and IV (b) Only II
scientific evidence. (c) Only IV (d) I and III
(c) Taking in a specific idea and applying it to
various situations. 22. Which of the following is the synonym for the word
(d) Grasping an idea from different sources and ‘gridlock’ in the context of the passage?
making generalised viewpoints. (a) Impasse (b) Back-up
(c) Clearance (d) Bottleneck
20. Which of the following presents a faulty
understanding of the passage? 23. Which of the following options will be a fit for the
(a) No particular regime, democratic or concluding lesson?
authoritative, is outshining exclusively in (a) The prevailing threats to democracy and
combating climate change and the pandemic authoritarianism alike might come from each
crises. other.
(b) Climate change due to the pandemic is (b) The prevailing threats to democracy and
challenging governments’ merits. authoritarianism alike might come from
(c) Democracies may fare slightly better because of weaknesses within.
more robust health systems. (c) The prevailing threats to democracy and
(d) The West is going through internal political authoritarianism alike might not come from
turmoil. each other but from other systems.
(d) The prevailing threats to democracy and
21. Four statements from the passage are presented. authoritarianism alike might not come from
Select the ones that are grammatically coherent. each other but from weaknesses within.
I. Now two simultaneous crisis — climate change
and the pandemic — are putting governments 24. What figure of speech is used in the following
to the test. sentence from the passage: "It was once widely held,
II. Sweeping theories for the supposed advantages for instance, that authoritarian nations like China
of one system or the other have been of little would, because of their centralized authority and
help in predicting how these crises would play generational timelines for plans, be uniquely
out. equipped to tackle challenges like climate change."
III. And than there is the pandemic. (a) Simile (b) Metaphor
(c) Hyperbole (d) Personification

173
 SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Passage (Q.25-Q.30): World AIDS Day 2023 – events in Geneva and around the world
On 1st December, WHO, together with communities and partners will commemorate World AIDS Day 2023, under
the theme “[1]”

Communities living with, and affected by, HIV, networks of people from key populations and youth leaders have
been, and continue to be, essential for progress in the HIV response. They provide essential prevention, testing and
treatment support services, build trust, generate innovative solutions, promote health, monitor the implementation
of policies and programmes, and hold providers accountable.

The world can end AIDS with communities leading the way. That is why the theme for World AIDS Day this year is
‘Let communities lead’, and much more than a celebration of the achievements of communities, it is a call to action
to enable and support communities in their leadership roles.

On World AIDS Day 2023, WHO celebrates and recognizes the invaluable contributions of communities in leading
the response to HIV.

On World AIDS Day, WHO will launch the 2nd edition of the Digital adaptation kit (DAK) for HIV: Operational
requirements for implementing WHO recommendations within digital systems. DAKs are part of the WHO SMART
guidelines initiative and are designed to ensure WHO’s recommended health and data content are accurately
reflected in the digital systems that countries adopt. A global webinar to present an overview of this second edition
will take place on 7 December.

On World AIDS Day 2023, WHO Regional Office for Africa will be joining Winnie Byanyima, UNAIDS Executive
Director, in Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe, as well as government officials and leaders of the HIV response in Zimbabwe
to commemorate the many lives lost to AIDS. In the afternoon, they will pay a visit to a community led initiative
enabling key populations to access services.

Activities for World AIDS Day in Zimbabwe will be followed by ICASA, the 22nd edition of the largest HIV conference
in Africa, from 4 – 9 December in Harare. WHO will have a leading role in the conference, including the participation
in the opening ceremony, convening 10 satellite sessions and engaging with communities and people living with or
affected by HIV attending the conference.
Ref- https://www.who.int/news-room/events/detail/2023/12/01/default-calendar/world-aids-day-2023-
events-in-geneva-and-around-the-world

25. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage? (d) HIV and Human Rights: Political action to
(a) shared responsibility achieve zero stigma
(b) Let communities lead
(c) Global solidarity 28. Where is headquarters of the World Health
(d) End inequalities, End AIDS Organization located?
(a) London (b) Geneva
26. Who is the Present WHO Regional Director for (c) Singapore (d) Paris
Europe?
(a) Dr. Mónica García 29. What of the following is described in the passage?
(b) Christine Stegling (a) WHO's achievements in HIV response
(c) Dr. Hans Kluge (b) Digital systems in healthcare
(d) Dr. William Clerk (c) World AIDS Day 2023 and community
leadership
27. What is the theme of the commemorative act hosted (d) HIV prevention strategies
by the European Parliament on 1st December?
(a) Achieving Global Health Equity 30. Which country did hosted ICASA, the 22nd edition of
(b) Ending AIDS in Europe the largest HIV conference in Africa?
(c) Political Action for Human Rights (a) South Africa (b) Zimbabwe
(c) Nigeria (d) Kenya

174
 Passage (Q.31-Q.36): Project Arth Ganga
Arth Ganga is an initiative added recently to the Namami Ganga Program launched by the Government in [X]. It was
decided in the meeting of National Ganga Council (NGC) held on 14th December 2019 to launch a new concept as
the name Arth Ganga, which is a sustainable and viable economic development model to strengthen the river-people
connect through an economic bridge. Accordingly, it was decided that the Namami Gange mission should lead the
concept of Arth Ganga with the involvement of different ministries/departments and other stakeholders, institution
& community organization. So it was added as a vertical of Namami Ganga Program, in addition to the 4 verticals –
Nirmal Ganga, Aviral Ganga, Jan Ganga and Gyan Ganga, existing till then.

Six pillars of Arth-Ganga identified are: Promotion of Natural Framing on 5 kms band either side of River Ganga;
Monetisation and reuse of Treated water and sludge from the STPs; Improvement of Livelihood opportunities,
particularly for women; Promotion of Tourism and Cultural heritage; People’s Participation and Building of
capacities and institutions. Implementation of these initiatives is aimed to develop sustainable development model
with focus on economic activities related to river Ganga. Several activities under Arth Ganga have been taken up by
National Mission for Clean Ganga in coordination with various ministries/departments and other stakeholders, to
achieve the goal.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1984940

31. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? 34. A court in the northern Indian state of _______ ordered
(a) 2017 (b) 2016 on that the Ganges and its main tributary, the
(c) 2014 (d) 2018 Yamuna, be accorded the status of living human
entities.
32. Consider the following statements: (a) Himachal Pradesh
I PM Modi first introduced the concept during the (b) Uttarakhand
first National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur (c) Punjab
in 2019, where he urged for a shift from Namami (d) Rajasthan
Gange, the Union Government’s flagship project
to clean the Ganga, to the model of Arth Ganga. 35. Which of the following is NOT one of the six verticals
II Under Arth Ganga, the government is working under the Arth Ganga model?
on six verticals. The first is Zero Budget Natural (a) Zero Budget Natural Farming
Farming, which involves chemical-free farming (b) Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater
on 10 km on either side of the river, and the (c) Promotion of Yoga and Meditation
promotion of cow dung as fertiliser through the (d) Livelihood Generation Opportunities
GOBARdhan scheme.
(a) Only I is correct. 36. The second vertical under Arth Ganga focuses on the
(b) Only II is correct. Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater.
(c) Both I & II are incorrect. What is its objective?
(d) Both I & II are correct. (a) Revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies
(b) Construction of dams
33. Who is the current Director General of the National (c) Promotion of water pollution
Mission for Clean Ganga? (d) Urbanization of riverbanks
(a) Asok Kumar (b) Ajay Kumar
(c) Vinay Kumar (d) Rajeev Kumar

Passage (Q.37-Q.42): SCO Summit 2023

India is virtually hosting the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit on Tuesday. Chinese President Xi
Jinping, Pakistan PM Shehbaz Sharif, and Russian President Vladimir Putin are also participating in the summit. The
SCO was formed by China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan in 2001. It is a Eurasia political, economic,
international security and defence organisation that counters western influence in Eurasia.This year the meeting is
chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi with issues including terrorism, regional security, Ukraine war, and
prosperity on the agenda. The theme of the SCO summit 2023 is ‘SECURE’ which stands for security, economic
development, connectivity, unity, respect for sovereignty and territorial integrity, and environmental protection.
During the SCO summit, PM Modi spoke on the importance of unity and cooperation among member countries
during his address. He stated that the SCO is an extended family and shared India's vision for the summit. This

175
 included security, economic development, connectivity, unity, respect for sovereignty and territorial integrity, and
environmental protection.
https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/pm-modi-chairs-sco-summit-2023-here-s-what-all-happened-
in-the-meet-123070400623_1.html

37. Which country officially joined the SCO as the Ninth (a) South Africa (b) China
Member Country during the 23rd SCO Summit in (c) India (d) Brazil
2023?
(a) Armenia (b) Cambodia 41. Where is the main headquarters of the SCO Regional
(c) Iran (d) Mongolia Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) located?
(a) Moscow, Russia
38. What event did India host as part of its SCO (b) Bishkek, Kyrgyz Republic
presidency in February 2023? (c) Tashkent, Uzbekistan
(a) SCO Economic Summit (d) Beijing, China
(b) SCO Tourism Mart
(c) SCO Cultural Festival 42. Which international treaty governs the objectives,
(d) SCO Trade Expo functions, financing, and rules of procedure of the
SCO Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)?
39. Which of the following countries is not an observer (a) SCO Charter
state of the SCO as of 2023? (b) Shanghai Convention on Combating Terrorism
(a) Afghanistan (b) Belarus (c) Treaty of Tashkent
(c) Mongolia (d) Turkey (d) Bishkek Agreement

40. Which country hosted the 15th BRICS summit in

August 2023?

Passage (Q.43-Q.48): BIMSTEC

On 6 June, the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) completed
26 years since its inception. Established in 1997, the regional grouping initially consisted of India, Thailand,
Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka. The agenda of BIMSTEC was to promote economic cooperation and integration between
the littoral and island countries of the Bay of Bengal and integrate the South and Southeast Asian economies.
Membership was later expanded to include Myanmar, Nepal, and Bhutan and the agenda broadened to include
security and developmental considerations. Throughout the span of 26 years, the regional grouping certainly has
had its hits and misses, but the world is no longer unipolar as it was when the BIMSTEC was created. Today, regional
powers are playing a major role in shaping the global economy and addressing new security challenges. This offers
new opportunities and challenges for the grouping and also calls for its robust institutionalisation. Even after its
inception, BIMSTEC remained in a stupor for a long time. But as SAARC’s dysfunctionality became more evident in
2014 and the Bay of Bengal region grew in economic and strategic prominence, the South Asian BIMSTEC members
began to push for economic integration and connectivity via the regional grouping.

43. Which country hosted the Sixth Indian Ocean (c) Cybersecurity threats, environmental fallout,
Conference in May 2023 under the theme, Peace, and underemployment and investment
Prosperity and Partnership for a Resilient Future? insecurity
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (d) Forex reserves, recession, and forex declines
(c) Bangladesh (d) Maldives
45. Which city hosts the permanent secretariat of
44. What challenges have exacerbated issues for BIMSTEC?
BIMSTEC countries, including supply chain (a) Bangkok (b) Dhaka
disruption, economic fallout, and energy insecurity? (c) New Delhi (d) Colombo
(a) Water scarcity, and institutionalization
(b) Russia-Ukraine conflict, food inflation, and 46. Which city hosted the BIMSTEC Business Conclave in
humanitarian crises June 2023 to commemorate 25 years of BIMSTEC?
(a) Dhaka (b) Bangkok
(c) Kathmandu (d) Kolkata

176
 (d) World Food Programme (WFP)
47. Which international organization signed an MoU
with the BIMSTEC Secretariat at the 2nd BIMSTEC 48. What initiative has been proposed but not yet
Agriculture Ministers meeting in November 2022? implemented to address funding issues in BIMSTEC?
(a) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) (a) Fiscal Optimization
(b) International Food Policy Research Institute (b) Development Fund
(IFPRI) (c) Resource Allocation
(c) International Fund for Agricultural (d) Strategic Formulation
Development (IFAD)

Passage (Q.49-Q.52): NASA's Roman Space Telescope

NASA is mobilizing the scientific community to ensure the agency's next big space telescope will be ready to deliver
a "big picture" view of the universe almost immediately after launching. The Nancy Grace Roman Telescope — also
known as the Roman Space Telescope, or just Roman — is set to launch in [1] and will view the cosmos with a
staggeringly wide field of view. Its big-picture observations of distant and early galaxies could help scientists solve
the mysteries of dark matter and dark energy. Collectively, this so-called dark universe accounts for 95% of the
energy and matter in the cosmos, yet the true nature of dark matter and dark energy eludes scientists.

The work of the scientific community could help Roman's operators deal with the deluge of data it delivers when it
opens its eyes to tackle these mysteries and hunt for planets outside the solar system. By supporting the existing
infrastructure calibrating Roman, this effort will maximize the scientific potential of the instrument, which began as
the Wide Field Infrared Survey Telescope before being renamed in honor of Nancy Grace Roman, NASA's first chief
astronomer. Roman's view of the cosmos is so vast that the telescope will collect tremendous amounts of raw data
consisting of trillions of individual measurements of stars and galaxies over the course of its five-year primary
mission.
Ref- https://www.space.com/roman-space-telescope-scientists-preparing-2027-launch

49. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage? (a) Rajeev Kumar
(a) 2025 (b) 2027 (b) S. Somanath
(c) 2030 (d) 2024 (c) Arun Kumar singh
(d) Kailasavadivoo Sivan
50. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA) is an independent agency of the___________. 52. ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee
(a) France governmental agency for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the
(b) Indian governmental agency Government of India in 1962, as envisioned by ______.
(c) china’s governmental agency (a) Homi J. Bhabha
(d) U.S. governmental agency (b) C. V. Raman
(c) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
51. Who out of the following is the current Chairman of (d) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
ISRO?

177
 SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING

Passage (Q.53-Q.58): Recovery of weapon used for the commission of crime is not a sine qua non (essential
condition) for convicting an accused, the Delhi High Court recently reaffirmed.

The judge noted that the argument that the weapon of offence in a case of attempt to murder/culpable homicide
charges was not recovered has no merit as the testimonies of the complainant and his brother were cogent and
consistent.

Given the nature and extent of injuries on the victim in the instant case, the single-judge observed that the
ingredients of the offence punishable under Section 307 IPC i.e. attempt to murder should be proved against the
appellant beyond any shadow of doubt. "In view of the fact that the complainant was medically examined within 45
minutes of the incident, the contention bears no merit and is rejected," the Court held.

"As observed and held by this Court in catena of decisions nobody can enter into the mind of the accused and his
intention has to be ascertained from the weapon used, part of the body chosen for assault and the nature of the injury
caused. Considering the case on hand on the aforesaid principles, when the deadly weapon - dagger has been used, there
was a stab injury on the stomach and near the chest which can be said to be on the vital part of the body and the nature
of injuries caused, it is rightly held that the appellants have committed the offence under Section 307 IPC i.e. attempt
to murder.”

The Court took note of the pre-existing enmity between the appellant and the complainant, the fact that the
complainant had suffered two injuries during the incident, and observed that the nature of the injury was grievous
indicating that the appellant had the requisite intention and knowledge that such injuries could have been fatal. In
IPC it has also been mentioned that where death is caused by bodily injury, the person who causes such bodily injury
shall be deemed to have caused the death, although by resorting to proper remedies and skilful treatment the death
might have been prevented. Though person may use reasonable force to protect himself under self-defence if
required in such situation.

53. A was running after H with a machete in hand with (a) No, as he did not intend to murder B
murderous intent and had finally cornered him in an (b) Yes, as his actions caused B his life.
alley and was about to commit the offence. However, (c) No, as the nature of the injury is not grave and
as A struck the blow, H dodged and ran from under murder cannot be discernibly charged here.
him but not before being gashed open in the (d) Yes, as A had murderous intent which took B’s
shoulder. This led to H running to a hospital, by life and shall be duly charged for the same.
which time he had lost a lot of blood and was on the
verge of passing out. However, even after arduous 55. Saya was murdered on the Meerut highway and his
attempts of the hospital authorities, H could not be corpse was not found for the next two days. Once
saved. Would A be liable for murder here? recovered, it was sent for examination and the
(a) Yes, as H died due to the shoulder wound caused report returned incomplete findings due to passage
due to A’s actions. of the 2 days. However, it was found that Maya had
(b) No, as H died due to excessive blood loss and not purchased degradable and quick dissolving poison,
the wound primarily. which was with him that night. Later it was found
(c) No, as H succumbed to the injury much later and that Saya had duped Maya out of 2 lakh rupees in the
not via the act. previous month and Maya was bitter at the same.
(d) Yes, as A had the intent, injurious weapon and Can Maya be discernibly convicted of murder here?
wound caused by A enough to hold him liable for (a) No, as there is incomplete evidence of there been
murder. any poisoning here.
(b) No, as the report has not mentioned anything
54. In the above case, had A had the intent to murder H, with regards to the poison.
and had he cornered H in order to do so, but had (c) Yes, as there is a clear chain of events that can be
wrongly dealt the injury to B’s neck, who was drawn from the facts.
standing next to H, would A be liable for murder (d) Yes, as Maya clearly had the intent, the means
here? and the opportunity to murder Saya.

178
 grabbed the pickaxe and threw it at the loan shark.
56. Sumit, a 17 year old boy was being tried for allegedly This resulted in him being badly injured and
having murdered his classmate, Arvind, on account succumbing to the injuries after being rushed to the
of Arvind having died in the bathroom when Sumit hospital. Can Subhash be held liable for murder
was there. Guard has seen sumit coming out of here?
washroom with stains over shirt. Upon the body (a) No, as the intent behind throwing the tool was
being found by the security, a small compass was self-defense and not murder.
also found near the body and as per medical reports (b) Yes, as the action of throwing a deadly weapon
a large wound in the spine of Arvind was discerned at a person is tantamount to murder.
as the reason for him bleeding out to death. While (c) Yes, as the action of self-defense has not been
considering these facts at hand, the court also noted defined in law.
that while the compass belonged to Sumit, no more (d) No, as the loan shark finally died due to bleeding
evidence for his conviction could be collected. Can out and not due to the tool being thrown.
the court hold Sumit as guilty here?
(a) No, as there is no intent on his part to be 58. In the above case, had Subhash not thrown a pickaxe,
convicted. but had merely thrown a lathi at his leg without
(b) No, as no evidence pertaining to his conviction knowing that he had osteoporosis (weak bones),
has been noted to be present here. resulting in him suffering severe fractures leading to
(c) Yes, as the evidence is clearly present in the form the loan shark stumbling and then falling into a 20
of the compass and the spine-wound. feet deep pit, resulting in his death, would then
(d) Yes, as the evidence points toward mal-intent Subhash had been liable for murder?
and act on the part of Sumit. (a) No, as the loan shark died due to his own fault,
i.e, having the intent to murder.
57. Subhash was being chased by a loan shark for (b) No, as the loan shark was suffering from a
recovery of the money that he had borrowed from disease and died due to the same.
the shark but had defaulted on. While being chased, (c) No, as the contents of the offence of murder have
the loan shark decided to lure him into running into not been met yet.
an isolated construction park, where Subhash, while (d) No, as the intent behind throwing the lathi was
running, fell over. To his dismay, Subhash started not merely faze the aggressor and not
reaching for the shovel nearby in order to attack the incapacitate him completely.
goon and in hastiness in self-defence, he absently

Passage (Q.59-Q.62): Section 311 CrPC empowers the court to summon a material witness, or to examine a person
present at “any stage” of “any enquiry”, or “trial”, or “any other proceedings” under CrPC, or to summon any person
as a witness, or to recall and re-examine any person who has already been examined if his evidence appears to it, to
be essential to the arrival of a just decision of the case. Undoubtedly, CrPC has conferred a very wide discretionary
power upon the court in this respect, but such a discretion is to be exercised judiciously and not arbitrarily. The
power of the court in this context is very wide, and in exercise of the same, it may summon any person as a witness
at any stage of the trial, or other proceedings. The court is competent to exercise such power even suo motu if no
such application has been filed by either of the parties. However, the court must satisfy itself, that it was in fact
essential to examine such a witness, or to recall him for further examination in order to arrive at a just decision of
the case.

Kumar Ohri, J., while discussing the scope of Section 311 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 with regard to
recalling and cross-examining the witness expressed that,it is the duty of every Court to ensure that fair and proper
opportunities are granted to the accused for just decision of the case.

A petition was filed under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code on behalf of the petitioner seeking setting
aside the orders of the lower court whereby the opportunity of the petitioner to cross-examine the witness (PW-1)
was closed and an application filed under Section 311 CrPC seeking recall of the said witness was dismissed.

59. Choose an alternative which best describes the tendered by a witness, is germane to the issue
context of the passage: involved.
I. Power under section 311 must be exercised, II. The power conferred under Section 311 CrPC
provided that the evidence that is likely to be must therefore, be invoked by the court only in

179
 order to meet the ends of justice, for strong and (c) Section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
valid reasons, and the same must be exercised 1973 cannot be exercised after the accused had
with great caution and circumspection. closed his defense.
III. The very use of words such as “any court”, “at (d) Section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
any stage”, or “or any enquiry, trial or other 1973 does include “accused” as witness
proceedings”, “any person” and “any such
person” clearly spells out that the provisions of 62. The accused had been tried for the offence of
this section have been expressed in the widest attempt to murder under section 307 of IPC. It was
possible terms, and do not limit the discretion of the case of the prosecution that accused was at home
the court in any way. with his wife and mother-in-law when an altercation
IV. Adducing of evidence by the accused in support occurred. It was alleged that Suraj returned
of his defense is not a valuable right and allowing intoxicated, went to the kitchen, grabbed the axe,
the same will be against the interest of justice. and whacked the mother-in-law and wife, causing
(a) I, II & III (b) I & II grievous injury to the mother-in-law and simple
(c) II &IV (d) Only I injury to the wife. The prosecution failed to offer
testimony from the two witnesses who drove the
60. Chandu filed a petition in HC under section 311 of two to the hospital, which would have been crucial
Crpc alleging that he was denied presenting an alibi in reaching a fair decision in the case. The
for his defense an application filed under Section prosecution filed a motion under section 311 of the
311 CrPC seeking recall of the said witness was CrPC asking the court to summon the two witnesses
dismissed by the lower court. Decide after the trial was completed. Decide
(a) The lower court's order should be overturned (a) The plea will be dismissed as section 311 can be
since it was made in the accused's best interests. invoked at any stage of the trial but not after it
(b) Lower court’s order will be upheld as interest of completion.
accused do not have find any place in bear (b) The plea will be entertained as it is in fact
reading of section 311. essential to examine such a witness, or to recall
(c) The lower court's order will be upheld as if the him for further examination in order to arrive at
accused's discretion was an act of arbitrariness. a just decision of the case.
(d) The lower court's judgment should be reversed (c) The plea will be entertained as the court has
on the grounds that it was necessary to examine such power even suo motu if no such application
such a witness, or to recall him for further has been filed by either of the parties if it
examination, in order to arrive at a just decision satisfied that such testimonies are essential to
in the case. arrive at a just decision of the case.
(d) It will be the discretion of the court and in
61. In the light of passage given, choose a correct option: exercise of the same, it may summon any person
(a) Section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, as a witness at any stage of the trial, or other
1973 is confined to Court witnesses. proceedings.
(b) Section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 does not apply to defense witnesses.

Passage (Q.63-Q.67): Negligence is a failure to behave with the level of care that someone of ordinary
prudence would have exercised under the same circumstances. The behavior usually consists of actions, but can
also consist of omissions when there is some duty to act (e.g., a duty to help victims of one's previous
conduct). Primary factors to consider in ascertaining whether the person's conduct lacks reasonable care are the
foreseeable likelihood that the person's conduct will result in harm, the foreseeable severity of any harm that may
ensue, and the burden of precautions to eliminate or reduce the risk of harm. Four elements are required to establish
a prima facie case of negligence:
1. The existence of a legal duty that the defendant owed to the plaintiff
2. defendant's breach of that duty
3. plaintiff's sufferance of an injury
4. proof that defendant's breach caused the injury (typically defined through proximate cause)
Typically, if the defendant had a duty to act, did not act (resulting in a breach), and that breach caused an injury,
then the defendant's actions will be classified as misfeasance. There are several ways to determine whether the
defendant had a duty to act (note: this is NOT an exhaustive list):
1. The defendant engaged in the creation of the risk which resulted in the plaintiff's harm

180
 2. Voluntary undertaking: The defendant volunteered to protect the plaintiff from harm
3. Knowledge: The defendant knows/should know that his conduct will harm the plaintiff
4. Business/voluntary relationships: ex: business owner and customer; innkeeper and guest; land possessor who
opens her land to the public; person who voluntarily takes custody of another person
Contributory negligence is the plaintiff's failure to exercise reasonable care for their safety. In such a case there will
be no liability on the defendant.

63. Zoe, parked her car on the side of a busy street, took (c) A is not liable because Z's negligence
her iPod and whilst being completely engrossed in contributed to the accident.
the iPod, trying to choose the rigt song she started (d) A is liable as he should have known that opening
crossing the road on foot. There were no traffic lights the car door without checking first, can injure
in the vicinity which were to be followed. A car, being someone.
driven by Aman, hit Zoe and Zoe got injured. Zoe
sued Aman for compensation. Decide Aman's 66. An inebriated man, Zo, was walking on the train
liability. tracks, when a train arrived on the tracks, causing
(a) Aman is liable to pay the compensation as he Zo's death. A guard, appointed by the railway
drove negligently and hit Zoe. authorities, was on duty at the time of the incident,
(b) Aman is liable to pay the compensation as he did but failed to notice A walking on the tracks and was
not fulfil his responsibility to drive carefully. therefore unable to save him. Zo's family sued the
(c) Aman is not liable because Zoe's negligence railway authorities. Decide.
contributed to the injuries. (a) The railway authorities are liable to pay the
(d) Aman is not liable because he was not compensation because it was the guard's
responsible to look out for Zoe in a place where negligence which caused the accident.
there was no path for crossing for pedestrians. (b) The railway authorities are liable to pay the
compensation because the guard did not fulfil
64. A pedestrian, Slimey, wrongly parked his car on the his duties.
side of a busy street, and started crossing the road (c) The railway authorities are not liable to pay the
on foot when the pedestrian light was green. A car, compensation because Zo also acted negligently.
being driven by Andre, hit Slimey and Slimey got (d) Zo cannot claim compensation in this situation
injured. Slimey sued Andre for compensation. as this is a case of Volenti Non Fit Injuria..
Decide his liability.
(a) Andre is liable to pay the compensation as he did 67. The term rule of the last opportunity means the last
not fulfil his responsibility of driving carefully opportunity to avoid an accident. If in a situation
and hit Z. both the plaintiff and the defendant are negligent on
(b) Andre is liable to pay the compensation as he their part and whosoever has the last opportunity of
was aware that his actions could cause such avoiding such consequences fails to do so will be
injuries but still went ahead and hit Slimey held responsible for such accident solely. Z, while
intentionally. visiting a friend, callously parked his bike outside
(c) Andre is not liable because Slimey's negligence the friend's house, which was on a busy main street.
contributed to the injuries. A while driving his car on the said road at a high
(d) Andre is not liable as Slimey should have waited speed, hit Z's bike. Z sued A for compensation
for him to go. equivalent to the damages caused to his vehicle.
Decide.
65. B, while riding his cycle on the road, met with an (a) A is liable to pay the compensation as he was
accident, when A, accidently opened his car door to riding at a high speed on the main street
exit the vehicle without ensuring no one is around, carelessly.
hitting the cycle in the process. B sued A for (b) A is liable to pay the compensation as there was
compensation. Decide. contributory negligence.
(a) A is liable to pay the compensation as his (c) A is not liable as Z should not have parked the
negligence caused the accident. He was not vehicle on the road.
careful enough to check before opening the door. (d) A is not liable as he couldn’t see Z’s bike.
(b) A is not liable to pay the compensation as he was
in a hurry.

181
 Passage (Q.68-Q.72): The Section 148-A of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 talks in brief about the Caveat Petition. A
Caveat Petition is a precautionary measure which is undertaken by people usually when they are having a very
strong apprehension that some case is expected to be filed in the Court of Law, regarding their interest in any
manner.

The word 'Caveat' is not defined in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, however, in the case titled Nirmal Chand Vs
Girindra Narayan, AIR 1978 Calcutta 492, the Hon'ble High Court defined the word 'Caveat' as under;

The term 'caveat' is very common in testamentary proceedings. A caveat is a caution or warning giving notice to the
Court not to issue any grant or take any step without notice being given to the party lodging the caveat. It is a
precautionary measure taken against the grant of probate or letters of administration, as the case may be, by the
person lodging the caveat. Such a person lodging a caveat in probate may not be a necessary party to such an
application, but he may be affected by an order or have any interest of person related to him that may be passed on
such an application.

The whole concept and the object behind giving right to a person to lodge caveat in such a suit or proceedings before
any Court, is to ensure that before any order is passed at the instance of the person instituting the suit, the person
whose interest is likely to be affected, be given an opportunity of hearing. In essence, it is intended to ensure that
the person likely to be affected, has a right to oppose the prayer of the applicant in such suit or proceedings and that
applicant or the plaintiff may not get an ex-parte order in his favour in the absence of 'Caveator' / 'Applicant' who
has an interest in the matter.

The expression in a suit or proceeding instituted or about to be instituted in a Court occurring under Section 148A
of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 necessarily relates to civil proceedings in a Civil Court, as this expression has
to be read in the light of Section 9 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which stipulates that Courts shall have
jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature.

68. The second paragraph discusses testamentary transferred to two charitable organisations. Mr
proceedings. What exactly is a testamentary Oberoi's wife filed a lawsuit in court, alleging
proceeding, in your opinion? suspicion in the will. Jhanvi, who was married to
(a) A Testamentary Court is only concerned with Suresh, relocated to London following their
finding out whether or not the testator executed marriage. In this situation, what options does Jhanvi
the testamentary instrument of his free will. have?
(b) In cases of testamentary succession, the Will (a) Jhanvi has no recourse because she will no
appoints an Executor to handle the affairs of the longer be a coparcener because she declined to
Testator on death. be a part of her father's estate.
(c) All testamentary cases should be of civil nature. (b) Jhanvi has no remedy because she will no longer
(d) A civil suit where a Letter of Administration is be a coparcener after her marriage also not an
issued by a competent authority or a court and Indian resident, hence cannot file a caveat.
appoints the Administrator officer to dispose of (c) Jhanvi can also be a co-plaintiff in her mother's
the property of a person. complaint, which is expected to be filed in the
Court of Law, relating her interest in any way.
69. Jhanvi's father is one of the world's wealthiest (d) Jhanvi may file an application with the court
people, according to Forbes. She was Mr. Oberoi's asking the court not to make any grant or take
only daughter. Mr Oberoi was aware that he had any action without giving notice to the party
been receiving regular death threats as a result of his filing the application.
influential position and contacts with the
underworld. For the same reason, he does not wish 70. Continuing with the preceding facts, for in what
to involve his only daughter, Jhanvi, in his business. feasible circumstances can Jhanvi file a caveat
He also advised Jhanvi to start a new business, in application?
which he will invest. Jhanvi, on the other hand, (a) Was concerned that she would not be made a
refused and said that she would build her own successor to her father's property.
empire. After several years, when Mr Oberoi's will (b) Concerned that the court could issue probate in
was read out to the court for probate, it was revealed her absence.
that all of his property and assets had already been

182
 (c) Issuing a notice to the court not to make any 72. Assertion: A civil suit in which a competent
grant or take any action without first notifying authority or a court issues a Letter of Administration
the party who lodged the caveat. and appoints an Administrator officer to dispose of a
(d) She has not joined as a party to her mother's person's property is referred to as a grant of probate
application. and thus a civil suit. In such a circumstance, a caveat
can be filed by any person, even if they have no
71. According to your understanding of the passage’s interest in the case.
context, is the application of caveat mandatory in Reason: A person filing a caveat is not required to
testamentary proceeding? be a party to such an application, but he may be
(a) No, it is just a precautionary measure. impacted by any order issued in response to such an
(b) It is followed on the pretext of principle of application. The phrase in a suit or proceeding
natural justice i.e., the person whose interest is instituted or about to be instituted in a Court, as used
likely to be affected, be given an opportunity of in Section 148A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
hearing. must refer to civil proceedings in a Civil Court.
(c) Yes, as no exparte order can be passed in the (a) Both A and R is false and R is not correct
absence of 'Caveator' / 'Applicant' who has an explanation of A.
interest in the matter. (b) Both A and R is true and R is correct explanation
(d) No, it is just a precautionary measure and can be of A.
filed only in case of a civil suit. (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

Passage (Q.73-Q.78): Offer and acceptance.

One party must make the offer and the other party must give its assent to such offer, thereby accepting it. Acceptance
of offer results in promises that form agreement. The acceptance must be communicated in an express or implied
mode. Such offer must express willingness to do or abstain from doing to obtain other’s assent. The offer may be
express or implied but the intention to form a contract must be there and such offer must be communicated.

Intention to create legal obligation

There is no express provision in the Indian Contract Act 1872 that makes an intention to create legal obligation
mandatory but over the years, various judgements have settled the position making Intention to create legal
obligation as an essential condition.

Consideration is must.
As per section 25 of the Act, an agreement not supported by consideration is void. A contract without the
consideration will become Nudum Pactum (Bare Contract). Such consideration must be real and illusionary. The
adequacy of the consideration must is not necessary. But Section 25 lays down a few exceptions where an exception
without consideration is not void and the examples of such exceptions include an agreement made on account of
love and affection between parties, an agreement where it is a promise to compensate, a person who is already
voluntarily done something for the promisor etc.

The parties are competent to contract.

Any person who has attained the age of 18 years, is of sane mind and is not disqualified by any law is said to be
Competent to form a contract. A contract entered by a minor is void ab initio and no obligation arises from it. A
minor can plead his minority as a defence in a suit, thus the rule of promissory estoppel is not applicable.

Contracts must not be uncertain or vague

As per section 29 of the Act, a contract is said to be certain if terms of the contract can be understood in the way it
was intended to be understood and also are not ambiguous and vague. Such certainty ensures the consensus ad
idem among the parties and hence trying to prevent any kind of dispute in future.

73. Madhu went to a party with her friends where a money to be decided later. Has a promise come into
stranger came to her and offered to sell his watch existence?
(seeing which Madhu was already in awe with it). (a) No, the consideration has still not been decided
Madhu despite not knowing who the stranger was upon and therefore the agreement still remains
agreed to purchase the watch at a specified sum of

183
 vague as to consideration and therefore no (b) No, contract with Ankita would be void from the
promise has come into existence. beginning as she is a minor and cannot be
(b) Yes, the offer by the stranger has been accepted enforced. Therefore, no money can be extracted
by Madhu and thus a promise has come into from Ankita by the storekeeper.
existence. (c) Yes, since Ankita has reaped the benefits from
(c) No, the promise has still not been formed as the the transactions, the storekeeper is entitled to
details as to the other party to the contract is not the remaining amount from her.
clear and is thus ambiguous. (d) No, since the shopkeeper failed to demand the
(d) Yes, the intention of the parties, in particular the money within 20 days as agreed between the
intention to enter into a contract and to sell the parties, it indicates that he was sleeping over his
watch is not clear and therefore no legal promise rights and therefore is not entitled to the
has come into existence. enforcement of contract.

74. In the same party, the bracelet worn by Madhu was 76. The storekeeper asserted that he was not aware that
appreciated by her friend Rani who expressed her Ankita was not yet a major but also any reasonable
wish to purchase the same. Madhu in a jovial manner man would mistake her to be a major. Will this aid to
said “Why only bracelet, if you want why don’t you his prosecution of Ankita and for the enforcement of
purchase my house as well and I will even sell it to contract?
you for Rs. 1000.” Next day Rani came to her house (a) No, the fact that Ankita is a minor would entail
and offered Rs. 1000 to purchase the house. Madhu, that the contract is void ab intio and therefore
however, refused. Has Madhu breached the the contract cannot be enforced.
contract? (b) No, the failure of the shopkeeper to demand
(a) Yes, all the essential of the agreement are money within 20 days as agreed between the
present in the present factual context i.e. offer, parties indicates that he was sleeping over his
acceptance, and valid consideration. rights and therefore is not entitled to the
(b) No, the consideration is inadequate for a house enforcement of contract.
and therefore the contract has not come into (c) Yes, since Ankita has reaped the benefits from
existence, therefore no question of breach can be the transactions, the storekeeper is entitled to
raised. the remaining amount from her.
(c) Yes, since the offer by Madhu to sell the house (d) Yes, according to the reasonable man test,
has been accepted by Rani any derogation will Ankita appeared to be a major and since it is a
amount to breach of the contract. civil wrong she can be accordingly treated to
(d) No, there was no intention to create any binding enforce the contract.
legal intention intended by Madhu to sell her
house and hence no agreement has been 77. Brijmohan has always wanted to buy the black horse
reached between the parties and therefore no from Rajesh from his collection/ stud of high breed
question of breach exists. horses. One day, Rajesh told him that he wanted to
sell his horse and if Brijmohan wants they can agree
75. Ankita when she was a 15 years of age wanted to on a specified amount and then he will sell the horse.
purchase a violin however, her parents refused to Elated by the news, they agreed on an amount which
purchase the same knowing that she had a was paid instantly online and next day Brijmohan
concentration of a butterfly and would soon get went to take the horse. However, to his utter
bored of it. So, she decided to purchase it herself and disappointment the horse being sold was a white
went to a nearby store. She bought the violin on one and not the one which was thought by
credit and paid 25 percent of the amount through Brijmohan. Can he enforce the contract and obtain
her pocket money and promised to pay the rest the black horse itself?
within next 20 days but failed. After a month, the (a) Yes, the terms of the agreement are clear as
storekeeper went to her in order to extract money Brijmohan has always indicated his intention of
and tried to enforce the contract as she not only purchasing the black horse on various occasions
purchased the product but also used it. Can the and therefore giving rise to a reasonable notion
contract be enforced? that Rajesh intended to sell the black horse.
(a) Yes, not enforcing the contract would result in (b) Yes, the contract has all the essential elements of
unjust enrichment of Ankita and hence equity the contract namely the offer, acceptance and
demands the enforcement of the contract. consideration and after the payment of

184
 consideration it is Brijmohan who has the say in (a) Yes, there was no consensus ad idem between
the horse he intends to buy. the parties as to the horse intended to be sold
(c) No, the principle of caveat emptor will be and no contract itself has come under existence
applicable and Brijmohan should have been therefore in the absence of the formation of the
vigilant on the details of the contract before contract the amount can be refunded to
making the purchase. Brijmohan.
(d) No, the contract was vague and hence lacked the (b) No, the contract has all the essential elements of
essential of certainty; therefore, it cannot be the contract namely the offer, acceptance and
enforced by Brijmohan. consideration and refund of the amount will
constitute alteration of the agreement which
cannot permitted.
78. Brijmohan claims that if Rajesh is unwilling to sell (c) No, altering the terms of the contract would
the black horse then he should atleast refund the amount to breach of the original offer and
amount due to lack of clarity in the contract terms. therefore the refund would not, even if made, be
However, Rajesh refused saying that the contract done in entirety and be subjected to valid
has been formed between them as there is valid deductions.
offer, acceptance and consideration. Can there be (d) Yes, however as to the amount Brijmohan is
refund of amount to Brijmohan? entitled to is dependent on the terms and
conditions of the contract between the parties.

Passage (Q.79-Q.84): Defamation is an injury to the reputation of a person. It is basically the publication of
statements which harms the reputation of the person in the eyes of reasonable minded persons of the society. There
are certain defences to defamation namely:

1. Truth or justification
Truth acts as an absolute defence, even if the statement is not entirely, but substantially true. Since, a claim of
defamation does not depend on intent, the defendant cannot rely on the fact that s/he was just passing on rumours
or hearsay, or that s/he honestly believed the statement to be true.

2. Fair and bona fide comment

A fair and bona fide comment made in public interest will not be considered defamatory. This is because some
amount of legitimate criticism in such matters is justifiable. The loss occurred is damnum sine injuria, and therefore,
non-actionable. The comment must satisfy the objective test; could any man honestly express that opinion on the
proved facts; even though the comment satisfies the objective test the defence can be defeated if the plaintiff proves
that the defendant was actuated by express malice.

2. Privileges
The defence of Privilege is given to a person who holds some special status vis-à-vis the circumstances. This privilege
can be further classified into Absolute Privilege and Qualified Privilege. As the name suggests, the former is a
complete bar against an action of defamation even if the statement is defamatory (e.g. comments made during
Parliamentary or Judicial Proceedings, or any other case where the entity in question holds this privilege).

In case of Qualified Privilege, an action will be successful if the comments were made maliciously. Such Privilege
arises in case of:
1. Legal, social or moral duty (owed towards one’s kin or employers)
2. For self-protection
3. For protection of common interest
4. For protection of public good
But, this privilege is lost when the defendant goes beyond the limits of interest which the party/parties hold(s) in
the matter or abuses the said privilege (say, by making a malicious comment and then using the privilege as
defence).

79. Mrs. Akhter was a big gossipmonger. Her life has her this habit quite well. During a kitty party, she
always revolved around the rumours and gossip of told few of her friends that their neighbour Mrs.
others. The people in her locality have also known Rama was having an affair with some colleague of

185
 hers and that’s why her relationship with her 82. In the Monsoon Session of the parliament, there was
husband was also at a turmoil. However, nobody huge uproar on certain new reforms made by the
took her words seriously and took her words for a incumbent government for the farmers which
grain’s worth. When Mrs. Rama got to know about according to many were regressive in nature. Leader
this rumour she brought a claim against Mrs. Akhter. of the opposition during the session remarked ‘Our
Can Mrs. Akhter be made liable for defamation? PM although boasts of his nationality as Indian is
(a) No, the statements by Mrs. Akhter are true and actually a Canadian as his father was a citizen there
justified and hence she cannot be made liable for and he graduated from a college in Canada and that
defamation. is why he cannot relate with the feelings of the
(b) No, Mrs. Akhter would not be liable for common man and is only driven by money.’ Can a
defamation as everybody knew her habit of suit of defamation be brought against him?
spreading rumours and did not believe in her (a) No, he would be protected by an absolute
words. privilege as the comment was made during
(c) Yes, Mrs. Akhter made public some baseless parliamentary proceedings.
rumours which hampered the repute of Mrs. (b) Yes, since the remarks of the Leader of
Rama. opposition bear no relevance to the session, he
(d) No, since these are rumours, by their very nature cannot be protected with the defence of absolute
they are supposed to be far from reality and is privilege.
not to be believed. (c) No, the suit of defamation is likely to fail on the
grounds of truth or justification as the fact of
80. A year later, it was heard that Mrs. Rama was nationality is a factual detail.
divorcing her husband for her neighbour whom she (d) Yes, since the words of the Leader of Opposition
has been dating for more than a year. Which of the hamper the repute of the PM, he will be liable for
following can aid Mrs. Akhter‘s defence? defamation.
(a) Mrs. Akhter would be protected by the defence
of truth and would not be liable for defamation. 83. The leader of Opposition didn’t curtail his comments
(b) Mrs. Akhter would be protected by the defence in the session only but rather remarked during their
of fair and bonafide comment. political party nation wide get together, how the
(c) Mrs. Akhter would not be protected by any of the incumbent PM has not contributed anything
defences as her statements were defamatory so towards the economy and has rather been investing
as to hamper the reputation of Mrs. Rama. in mafias in order to compel others to adhere to his
(d) Mrs. Akhter would not be protected by any of the ideology. He also made certain unsavoury remarks
defences as her statements were untrue and against him. When the claim of defamation was
baseless at the time they were made. brought against him, he claimed the defence of
absolute privilege as he is the Member of Opposition
81. RKR was an infamous film critic who was known for and is entitled to similar benefits in and out of the
his highly nitpicking of famous actors. With the parliament. Is his defence likely to succeed?
release of much awaited film of Lakhan Khan, he (a) Yes, since the remarks made by the leader of
released a video critiquing his work in the film. He opposition are merely the extension of his
commented on how the film was far from reality and speech in the parliament, he will be protected
quoted the logical fallacies in the film. He also absolutely.
pointed out how the role of a specially abled seems (b) Yes, the leader of opposition will be protected by
to have been mocked by Lakhan through his acting. virtue of his position as a leader of opposition
Lakhan instituted a suit for defamation against RKR. and cannot be made liable for defamation.
Would his claim succeed? (c) No, it is the entity i.e. the parliament that is
(a) No, RKR’s comment would be covered under the covered under the defence of absolute privilege
defence of truth and justification. and outside the entity, remarks made in
(b) No, RKR’s comment would be covered under the personal capacity would not be covered by the
defence of fair and bonafide comment. defence.
(c) Yes, since the comments be RKR are based out of (d) No, since his remarks were baseless merely to
malice, he cannot avail the defences. malign the image of the hon’ble figure like PM,
(d) Yes, RKR has to discharge the burden that the he would be liable for defamation.
comments made by him are based on true facts.

186
84. Ms. Anupama was a reporter in a nation-wide (a) No, Anupama would be protected by the defence
magazine “The Update”. In one such edition, in the of truth or justification and therefore would not
editorial she wrote an unsavoury article about the be liable for defamation.
MLA of their constituency. With the elections around (b) No, since Anupama believed in good faith that
the corner, the MLA filed a suit for defamation the statements in the magazine are true, she
against Ms. Anupama. When the matter reached the could not be made liable for defamation.
court, Anupama pleaded that her words were true, (c) Yes, the mere fact that a defamatory article was
however, she was not able to back her claims with published with elections round the corner
proofs so as to provide a proper justification and indicates the malicious intention of Anupama
stated that she believed in good faith that the and therefore she would be liable.
remarks in the article were true. Is the claim of MLA (d) Yes, since Anupama is unable to back her claims
likely to succeed? with proper evidences and intention is
immaterial in the claim of defamation, MLA’s
claim is likely to succeed.

187
 SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage(Q.84-Q.90): Socialism emerged as a reaction to capitalism. England had become the first industrial nation
in the world. The prosperity of Victorian England was there for everyone to see. People were convinced that
competition increased efficiency and wealth in society. They regarded the survival of the fittest as the
unquestionable law of nature. But by the end of the nineteenth century, the fallacies of the doctrine became clear.
The economic power passed into the hands of a few. The majority lived in conditions of dire poverty. They had no
freedom of choice because they were completely dependent on their wages even for bare survival. They were not
even in a position to decide what they wanted because they lacked education. It was also realized that there was not
much truth in the doctrine of Harmony of Interests. The industrialist was busy serving his interest. He did not care
much for the interest of the community. In the mediaeval world, there was a certain consensus about a fair price.
But now there could be no such thing as a fair price. Prices were regulated by economic and not moral laws. People
began to realise that if everyone was allowed to conduct his business on his own the law of the jungle would prevail.

Even the competition did not give results as expected. It defeated its ends. It did increase the efficiency of economic
enterprise in the early stages. But very soon as bigger organisations began to monopolise economic power, the
smaller organisations were crushed out of existence. We can see the impact of capitalism even in India where most
of the economy is in the hands of a few leading industrial houses. Thus, capitalism itself limited the freedom of the
entrepreneurs.
Capitalism indeed increased the wealth of the nation. It led to unprecedented prosperity in Europe. Real wages went
up everywhere. But very soon markets were flooded with goods. As the competition increased the system began to
face crises. Production reached a saturation point. People began to apprehend that there might be a situation in
which there were all sellers and no buyers. Cycles of boom and depression, known as trade cycles, became frequent.
Unemployment was a common phenomenon. People began to ask why there was so much poverty in plenty. Some
of these reasons led Karl Marx to prophesy that capitalism contained within itself seeds of its own destruction.

85. Which of the following statements are not true for (a) Trade cycles represent the alternating phases of
Socialism? boom and depression, with more of the boom.
(a) Capitalism necessitated Socialism. (b) Trade cycles refer to cyclical upswings and
(b) Survival of the fittest is the characteristic of downswings in the broad measures of economic
capitalism. activity.
(c) Socialism can only lead to justice and happiness. (c) Greed to get more in a market economy is
(d) Capitalism’s merits are shadowed by its inherent in the trade cycles.
demerits. (d) Trade cycles refer to prolonged upswing and
downswing cycles of economic activity.
86. What was not observed after the advent of
Industrialisation? 89. Which of the following options strengthens Karl
(a) Economic disparity. Marx's claims that capitalism has seeds of its
(b) Surplus production. destruction in itself?
(c) Overutilisation of resources. (a) Capitalism can never develop an egalitarian
(d) Fulfilment of common interests. society based on equality.
(b) Capitalism has dark areas like income disparity,
87. What does the author imply when he says that unemployment, monopoly and overproduction.
competition defeated its’ own ends? (c) Capitalism fails to fulfil the dream of society.
(a) Competition failed to achieve a fair price. (d) Capitalism disappeared from most societies
(b) The competition did not remain healthy with with time.
cut-throat competition.
(c) The big fish in markets started to drive small fish 90. Which of the following can be inferred from the
out of competition. passage?
(d) The government did not provide a level playing I. Socialim is a far cry from Capitalism.
field. II. Capitalism initially indicated misleading results.
III. England saw Capitalism during the Victorian era.
88. What can be inferred about ‘Trade Cycles’? (a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I & III (d) I, II & III

188
 Passage (Q.91-Q.96): The perception of plastics as ugly, unnatural, inauthentic and disposable is not new. Visible
plastic pollution is an old complaint, too (years ago, plastic bags caught in trees were nicknamed “witches’
knickers”). What is new is the suspicion that micro plastics are causing widespread harm to humans and the
environment in an invisible, insidious manner. “Blue Planet 2”, a nature series presented by Sir David Attenborough
that aired in Britain last October and in America in January, made the case beautifully. But the truth is that little is
known about the environmental consequences of plastic—and what is known doesn’t look hugely alarming.

We can be surest about how much plastic is produced and where it ends up. The cumulative amount of solid plastic
waste produced since the 1950s that has not been burned or recycled at 4.9bn tonnes. It could all have been dumped
in a landfill 70 metres deep and 57 square kilometres.

A bigger environmental worry is that much plastic has ended up in the ocean, where, dispersed by currents, the stuff
becomes virtually irretrievable, especially once it has fragmented into micro plastics. Computer models suggest that
seas hold as many as 51trn micro plastic particles. Some are the product of larger pieces breaking apart; others, like
micro beads added to toothpaste or face scrubs, were designed to be tiny.

Even if the flow of plastic into the sea, totalling perhaps 10m tonnes a year, was instantly stanched, huge quantities
would remain. And the flow will not stop. Most of the plastic in the ocean comes not from tidy Europe and America,
but from countries in fast-developing East Asia, where waste-collection systems are flawed or non-existent.

On current trends, by 2050 there could be more plastic in the world’s waters than fish, measured by weight. Such
numbers frighten people and change their behaviour. Nine in ten Europeans worry about plastic’s impact on the
environment. More than half told pollsters for Euro barometer in 2017 that they try to forgo plastic bags when
shopping. By comparison, only one-tenth consider fuel-efficiency when buying a new car. Unlike other kinds of
pollution, plastic is an eyesore.

On land, the damage from litter, which exercises many anti-plastic campaigners, is limited. Most refuse does not
spread too far beyond population centres, where (at least in principle) it can be managed. At sea, most plastics end
up in vast rubbish patches fed by ocean circulation patterns, the biggest of which can be found in the north Pacific.

Mid-ocean gyres are fortunately neither especially rich in fauna nor particularly bio diverse. The effects of plastics
on busier bits of the ocean, such as reefs, have been little studied. One paper, linked plastic litter to coral disease
near Indonesia and Myanmar. But little similar work exists for other sedentary species, let alone slippery migratory
ones.

91. Why does the author describe the absence of (c) If only it had all remained on land, or even
biodiversity in mid-ocean gyres as fortunate? washed up on beaches, where it could be
I. Plastic toxicity is less amongst marine life. collected.
II. Plastic waste gets trapped in gyres. (d) Some of these could be toxic.
III. Sedentary species are diverted towards the
coral reefs. 93. Given below is a possible inference that can be
(a) Only I (b) Only III drawn from the facts stated in the fourth paragraph.
(c) Both II & III (d) Both I & II You have to examine the inference in the context of
the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or
92. Which of the following statements can follow falsity.
paragraph 2 to form a connection with paragraph 3? “The economy of a country directly related to the
(a) Laboratory studies have shown that if waste generated by it.”
swallowed by fish, compounds in plastic (a) Definitely true
fragments can be absorbed from the digestive (b) Probably true
tract into flesh. (c) The data are inadequate
(b) Researchers have identified 400 species of (d) Probably false
animal whose members either ingested plastics
or got entangled in it. 94. Which of the following statement (s) is/are NOT
TRUE in accordance with the information provided
in the passage?

189
 I. Blue Planet 2 established the idea of plastics (c) They are more likely to be disposed properly
being inauthentic and ugly. than micro plastics.
II. Europeans are more concerned about the (d) Public campaigns dedicated to it should be more
environment than the rest of the world. aggressive.
III. Micro plastics are formed only when large
plastic products are broken down by natural 96. According to the passage, which of the following
means. statements would the author most agree with?
(a) Only I (b) Only III (a) There is a lack of studies about the effects of
(c) Both II & III (d) All I, II and III plastic pollution on aquatic life.
(b) Reefs are immune from plastic pollution due to
95. Which of the following statements is true about their distance from plastic waste.
“Visible Plastic” with reference to the given passage? (c) Plastic waste was often attached with
(a) Pollution from visible plastic has gone superstitions in the past.
significantly. (d) The environmental consequences of plastic are
(b) It is hard to keep track of them. being overstated.

Passage(Q.97 – Q.102): Last week, lawmakers in the European Parliament voted overwhelmingly in favour of the
Artificial Intelligence Act, putting the landmark legislation on track to take effect by the end of the year. While
governments across the world are moving to put up guardrails, including Japan, Brazil and the US, where on October
30, President Joe Biden signed an executive order on AI safety — the European Union’s new law is the first
comprehensive framework for governing a technology that has seen explosive growth in recent years, dominating
headlines and stoking both excitement and fear about the future.

Taking a horizontal, risk-based approach that will apply across sectors of AI development, the EU AI Act classifies
the technology into four categories: Prohibited, high-risk, limited-risk and minimal-risk. Systems that violate or
threaten human rights through, for example, social scoring — creating “risk” profiles of people based on “desirable”
or “undesirable” behaviour — or mass surveillance are banned outright.

High-risk systems, which have a significant impact on people’s lives and rights, such as those used for biometric
identification or in education, health and law enforcement, will have to meet strict requirements, including human
oversight and security and conformity assessment, before they can be put on the market. Systems involving user
interaction, like chatbots and image-generation programmes, are classified as limited-risk and are required to
inform users that they are interacting with AI and allow them to opt out.

The most widely used systems, which pose no or negligible risk, such as spam filters and smart appliances, are
categorised as minimal-risk. They will be exempt from regulation, but will need to comply with existing laws.

Like the 2016 General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) law, which influenced data privacy regulation around the
world, the impact of the EU’s AI Act is expected to be felt globally. However, the history of EU technology legislation,
including GDPR, which has been criticised for being regulation-heavy and stifling innovation, urges caution.

For India, where the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has been working on a framework for
responsible AI, the challenge would be to acknowledge and address the risks posed by the emerging technology,
such as the proliferation of deep fakes, without hobbling its potential for improving lives or enhancing the promise
of India’s start-up ecosystem.

In this regard, the ministry’s replacement last week of its March 1 advisory, which required generative AI companies
to seek government permission for deploying “untested” systems, with a new one that drops this condition, is
welcome. Going forward, the task for the government would be to safeguard citizens’ rights, while continuing to
make room for the transformative possibilities of AI.

97. Considering the European Union’s AI Act categorizes mitigates potential harms without stifling
AI technology into four categories based on risk, innovation?
which piece of evidence would most strengthen the (a) A survey showing that most EU citizens feel
argument that this categorization effectively more secure about AI technologies.

190
 (b) Data indicating a significant increase in AI 100. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the
patents filed in the EU post-Act. potential global influence of the EU’s AI Act on
(c) Reports of decreased instances of AI-related countries that are currently developing their own AI
human rights violations in the EU. governance frameworks?
(d) Evidence that AI companies have increased (a) It may discourage countries from adopting AI
investment in R&D for low-risk AI applications. technologies due to strict regulations.
(b) It could serve as a benchmark, influencing the
98. Given the criticism of previous EU technology structure of other countries' AI laws.
legislation like the GDPR for being regulation-heavy (c) It might lead to a global standardization of AI
and stifling innovation, what information could regulations, easing international compliance.
weaken the argument that the AI Act will have a (d) It could increase the competitive advantage of
globally positive impact? EU-based AI companies globally.
(a) A survey showing majority European
businesses support the AI Act's regulatory 101. What does the passage suggest as the primary
framework. challenge for governments in regulating AI
(b) International tech companies expressing technology, particularly in balancing innovation
concern over the AI Act's potential to limit with the need for oversight?
global innovation. (a) Ensuring that AI technologies are developed
(c) Studies indicating the GDPR improved without violating existing privacy laws.
consumer trust without significantly hindering (b) Preventing AI from being used in ways that
tech companies. could harm societal values and norms.
(d) Evidence of increased investment in AI (c) Creating regulations that allow for the rapid
technologies within the EU since announcing advancement of AI while protecting citizens.
the AI Act. (d) Maintaining international cooperation in the
development and regulation of AI technologies.
99. What would be necessary to evaluate the
effectiveness of India’s approach to regulating AI, as 102. If the EU’s AI Act were a vehicle, and its risk-based
discussed in replacing the March 1 advisory with a approach to AI regulation were its engine, what
less restrictive guideline, in protecting citizens’ vehicle feature would best represent the provision
rights while promoting innovation? allowing minimal-risk AI systems to operate without
(a) Comprehensive analysis of AI startups' growth specific regulation but within existing laws?
rates before and after the guideline change. (a) The cruise control system, for maintaining a
(b) Surveys on public sentiment regarding AI and steady pace without constant driver input.
its impact on societal norms. (b) The headlights, illuminating the path forward
(c) Studies comparing the regulatory impacts of but not dictating the route.
India's AI policies with those of the EU. (c) The vehicle's paint, offering a variety of
(d) Assessment of changes in the volume of AI- appearances while not affecting performance.
related patents filed after the guideline (d) The turn signals, allowing for communication of
replacement. intent without direct control over movement.

Passage(Q.103 -Q.108): That the right to dissent is the first principle of a vibrant democracy is a truth frequently
undermined in recent years. But the Supreme Court’s (SC) reminder that every criticism of the state, especially
when within legitimate bounds, does not amount to offence, reinforces constitutional values at a time when debate
and dissent are routinely stifled, citing hurt sentiments, national security or impediments to communal harmony.

The Court’s direction to “enlighten and educate our police machinery on the concept of freedom of speech and
expression guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution” underscores another crucial point: The
enforcement agency’s conflation of lawful exercise of dissent with incitement cannot infringe on individual liberty.

The bench was hearing a case against a professor in Kolhapur booked for his WhatsApp status criticising the
abrogation of Article 370 and for wishing Pakistan on its independence day.

The apex court’s observation is of a piece with its earlier deliberations on the limits of free speech. Last year, in
Kaushal Kishore v State Of Uttar Pradesh, while advising public officials to exercise restraint in their speech, a five-

191
 judge Constitution Bench had held that freedom of speech cannot be curtailed for any reason except those
specified under Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

In a separate judgment in the same case, Justice BV Nagarathna had held, “It is only when there is dissent that
different ideas would emerge which may… assist the government to improve or innovate upon its policies…” In the
present judgment, quashing the charges against the professor, the Court observed that the “test to be applied” is
“not the effect of the words on some individuals with weak minds or those who see a danger in every hostile point
of view. The test is of the general impact of the utterances on reasonable people who are significant in numbers.”

While the SC’s observation pertains to the police in particular, the need for sensitisation is felt across stakeholders,
including in lower courts and among civil society.

The bogey of hurt sentiments seems to hold sway everywhere, from cricket stadiums over support for rival teams,
amid protests against screening of particular films in colleges or universities, to complaints against azan over
loudspeakers. They threaten to shrink the formal inclusivity and equality of diverse viewpoints enshrined in the
Constitution to a majoritarian understanding of freedom of expression. While exposure to landmark judgments
and discussions with legal experts will certainly aid the police, a resurrection of the argumentative Indian — with
faith in rational debate and in both sides being heard — will also help.

103. Despite the Supreme Court's advocacy for free Which piece of evidence, if true, would most
speech and the quashing of charges against strengthen the Court's rationale for dismissing the
individuals for exercising their right to dissent, why charges?
might the formal inclusivity and equality of diverse (a) The WhatsApp status was shared in a private
viewpoints still be threatened, as suggested in the group of close friends and colleagues.
passage? (b) Legal experts unanimously agree that the status
(a) The enforcement agencies' continued falls under freedom of speech protections.
misinterpretation of dissent as a threat to (c) The status contained a factual analysis of the
public order. abrogation of Article 370’s implications.
(b) The general public's lack of awareness about (d) Several individuals reported feeling threatened
the importance of free speech protections. by the content of the WhatsApp status.
(c) The presence of societal biases that favor
majoritarian viewpoints over minority 106. The critique of conflating lawful dissent with
opinions. incitement by enforcement agencies as highlighted
(d) The influence of external political pressures on by the Court exposes which logical flaw in the
the judiciary's decisions regarding free speech. approach of these agencies towards handling
criticisms of the state?
104. Based on the Supreme Court's emphasis on (a) Enforcement agencies rely too heavily on
educating the police about freedom of speech as subjective interpretations of dissenting
guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a), what can be opinions.
inferred about the Court's perception of the current (b) There is a lack of clear guidelines for
understanding of free speech among law enforcement agencies to follow in such cases.
enforcement agencies? (c) Agencies tend to prioritize national security
(a) The Court believes that the police have a over the principles of free speech.
complete grasp of freedom of speech concepts. (d) A fundamental misunderstanding of the legal
(b) The police are thought to occasionally mistake boundaries of free speech exists.
expressions of dissent for unlawful activities.
(c) Law enforcement agencies are considered to be 107. To assess the impact of the Supreme Court's
intentionally disregarding individuals' free directive to enlighten police on freedom of speech,
speech rights. which of the following would be most important to
(d) The Court perceives a significant gap in the determine?
police's understanding of freedom of speech (a) The number of police officers who attended
principles. workshops on freedom of speech.
(b) Whether the rate of unlawful arrests for
105. The passage mentions the Supreme Court quashing dissenting opinions has decreased.
charges against a professor for his WhatsApp status.

192
 (c) The percentage increase in public awareness of (a) The Supreme Court’s direction to educate
their free speech rights. police on the concept of freedom of speech.
(d) Changes in the legal system's approach to (b) Justice BV Nagarathna’s statement on dissent
prosecuting speech-based offenses. facilitating the emergence of different ideas.
(c) The quashing of charges against a professor for
108. The passage suggests that dissent is essential for the his criticism of governmental actions.
emergence of varied ideas that could benefit (d) The Supreme Court’s emphasis on not curbing
government policies. What piece of evidence from free speech except under specific conditions.
the passage supports this assertion?

193
 SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.114): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are two sugar mill companies in a district: Company C and Company D. The information about Company C
and D is as follows:

For Company C, fifteen employees earn more than Rs. Y. The total number of employees earning Rs. Y or more is
thirty, and the number of employees earning less than Rs. Y is the same as those earning more than Rs. Y.

In Company D, the number of employees earning exactly Rs. Y is three times the number of employees earning
exactly Rs. Y in Company C. The ratio of the number of employees in Company C to that in Company D is 3:5, and the
number of employees earning more than Rs. Y is Twenty.

109. What is the total number of employees in Company total number of employees aged 25 years or older in
C and Company D combined? both companies together.
(a) 140 (b) 120 (a) 48 (b) 72
(c) 180 (d) 160 (c) 52 (d) 60

110. What is the total number of employees earning more 113. The average salary of employees in Company C and
than Rs. Y in both companies combined? Company D is 12k and 16k respectively. Find the
(a) 30 (b) 25 combined average salary of all employees in
(c) 35 (d) 40 Companies C and D.
(a) 15k (b) 15.5k
111. What is the ratio of employees earning less than Rs. (c) 14k (d) 14.5k
Y in both companies combined to those earning
more than Rs. Y? 114. 60 percent of the employees of Company C are
(a) 7: 6 (b) 3: 4 married, and 40 percent of the employees of
(c) 5: 7 (d) 6: 7 Company D are married. Find the total number of
unmarried employees in both companies together.
112. If 40% of the total number of employees in both (a) 72 (b) 52
companies are below 25 years of age, then find the (c) 63 (d) 36

Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
In a community center, a survey was conducted among 970 members regarding their preferred fitness activities:
Yoga, Pilates, and Zumba. The total number of members who practice Pilates is 337. The number of members who
practice only Yoga is 40% more than the number of members who practice all three activities. The number of
members who practice all three activities is 30 less than the number of members who practice both Zumba and Yoga
but not Pilates. The number of members who practice both Pilates and Zumba but not Yoga is 250, and the number
of members who practice both Pilates and Yoga but not Zumba is p. The number of members who practice only
Pilates is 30 less than the number of members who practice only Yoga. The number of members who practice only
Zumba is triple the number of members who practice both Yoga and Zumba but not Pilates. Each member preferred
at least one fitness activity.

115. What is the number of members who prefer to

practice only yoga as their fitness activity? 117. What is the sum of the number of members who
(a) 63 (b) 72 prefer to practice exactly one of the given fitness
(c) 192 (d) 33 activities?
(a) 970 (b) 572
116. What percentage more of members prefer to (c) 678 (d) 591
practice only Yoga compared to those who prefer to
practice all three activities (Yoga, Pilates, and 118. How many members prefer to practice at least two
Zumba) together? of the given fitness activities?
(a) 40% (b) 54% (a) 380 (b) 379
(c) 36% (d) 60% (c) 377 (d) 378

194
119. What is the ratio of the number of members who 120. What is the average number of members who prefer
prefer to practice only Zumba to the number of to practice only one type of fitness activity?
members who prefer to practice all three fitness (a) 184 (b) 192
activities (Yoga, Pilates, and Zumba) together? (c) 197 (d) 196
(a) 11 : 1 (b) 9 : 1
(c) 12 : 1 (d) 13 : 1

195
 LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the Most Comprehensive & Consistently Successful Study Material & Test Series Module, spanning across
both Offline and Online Programs in the entire Country. As a result LegalEdge was able to engineer Clean-Sweep-
Landslide figures of a handsome 64 Selections & 65 Selections in Top 100 (including AIR 1, 2 & 3 from Classroom
Contact Programs in 2023, 2022 & 2021) & a whopping 273 selections & 327 selections in Top 500, in CLAT 2021 &
CLAT 2022, respectively. With AILET being no different, a total of 34 of our students found their way into NLU, Delhi
in 2021 & 35 in 2022. In a nutshell, every second admit in a Top National Law School in 2021 & 2022 came from the
LegalEdge Preparation Ecosystem.

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

CLAT POST MOCK

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 3. (c) Refer to the lines of the third paragraph, ‘What was the
Right in Bavaria at this chaotic time? It was the Regular
1. (a) Refer to the penultimate paragraph, “One day, according Army, the Reichswehr; it was the monarchists, who
to his own story, he intervened during a lecture in which wished the Wittelsbach back. It was a mass of
someone had said a good word for the Jews. His conservatives who despised the democratic Republic
antisemitic harangue apparently so pleased his superior established in Berlin; and as time went on, it was
officers…” And, ‘This was an important break for Hitler, above all the great mob of demobilized soldiers for
the first recognition he had won in the field of politics he whom the bottom had fallen out of the world in 1918,
was now trying to enter.’ From the passage, one can infer uprooted men who could not find jobs or their way back
that since he opposed the person who had something to the peaceful society they had left in 1914, men grown
good to say about the Jews, makes Hitler a person who tough and violent through war who could not shake
was against the rise of the Jews in Germany. Also, themselves from ingrained habit…’ The ultimate
Antisemitism means hostility to or prejudiced against representation of the Right wing was the great mob of
Jewish people. Hence, option A is the correct answer. demobilized soldiers, making option C as the correct
Options B, C and D were the core ideologies that he did answer. Options A, B and C were the Rights in Bavaria
not believe in as he was a conservative, but his political before the great mob of demobilized soldiers became
rise began when he opposed the semitic views by a rampant. These soldiers represented the Right in
lecturer, and caught the eye of the superior officers; Bavaria.
therefore, option A is the correct answer. 4. (b) Refer to the penultimate paragraph, ‘The German army,
2. (b) Refer to the lines, ‘Armed free-corps bands sprang up all contrary to its traditions, was now deep in politics,
over Germany and were secretly equipped by the especially in Bavaria, where at last it had established a
Reichswehr.’ This makes option A, incorrect, as it an government to its liking. To further its conservative
authentic information given in the passage. Refer to the views, it gave the soldiers courses of “political
lines, ‘At first, they were mainly used to fight the Poles instruction”…’ This makes option B correct. Option A is
and the Balts on the disputed eastern frontiers, making with reference to Hitler, and not all soldiers were
option C incorrect, as it an authentic information given assigned to a job in the Press and News Bureau of the
in the passage. Refer to the lines, ‘one of them, the Political Department of the Army’s district command.
notorious Ehrhardt Brigade, led by a freebooter, Captain Option C is incorrect as the German army was known for
Ehrhardt, occupied Berlin…’, making option D incorrect, being authoritarian, but promotion of its conservative
as it an authentic information given in the passage. Refer view required a tactical approach of gaining political
to the lines, ‘In Munich, at the same time a different kind mileage.
of military coup d’etat was more successful. On March 5. (b) The statement implies that the armed free corps
14, 1920, the Reichswehr overthrew the Hoffmann suddenly rose to prominence and spread all over
Socialist Government and installed a right-wing regime Germany; therefore, the best expression is ‘sprang up’.
under Gustav von Kahr.’ This is NOT true because it was Option (a) may appear close, but the expression ‘beefed
not the armed free corps which overthrew the Hoffman’s up means to add strength, number or force in order to
socialist government, but Reichswehr, making option B strengthen. In the context, it is not the correct meaning
as the correct answer. as the numbers on the free-corps bands were already in
place as they were secretly equipped by the Reichswehr.

196
 It was at that time that they took over Germany. Option in the perception of and dealing with death between the
(c) is incorrect as ‘pulled up’ means to bring to a halt/ to West and India by saying that in India, death is dealt
draw closer or to pull out, which is contrary to the more calmly as there is a basic acceptance to it, unlike in
meaning. Option (d) is irrelevant in the context as ‘to eke the West where death is not accepted that easily.
out’ a living means barely able to survive in the given Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) is
means or to supplement. For example, To eke out a living confined to the perception of the West. Option (c) is out
by doing additional work. of scope, and option (d) does not reveal how ideology
6. (d) Engaging in conflicts on disputed eastern frontiers helps in understanding death. It is too vast a concept.
In the passage, it is mentioned that armed free-corps 11. (d) comes close in capturing the essence of the passage. The
bands were established all over Germany and were author in the passage talks of life and death through the
secretly equipped by the Reichswehr. Initially, these river of knowing, which is the understanding death
bands were primarily used to fight against the Poles and through spiritual and cultural osmosis. It is also what
the Balts on the disputed eastern frontiers. This differentiates how the West and India perceive them
indicates that their main purpose was to engage in differently. Refer to the lines, ‘Death is woven seamlessly
conflicts and military actions in those regions rather into the fabric of life.’ And, ‘So, while in the midst of grief
than other activities such as supporting the Regular it is hard for anyone to be philosophical, nonetheless
Army or specific political figures like Dr. Wolfgang Kapp. that awareness, that cultural and spiritual river of
7. (b) can be inferred from the passage. Refer to the lines, Knowing flows beneath and through the grief, enabling
‘Moored to my western understanding about life…’ And, an awareness that we won’t be going anywhere, and it
‘I will be going back to my village tomorrow. My brother will be merely like moving from one room to another
has died,” our cook announced matter-of-factly.’ The room.’ Option (a) is close, but option (d) is better suited
lines indicate that the author is a westerner residing in as it takes the specifics from the passage (river of
India. Option (a) cannot be inferred as one cannot say knowing); whereas, option (a) is a general subject
that the author is a Christian, even if the passage matter. Option (b), again, is slightly vague and expansive.
suggests strongly. There are people with following The cultural differences can be many. What differences
different. religion. Option (c) is contrary to what is are being talked about. Option (c) does not capture the
mentioned in the passage. Refer to the lines, ‘A lot of this, essence of the passage.
of course, is due to theological differences in cultures.’ Certainly! The likely source of this passage is:
Option (d) can be eliminated as one cannot infer 12. (b) An article discussing cultural perspectives on life and
whether the author is highly influenced by the culture. death
A culture are societal beliefs, philosophy, values and also The passage discusses contrasting cultural perspectives
music art and literature. It is too vast to be deduced from on life and death, particularly focusing on the Western
the passage. The author only mentions the theological view versus the Indian perspective rooted in Hindu
difference in both the cultures. beliefs. It explores how different cultures approach and
8. (a) While all the options are synonyms of the word perceive death, highlighting the Western aversion and
‘moored’, option (a) which means related to; connected discomfort towards death as opposed to the Indian
or bonded, as of affection, birth or mutual interest acceptance and integration of death into life. This
between people, groups or nations is most appropriated analysis aligns more closely with the theme of an article
in the context of the passage. The author means that her discussing cultural perspectives rather than a memoir,
association with the western understanding of life and philosophical treatise, or fictional story. The passage
death is because of her connection (perhaps by birth) delves into theological differences, attitudes towards
with the west. Option (c) is close, but the meaning of aging, funeral rituals, and the concept of the eternal soul,
‘linked’ is joined or associated, which is general. Option indicating an informative exploration of cultural
(b) and (d) are out of context with regard to the context. viewpoints rather than a narrative or philosophical
9. (a) is the essence of the passage that the author argument. Therefore, option B is the most suitable
communicates through the passage. The entire passage choice based on the content and context of the passage.
revolves around the author’s understanding of death 13. (c) Option (c) is the correct choice. Refer to " The feat relies
through the theological inspiration and reference from on a phenomenon called radiative cooling: Everything
Bhagavata Gita. The comparison with the west is to on Earth emits heat in the form of invisible infrared rays
highlight her proclivity towards Indian perception of that rise skyward. At night, in the absence of mercury-
death. Option (b) is a referral point but not the main idea raising daylight, this can chill something enough to
that the author wants to communicate. Option (c) is not produce ice" which clearly describes how the principle
what the author wants to communicate. Option (d) on which the grocery's system is based upon. Rest of the
appears very close, but on a closer look is a view of the options describe the phenomenon incorrectly.
self (for the author). Also, whether the expression Hence, option (c) is correct. The rest of the options find
‘absolute readiness to go at any moment’ is what the no mention in the passage. They, in fact, contradict the
author wants to communicate as a generalized concept information provided in the passage.
is debatable. 14. (b) Option (b) is the correct choice. Since the given sentence
10. (b) Refer to the lines, ‘Here, in India, sadness at the loss of a clearly conveys that it was Raman who designed the
loved one feels more like a wave on the surface of the system that is installed on the rooftop of the grocery
ocean, turbulent for a while but mitigated by the outlet that works on the principle of radiative cooling, so
mourners’ anchoring in the peace and stillness of the it is comprehensible that he found the effect of radiative
depths of the ocean. They seem to have an inherent cooling so impressive with which he can contribute to
grounding in ‘This is all God’s plan. We must accept it.’ saving the nature. Rest of the options are untrue.
The author in the passage brings out the stark difference Hence, option (b) is correct.

197
15. (d) In the given context, the phrase 'mercury-raising' is used sweeping theories are about grasping ideas from
with 'daylight', so it more likely means 'hot' because the different sources.
sun is present during the day, heating up the 20. (b) Option B is the distorted viewpoint or inference derived
environment. Rest of the words are unrelated to the from the passage. Refer to the lines, ‘Now two
phrase. simultaneous crises — climate change and the
Hence, option (d) is correct. pandemic — are putting governments to the test.’ The
16. (d) Noticeably, part B does not match with the context of author states two crises, whereas, in option B, the stated
part A (the two parts talk about different things), but the lines talk of climate change arising out of the pandemic.
context of part D perfectly matches with that of part A The rest of the options are a true representation of the
(figures in same quantity- number in billion and related author’s viewpoints. Option A can be derived from the
things- air conditioners and refrigerators). So, by entirety of the passage. It is also the essence of the
interchanging the parts B and D, a meaningful sentence passage. Option C can be derived from the lines,
is formed. The order of the sentence is: ADCB. ‘Democracies have done slightly better. But experts
Rearranged sentence: By 2050, more than 4.5 billion stress that this small gap may not reflect that
air conditioners and 1.6 billion refrigerators are democracies are better equipped, but rather that
projected to consume nearly 40 percent of all electricity. countries with, for example, stronger health systems
In option (a), letter C will not be followed by letter A. In may be likelier to be democratic.’ Option D can be
options (b) and (c), letter C will not introduce the derived from the lines, ‘…especially given China’s world-
sentences, as it vague. shaking rise and deepening frustration in the West
Hence, option (d) is correct. over political infighting.
17. (c) Option (c) is the correct choice. It is known that Raman 21. (b) Only statement II is grammatically sound; therefore,
used the concept of radiative cooling in that grocery option B is correct. In statement I, the noun ‘crisis’
outlet and his start-up uses that phenomenon only, this should be in the plural (crises), as there are two crises.
is because the principle of radiative cooling is a natural In statement III, the word ‘than’ should be replaced with
one which does not have any side effects on nature ‘then’. Than is used for comparison, and ‘then’ denotes
unlike technologies of air conditioning and refrigeration. ‘besides’ or also’. In statement IV, the noun ‘democracy’s’
So, he wants to overthrow such technologies which seem should be replaced with ‘democracies’ to denote the
to be beneficial but actually aren't with the concepts like plural form, along with a possessive case.
radiative cooling that are natural and very effective. Rest 22. (a) Refer to the lines, ‘At the same time, while some
of the options are incorrect. democracies have excelled in dealing with climate-
Hence, option (c) is correct. Option (a) is contrary, as it related matters, others have struggled, particularly the
is against the idea of Raman. Option (b) was not the goal United States, which this month saw yet another climate
of the company, to begin with. Option (d) is far-fetched. plan collapse amid congressional gridlock.’
18. (b) Optimistic and innovative In the passage, the author states that the failure of the
The passage discusses innovative technology developed climate plan was because congress members did not
by Aaswath Raman and his start-up, SkyCool Systems, reach a consensus, which resulted in a deadlock;
which aims to address the challenges posed by therefore, option A is the correct answer. Options B and
increasing demand for air conditioning and refrigeration D are also synonyms for the word gridlock, but they are
in the context of global warming. The tone of the passage unsuited in the context of the passage. Option C is an
is optimistic because it highlights the potential of this antonym.
technology to "flip the script" on traditional cooling 23. (d) In the passage, the author states that a general
methods and reduce the environmental impact perception of which government- democracy or
associated with cooling systems. authoritarian- will outdo the other during crises has not
The passage describes how radiative cooling, utilized by come to pass, and their current crises have less to do
SkyCool's shiny tiles, can naturally lower building with the inherent structural system but with political
temperatures without consuming additional energy or roadblocks and infighting. Refer to the lines. Still,
emitting greenhouse gases. The mention of competitors discussions about which system is more effective in
and researchers working on similar approaches further addressing major national challenges draw heavy
suggests an optimistic outlook on the potential for attention, especially given China’s world-shaking rise
innovative solutions to mitigate the energy burden and and deepening frustration in the West over political
environmental consequences of cooling technologies. infighting.’ And, ‘But Beijing’s pledges for reducing
Therefore, option B, "Optimistic and innovative," best greenhouse gasses have been thwarted by political
captures the overall tone of the passage as it focuses on
infighting and short-term imperatives….democracies.’
a positive and forward-looking perspective towards
And, ‘And either system can falter, as with China’s
addressing climate-related challenges with
pushing pandemic restrictions to the point of cratering
technological advancements.
its own economy, or the U.S.’ climate plans collapsing
19. (a) Sweeping can mean extensive, widespread or overly
under the opposition of a senator who represents one-
broad. A sweeping statement, remark, power or theory
half of 1% of the population.’ It is evident that option D
implies that a concept is indiscriminate, not marked by
best depicts the lesson that the author wishes to convey.
fine distinctions and is applied broadly. Therefore,
Options A is contrary and option B is incomplete in its
option A best encapsulates the idea. Option B is
message. Option C is incorrect, for the author does not
incorrect, for the expression ‘with scientific evidence’
mention any other system.
provides a contrary interpretation. Option C is incorrect,
24. (b) Metaphor
for it is contrary in meaning. Option D does not qualify
In the sentence, the phrase "authoritarian nations like
as a correct interpretation. One cannot assume that
China would be uniquely equipped to tackle challenges

198
 like climate change" employs a metaphor. This is 30. (b) The 22nd edition of the International Conference on
because it metaphorically compares authoritarian AIDS and Sexually Transmitted Infections in Africa
nations to being equipped with specific tools or abilities (ICASA 2023) in Harare, Zimbabwe in December 2023
("uniquely equipped") for addressing challenges like represents a tremendous opportunity to highlight the
climate change. The metaphor suggests that the diverse nature of the African region's HIV epidemic and
characteristics of authoritarian nations (centralized the unique response to it.
authority and generational timelines for plans) were 31. (c) 'Namami Gange Programme', is an Integrated
perceived as advantageous or effective in dealing with Conservation Mission, approved as 'Flagship
complex problems. Programme' by the Union Government in June
Metaphors compare two different things by stating that 2014 with budget outlay of Rs.20,000 Crore to
one thing is another to emphasize a similarity or quality. accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of
In this case, it's not stating that authoritarian nations pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National
literally have physical tools, but it's using the concept of River Ganga.
being "equipped" to convey the perceived advantage of 32. (d) PM Modi first introduced the concept during the first
their governance style. National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur in 2019,
Therefore, option B, "Metaphor," is the correct answer where he urged for a shift from Namami Gange, the
to the question about the figure of speech used in the Union Government’s flagship project to clean the Ganga,
sentence. to the model of Arth Ganga.
Under Arth Ganga, the government is working on six
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE verticals. The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming,
which involves chemical-free farming on 10 km on
25. (b) The theme of World AIDS Day 2023 is 'Let communities
either side of the river, and the promotion of cow dung
lead,' highlighting the fact that programs and initiatives
as fertiliser through the GOBARdhan scheme.
perform better when driven by the most impacted
33. (a) Asok Kumar, the Director General of the National
communities.
Mission for Clean Ganga, spoke about the Arth Ganga
26. (c) On 1st December, the European Parliament, under the
model during his virtual keynote address to the
Spanish Presidency of the Council of the European Union
Stockholm World Water Week 2022 on Wednesday
is hosting a commemorative act on Ending AIDS in
(August 24). Since 1991, the Stockholm International
Europe, with the theme: “HIV and Human Rights:
Water Institute has been organising the World Water
political action to achieve zero stigma”. Dr Hans Kluge,
Week every year to address global water concerns.
WHO Regional Director for Europe will join Dr Mónica
34. (b) The Ganges river, considered sacred by more than 1
García, Minister of Health of Spain, Christine Stegling,
billion Indians, has become the first non-human entity
UNAIDS Deputy Executive Director and other global
in India to be granted the same legal rights as people.
leaders, to speak about the power of community-led
A court in the northern Indian state of Uttarakhand
responses and to advance on the agenda to eliminate all
ordered on Monday that the Ganges and its main
forms of stigma and discrimination associated to HIV in
tributary, the Yamuna, be accorded the status of living
order to eliminate AIDS as a public health problem by
human entities.
2030.
The decision, which was welcomed by
27. (d) On 1st December, the European Parliament, under the
environmentalists, means that polluting or damaging
Spanish Presidency of the Council of the European Union
the rivers will be legally equivalent to harming a person.
is hosting a commemorative act on Ending AIDS in
35. (c) Promotion of Yoga and Meditation
Europe, with the theme: “HIV and Human Rights:
Six pillars of Arth-Ganga identified are: Promotion of
political action to achieve zero stigma”. Dr Hans Kluge,
Natural Framing on 5 kms band either side of River
WHO Regional Director for Europe will join Dr Mónica
Ganga; Monetisation and reuse of Treated water and
García, Minister of Health of Spain, Christine Stegling,
sludge from the STPs; Improvement of Livelihood
UNAIDS Deputy Executive Director and other global
opportunities, particularly for women; Promotion of
leaders, to speak about the power of community-led
Tourism and Cultural heritage; People’s Participation
responses and to advance on the agenda to eliminate all
and Building of capacities and institutions.
forms of stigma and discrimination associated to HIV in
Implementation of these initiatives is aimed to develop
order to eliminate AIDS as a public health problem by
sustainable development model with focus on economic
2030.
activities related to river Ganga. Several activities under
28. (b) Geneva is a city in Switzerland that lies at the southern
Arth Ganga have been taken up by National Mission for
tip of expansive Lac Léman (Lake Geneva). Surrounded
Clean Ganga in coordination with various
by the Alps and Jura mountains, the city has views of
ministries/departments and other stakeholders, to
dramatic Mont Blanc. Headquarters of Europe’s United
achieve the goal.
Nations and the Red Cross, it’s a global hub for
36. (a) Revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies
diplomacy and banking. French influence is widespread,
Under Arth Ganga, the government is working on six
from the language to gastronomy and bohemian districts
verticals. The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming,
like Carouge.
which involves chemical-free farming on 10 km on
29. (c) On the occasion of World AIDS Day 2023, themed “Let
either side of the river, and the promotion of cow dung
communities lead,” it is imperative to reflect on India's
as fertiliser through the GOBARdhan scheme. The
journey in combating the HIV/AIDS epidemic. Since its
Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater is the
first recorded HIV case in 1986, India has seen a
second, which seeks to reuse treated water for
substantial decrease in new infections, a testament to its
irrigation, industries and revenue generation for Urban
robust public health strategies.
Local Bodies (ULBs).

199
37. (c) Iran officially became the Ninth Member Country of the on June 13-15, 2023 in Kolkata. The conclave aims to
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) during the promote trade and investment opportunities, enhance
23rd SCO Summit 2023. connectivity and cooperation, and showcase the
38. (b) India is hosting the presidency of the Shanghai potential of the Bay of Bengal region.
Cooperation Organization (SCO) for the year 2023 47. (b) An MoU between the BIMSTEC Secretariat and the
amongst the eight member states that make up this International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) was
consortium. The Ministry of Tourism, Government of signed at the 2nd BIMSTEC Agriculture Ministers
India has completed SCO Tourism Mart from 9th-11th meeting hosted by India on November 10, 2022. The
February 2023, SCO Expert Level Tourism Working MoU aims to enhance cooperation in agricultural
Group Meeting and SCO Tourism Minister’s Meeting in research and development, food security and nutrition,
Kashi (Varanasi) from 13th – 18th March 2023 and the and policy analysis among the BIMSTEC countries.
last SCO Millet Food Festival, which will be held at Taj 48. (b) In the spectrum of areas of cooperation, BIMSTEC has
Mahal Palace, Mumbai from 13th to 19th April 2023. also reduced the number from 14 sectors to seven
39. (d) Turkey is not an observer state of the SCO as of 2023, but comprehensive domains. While this certainly makes
a dialogue partner. The observer states of the SCO are BIMSTEC’s objectives more feasible, a lean budget of
Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia. approximately US$ 200,000 remains a persistent
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an concern. Although initiatives had been undertaken for
intergovernmental organization founded in Shanghai on the creation of a BIMSTEC Development Fund intended
15 June 2001. The SCO currently comprises of eight to ease the planning, and implementation of projects and
Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, programmes under the various cooperation areas, it is
Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan), four yet to be implemented. For BIMSTEC to be truly
Observer States interested in acceding to full effective, there is a need for adequate funding. ]
membership (Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran, and Mongolia) 49. (b) The Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope (shortened as
and six “Dialogue Partners” (Armenia, Azerbaijan, Roman or the Roman Space Telescope, and formerly the
Cambodia, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Turkey). Wide-Field Infrared Survey Telescope or WFIRST) is a
40. (a) South African President Cyril Ramaphosa hosted the NASA infrared space telescope in development and
15th BRICS summit at the Sandton Convention Centre in scheduled to launch by May 2027.
Johannesburg from 22 to 24 August 2023. 50. (d) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
41. (c) The main headquarters of the SCO Regional Anti- (NASA) is an independent agency of the U.S. federal
Terrorist Structure (RATS) is located in Tashkent, the government responsible for the civil space program,
capital of Uzbekistan. aeronautics research, and space research. Established in
42. (b) The objectives, functions, financing, and rules of 1958, NASA succeeded the National Advisory Committee
procedure of the SCO Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure for Aeronautics (NACA) to give the U.S. space
(RATS) are governed by the Shanghai Convention on development effort a distinctly civilian orientation,
Combating Terrorism, Separatism, and Extremism, an emphasizing peaceful applications in space science.
international treaty adopted by the member states of the 51. (b) The present chairman of ISRO is Sreedhara Panicker
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO). Somanath, commonly known as S Somanath. Somanath
43. (c) The Sixth Indian Ocean Conference was hosted by the has solid educational credentials and vast space science
India Foundation, the Ministry of External Affairs of and technology expertise. Somanath received his
India and the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of Bangladesh Bachelor of Engineering degree from the College of
in Dhaka, Bangladesh on 12-13 May 2023. The Engineering in Trivandrum, India.
conference was inaugurated by the Hon’ble Prime 52. (d) ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee for
Minister of Bangladesh and attended by the Secretary Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the Government
General of SAARC and other dignitaries. of India in 1962, as envisioned by Dr. VikramA Sarabhai.
44. (b) BIMSTEC faces new challenges. The COVID-19 pandemic ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 and superseded
and the Russia-Ukraine conflict have largely INCOSPAR with an expanded role to harness space
exacerbated issues of supply chain disruption, global technology. DOS was set up and ISRO was brought under
economic fallout, debt accumulation, inflation, and DOS in 1972.
energy and food insecurity. The growing challenge of The prime objective of ISRO/DOS is the development
climate change has further added to these anxieties. As and application of space technology for various national
most of these challenges are transnational, regional needs. To fulfil this objective, ISRO has established
partnerships have become necessary, even as issue- major space systemsfor communication, television
based minilateral collaborations are on the rise. To broadcasting and meteorological services; resources
navigate through these ongoing challenges, and to fulfil monitoring and management; space-based navigation
the broader aspirations of the BIMSTEC countries in the
services. ISRO has developed satellite launch vehicles,
Indo-Pacific, regional integration and
PSLV and GSLV, to place the satellites in the required
institutionalisation have become more important than
ever before. orbits.
45. (b) The permanent secretariat of BIMSTEC is located in
LEGAL REASONING
Dhaka, Bangladesh. It was established in September
2014 and inaugurated by the Prime Minister of 53. (d) Even though H died due to the shoulder wound dealt to
Bangladesh and the Secretary General of BIMSTEC. him by A, the intent thereof has to be determined via the
46. (d) The BIMSTEC Business Conclave is being organized by weapon used, i.e. the machete, the wounded area, i.e. the
the Indian Chamber of Commerce with the support of the shoulder and the nature of the injury, i.e. grave. Last para
Ministry of External Affairs of the Government of India of the passage also mentions that In IPC it has also been

200
 mentioned that where death is caused by bodily injury, is incorrect as it has been clearly mentioned in last line
the person who causes such bodily injury shall be of the passage. . Option D is incorrect as the reason of
deemed to have caused the death, although by resorting death does logically flow out of the injuries dealt to the
to proper remedies and skilful treatment the death loan shark and not otherwise.
might have been prevented. As a result even though he 58. (c) In accordance with the passage above, in para four, the
died due to excessive blood loss but injury was caused intent to murder, a deadly weapon and a grave injury, all
by A. hence option A stands correct. On the basis of same are absent, leading to the present case not satisfying the
reasoning option B and C stands incorrect. Option A is offence therein. Option A is incorrect as the loan shark,
incorrect as even though his demise may have arisen out while died due to falling into the pit, did not die out of his
of the wound, but option D includes all the factors of own fault, and was stimulated towards the same by the
option A. Thus, option A can be eliminated. blow of the lathi and his underlying disease. Option bBis
54. (d) Since the factual matrix clearly provides that even incorrect as the disease was not the cause of the death
though the intent to murder was for H but eventually the here, as it only aggravated his fall but did not cause the
action of A led the death of B. it does not matter death same. Option D is incorrect as the intent behind the self-
was caused of same person or of other person as the defense manoeuvre cannot be discerned since the same
intention was of murder. Thus option D stands correct. has not been described with elements in the fourth para
On the basis of same reasoning option A is incorrect. above.
Option B is also correct but as option D provide better 59. (b) Statement 1 is correct as according to the passage, the
explanation by including the content of option B, thus court must satisfy itself, that it was in fact essential to
option B can be eliminated. Injury was caused on B’s examine such a witness, or to recall him for further
neck which is a vital part of the body thus is a grave examination in order to arrive at a just decision of the
injury. Hence option C is incorrect. case. Thus, Power under section 311 must be exercised,
55. (a) Since the report above has returned as being provided that the evidence that is likely to be tendered by
inconclusive and since the mere indication of Maya a witness, is germane(relevant) to the issue involved.
possessing a poison and a probable grudge cannot be Statement 2 is correct as according to the passage,
equated to murderous intent, and certainly cannot “Undoubtedly, CrPC has conferred a very wide
implicate Maya for the same. Option B is incorrect as the discretionary power upon the court in this respect, but
mere lack of poison cannot be the only deciding factor such a discretion is to be exercised judiciously and not
here, since there is not intent or act either, which has arbitrarily.” Therefore it is correct to say that, The power
been provided above in the fourth para. Option C is conferred under Section 311 CrPC must therefore, be
incorrect as no discernible chain of events can be made invoked by the court only in order to meet the ends of
out from the current details. Option D is incorrect as justice, for strong and valid reasons, and the same must
even though Maya had the means and opportunity to be exercised with great caution and circumspection.
commit the murder, there is no explicit evidence that she Statement 3 is incorrect as the passage suggest that CrPC
did so. 3rd para 2nd line of the passage clearly states that has conferred a very wide discretionary power upon the
the ingredients of the offence should be proved beyond court in this respect, but such a discretion is to be
any shadow of doubt. As in present case there is no facts exercised judiciously and not arbitrarily. Thus, limited
that proves the case beyond any doubt thus A is more by aspects of arbitrariness. Thus, not correct.
appropriate answer. Statement 4 is incorrect as according to the passage,
56. (d) Since the evidence above does conclusively point court expressed that,it is the duty of every Court to
towards Sumit having murdered his classmate and it ensure that fair and proper opportunities are granted to
also proves that the wound was dealt by the compass the accused for just decision of the case. Thus, Adducing
mentioned above. It is also proved that the compass of evidence by the accused in support of his defense is a
belonged to sumit. Thus offence is proved beyond any valuable right and allowing the same will be in the
shadow of doubt. As a result option D stands correct. interest of justice and not other way around.
Option A is incorrect as the element of intent only is not Option B is correct as statement I & II best describes the
to be ventured into, the elements pertaining to evidence context of the passage.
is also to be considered, which have been provided in the 60. (d) Option A is incorrect as the lower court’s order was
fourth para. Option B is incorrect as all evidence points against the accused. Thus, not correct. Option B is
towards sumit. All dots can be connected thus there will incorrect as according to the observation of court, is the
be no shadow of doubt. Option C is incorrect as the mere duty of every Court to ensure that fair and proper
presence of a dangerous weapon near the incident of the opportunities are granted to the accused for just
offence cannot prove sumit is liable. decision of the case. Thus, it will against the context of
57. (a) Since the facts provide a clear distinction between and the passage if we say that as interest of accused do not
murderous intent and a plea for self defense in the action have find any place in bear reading of section 311.
of throwing a tool at the loan shark. Thus, the resulting Option C is incorrect as according to the passage, there is
injuries cannot be held to be murder. Last line of the discretionary power upon the court in respect to section
passage clearly states that though person may use 311, but such a discretion is to be exercised judiciously and
reasonable force to protect himself under self-defence. not arbitrarily. Thus, the statement given here makes no
Thus option A stands correct. Option B is incorrect as the relevance to the rule given, neither to the facts. As a result,
mere action of throwing a tool at someone cannot be incorrect.
held to be equivalent to murder, as other elements like Option D is correct as it is the duty of every Court to
intent, grave nature, death, etc, also need to be fulfilled, ensure that fair and proper opportunities are granted to
as given in the fourth para. Option C is incorrect as the the accused for just decision of the case. Thus, the lower
assumption that self-defense has not been defined in law court's judgment should be reversed on the grounds that

201
 it was necessary to examine such a witness, or to recall all reasonable precautions. He was crossing the road
him for further examination, in order to arrive at a just when the pedestrian light was green. Therefore, he
decision in the case. cannot be held negligent. Option D is incorrect as
61. (d) – Option A is incorrect as the very use of words such as Andre is the party who is at fault, since he ran a red
“any court”, “at any stage”, or “or any enquiry, trial or light. There is no negligence from Slimey’s side.
other proceedings”, “any person” and “any such person”
Parking of his car wrongly is not connected to the
clearly spells out that the provisions of this section have
been expressed in the widest possible terms, and do not accident in any way.
limit the discretion of the court in any way. There is thus 65. (a) Option A is correct as it was the responsibility of A to
no escape if the fresh evidence to be obtained is essential check before opening the door of his vehicle and Z
to the just decision of the case. Thus, it is not confined to cannot be accounted for any mistake as he could not
court witnesses .Option B is incorrect as the expression have, in any way, foreseen the act. Option B is
includes defense witness as well. incorrect as being is hurry is not an excuse for
Option C is also incorrect as there is no escape in section negligent act. Option C is incorrect as Z did not
311 if the fresh evidence to be obtained is essential to the contribute to the injury. He was simply riding his
just decision of the case. Thus, it can be exercised even bicycle. Option D is incorrect as the reasoning is very
after accused had closed his defense. general.
Option D is correct as the bear reading of section 311of
66. (c) Option A is incorrect as it was Zo’s fault that he was
CrPC empowers the court to summon a material witness,
or to examine a person present at “any stage” of “any walking on train tracks in an inebriated state. Option
enquiry”, or “trial”, or “any other proceedings” under B is incorrect as this is a case of contributory
CrPC, or to summon any person as a witness. So under negligence where both the parties- plaintiff and
the ambit of any person everyone is covered. So accused defendant were at fault. Therefore, the railway
will also be under ambit of any person. authorities cannot be asked to pay compensation.
62. (d) Option A is not correct as Section 311 CrPC empowers Option C is correct as Zo's negligence also contributed
the court to summon a material witness, or to examine a to the cause of the accident and therefore, the railway
person present at “any stage” of “any enquiry”, or “trial”, authorities cannot be held liable. Option D is incorrect
or “any other proceedings”. Thus, the plea will not be as the defense plaintiff is the wrongdoer or volenti non
dismissed as section 311 can be invoked at any stage of fit injuria will not apply, since it is a case of
the trial or in any other proceeding as well. Therefore
contributory negligence. Both Zo and the guard were
the motion filed by the prosecution will be entertained
by the court. As a result option D is correct because, CrPC
at fault.
has conferred a very wide discretionary power upon the 67. (a) Option A is correct as A clearly had the 'last chance'
court in this respect, but such a discretion is to be to avoid hitting the bike on the road, even though Z
exercised judiciously and not arbitrarily. had negligently parked the vehicle. Therefore, A will
Option B is incorrect, because the prosecution, according be liable to pay the compensation. Option B is
to the facts, filed another petition with the court to allow incorrect as the reasoning provided in option A is
the examination of the other two witnesses. As a result, more comprehensive. The reasoning in option b is
the court will grant the application if it is satisfied that it quite general and does not pertain directly to the
was indeed necessary to examine such a witness, or to question. Option C is incorrect as A was driving at a
recall them for further investigation, in order to reach a very high speed and he had the last opportunity to
just decision on the matter. As a result, option D, which
avoid the accident. Option D is incorrect as A had the
offers this reasoning, is valid.
Option C is incorrect as suo moto cognizance is not the
last chance to avoid the accident. Therefore, he will be
context of the facts. Thus, cannot be considered on basis liable.
of an assumption. 68. (a) Option A is correct as the factual matrix asks about what
63. (c) Option A is incorrect as Zoe was also at fault. She are testamentary proceedings. as it rightly explains the
term in context of court proceeding. Thus, correct.
started crossing the busy street on foot being
Option B is incorrect as it generally provides an
engrossed in her phone. Option B is incorrect as there explanation as to what are cases of testamentary
was contributory negligence. Therefore, A cannot be succession but does not explain testamentary
held liable to pay compensation. Option C is correct proceeding. Option C is ineligible since it provides a
as Z's negligence contributed to the accident, because generic explanation for one of the requirements for
both A and Z were responsible to look out for each submitting a caveat application, which is that it be of a
other. Option D is incorrect as it was Aman’s duty to civil nature.
take reasonable precautions were driving. Therefore, Option D is inappropriate since the offered statement
if Zoe was trying to cross the street Aman should have makes no mention of the nature of the proceeding and
been careful. instead calls for a court order in a civil dispute. As a
64. (a) Option A is correct as Slimey crossed the road only result, incorrect.
69. (d) Option (a) is not correct as according to the facts, she
when the pedestrian light was green, which implies
denied for his father’s help in establishing her business.
that A ran in a red light, knowing fully well that this Thus, the given assertion is not true.
could cause an accident. Option B is incorrect as the Option (b) is incorrect since the paragraph does not
factual situation does not mention that he hit Slimey state that a foreign national may not bring a caveat in
intentionally... Option C is incorrect as Slimey took Indian court. Furthermore, neither the passage nor the

202
 context says that a married daughter will no longer be Therefore, Option (b) is correct as Both A and R are true
able to file a claim. As a result, pursuant to the facts in and R is correct explanation of A.
paragraph 3 of the passage, she is allowed to file a caveat. 73. (b) as the offer by the stranger has been accepted by Madhu
In testamentary proceedings, the phrase 'caveat' is and thus a promise has come into existence. An offer
frequently used. Last 4th line of 3rd para clearly states when accepted becomes a promise and in this case the
that a person lodging a caveat may not be a necessary stranger has offered to sell his watch to Madhu who had
party to such an application, but he may be affected by agreed to buy the same, thus indication intention. Option
an order or have any interest of person related that may (c) is incorrect on the same grounds. Option (a) is
be passed on such an application. Hence, Option (d) is incorrect as the consideration is an essential ingredient
correct. to an agreement and not a promise. Promise when
Option (c) is not correct as according to the facts, her combined with consideration forms an agreement.
mother already filed a case, but here it states the case is Option (d) is incorrect as the intention of the parties is
expected to be filed in the Court of Law, relating her clear from the factual matrix as they intended to sell and
interest in any way. Thus, not correct. purchase the watch respectively.
70. (b) Option (a) is not correct as a caveat application is filed 74. (d) as there was no intention to create any binding legal
as a precautionary measure taken against the grant of intention intended by Madhu to sell her house and hence
probate or letters of administration, as the case may be, no agreement has been reached between the parties and
by the person lodging the caveat. Such a person lodging therefore no question of breach exists. The factual
a caveat may not be a necessary party to such an matrix has clearly provided that Madhu had offered to
application, but he may be affected by an order that may sell the house in a jovial manner not intending to create
be passed on such an application. As a result, Option (b) any legal relationship between Rani and her. Therefore,
is correct since, in the event that a court issues a probate the offer and acceptance must not only be
in her absence, she can file an application of caveat. communicated but there must exist a legal intention to
Option (c) is incorrect since the statement defines what enter into such a relationship as well. Option (a) and
a caveat application is and there are no plausible Option (c) are incorrect on the same grounds. Option (b)
circumstances under which Jhanvi can file a caveat is incorrect as the adequacy of the contract is not of
application. essence in a contract.
Option (d) is incorrect because the stated statement 75. (b) as contract with Ankita would be void from the
does not validly justify the circumstances under which beginning as she is a minor and cannot be enforced.
Jhanvi can file a caveat application, as presented in Therefore, no money can be extracted from Ankita by the
Option (b). As a result, Option (d) is incorrect. storekeeper. One of the essentials of a valid contract is
71. (a) Option (a) is correct as according to Para 3 of the that the parties must be competent to contract which
passage, it is a precautionary measure taken against the includes that the party must be major. According to the
grant of probate or letters of administration, as the case factual matrix in hand, it is apparent that Ankita was 15
years old i.e. a minor and therefore not competent to
may be, by the person lodging the caveat. As a result,
contract. Thus, the contract entered by minor is void ab
correct. Option (d), while close, gives additional
initio and no obligation arises from it therefore Ankita
information not asked for in the factual question,
would not be liable. Option (c) and Option (d) are
because the factual question only questions about the
incorrect on the same grounds. Option (a) is incorrect as
nature of filing a caveat and not whether it can be filed
the passage has been clear that no obligation can be
in a civil or criminal case. As a result, not considered.
made on a minor.
Option (b) is not correct as firstly, Para 3 explains
76. (a) as the fact that Ankita is a minor would entail that the
precautionary nature of application of caveat. Secondly, contract is void ab intio and therefore the contract
there is no mention of principles of natural justice in the cannot be enforced. One of the essentials of a valid
passage. Hence, it cannot be said that it is followed on contract is that the parties must be competent to
the pretext of principle of natural justice i.e., the person contract which includes that the party must be major.
whose interest is likely to be affected, be given an According to the factual matrix in hand, it is apparent
opportunity of hearing. that Ankita was 15 years old i.e. a minor and therefore
Option (c) not correct, though the assumption is valid, not competent to contract. Thus, the contract entered by
the application of caveat in testamentary procedures is minor is void ab initio and no obligation arises from it
solely precautionary in nature. As a result, incorrect. therefore Ankita would not be liable. Option (b) and
72. (b) Assertion allows for information that is correct. Second Option (c) are incorrect on these grounds. Option (d) is
para last line mentions that it is a precautionary measure incorrect as the passage has amply provided that age is
taken against the grant of probate or letters of the factor in determining the liability as to the
administration, as the case may be, by the person obligations and now the fact whether Ankita appeared
lodging the caveat. Such a person lodging a caveat in to be a major.
probate may not be a necessary party to such an 77. (d) as the contract was vague and hence lacked the essential
application, but he may be affected by an order or have of certainty, therefore, it cannot be enforced by
any interest of person related to him that may be passed Brijmohan. As per section 29 of the Act, a contract is said
on such an application. Thus assertion is correct. to be certain if terms of the contract can be understood
Reason is also correctt. The relevant context was in the way it was intended to be understood and also are
clarified in the passage in relation to a probate not ambiguous and vague. However, according to the
application, which is mentioned here along with a factual matrix, which horse was intended to be sold was
section number. Thus reason explains the assertion. uncertain as it is clear that Rajesh had a collection of high
Thus B is the correct answer breed horses and during the discussion the horse
intended to be sold itself is unclear therefore no contract

203
 has come into existence and the contract cannot be due to the absolute privilege. Option (b) is incorrect on
enforced. Option (b) is incorrect on the same grounds. the same grounds as all statements made in the
Option (a) is incorrect due to the above reasons as the parliament are protected no matter their relevance in
terms of the offer lacked clarity as to the horse intended the parliament. Option (c) is incorrect as although the
to be sold. Option (c) is incorrect as it is independent of defence of truth or justification may not be a sufficient
the passage and factual matrix. defence in this case but the opposition leader would still
78. (a) as there was no consensus ad idem between the parties be protected owing to the absolute privilege. Option (d)
as to the horse intended to be sold and no contract itself is incorrect as, absolute privilege acts as a defence to
has come under existence therefore in the absence of the defamation.
formation of the contract the amount can be refunded to 83. (c) as it is the entity i.e. the parliament that is covered under
Brijmohan. There was no consensus ad idem between the defence of absolute privilege and outside the entity,
the parties as Rajesh was the owner of many horses and remarks made in personal capacity would not be
it is unclear as to the horse intended to be sold and covered by the defence. As is apparent from the facts, the
therefore no contract itself is in existence therefore absolute privilege is given during parliamentary
refund can be claimed. Option (b) is incorrect on the proceedings, for instance and the person cannot be
same grounds due to the vagueness and ambiguity as to protected for statements made outside such institutions
the terms of the contract itself. Option (c) and Option (d) and claim such institutional privilege. Therefore, he
are incorrect as it is independent of the passage and the would be liable for defamation. Option (a) and (b) would
factual matrix. be incorrect due to the aforesaid reasoning. Option (d) is
79. (b) as Mrs. Akhter made public some baseless rumours incorrect as it is immaterial to answer the question in
which failed to hamper the repute of Mrs. Rama. hand and is independent of any relevance to the passage.
Publication of any statements which hamper the repute 84. (d) since Anupama is unable to back her claims with proper
of a person would qualify as defamation. Therefore, Mrs. evidences and intention is immaterial in the claim of
Akhter would not be liable for defamation, as the defamation, MLA’s claim is likely to succeed. Since the
reputation was not lowered in anyone’s eyes. Option (a) defence against defamation is based on truth or
is incorrect as whether the statements made by her are justification, in the absence of being able to prove the
true or not cannot be ascertained from the given factual same, the defence cannot be availed despite the
matrix. Option (d) is incorrect as the nature of rumors is intention of the person making it as intention is
not in question. Option (c) is incorrect as the reputation immaterial in a claim for defamation as highlighted in
was not hampered. the passage. Due to these reasons Option (a) and Option
80. (a) as Mrs. Akhter would be protected by the defence of (b) would be incorrect. Option (c) is incorrect as merely
truth and would not be liable for defamation. According because the article is published around the elections
to the factual matrix, the relationship of Mrs. Rama timeline would be insufficient to draw the conclusion
deteriorated due to her relationship with her neighbor that the same was made with ill intention or with malice.
whom she has been dating for past one year. It is
immaterial whether the statement was entirely true or
not as long as it is substantially true, the aforesaid LOGICAL REASONING
defence can be availed. Option (b) is incorrect as there
was any bonafide comment or not cannot be ascertained 85. (c) It is a fact that socialism emerged as a reaction to
and the defence of truth becomes more apparent from capitalism, as stated in the first line of the passage.
the factual matrix. Option (c) and Option (d) would also Option (a) is relevant in the discussion.
be incorrect on the aforesaid grounds. The author has mentioned that one of the characteristics
81. (b) as RKR’s comment would be covered under the defence of capitalism is the survival of the fittest. Refer to the
of fair and bonafide comment. This defence can be lines- ‘They regarded the survival of the fittest as the
availed by RKR as he has not merely criticized the movie unquestionable law of nature.’ Option (b) is also based
but has, as per factual matrix, detailed on the logical on the passage.
fallacies and facts, thus the criticism would be covered The last paragraph of the passage has option (d). It says
under fair comment defence. The defence of truth or that capitalism has given wealth and prosperity to the
justification cannot be claimed in this scenario as world but has caused unemployment, over-production
justification requires proofs to back the claims and and economic disparity. Option (d) is also based on the
whether as per the movie, there are fallacies for every passage.
viewer would be a subjective question, thus making Option (c) is not mentioned in the passage. So, (c) is the
Option (a) incorrect. Option (c) is incorrect as whether correct answer.
the comments are made purely out of malice or not 86. (d) The economic disparity and overproduction were the
cannot be deduced from the passage. Option (d) is results of industrialisation. Industrialisation leads to the
incorrect as it is independent of the passage and the concentration of economic power in a few hands, along
factual matrix.
with overproduction due to uncontrolled utilisation of
82. (a) as the leader of opposition would be protected by an
resources. These are the facts stated in the second
absolute privilege as the comment was made during
paragraph of the passage. Option (a), (b) and (c) are
parliamentary proceedings. As the passage has clearly
connected with industrialisation.
stated that there is a complete bar against an action of
In the same paragraph, it has been mentioned that the
defamation even if the statement is defamatory when
such statement is made during a parliamentary doctrine of the harmony of interests was a fallacy. Hence,
proceeding, for instance. Hence, in the present case, option (d) is the correct exception that is not based on
despite the remark of the Leader to be defamatory in the facts given in the passage.
other scenarios, this would not qualify as defamation 87. (c) With regards to the competition, the author has
mentioned in the second paragraph that competition

204
 proved to be beneficial for increasing the efficiency of collection systems. One of the differences between the
production, but soon it proved detrimental for small later and the former is the size of their economy. East
companies. Big companies established their monopolies Asians countries have a much smaller economy. This
with their enormous resources, and the smaller could result in lack of waste management infrastructure.
companies were driven out of the competition. Option The given inference is probably true.
(c) is the correct answer. Hence the correct answer is (b).
Other options are not mentioned in the passage. Hence, 94. (d) Only options I, II & III are correct. The reasons are as
they are incorrect. follows:
88. (b) Option (a) cannot be certified from the passage. I: Blue Planet 2 made case for widespread harm caused
Option (b) is correct inference. Trade cycles of boom and by micro plastics. The image of the plastic as
depression are characteristic of a capitalist economy. In authentic and ugly had already existed. So, option I is
They are based on the supply and demand principles. false.
The last paragraph has the relevant facts. It says that II: If Europeans were as concerned as the statement
when the production reached a saturation point, People implies, they would not only forego plastic bags but also
began to apprehend that there might be a situation buy fuel-efficient cars. But they do only do the former,
where there were all sellers and no buyers. Cycles of and not the latter. The author chalks it up to plastic
boom and depression, known as trade cycles, became pollution being an eyesore. So, option II is false.
frequent. III: Breaking down large plastic products is one of the
Greed given in option (c) is not discussed in the passage. ways micro plastics are formed, not the only one. Some
Option (d) cannot be deduced that there are prolonged micro plastics are directly manufactured. So, option III is
boom and depression in economic activity. false.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Hence, the correct answer is (d).
89. (b) Option (a) does not strengthen Karl Marx's statement. It 95. (c) “The perception of plastics as ugly, unnatural,
does not give the seeds of destruction. inauthentic and disposable is not new. Visible plastic
Option (b) is the correct statement to strengthen the pollution is an old complaint…” and “Unlike other kinds
statement given in the question. The seeds of of pollution, plastic is an eyesore” show that the visible
destruction are imbibed in the repercussions of nature of the plastic compels people to be more
capitalism. These can be income disparity, conscious of their refuse. But, micro plastics do not have
unemployment and monopoly. These will ultimately this advantage and are often ignored.
lead to the destruction of capitalism. Hence, the correct answer is (c).
Option (c) is out of the scope of the passage. 96. (a) The last paragraph states that there is only one single
Option (d) fails to give the reason for the destruction of study that shows effects of plastic litter in coral reefs.
capitalism in society. They also say that “...little similar work exists for other…”
90. (d) Correct option: All the statements can be inferred from species. Hence the correct answer is (a).
the passage. Refer to the lines, ‘Socialism emerged as a 97. (d) The correct answer is d. A is incorrect because while it
reaction to capitalism.’ If Socialism was a reaction to suggests a perception of security among EU citizens, it
Capitalism, it can be deduced that Socialism in its doesn't directly link the categorization to innovation or
ideologies is very different, making statement I correct. the mitigation of harm. B is tempting because an
Statement II can be inferred from the lines, ‘Capitalism increase in patents might imply innovation, but it
indeed increased the wealth of the nation. It led to doesn't specifically address the balance of mitigating
unprecedented prosperity in Europe. Real wages went harm while fostering innovation, which is crucial here. C,
up everywhere. But very soon markets were flooded although positive, focuses on the reduction of harm
with goods. As the competition increased the system without clear evidence of how innovation is being
began to face crises.’ Statement III can be inferred from encouraged or maintained alongside. D is the correct
the lines, ‘England had become the first industrial nation answer because it directly ties the AI Act’s risk
in the world. The prosperity of Victorian England was categorization to positive outcomes in both innovation
there for everyone to see. People were convinced that (through increased R&D investment) and safety
competition increased efficiency and wealth in society.’ (targeting low-risk AI applications implies a focus on
91. (d) "...most plastics end up in vast rubbish patches fed by harm mitigation). This answer best encapsulates the
ocean circulation patterns…" This means ocean dual aim of the legislation.
circulation keeps the plastic waste in these gyres. Option 98. (b) The correct answer is b. The correct answer, B, directly
I, thus, correct. As a result of this entrapment, the plastic addresses the concern by pointing out that international
waste has much less effect on marine life and tech companies—the primary drivers of innovation—
biodiversity, which are absent from these gyres. view the AI Act as potentially limiting innovation. This
Option II is, thus, is also correct. Hence, the correct directly challenges the notion of a globally positive
answer is (d). impact by suggesting the Act could constrain the
92. (c) The second paragraph talks about the plastic waste on development and adoption of AI technologies
land. Option (c) states that not all of this waste remains worldwide. A is a trap because support from European
on land. This is further supported by the third businesses does not necessarily contradict the claim that
paragraph, which starts by stating that plastics ending the regulation might stifle innovation globally. C is
up in the oceans. Hence, the correct answer is (c). misleading because the GDPR's impact on consumer
93. (b) The passage states that “Most of the plastic in the ocean trust and company operations is distinct from the
comes...from countries in fast-developing East Asia…” potential global innovation impact of the AI Act. D seems
and the reason behind this is that these countries, unlike positive but does not address the criticism that
Europe and America, do not have efficient waste- regulation might stifle innovation; instead, it shows a

205
 short-term reaction that might not reflect long-term it involves communication and could be seen as a
global effects. metaphor for transparency, doesn't capture the essence
99. (a) The correct answer is a. A is the correct answer because of operating freely within a set framework, which is the
it directly measures the impact of the policy change on hallmark of the provision for minimal-risk systems.
innovation, a key aspect of the guideline's intent, by 103. (c) The correct answer, C, is the most defensible because it
looking at a quantifiable metric: the growth rates of AI addresses the underlying societal issue that can persist
startups before and after the policy shift. This provides a even when legal protections for free speech are
clear before-and-after comparison that is specifically strengthened and charges against dissenters are
related to innovation and economic activity, the areas quashed. This option directly points to the challenge of
most likely to be affected by the regulation change. achieving true inclusivity and equality of diverse
Option B, while offering insight into public perception, viewpoints in a society where majoritarian biases exist,
does not directly address the effectiveness of the which can stifle minority opinions outside of the legal
regulatory approach in balancing protection with sphere. A is incorrect because it focuses on enforcement
innovation. Option C offers a comparative analysis but agencies, which, while relevant, does not address the
does not specifically evaluate the effectiveness of India’s broader societal issue implied in the passage. B,
approach on its own merits, focusing instead on a concerning public awareness, does not directly tackle
comparison that might not account for unique local the problem of inclusivity and equality among diverse
factors. Option D, assessing the volume of AI-related viewpoints. D, suggesting external political pressures on
patents, could indicate innovation levels but does not judiciary decisions, introduces a potential threat but
capture the broader impact on rights protection and may does not directly link to the societal challenge of
reflect only a subset of innovation activities, making it inclusivity and equality of diverse viewpoints
less comprehensive than A. highlighted in the passage. Therefore, C best captures
100. (b) The correct answer is b. B is correct because the passage the essence of the potential threat to formal inclusivity
indicates that the EU's AI Act is the first comprehensive and equality of diverse viewpoints despite legal
framework of its kind, suggesting its potential role as a advancements in free speech protections.
model for others. This option directly aligns with the 104. (d) The correct answer, D, directly aligns with the implication
inference that countries developing their own AI that if the Supreme Court finds it necessary to emphasize
governance might look to the EU's legislation as a education on freedom of speech for the police, it
benchmark or example. Option A introduces a potential suggests a notable deficiency in their current
consequence not directly supported by the passage's understanding. Option A is incorrect because the Court's
focus on the Act's influence on governance frameworks. emphasis on education contradicts the notion of police
Option C, while plausible, assumes a degree of global having a complete grasp. Option B introduces a plausible
cooperation and uniformity that goes beyond the scope but less comprehensive issue, focusing only on
of the passage, which does not explicitly state that the occasional mistakes rather than a broad lack of
EU’s AI Act will lead to global standardization. Option D understanding. Option C suggests intentional disregard,
focuses on the competitive impact on companies rather which is not directly implied by the need for education;
than the influence on governance frameworks, making it the emphasis is on a gap in understanding rather than on
less relevant to the question of global influence on intentions. Thus, D is the best defended as it captures the
regulation. broad and systemic nature of the Court's concerns
101. (c) The correct answer is c. C is the correct answer because it regarding law enforcement's grasp of free speech
directly addresses the passage's theme regarding the principles.
difficulty of creating a regulatory framework that fosters 105. (c) The correct answer is C because it directly supports the
innovation and ensures safety and rights protection. It rationale for dismissing the charges by indicating that
encapsulates the essence of the challenge mentioned in the status was an exercise of free speech rooted in
the passage: fostering AI's transformative potential factual analysis, which aligns with the Court's emphasis
while managing the risks. Option A, while relevant, is on freedom of expression and the importance of dissent
more specific to privacy and doesn't encompass the in democracy. Option A introduces a privacy angle
broader challenge of balancing innovation with which, while potentially mitigating, doesn't directly
oversight. Option B focuses on societal harm, which, strengthen the Court's rationale on free speech grounds.
although important, is only one aspect of the oversight B is tempting as it suggests expert consensus, but
needed, not the broader challenge of balancing this with unanimous agreement among experts isn't necessary for
innovation. Option D shifts focus to international determining the status's protection under free speech
cooperation, which, while critical, is not identified in the laws. D acts as a trap by suggesting harm, which might
passage as the primary challenge in AI regulation. seem to justify charges, thus opposing the notion of
102. (a) The correct answer is a. A is the correct answer because strengthening the Court's rationale for dismissal.
it best represents the autonomy and ease of operation Therefore, C best supports the dismissal by highlighting
for minimal-risk AI systems within the framework of the intellectual and factual nature of the dissent,
existing laws, similar to how cruise control maintains a emphasizing the right to critique government actions
vehicle's speed without the driver's constant input, under free speech protections.
providing a balance of control and freedom. Option B, 106. (a) The correct answer, A, directly addresses the logical flaw
while highlighting guidance, implies a level of exposed by the Court's critique: the reliance on
directiveness that doesn't align with the independence subjective interpretations rather than objective legal
granted to minimal-risk AI. Option C's focus on standards, which leads to conflating dissent with
aesthetics rather than function makes it less relevant to incitement. B is misleading because the existence of
the question of regulatory operation. Option D, although guidelines doesn't necessarily address the core issue of

206
 subjective enforcement. C introduces the notion of = 3 × 15 = 45
prioritizing national security, which, while relevant, The ratio of the number of employees in Company C to
does not directly answer the question about the logical that in Company D is 3:5.
flaw in handling criticisms. D, suggesting a ∴ Total number of employees in Company D = × 45 =
5
3
misunderstanding of legal boundaries, seems like a
75
strong contender, but it is more about the lack of
109. (b) Number of employees earning less than Rs. Y = 75 - (45
knowledge than the flawed logic of subjective
+ 20) = 10
interpretation highlighted by the Court. Therefore, A
∴ Total number of employees in Company C and
best captures the essence of the critique by highlighting
Company D combined = 45 + 75 = 120
the subjective nature of the enforcement, leading to the
110. (c) Required number = 20 + 15 = 35
erroneous conflation of lawful dissent with incitement.
111. (c) Number of employees earning less than Rs. Y = 15 + 10 =
107. (b) The correct answer, B, directly targets the impact of
25
educating the police on freedom of speech by measuring
Number of employees earning more than Rs. Y = 15 + 20
outcomes related to the primary concern: unlawful
= 35
arrests for dissenting opinions. This choice gets to the
∴ Required ratio = 25: 35 = 5: 7
heart of the Supreme Court's directive's intended
112. (b) Total number of employees in Company C and Company
effect—reducing the conflation of lawful dissent with
D combined = 45 + 75 = 120
incitement or unlawful activity. A is a trap because
The total number of employees in both companies
attendance at workshops doesn't necessarily translate
whose age is below 25 years = 120 × 0.4 = 48
to a change in behavior or outcomes. C, while seemingly
∴ Required number = 120 – 48 = 72
relevant, actually measures a broader public outcome 12𝑘 ×45+16𝑘×75
that isn't directly tied to police education on freedom of 113. (d) Combined average salary = = 14.5k
120
speech. D discusses a broader legal approach which, 114. (c) Required number = 45 × 0.4 + 75 × 0.6 = 63
although important, is not as directly related to the HINT [115-120]:
police's understanding and application of freedom of According to the given information:
speech principles as B is. Thus, B is the most direct Let us assume the number of members who practice all
measure of the impact of the Supreme Court's directive three activities = x.
on police behavior regarding dissenting opinions. Therefore, the number of members who practice both
108. (b) The correct answer, B, directly supports the assertion Zumba and Yoga but not Pilates = x + 30
that dissent is crucial for generating a diversity of ideas Now, consider the following equations:
that can benefit government policies, as it specifically 2.8x – 30 + p + x + x + 30 + 9x + 90 + 250 = 970
highlights a judicial opinion recognizing the value of 13.8x + p = 630 (1)
dissent in contributing to policy improvement and And
innovation. A is misleading because it relates to p + x + 250 + 1.4x – 30 = 337
procedural education rather than the intrinsic value of 2.4x + p = 117 (2)
dissent. C, while illustrating the protection of dissent, By solving equations (1) and (2), we find that x = 45 and
doesn't specifically link dissent to the generation of p = 9.
beneficial ideas for government policies. D emphasizes Now, representing the given information in the Venn
the conditions under which free speech may not be diagram as follows:
curbed, but it doesn't specifically address the role of
dissent in policy formation. Therefore, B is the best
evidence that directly correlates dissent with the
positive outcome of generating varied ideas for
government policy improvement.

QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

HINT [109-114]: Let's define:

x = Total number of employees in Company C
y = Total number of employees in Company D
Company C: 115. (a) ∴ Number of members who prefer to practice only yoga
Number of employees earning more than Rs. Y = 15 = 63
Total number of employees earning Rs. Y or more = 30 18
116. (a) ∴ Required percent = × 100 =40%
∴ Total number of employees earning exactly Rs. Y = 30 45
– 15 = 15 117. (d) Required number = 63 + 33 + 495 = 591
Number of employees earning less than Rs. Y = Number 118. (b) Required number = 75 + 9 + 250 + 45 = 379
of employees earning more than Rs. Y = 15 ∴ x = Total 119. (a) Required ratio = 495 : 45 = 11 : 1
63+33+495
number of employees in Company C = 15 + 15 + 15 = 45 120. (c) Required average = = 197
3
Company D:
Number of employees earning exactly Rs. Y in company
D = 3 × Number of employees earning exactly Rs. Y in
company C

207