12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for

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by Ngee : July 24, 2016, 07:41:39 AM

haad exam questions for nurses free download, haad questions and answers for nurses, haad exam model questions for nurses free download,
haad reviewer for nurses, dha prometric exam sample questions for nurses, dha questions and answers for nurses, DHA exam for nurses model
question paper, dha sample questions for registered nurses, moh questions for nurses, moh questions and answers for nurses in uae
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1. Cellulitis on the floor of mouth is known as...???

A. Stomatitis
B. Glositis
C. Angina pectoris
D. Angina Ludovici
E. Gingivitis
Answer:D/ ludwing's angina

2. To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the
patient Answer:B

3.A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse should
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the
feet Answer:D

4. A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by
food Answer:D

5.A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as
necessary Answer:A

6. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the
site Answer:D

7. A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The
patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse should
suspect:
A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration
Answer:D

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
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8. client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Cardiac rhythm
Answer: D

9. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing
respiratory secretions?
A. Administration of cough suppressants
B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Answer is B: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day. Secretion removal is enhanced with adequate hydration which thins and liquefies
secretions.

10. Method to diagnosis & locate seizures?

A. EEG
B. PET
C. MRI
D. CT scan
Answer: A

11. The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart
failure? A Enhance comfort
B Improve respiratory status
C Peripheral edema
decreased D Increase cardiac
output Answer: D

12. The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury that has resulted in paraplegia. Which of the
following muscles is best site for the injection in this case?
A. Deltoid.
B. Dorsal gluteal.
C. Vastus lateralis.
D. Ventral gluteal.
Answer: A

13. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:
A. early in the evening.
B. anytime during the day.
C. in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.
D. before bedtime.
Answer: C Because sputum accumulates in the lungs during sleep, the nurse should collect a sputum specimen in the morning, as soon as the
client awakens and before he eats or drinks. This specimen will be concentrated, increasing the likelihood of an accurate culture

14. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse requests assistance moving the
client from the stretcher to the bed. There are 2 people available to assist. Which of the following is the best method of transfer for this patient?
A. Carry lift.
B. Sliding board.
C. Lift sheet transfer.
D. Hydraulic lift.
Answer:B

Which type of nursing intervention does the nurse perform when she administers oral care to a client?
A. Psychomotor.
B. Educational.
C. Maintenance.
D. Supervisory.
Answer:c

On her 3rd postpartum day, a client complains of chills and aches. Her chart shows that she has had a temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) for the
past 2 days. The nurse assesses foulsmelling, yellow lochia. What do these findings suggest?
A. Lochia alba
B. Lochia serosa
C. Localized infection
D. Cervical laceration

. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?
A. Eupnea
B. Apnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea

QJ1. A client receives a painkiller. Thirty

minutes later , The nurse asks the client if the
pain is relieved. Which step of nursing process
the nurse is using?
A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Implementation

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Nurses
D. Evaluation

A client says to the nurse "I know that I'm going to die." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best?
A. "We have special equipment to monitor you and your problem."
B. "Don't worry. We know what we're doing and you aren't going to die."
C. "Why do you think you're going to die?"
D. "Oh no, you're doing quite well considering your condition."

A dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis , it may indicate

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Prostatitis
C. Peritonitis
D. Distended Bladder
Answer: D

The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. The nurse assesses which of the following reflexes by placing a finger in the newborn’s mouth?
A. Moro reflex
B. Sucking reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Babinski
reflex Answer: B

When caring for a patient who has intermittent claudication, a cardiac/vascular nurse advises the patient to:
A. apply graduated compression stockings before getting out of bed.
B. elevate the legs when sitting.
C. refrain from exercise.
D. walk as
tolerated. Answer:
D

The client is brought to the emergency department due to drug poisoning. Which of the following nursing interventions is most effective in the
management of the client’s condition?
a) Gastric lavage
b) Activated charcoal
c) Cathartic administration
d) Milk dilution
Answer:B Activated charcoal
The administration of activated charcoal is the most effective in the management of poisoning because it absorbs chemicals in the
gastrointestinal tract, thus reducing its toxicity.

A nurse is assessing a group of clients. The nurse knows that which of the following clients is at risk for fluid volume deficit?(DHA)
a) Client diagnosed with liver cirrhosis.
b) Client with diminished kidney function.
c) Client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
d) Client attached to a colostomy
bag. Answer: D

Best time to check IOP?

A. Early morning
B. After noon
C. Late evening
D. At noon
Answer: A

The physician teaches a client about the need to increase her intake of calcium. At a followup appointment, the nurse asks the client which foods
she has been consuming to increase her calcium intake. Which answer suggests that teaching about calciumrich foods was effective?
A. Broccoli and nuts
B. Yogurt and kale
C. Bread and shrimp
D. Beans and
potatoes Answer: B

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke. Because of the stroke, the client has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Which
intervention by the nurse is best for preventing aspiration?
A. Placing the client in high Fowler's position to eat.
B. Offering liquids and solids together.
C. Keeping liquids thinned.
D. Placing food on the affected side of the
mouth. Answer: A

When administering an I.M. injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site?
a. Deltoid
b. Dorsogluteal
c. Ventrogluteal
d. Vastus lateralis
Answer: D

Which organ in the body always recieve the most percentage of blood(%cardiac output)flow?.(AIIMS,ME,BPSC )
A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Lung
Answer: D
Lung recieves 100% of cardiac output via both pulmonary & systemic circulation.

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Nurses
The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test (UPT)is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
Answer: C

The stool guaiac test (gFOBT) for the detection of...?

A. Piles
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. ColoRectol carcinoma
Answer: D

Which of the following, if observed as a sudden change in the resident, is considered a possible warning sign of a stroke?
A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Slurred speech
D. Irregular heartbeat
Answer:C
One of the clasical symptom of stroke

A resident who is incontinent of urine has an increased risk of developing (prometric saudi2016)
A. dementia.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. dehydration
D. pressure sore
Answer
Risk for altered skin integrity due to contact with wet surface

A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The nurse aide can expect the resident
to A . Have a fluid intake restriction to prevent sudden urges to urinate.
B . Wear an incontinent brief in case of an
accident. C . Have an indwelling urinary catheter.
D . Have aschedule for toileting.

What is the first choice of MI

a)Ecospirin
b)Streptokinase
c)Morphine
c)Heparin

In a client with chronic bronchitis, which sign would lead the nurse to suspect rightsided heart failure?
A. Cyanosis of the lips
B. Bilateral crackles
C. Productive cough
D. Leg edema

Which of the following is considered a normal age‐related change?

A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Bladder holding less urine
D. Wheezing when
breathing Answer: C
Is a age related physiological changes. Othes are pathological

Which is the primary consideration when preparing to administer thrombolytic therapy to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial
infarction (MI)?(HAAD2014)
A. History of heart disease.
B. Sensitivity to aspirin.
C. Size and location of the MI.
D. Time since onset of
symptoms. Answer: D
Its the crieteria for thrombolytic therapy, early onset.Thrombolytic medications are approved for the immediate treatment of stroke (with in
3hrs of onset)and heart attack(with in 12 hrs of onest)

Which of the following statements is true about range of motion (ROM)

exercises? A Done just once a day
B Help prevent strokes and paralysis
C Require at least ten repetitions of each exercise
D Are often performed during ADLs such as bathingor dressing
Answer:D

When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of:
A. restricting fluids.
B. restricting sodium.
C. forcing fluids.
D. restricting potassium.

. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
A. Complaints of double vision.
B. Complaints of halos around lights.
C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg.
D. Soft globe on palpation.

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Nurses
In the emergency department, the nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who was brought in by ambulance after losing consciousness.
Upon assessment, the client's breath was noted to be fruity. Which of the following ABG results would the nurse expect?
A. pH: 7.49 PCO2: 50 HCO3: 18
B. pH 7.28: PCO2: 40 HCO3: 16
C. pH:7.38 PCO2: 45 HCO3: 26
D. pH: 7.31 PCO2: 60 HCO3: 29
Answer:B
Risk for metabolic acidosis in type1 DM

Before administering methergine , to treat PPH the nursing priority to check

A. Uterine tone
B. Output
C. BP
D. amount of lochia
E. Deep tendon reflex
Answer: C

High risk clients for the reactivation of herpes

zoster? the clients with ....
A. First degree burns
B. Renal transplant
C. Post ORIF
D. Head injury.

The cardiac marker which is elevated soon after MI

is A:Trop-T
B:CKMB
C:LDH
D:Myoglobin

The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain,
the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
B. Intense pain in the toe
C. Yellow-tinged sclera
D. Headache

A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in distinguishing acute respiratory distress
syndrome from acute respiratory failure?
A. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
C. pH
D. Bicarbonate (HCO3–)
Answer: A

The procedure involves removal of the "head" (wide part) of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the common bile duct, gallbladder, and
sometimes part of the stomach.And anastomosis to jejunum ?
A. Birloth 1procedures
B. Birloth 2 procedures
C. Wipple procedures
D. Subtotal cholecystectomy
Answer: C

A client with a fluid volume deficit is receiving an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water and lactated Ringer's solution at 125 ml/hour. Which data
collection finding indicates the need for additional I.V. fluids?
A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
B. Temperature of 99.6° F (37.6° C)
C. Neck vein distention
D. Dark amber
urine Answer: D
Normally, urine appears light yellow; dark amber urine is concentrated and suggests decreased fluid intake.

Pseudo membraneous colitis is due to

A. Tetenus toxins
B. Clostridium difficile
C. H.pylori
D. E- Coli

Glomerulonephritis is the complication of impetigo due to. .?

A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE

The most severe expressions of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A. disequilibrium syndrome
B. dawn phenomenon

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
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C. somogyi phenomenon
D. Delirium
tremens Answer : D

A 39-year-old forklift operator presents with shakiness, sweating, anxiety, and palpitations and tells the nurse he has type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Which of the follow actions should the nurse do first?
A. Inject 1 mg of glucagon subcutaneously.
B. Administer 50 mL of 50% glucose I.V.
C. Give 4 to 6 oz (118 to 177 mL) of orange juice.
D. Give the client four to six glucose tablets

The nurse is collecting data on a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?
A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

A client with B negative blood requires a blood transfusion during surgery. If no B negative blood is available, the client should be transfused
with:
❍ A. A positive blood
❍ B. B positive blood
❍ C. O negative blood
❍ D. AB negative
blood Answer: C
If the client’s own blood type and Rh are not available, the safest transfusion is O negative blood. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because
they can cause reactions that can prove fatal to the client

An woman is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned
about which side effect of metformin?
A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
C. Metallic taste
D. Hypoglycemia

A 30-year-old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What is the best position for this client?
a. Side-lying with knees flexed
b. Knee-chest
c. High Fowler’s with knees flexed
d. Semi-Fowler’s with legs extended on the bed

Which of the following vein is commonly used for CABG

a)Femoral
b)greater saphenus
c)popliteal
d)brachial

Chronic alcoholic's needs which of the following vitamins

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavine
C .cyanocobalamin
D. Pyridoxine
Answer : A

which of the following is the warning sign of dying?

A. Rigor mortis
B. Kussmaul breathing
C. Chyene stroke respiraton
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C

The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to treat a client with heart failure. Which adverse effect must the nurse watch for most carefully?
A. Increase in blood pressure
B. Increase in blood volume
C. Low serum potassium level
D. High serum sodium
level Answer: C
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. The nurse must monitor the serum potassium level and assess for signs of low potassium. As water
and sodium are lost in the urine, blood pressure decreases, blood volume decreases, and urine output increases.

A confirmational test for gestational diabetes ?

A. Fasting blood sugar
B. Urine sugar
C.glucose tolerance test
D. Fasting lipid profile with
RBS Answer: C

nasal septum disruption is an indication for over usage of ---

A. Marijuana
B. Alcohol
C. cocaine
D. Brown
sugar Answer:
C

The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. The physician orders 600 mg of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) oral suspension to be given once per

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
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day. The medication label indicates that the strength is 150 mg/5ml. How many milliliters of medication should the nurse pour to administer the
correct

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Nurses
dose?
A. 2.5 ml
B. 4 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 20 ml
Answer: D

The nurse is preparing to discharge a 70-year-old man on warfarin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse’s dischargeteaching should
include which of the following instructions?
A. Follow a healthy diet by increasing ingestion of green, leafy vegetables.
B. Take herbal remedies to manage cold symptoms.
C. Avoid alcohol due to enhanced anticoagulant effect.
D. Take Coumadin only on an empty stomach.

Route of administration of BCG vaccine?question (AIIMS Delhi 2011)

A. IM
B. ID
C. SC
D. IV
Answer: B

major part of cardiac output used for which organ?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Spleen
D.kidney

Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed by ....

A. Fibro scan
B. Sweat test
C. Myelogram
D. USG

World immunization day?

A. Oct 10
B. Nov 10
C. Dec 10
D. Aug 10
Answer: B

A client with a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IAPB). If the device is functioning properly,
the balloon inflates when the:
A. tricuspid valve is closed.
B. pulmonic valve is open.
C. aortic valve is closed.
D. mitral valve is closed

QM1: world malaria day?

A. March 18
B. April 25
C. May 12
D. May 25

World Cancer day is.....?

A. January 30
B. December 1
C. February 4
D. March 7
Answer: C

In adults, Normal endotracheal suction pressure?

A. 40-90 mm of Hg
B. 70-140 mm of Hg
C. 130- 180 mm of Hg
D. 180-320 mm of
Hg Answer: B

A client undergoes hip-pinning surgery(DHS) to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. The nurse should include which intervention
in the postoperative plan of care?
A. Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client's legs once each shift
B. Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times
C. Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours
D. Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler's
position Answer: B

During the initial admission process, a geriatric client seems confused. What is the most probable cause of this client's confusion?
A. Depression
B. Altered long-term memory
C. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
D. Stress related to an unfamiliar
situation Answer: D
The stress of being in an unfamiliar situation, such as admission to a hospital, can cause confusion in geriatric clients. Depression doesn't produce

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
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confusion, but it can cause mood changes, weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and early morning awakening. In geriatric clients, long-term
memory usually remains intact, although short-term memory may be altered. Decreased LOC doesn't normally result from aging; therefore, it's
a less likely cause of confusion in this client.

The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection
site Answer: C
Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and strength have no effect on drug absorption. The amount of
body fat at the injection site may help determine the size of the needle and the technique used to localize the site; however, it doesn't affect
drug absorption (unless the nurse inadvertently injects the medication into the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle).

The nursing care plan for a client with decreased adrenal function should include
A. Encouraging activity
B. Placing client in reverse isolation
C. Limiting visitors
D. Measures to prevent constipation
Answer is C: Limiting visitors
Any exertion, either physical or emotional, places additional stress on the adrenal glands which could precipitate an addisonian crisis. The plan of
care should protect this client from the physical and emotional exertion of visitors.

Witch's milk commonly seen only in------?

A.Infants
B.newborns
C. Adolescents
D. prenatal clients
Answer: A

Lactation provides contraception for

A. 14 days
B. 30 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 180
days
Answer: C

The nurse is doing a physical assessment and electrocardiogram on an elderly client. Which finding during the nurse's assessment of the cardiac
system is of most concern and warrants prompt further investigation?
A. S4 heart sound.
B. Increased PR interval.
C. Orthostatic hypotension.
D. Irregularly irregular heart rate.
(Quote) (Report)

Re: Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for Nurses by Elizabeth Joseph : August 16, 2016, 08:33:11 AM

Quote from: Ngee on July 24, 2016, 07:41:39 AM

haad exam questions for nurses free download, haad questions and answers for nurses, haad exam model questions for nurses free download,
haad reviewer for nurses, dha prometric exam sample questions for nurses, dha questions and answers for nurses, DHA exam for nurses model
question paper, dha sample questions for registered nurses, moh questions for nurses, moh questions and answers for nurses in uae
uae moh exam model question paper saudi moh questions moh questions and answers for nurses in kuwait

1. Cellulitis on the floor of mouth is known as...

A. Stomatitis
B. Glositis
C. Angina pectoris
D. Angina Ludovici
E. Gingivitis
Answer:D/ ludwing's angina

2. To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the
patient Answer:B

3.A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse should
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the
feet Answer:D

4. A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by
food Answer:D

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Nurses
5.A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as
necessary Answer:A

6. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the
site Answer:D

7. A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The
patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse should
suspect:
A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration
Answer:D

8.client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Cardiac rhythm
Answer: D

9.The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing
respiratory secretions?
A. Administration of cough suppressants
B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Answer is B: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day. Secretion removal is enhanced with adequate hydration which thins and liquefies
secretions.

10.Method to diagnosis & locate seizures?

A. EEG
B. PET
C. MRI
D. CT
scan
Answer: A

11.The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart
failure? A Enhance comfort
B Improve respiratory status
C Peripheral edema
decreased D Increase cardiac
output Answer: D

12.The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury that has resulted in paraplegia. Which of
the following muscles is best site for the injection in this case?
A. Deltoid.
B. Dorsal gluteal.
C. Vastus lateralis.
D. Ventral gluteal.
Answer: A

13. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:
A. early in the evening.
B. anytime during the day.
C. in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.
D. before bedtime.
Answer: C Because sputum accumulates in the lungs during sleep, the nurse should collect a sputum specimen in the morning, as soon as the
client awakens and before he eats or drinks. This specimen will be concentrated, increasing the likelihood of an accurate culture

14. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse requests assistance moving the
client from the stretcher to the bed. There are 2 people available to assist. Which of the following is the best method of transfer for this
patient?
A. Carry lift.
B. Sliding board.
C. Lift sheet transfer.
D. Hydraulic lift.
Answer:B

Which type of nursing intervention does the nurse perform when she administers oral care to a client?
A. Psychomotor.
B. Educational.
C. Maintenance.

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12/4/2016 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
D. Supervisory. Nurses
Answer:c

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for

On her 3rd postpartum day, a client complains of chills and aches. Her chart shows that she has had a temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) for
the past 2 days. The nurse assesses foul-smelling, yellow lochia. What do these findings suggest?
A. Lochia alba
B. Lochia serosa
C. Localized infection
D. Cervical laceration

. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?
A. Eupnea
B. Apnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea

QJ1. A client receives a painkiller. Thirty

minutes later , The nurse asks the client if the
pain is relieved. Which step of nursing process
the nurse is using?
A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

A client says to the nurse "I know that I'm going to die." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best?
A. "We have special equipment to monitor you and your problem."
B. "Don't worry. We know what we're doing and you aren't going to die."
C. "Why do you think you're going to die?"
D. "Oh no, you're doing quite well considering your condition."

A dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis , it may indicate

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Prostatitis
C. Peritonitis
D. Distended Bladder
Answer: D

The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. The nurse assesses which of the following reflexes by placing a finger in the newborn’s mouth?
A. Moro reflex
B. Sucking reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Babinski
reflex Answer: B

When caring for a patient who has intermittent claudication, a cardiac/vascular nurse advises the patient to:
A. apply graduated compression stockings before getting out of bed.
B. elevate the legs when sitting.
C. refrain from exercise.
D. walk as
tolerated. Answer:
D

The client is brought to the emergency department due to drug poisoning. Which of the following nursing interventions is most effective in the
management of the client’s condition?
a) Gastric lavage
b) Activated charcoal
c) Cathartic administration
d) Milk dilution
Answer:B Activated charcoal
The administration of activated charcoal is the most effective in the management of poisoning because it absorbs chemicals in the
gastrointestinal tract, thus reducing its toxicity.

A nurse is assessing a group of clients. The nurse knows that which of the following clients is at risk for fluid volume deficit?(DHA)
a) Client diagnosed with liver cirrhosis.
b) Client with diminished kidney function.
c) Client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
d) Client attached to a colostomy
bag. Answer: D

Best time to check IOP?

A. Early morning
B. After noon
C. Late evening
D. At
noon
Answer: A

The physician teaches a client about the need to increase her intake of calcium. At a follow-up appointment, the nurse asks the client which
foods she has been consuming to increase her calcium intake. Which answer suggests that teaching about calcium-rich foods was effective?
A. Broccoli and nuts
B. Yogurt and kale
C. Bread and shrimp
D. Beans and
potatoes Answer: B

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke. Because of the stroke, the client has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Which
intervention by the nurse is best for preventing aspiration?
A. Placing the client in high Fowler's position to eat.
B. Offering liquids and solids together.
C. Keeping liquids thinned.
D. Placing food on the affected side of the
mouth. Answer: A

When administering an I.M. injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site?
a. Deltoid
b. Dorsogluteal
c. Ventrogluteal
d. Vastus lateralis
Answer: D

Which organ in the body always recieve the most percentage of blood(%cardiac output)flow?.(AIIMS,ME,BPSC )
A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Lung
Answer: D
Lung recieves 100% of cardiac output via both pulmonary & systemic circulation.

The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test (UPT)is:

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
Answer: C

The stool guaiac test (gFOBT) for the detection of...?

A. Piles
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Colo-Rectol carcinoma
Answer: D

Which of the following, if observed as a sudden change in the resident, is considered a possible warning sign of a stroke?
A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Slurred speech
D. Irregular heartbeat
Answer:C
One of the clasical symptom of stroke

A resident who is incontinent of urine has an increased risk of developing (prometric saudi2016)
A. dementia.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. dehydration
D. pressure sore
Answer
Risk for altered skin integrity due to contact with wet surface

A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The nurse aide can expect the resident
to A . Have a fluid intake restriction to prevent sudden urges to urinate.
B . Wear an incontinent brief in case of an
accident. C . Have an indwelling urinary catheter.
D . Have aschedule for toileting.

What is the first choice of MI

a)Ecospirin
b)Streptokinase
c)Morphine
c)Heparin

In a client with chronic bronchitis, which sign would lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?
A. Cyanosis of the lips
B. Bilateral crackles
C. Productive cough
D. Leg edema

Which of the following is considered a normal age‐related change?

A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Bladder holding less urine
D. Wheezing when
breathing Answer: C
Is a age related physiological changes. Othes are pathological

Which is the primary consideration when preparing to administer thrombolytic therapy to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial
infarction (MI)?(HAAD2014)
A. History of heart disease.
B. Sensitivity to aspirin.
C. Size and location of the MI.

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
D. Time since onset of
symptoms. Answer: D
Its the crieteria for thrombolytic therapy, early onset.Thrombolytic medications are approved for the immediate treatment of stroke (with in
3hrs of onset)and heart attack(with in 12 hrs of onest)

Which of the following statements is true about range of motion (ROM)

exercises? A Done just once a day
B Help prevent strokes and paralysis
C Require at least ten repetitions of each exercise
D Are often performed during ADLs such as bathingor dressing
Answer:D

When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of:
A. restricting fluids.
B. restricting sodium.
C. forcing fluids.
D. restricting potassium.

. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
A. Complaints of double vision.
B. Complaints of halos around lights.
C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg.
D. Soft globe on palpation.

In the emergency department, the nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who was brought in by ambulance after losing
consciousness. Upon assessment, the client's breath was noted to be fruity. Which of the following ABG results would the nurse expect?
A. pH: 7.49 PCO2: 50 HCO3: 18
B. pH 7.28: PCO2: 40 HCO3: 16
C. pH:7.38 PCO2: 45 HCO3: 26
D. pH: 7.31 PCO2: 60 HCO3: 29
Answer:B
Risk for metabolic acidosis in type1 DM

Before administering methergine , to treat PPH the nursing priority to check

A. Uterine tone
B. Output
C. BP
D. amount of lochia
E. Deep tendon reflex
Answer: C

High risk clients for the reactivation of herpes

zoster? the clients with ....
A. First degree burns
B. Renal transplant
C. Post ORIF
D. Head injury.

The cardiac marker which is elevated soon after MI

is A:Trop-T
B:CKMB
C:LDH
D:Myoglobin

The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized
pain, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
B. Intense pain in the toe
C. Yellow-tinged sclera
D. Headache

A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in distinguishing acute respiratory distress
syndrome from acute respiratory failure?
A. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
C. pH
D. Bicarbonate (HCO3–)
Answer: A

The procedure involves removal of the "head" (wide part) of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the common bile duct, gallbladder, and
sometimes part of the stomach.And anastomosis to jejunum ?
A. Birloth 1procedures
B. Birloth 2 procedures
C. Wipple procedures
D. Subtotal cholecystectomy
Answer: C

A client with a fluid volume deficit is receiving an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water and lactated Ringer's solution at 125 ml/hour. Which data
collection finding indicates the need for additional I.V. fluids?
A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
B. Temperature of 99.6° F (37.6° C)
C. Neck vein distention
D. Dark amber
urine Answer: D

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Normally, urine appears light yellow; dark amber urine is concentrated and suggests decreased fluid intake.

Pseudo membraneous colitis is due to

A. Tetenus toxins
B. Clostridium difficile
C. H.pylori
D. E- Coli

Glomerulonephritis is the complication of impetigo due to...?

A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE

The most severe expressions of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A. disequilibrium syndrome
B. dawn phenomenon
C. somogyi phenomenon
D. Delirium tremens
Answer : D

A 39-year-old forklift operator presents with shakiness, sweating, anxiety, and palpitations and tells the nurse he has type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the follow actions should the nurse do first?
A. Inject 1 mg of glucagon subcutaneously.
B. Administer 50 mL of 50% glucose I.V.
C. Give 4 to 6 oz (118 to 177 mL) of orange juice.
D. Give the client four to six glucose tablets

The nurse is collecting data on a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?
A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

A client with B negative blood requires a blood transfusion during surgery. If no B negative blood is available, the client should be transfused
with:
❍ A. A positive blood
❍ B. B positive blood
❍ C. O negative blood
❍ D. AB negative
blood Answer: C
If the client’s own blood type and Rh are not available, the safest transfusion is O negative blood. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because
they can cause reactions that can prove fatal to the client

An woman is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned
about which side effect of metformin?
A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
C. Metallic taste
D. Hypoglycemia

A 30-year-old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What is the best position for this client?
a. Side-lying with knees flexed
b. Knee-chest
c. High Fowler’s with knees flexed
d. Semi-Fowler’s with legs extended on the bed

Which of the following vein is commonly used for CABG

a)Femoral
b)greater saphenus
c)popliteal
d)brachial

Chronic alcoholic's needs which of the following vitamins

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavine
C .cyanocobalamin
D. Pyridoxine
Answer : A

which of the following is the warning sign of dying?

A. Rigor mortis
B. Kussmaul breathing
C. Chyene stroke respiraton
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C

The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to treat a client with heart failure. Which adverse effect must the nurse watch for most carefully?

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
A. Increase in blood pressure
B. Increase in blood volume
C. Low serum potassium level
D. High serum sodium
level Answer: C
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. The nurse must monitor the serum potassium level and assess for signs of low potassium. As
water and sodium are lost in the urine, blood pressure decreases, blood volume decreases, and urine output increases.

A confirmational test for gestational diabetes ?

A. Fasting blood sugar
B. Urine sugar
C.glucose tolerance test
D. Fasting lipid profile with
RBS Answer: C

nasal septum disruption is an indication for over usage of ---

A. Marijuana
B. Alcohol
C. cocaine
D. Brown sugar
Answer: C

The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. The physician orders 600 mg of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) oral suspension to be given once per
day. The medication label indicates that the strength is 150 mg/5ml. How many milliliters of medication should the nurse pour to administer
the correct dose?
A. 2.5 ml
B. 4 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 20 ml
Answer: D

The nurse is preparing to discharge a 70-year-old man on warfarin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse’s dischargeteaching should
include which of the following instructions?
A. Follow a healthy diet by increasing ingestion of green, leafy vegetables.
B. Take herbal remedies to manage cold symptoms.
C. Avoid alcohol due to enhanced anticoagulant effect.
D. Take Coumadin only on an empty stomach.

Route of administration of BCG vaccine?question (AIIMS Delhi 2011)

A. IM
B. ID
C. SC
D. IV
Answer: B

major part of cardiac output used for which organ?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Spleen
D.kidney

Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed by ....

A. Fibro scan
B. Sweat test
C. Myelogram
D. USG

World immunization day?

A. Oct 10
B. Nov 10
C. Dec 10
D. Aug 10
Answer: B

A client with a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IAPB). If the device is functioning
properly, the balloon inflates when the:
A. tricuspid valve is closed.
B. pulmonic valve is open.
C. aortic valve is closed.
D. mitral valve is closed

QM1: world malaria day?

A. March 18
B. April 25
C. May 12
D. May 25

World Cancer day is.....?

A. January 30
B. December 1
C. February 4
D. March 7

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Answer: C

In adults, Normal endotracheal suction pressure?

A. 40-90 mm of Hg
B. 70-140 mm of Hg
C. 130- 180 mm of Hg
D. 180-320 mm of
Hg Answer: B

A client undergoes hip-pinning surgery(DHS) to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. The nurse should include which intervention
in the postoperative plan of care?
A. Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client's legs once each shift
B. Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times
C. Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours
D. Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler's
position Answer: B

During the initial admission process, a geriatric client seems confused. What is the most probable cause of this client's confusion?
A. Depression
B. Altered long-term memory
C. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
D. Stress related to an unfamiliar
situation Answer: D
The stress of being in an unfamiliar situation, such as admission to a hospital, can cause confusion in geriatric clients. Depression doesn't
produce confusion, but it can cause mood changes, weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and early morning awakening. In geriatric clients,
long- term memory usually remains intact, although short-term memory may be altered. Decreased LOC doesn't normally result from aging;
therefore, it's a less likely cause of confusion in this client.

The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection
site Answer: C
Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and strength have no effect on drug absorption. The amount
of body fat at the injection site may help determine the size of the needle and the technique used to localize the site; however, it doesn't
affect drug absorption (unless the nurse inadvertently injects the medication into the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle).

The nursing care plan for a client with decreased adrenal function should include
A. Encouraging activity
B. Placing client in reverse isolation
C. Limiting visitors
D. Measures to prevent constipation
Answer is C: Limiting visitors
Any exertion, either physical or emotional, places additional stress on the adrenal glands which could precipitate an addisonian crisis. The
plan of care should protect this client from the physical and emotional exertion of visitors.

Witch's milk commonly seen only in------?

A.Infants
B.newborns
C. Adolescents
D. prenatal clients
Answer: A

Lactation provides contraception for

A. 14 days
B. 30 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 180
days
Answer: C

The nurse is doing a physical assessment and electrocardiogram on an elderly client. Which finding during the nurse's assessment of the
cardiac system is of most concern and warrants prompt further investigation?
A. S4 heart sound.
B. Increased PR interval.
C. Orthostatic hypotension.
D. Irregularly irregular heart rate.

(Quote) (Report)

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1. Cellulitis on the floor of mouth is known as...

A. Stomatitis
B. Glositis
C. Angina pectoris
D. Angina Ludovici

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E. Gingivitis
Answer:D/ ludwing's angina

2. To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the
patient Answer:B

3.A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse should
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the
feet Answer:D

4. A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by
food Answer:D

5.A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as
necessary Answer:A

6. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the
site Answer:D

7. A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The
patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse should
suspect:
A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration
Answer:D

8.client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Cardiac rhythm
Answer: D

9.The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing
respiratory secretions?
A. Administration of cough suppressants
B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Answer is B: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day. Secretion removal is enhanced with adequate hydration which thins and liquefies
secretions.

10.Method to diagnosis & locate seizures?

A. EEG
B. PET
C. MRI
D. CT
scan
Answer: A

11.The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart
failure? A Enhance comfort
B Improve respiratory status
C Peripheral edema
decreased D Increase cardiac
output Answer: D

12.The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury that has resulted in paraplegia. Which of
the following muscles is best site for the injection in this case?
A. Deltoid.
B. Dorsal gluteal.
C. Vastus lateralis.

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
D. Ventral gluteal.

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
Answer: A

13. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:
A. early in the evening.
B. anytime during the day.
C. in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.
D. before bedtime.
Answer: C Because sputum accumulates in the lungs during sleep, the nurse should collect a sputum specimen in the morning, as soon as the
client awakens and before he eats or drinks. This specimen will be concentrated, increasing the likelihood of an accurate culture

14. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse requests assistance moving the
client from the stretcher to the bed. There are 2 people available to assist. Which of the following is the best method of transfer for this
patient?
A. Carry lift.
B. Sliding board.
C. Lift sheet transfer.
D. Hydraulic lift.
Answer:B

Which type of nursing intervention does the nurse perform when she administers oral care to a client?
A. Psychomotor.
B. Educational.
C. Maintenance.
D. Supervisory.
Answer:c

On her 3rd postpartum day, a client complains of chills and aches. Her chart shows that she has had a temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) for
the past 2 days. The nurse assesses foul-smelling, yellow lochia. What do these findings suggest?
A. Lochia alba
B. Lochia serosa
C. Localized infection
D. Cervical laceration

. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?
A. Eupnea
B. Apnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea

QJ1. A client receives a painkiller. Thirty

minutes later , The nurse asks the client if the
pain is relieved. Which step of nursing process
the nurse is using?
A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

A client says to the nurse "I know that I'm going to die." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best?
A. "We have special equipment to monitor you and your problem."
B. "Don't worry. We know what we're doing and you aren't going to die."
C. "Why do you think you're going to die?"
D. "Oh no, you're doing quite well considering your condition."

A dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis , it may indicate

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Prostatitis
C. Peritonitis
D. Distended Bladder
Answer: D

The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. The nurse assesses which of the following reflexes by placing a finger in the newborn’s mouth?
A. Moro reflex
B. Sucking reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Babinski
reflex Answer: B

When caring for a patient who has intermittent claudication, a cardiac/vascular nurse advises the patient to:
A. apply graduated compression stockings before getting out of bed.
B. elevate the legs when sitting.
C. refrain from exercise.
D. walk as
tolerated. Answer:
D

The client is brought to the emergency department due to drug poisoning. Which of the following nursing interventions is most effective in the
management of the client’s condition?
a) Gastric lavage
b) Activated charcoal
c) Cathartic administration
d) Milk dilution
Answer:B Activated charcoal

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
The administration of activated charcoal is the most effective in the management of poisoning because it absorbs chemicals in the

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12/4/20 Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for
gastrointestinal tract, thus reducing its toxicity.

A nurse is assessing a group of clients. The nurse knows that which of the following clients is at risk for fluid volume deficit?(DHA)
a) Client diagnosed with liver cirrhosis.
b) Client with diminished kidney function.
c) Client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
d) Client attached to a colostomy
bag. Answer: D

Best time to check IOP?

A. Early morning
B. After noon
C. Late evening
D. At
noon
Answer: A

The physician teaches a client about the need to increase her intake of calcium. At a follow-up appointment, the nurse asks the client which
foods she has been consuming to increase her calcium intake. Which answer suggests that teaching about calcium-rich foods was effective?
A. Broccoli and nuts
B. Yogurt and kale
C. Bread and shrimp
D. Beans and
potatoes Answer: B

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke. Because of the stroke, the client has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Which
intervention by the nurse is best for preventing aspiration?
A. Placing the client in high Fowler's position to eat.
B. Offering liquids and solids together.
C. Keeping liquids thinned.
D. Placing food on the affected side of the
mouth. Answer: A

When administering an I.M. injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site?
a. Deltoid
b. Dorsogluteal
c. Ventrogluteal
d. Vastus lateralis
Answer: D

Which organ in the body always recieve the most percentage of blood(%cardiac output)flow?.(AIIMS,ME,BPSC )
A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Lung
Answer: D
Lung recieves 100% of cardiac output via both pulmonary & systemic circulation.

The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test (UPT)is:

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
Answer: C

The stool guaiac test (gFOBT) for the detection of...?

A. Piles
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Colo-Rectol carcinoma
Answer: D

Which of the following, if observed as a sudden change in the resident, is considered a possible warning sign of a stroke?
A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Slurred speech
D. Irregular heartbeat
Answer:C
One of the clasical symptom of stroke

A resident who is incontinent of urine has an increased risk of developing (prometric saudi2016)
A. dementia.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. dehydration
D. pressure sore
Answer
Risk for altered skin integrity due to contact with wet surface

A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The nurse aide can expect the resident
to A . Have a fluid intake restriction to prevent sudden urges to urinate.
B . Wear an incontinent brief in case of an
accident. C . Have an indwelling urinary catheter.
D . Have aschedule for toileting.

What is the first choice of MI

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a) Ecospirin
b)Streptokinase
c)Morphine
c)Heparin

In a client with chronic bronchitis, which sign would lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?
A. Cyanosis of the lips
B. Bilateral crackles
C. Productive cough
D. Leg edema

Which of the following is considered a normal age‐related change?

A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Bladder holding less urine
D. Wheezing when
breathing Answer: C
Is a age related physiological changes. Othes are pathological

Which is the primary consideration when preparing to administer thrombolytic therapy to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial
infarction (MI)?(HAAD2014)
A. History of heart disease.
B. Sensitivity to aspirin.
C. Size and location of the MI.
D. Time since onset of
symptoms. Answer: D
Its the crieteria for thrombolytic therapy, early onset.Thrombolytic medications are approved for the immediate treatment of stroke (with in
3hrs of onset)and heart attack(with in 12 hrs of onest)

Which of the following statements is true about range of motion (ROM)

exercises? A Done just once a day
B Help prevent strokes and paralysis
C Require at least ten repetitions of each exercise
D Are often performed during ADLs such as bathingor dressing
Answer:D

When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of:
A. restricting fluids.
B. restricting sodium.
C. forcing fluids.
D. restricting potassium.

. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
A. Complaints of double vision.
B. Complaints of halos around lights.
C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg.
D. Soft globe on palpation.

In the emergency department, the nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who was brought in by ambulance after losing
consciousness. Upon assessment, the client's breath was noted to be fruity. Which of the following ABG results would the nurse expect?
A. pH: 7.49 PCO2: 50 HCO3: 18
B. pH 7.28: PCO2: 40 HCO3: 16
C. pH:7.38 PCO2: 45 HCO3: 26
D. pH: 7.31 PCO2: 60 HCO3: 29
Answer:B
Risk for metabolic acidosis in type1 DM

Before administering methergine , to treat PPH the nursing priority to check

A. Uterine tone
B. Output
C. BP
D. amount of lochia
E. Deep tendon reflex
Answer: C

High risk clients for the reactivation of herpes

zoster? the clients with ....
A. First degree burns
B. Renal transplant
C. Post ORIF
D. Head injury.

The cardiac marker which is elevated soon after MI

is A:Trop-T
B:CKMB
C:LDH
D:Myoglobin

The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized
pain, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
B. Intense pain in the toe
C. Yellow-tinged sclera
D. Headache

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A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in distinguishing acute respiratory distress
syndrome from acute respiratory failure?
A. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
C. pH
D. Bicarbonate (HCO3–)
Answer: A

The procedure involves removal of the "head" (wide part) of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the common bile duct, gallbladder, and
sometimes part of the stomach.And anastomosis to jejunum ?
A. Birloth 1procedures
B. Birloth 2 procedures
C. Wipple procedures
D. Subtotal cholecystectomy
Answer: C

A client with a fluid volume deficit is receiving an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water and lactated Ringer's solution at 125 ml/hour. Which data
collection finding indicates the need for additional I.V. fluids?
A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
B. Temperature of 99.6° F (37.6° C)
C. Neck vein distention
D. Dark amber
urine Answer: D
Normally, urine appears light yellow; dark amber urine is concentrated and suggests decreased fluid intake.

Pseudo membraneous colitis is due to

A. Tetenus toxins
B. Clostridium difficile
C. H.pylori
D. E- Coli

Glomerulonephritis is the complication of impetigo due to...?

A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE

The most severe expressions of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A. disequilibrium syndrome
B. dawn phenomenon
C. somogyi phenomenon
D. Delirium tremens
Answer : D

A 39-year-old forklift operator presents with shakiness, sweating, anxiety, and palpitations and tells the nurse he has type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the follow actions should the nurse do first?
A. Inject 1 mg of glucagon subcutaneously.
B. Administer 50 mL of 50% glucose I.V.
C. Give 4 to 6 oz (118 to 177 mL) of orange juice.
D. Give the client four to six glucose tablets

The nurse is collecting data on a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?
A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

A client with B negative blood requires a blood transfusion during surgery. If no B negative blood is available, the client should be transfused
with:
❍ A. A positive blood
❍ B. B positive blood
❍ C. O negative blood
❍ D. AB negative
blood Answer: C
If the client’s own blood type and Rh are not available, the safest transfusion is O negative blood. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because
they can cause reactions that can prove fatal to the client

An woman is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned
about which side effect of metformin?
A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
C. Metallic taste
D. Hypoglycemia

A 30-year-old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What is the best position for this client?
a. Side-lying with knees flexed
b. Knee-chest

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c. High Fowler’s with knees flexed
d. Semi-Fowler’s with legs extended on the bed

Which of the following vein is commonly used for CABG

a)Femoral
b) greater saphenus
c)popliteal
d)brachial

Chronic alcoholic's needs which of the following vitamins

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavine
C .cyanocobalamin
D. Pyridoxine
Answer : A

which of the following is the warning sign of dying?

A. Rigor mortis
B. Kussmaul breathing
C. Chyene stroke respiraton
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C

The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to treat a client with heart failure. Which adverse effect must the nurse watch for most carefully?
A. Increase in blood pressure
B. Increase in blood volume
C. Low serum potassium level
D. High serum sodium
level Answer: C
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. The nurse must monitor the serum potassium level and assess for signs of low potassium. As
water and sodium are lost in the urine, blood pressure decreases, blood volume decreases, and urine output increases.

A confirmational test for gestational diabetes ?

A. Fasting blood sugar
B. Urine sugar
C.glucose tolerance test
D. Fasting lipid profile with
RBS Answer: C

nasal septum disruption is an indication for over usage of ---

A. Marijuana
B. Alcohol
C. cocaine
D. Brown sugar
Answer: C

The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. The physician orders 600 mg of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) oral suspension to be given once per
day. The medication label indicates that the strength is 150 mg/5ml. How many milliliters of medication should the nurse pour to administer
the correct dose?
A. 2.5 ml
B. 4 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 20 ml
Answer: D

The nurse is preparing to discharge a 70-year-old man on warfarin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse’s dischargeteaching should
include which of the following instructions?
A. Follow a healthy diet by increasing ingestion of green, leafy vegetables.
B. Take herbal remedies to manage cold symptoms.
C. Avoid alcohol due to enhanced anticoagulant effect.
D. Take Coumadin only on an empty stomach.

Route of administration of BCG vaccine?question (AIIMS Delhi 2011)

A. IM
B. ID
C. SC
D. IV
Answer: B

major part of cardiac output used for which organ?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Spleen
D.kidney

Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed by ....

A. Fibro scan
B. Sweat test
C. Myelogram
D. USG

World immunization day?

A. Oct 10

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B. Nov 10
C. Dec 10
D. Aug 10
Answer: B

A client with a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IAPB). If the device is functioning
properly, the balloon inflates when the:
A. tricuspid valve is closed.
B. pulmonic valve is open.
C. aortic valve is closed.
D. mitral valve is closed

QM1: world malaria day?

A. March 18
B. April 25
C. May 12
D. May 25

World Cancer day is ...?

A. January 30
B. December 1
C. February 4
D. March
7 Answer:
C

In adults, Normal endotracheal suction pressure?

A. 40-90 mm of Hg
B. 70-140 mm of Hg
C. 130- 180 mm of Hg
D. 180-320 mm of
Hg Answer: B

A client undergoes hip-pinning surgery(DHS) to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. The nurse should include which intervention
in the postoperative plan of care?
A. Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client's legs once each shift
B. Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times
C. Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours
D. Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler's
position Answer: B

During the initial admission process, a geriatric client seems confused. What is the most probable cause of this client's confusion?
A. Depression
B. Altered long-term memory
C. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
D. Stress related to an unfamiliar
situation Answer: D
The stress of being in an unfamiliar situation, such as admission to a hospital, can cause confusion in geriatric clients. Depression doesn't
produce confusion, but it can cause mood changes, weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and early morning awakening. In geriatric clients,
long- term memory usually remains intact, although short-term memory may be altered. Decreased LOC doesn't normally result from aging;
therefore, it's a less likely cause of confusion in this client.

The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection
site Answer: C
Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and strength have no effect on drug absorption. The amount
of body fat at the injection site may help determine the size of the needle and the technique used to localize the site; however, it doesn't
affect drug absorption (unless the nurse inadvertently injects the medication into the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle).

The nursing care plan for a client with decreased adrenal function should include
A. Encouraging activity
B. Placing client in reverse isolation
C. Limiting visitors
D. Measures to prevent constipation
Answer is C: Limiting visitors
Any exertion, either physical or emotional, places additional stress on the adrenal glands which could precipitate an addisonian crisis. The
plan of care should protect this client from the physical and emotional exertion of visitors.

Witch's milk commonly seen only in------?

A.Infants
B.newborns
C. Adolescents
D. prenatal clients
Answer: A

Lactation provides contraception for

A. 14 days
B. 30 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 180 days

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Answer: C

The nurse is doing a physical assessment and electrocardiogram on an elderly client. Which finding during the nurse's assessment of the cardiac system is of mos
S4 heart sound.
Increased PR interval.
Orthostatic hypotension.
Irregularly irregular heart rate.
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