FEDERAL MEDICAL CENTRE, BIDA FAMILY MEDICINE TRAINING PROGRAMME, PART 1 MOCK EXAMINATION MCQ PAPER

Instructions: Answer true or false for each question, Wrong answer attracts negative marking.

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1. In the Management of depression the following are indication of ECT. a. Mild moderate depression. b. Depression responding to anti-depression. c. Depression associated with psychotic feature. d. Depressed patient refusing to drink e. Suicidal risk in a depressed patient 2. Recognized feature of anxiety in an affected individual may include a. Goose flesh b. Lump in the throat unrelated to swallowing c. Butterflies in the stomach d. Good concentration e. Normal sleep 3. In prognostication of schizophrenia, the following correlates with good prognosis a. Presence of negative symptom b. supportive home c. male sex d. chronic onset of symptom e. negative family history 4. feature of major depressive disorder may include a. poor appetite b. increased sexual drive c. early sleep and wakefulness pattern d. ideas of worthlessness e. recurrent thoughts of death 5. Concerning schizophrenia a. Its a common mental disorder b. Has both positive and negative symptom c. Lifetime risk in the general population is up to 8 % d. May present in teenage with delusion e. hallucination is a feature 6. Absolute contraindication to spinal anesthesia may include: a. Local sepsis b. Neurological disease c. Spinal deformity d. Raised intracranial pressure e. Anticoagulant states

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7. Concerning ketamine a. It is use in indicated mainly in paediatric surgery b. May induce excessive salivation c. Cardiac output may be increased d. Its use is contradicted in a psychiatric patient e. May be administered at a dose 1mg/kg 8. In pre-operative management of a patient for major surgical operation The following are common reason for cancellation of surgery a. Electrolyte imbalance b. Recent viral illness c. Adequately fasted patient d. Result of laboratory test not available e. Uncontrolled hypertensive 9. In which of the following group of patient is rapid sequence induction indicated a. Hausa man who just had a bowl of Tuwo 30 minutes to surgery b. Poly-traumatized patient c. A pregnant women needing surgery at 12 weeks d. Umbilical hernia patient e. Septic patient 10. Recognized complication of general anaesthesia include: a. Anaphylaxis b. Atelectasis c. Hypothermia d. HIV infection e. Malignant hyperpyrexia 11. Factors which make breast feeding harder to initiate may include: a. Absence of role models In the mother b. Urbanization c. Presence of breast feeding facility at work place d. Cultural reframing of breast as sex object e. Partner hostility 12. Advantages of breast feeding to the mother may include a. Increased hospital attendance b. Protection against maternal breast cancer c. Enhance bonding between mother and child d. Raises IQ scores of the child e. Enhance contraception

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13. Which of the following is likely to cause bloody diarrhea in a neonate a. Campylobacter infection b. Necrotizing enterocolitis c. Intussception d. Pseudomembranesus colitis e. Rectal cancer 14. Recognized sign of respiratory distress syndrome in a neonate include a. Intercostal recession b. Grunting respiration c. Cough d. Breathing with difficulty e. Cyanosis 15. In the management of a moderately dehydrated patient, the following are important a. Deficit fluid calculation is not indicated b. Maintenance fluid is required c. Ringers lactate may be useful d. Oral rehydration salt in indicated e. Ongoing loses may be required 16. Feature of raised intracranial pressure in a child may include a. Irritability b. High pitched cry c. Depressed frontanelle d. Coma score of 15 e. Vomiting 17. A child with usual crying, poor feeding or vomiting may be suffering from which of the following: a. Malaria b. Meningitis c. Measles d. Diarrhea e. Pneumonia 18. Known complication of pyogenic meningitis may include a. Hydrocephalus b. Autism c. Epilepsy d. Subdural effusion e. Brain abscess

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19. Feature of cerebral palsy in a child may include a. Reflex hyper activity b. Cross feet posture c. Positive babinski sign past 2 years of age d. Mental retardation is a constant factor e. Low birth weight is a factor 20. Concerning maintenance therapy for a diarrhoea child a. Breast milk can be given along with rehydration therapy b. Other milk must be diluted twice for the child c. Thirst is the best guide to maintenance therapy in infants d. Tea is allowed e. Child may be given coconut water in the absence of ORS salt. 21. Concerning physiological changes in normal pregnancy a. Cardiac output is doubled b. Peripheral resistance is decreased c. Blood pressure is increase by 10-20mmHg d. The stoke volume is increased e. Heart rate is decreased 22. The following changes occurs in the blood in a normal pregnancy a. Red cell volume is decreased b. Plasma volume is increased c. White cell count is increased d. Albumin is decreased e. Globulin is increased 23. Consequence of prolonged labour include a. Maternal morbidity b. Neonatal morbidity c. Birth asphyxia d. Maternal exhaustion e. Failure to thrive 24. Regarding hyperemesis gravidarum , the risk is increased in: a. Primipara b. Working outside the home c. Gestational trophoblastic disease d. Triplet pregnancy e. Non smokers

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25. The following feature in the mother places her at high risk during antenatal booking a. History of secondary infertility b. 5th pregnancy c. Poor fetal well being d. Age less than 40 years e. Positive HIV serology 26. Pertaining to Hypertension in pregnancy a. Develops before 20 weeks of pregnancy b. May recur in subsequent pregnancy c. Its a multisytemic disorder originating in the blood d. Primary defect in failure of trophoblastic invasion of the placenta bed e. May affect the hepatic system 27. Distinguishing features of abruption from placenta praevia include a. Shock out of keeping with visible loss b. Pain is absent c. Tense uterus d. Fetal heart is absent e. Normal lie and presentation 28. The following are recognized contraindications to induction of labour a. Fetal distress b. Breach presentation c. Vasa praevia d. Cervical cancer e. Abruption placenta 29. Concerning normal menstruation a. Last between 2-7 days b. Average loss in 300mls c. Cycle soon after menarche are most likely ovulatory d. Dizziness may often be noticed e. A woman is unclean at this time and should not come to place of worship 30. Postcoital bleeding in a 60 years old widowed woman is likely to be from the following a. Cervical trauma b. Polyps c. Endometrial cancer d. Cervical cancer e. Vaginitis

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31. The following are true concerning dysfunctional uterine bleeding a. Commonly associated with ovulatory cycles b. Common at extrme of age c. Commonly associated with anovulatory cycles d. Its a diagnosis of exclusion e. Bleeding is irregular and rarely associated with pelvic pathology 32. A 45 year old woman with gestational trophoblastic disease will present with: a. Absent fetal heart b. Uterus medium for age c. Vaginal bleeding d. may get pregnant in the next 2 month e. choriocarcinoma is commoner than hydatiform mole 33. Vulval warts in a 20 years old girl is likely to be due to the following a. Spread by sexual contact b. its a toilet infection c. causative organism in human papiloma virus d. attack from witches e. HIV infection 34. Concerning pelvic infection a. Affects fallopian tubes alone b. Commonest cause in gonococcus c. May be asymptomatic d. May lead to chronic back pain e. May be complicated by infertility 35. In the management of infertile couples a. The man does not need to be investigated as most case of infertility is due to women factor b. The religious leader does not have a role c. There is a place for assisted conception d. Pelvic infection in the woman is a cause e. There is no place for intervention if the couple has been having unprotected intercourse for less than a year. 36. Acute abdomen in a 25 year old man is likely to be due to the following a. Spleen rupture b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Cholecystitis d. Appendicitis e. Obstruction of the bowel

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37. Signs of acute appendicitis in a 35 year old woman may include a. Bradycardia b. Fever of 38.5oC c. Shallow breaths d. Rebound tenderness e. Furred tongue 38. Feature of obstruction to the bowel in a 20 year old boy may include a. Anorexia b. Vomiting with relief c. Colicky abdominal pain with distension d. Diarrhoea e. Nausea 39. In the management of intestinal obstruction a. IV fluid may be indicated b. Passage of NGT is a must c. There is always electrolyte imbalance and must be corrected d. Strangulation requires a conservative approach since intestinal contents can spread during surgery e. Paralytic ileus may be managed conservatively 40. In acute urinary retention a. The bladder usually contains no urine b. The cause in men is usually prostatic obstruction c. In women, it may be due to labour pain d. Needs no investigation e. Catheterization always relief the problem 41. With regards to benign prostatic hyper trophy a. Common in the middle age group b. There is associated urine foam c. Frequency, urgency suggest prostatism d. May lead to prostatic cancer e. Yearly prostatic specific antigen is a screening tool. 42. Risk factors for breast cancer in a woman of reproductive age group may include a. Multiparity b. Early menarche c. Early menopause d. Not breast feeding e. Past benign breast lesion

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43. The following are differentials of lumps in the breast a. Fibroadenoma b. Cystic fibrosis c. Periductal mastitis d. Fat necrosis e. Abscess 44. In the diagnosis of groin lumps: a. Femoral herniae have positive cough impulse b. Ectopic testis have positive cough impulse c. Psoas abscess present without a cough impulse d. Saphena varix have positive cough impulse e. hydrocele have no cough impulse 45. Concerning Hernias a. Indirect hernias are common b. Direct hernias are common c. Indirect hernias rarely strangulate d. Femoral hernias is commoner in the male e. Direct hernias reduce easily 46. In choice of suture, the following should be considered a. Absorbable sutures should be used for gut operations b. Non absorbable suture are to be used for soft tissue c. Monofilament sutures are quite slippery d. Braided sutures allow infection e. Twisted sutures allow secure knots. 47. Risk factors for ischemic heart disease include a. Smoking b. Hyperlipidemia c. Exercise d. Hypotension e. Family history of stroke 48. Concerning the heart sound a. S1 represents closure of the mitral valve only b. S2 represents closure of tricuspid and pulmonic valves c. S3 may occur just before S2 d. S4 occurs just before S2 e. S1 is always an abnormal heart sound

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49. In the management of angina pectoris a. Cessation of smoking has some benefit b. Exercise may have deleterious effect c. Weight loss has proven benefit d. Treatment of hypertension improve outcome e. Control of diabetes limits the damage 50. Symptoms that may suggest myocardial infarction in a 35 year old smoker include a. Central chest pain b. Tachycardia c. Anxiety d. palpitations e. 4th heart sound 51. In the management of hypertension a. A single reading may be relied upon in decision to treat b. Multiple readings are the rule c. Decision to treat is based on blood pressure and presence of other risk factors d. Decision to treat is based on end organ damage e. Blood pressure is skewed in the population 52. In community acquired pneumonia; a. Streptococcus pneumonia is the commonest cause b. Gram negative anaerobes are rare as causes c. Virus causes may account for 15% of cases d. Staphylococcus aureus is the leading cause e. Penicillin does not have a place in its management 53. The following statement are true of tumors of the lung: a. Cigarette is a major risk factor b. Occupational factors may play a role in its etiology c. Repeated exposure to radiation affects its progression d. Increasing age is known to predispose to it e. Haemoptysis is known to occur in 70% of patient. 54. In the differential diagnosis of asthma, the following may be considered a. Pulmonary edema b. COPD c. SVC obstruction d. Bronchiectasis e. pneumothorax

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55. In the investigation of peptic ulcer disease patient, the following may be indicated a. FBC b. Barium swallow and follow through c. CXR d. Upper GI endoscopy and biopsy e. Stool microscopy 56. Symptom to suggest G.E.R.D include a. Heart burn b. Nausea c. Vomiting d. Acid brash e. Water brash 57. Regarding Nephrotic syndrome: a. Its commonly due to minimal change GN b. There is increase susceptibility to infection c. Facial swelling is not a common facture d. Urine dipstick often show proteinuria of 2+ e. Diuretics may have a place in its management 58. In the evaluation of patient with diabetes mellitus a. Fasting venous plasma glucose 7mmol/L is diagnostic b. Fasting venous plasma glucose of 6mmol/L is impaired fasting glucose c. A 2 hour oral glucose value is reliable than a FBS d. Urine test are less reliable than blood test e. Plasma HbAIC values is reliable tool for monitoring control of blood sugar 59. The following are common causes of red eye a. Acute closed angle glaucoma b. Episcleritis c. Vernal conjunctivitis d. Trauma to the eye e. Foreign body in the eye 60. Koebner phenomenon may occur in which of the following condition a. Veruccae vulgaris b. Psoriasis c. Eczema d. Pityriasis vesicolor e. Lichen planus

The end

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