24-11-2019 A

JEE (Advanced)-2020
TEST No. 4A (Paper-1)
(XII Studying Students)

1. Read each question carefully. (i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics). Each part has 3 sections.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate
circle in the answer sheet. (ii) Section-1: This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of
the question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. If the correct
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR sheet respectively. Each
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. question carries +4 marks for correct answer and no negative mark
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the for wrong answer.
examination hall. (iii) Section-2: This section contains 10 multiple choice questions, each
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the question has one or more than one correct answer(s). Each question
test paper contains all pages and no page is missing. carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong answer.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should (iv) Section-3: This section contains 2 questions. Each question has two
check that Roll No., Centre Code and Date of Birth have been filled and matching Columns. Column I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D),
marked correctly. Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Each entry in
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II. Each entry
sheet to be returned to the invigilator. in Column I carries +2 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
10. Pattern of the questions are as under: answer.

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
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(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

[Based on JEE (Advanced)-2015 Actual Pattern]

 Test - 4A

Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei,

Experimental Physics

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers; Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids;

Amines; Biomolecules; Polymers; Chemistry in Everyday Life

Vector Algebra, Three Dimensional Geometry, Probability

Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

Time : 3 Hrs MM: 264

PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the correct
answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1. A photoelectric plate is initially exposed to radiations coming from a sample of hydrogen gas being excited
electronically to second energy level. Later when the same photoelectric plate is exposed to spectrum of some
unknown hydrogen like gas, excited to 2nd energy level. It is found that ratio of minimum de Broglie wavelength
of photoelectrons ejected due to hydrogen gas and unknown gas is 6.1 . For this new gas difference of
energies of 1st Lyman series and Balmer series limit is found to be two times the ionization potential energy of
hydrogen atom. Work function of photoelectric plate is nearly K × 21 × 10–1 eV. Find the value of K.
2. P1 and P2 are two transparent plates having equal thickness t = 40 m each and refractive indices
1 = 2.0 and 2 = 1.5 respectively. S1, S2 are identical slits. The plate P1 transmits 100% whereas
P2 transmits 25% of incident energy. Without P1 and P2, the intensity at ‘O’ is I. The intensity at ‘O’ after placing
x
P1 and P2 is   I . Then find the value of y – x. {x, y are coprime}
y
(Wavelength of incident ray  = 4000 Å)

3. A neutron strikes a hydrogen atom which is initially at rest and free to move. The initial speed of neutron is v0.
After the collision both neutron and H-atom move making an angle of 30° with initial velocity of neutron. Also
H-atom is found to get excited to first excited state. If initial kinetic energy of neutron is x times the first excited
energy of H-atom, then find the value of x.
[Assume the mass of neutron = mass of H-atom]

(Space for Rough Work)

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4. In the YDSE shown below, two slits are covered with thin sheets having thickness t and 2t and refractive
indices 2 and  respectively. The position of central maxima is shifted by a distance of N (in cm) from central
position of screen. Find the value of N.

3
[d = 1 mm; D = 1 m; t = 2 × 10–2 mm,  = ]
2

5. Electrons having kinetic energy 30 eV is made to collide with atomic hydrogen gas (in ground state) and 42.5%
of electrons energy is used to excite the hydrogen atoms. Maximum possible numbers of wavelengths in
emission spectra are

6. Light of wavelength 520 nm passing through double slit of YDSE, produces interference pattern whose
variation of relative intensity versus deflection angle () is shown in figure. The separation d between the slits
is d = k × 10–2 mm. Find the value of k (approx.)

7. Nuclei of deuterium D (1H2) and tritium T (1H3) can fuse according to the following reaction to produce a neutron
and an alpha particle.

D + T ⎯⎯→ 2 He4 + n

Assuming binding energies per nucleon of deuterium, tritium and helium to be 1.00 MeV, 2.40 MeV and
7.30 MeV respectively and neglect the kinetic energies of nuclei before the collision.

Find the energy (in MeV) carried away by the helium (approximately).

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

8. Two coherent monochromatic source A and B emit light of wavelength . The distance between A and B is
d = 5. If the detector is moved along the line BC perpendicular to AB and passing through B, then the number
of minima observed is n. Find n.

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out
of which one or more than one is/are correct.
9. In Young’s double slit experiment let S1 and S2 be the two slits. Two thin films of thickness t1 and t2 with
refractive index is 1 and 2 respectively are placed in front of S1 and S2 respectively. If 1t1 = 2t2, then the
central maxima will
(A) If t1 > t2, then it will shift towards S2
(B) If t1 > t2, then it will shift towards S1
(C) If t1 < t2, then it will shift towards S2
(D) If t1 < t2, then it will shift towards S1
10. Choose the incorrect statement for commonly used vernier caliper, where 10 divisions of vernier scale matches
with 9 divisions (9 mm) of main scale.
(A) The least count of vernier caliper is the length of the smallest unit on the main scale
(B) The least count of vernier caliper is the length of the smallest unit on the vernier scale
(C) The least count of the instrument is 0.2 mm
(D) The least count of the vernier caliper is the difference of the smallest unit on vernier scale and main scale
11. The difference between the longest wavelength line of Balmer series and shortest wavelength line of the
Lyman series of a hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is equal to .
20
(A) Shortest wavelength of Balmer series is 
31
20
(B) Longest wavelength line of Lyman series is 
93
31
(C) The value of Rydberg constant is
5Z 2
5
(D) The value of Rydberg constant is
31  Z 2

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A)

12. If the source of light used in YDSE is changed from blue to red, then
(A) The number of maxima formed on the screen increases
(B) Consecutive fringes will be separated further away from each other
(C) The number of maxima formed on the screen decreases
(D) Central bright fringe will become dark fringe
13. Two particles A and B of mass m and 2m respectively moving in x - y plane with velocities v A = 2iˆ + 4 jˆ and

vB = 6iˆ + 12 jˆ respectively. The de Broglie wavelength associated with motion of B is . Then

(A) de Broglie wavelength of particle A is 6

(B) de Broglie wavelength of particle A is 3
9
(C) de Broglie wavelength of particle A with respect to center of mass frame is 
2
6
(D) de Broglie wavelength of center of mass is 
7
14. For the YDSE shown below, distance between slits and screen (LM) is D and slit width is d (with D >> d).
Source S0 is placed symmetrically with respect to slits S1 and S2 at a distance D.

d
Now if the source S0 is shifted to S3 such that S0S3 = . Then
4
d
(A) Central fringe on screen will be shifted upward from O (towards M) by a distance
2
d
(B) Central fringe on screen will be shifted upward from O (towards M) by a distance
4
d2
(C) Number of fringes that will pass through O while shifting of source from S0 to S3 is
4D
D
(D) Fringe width shall remain same as
d

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

A 
15. Let An be the area enclosed by nth orbit in hydrogen atom. The graph of ln  n  against ln (n)
 A1 
(A) Will pass through origin
(B) Will be a straight line of slope 4
(C) Will be a monotonically increasing non-linear curve
(D) Will be a circle
16. The pitch of the screw gauge is 1 mm and its circular scale is divided into 50 divisions. There is no
zero-error in the scale system. When a glass plate is placed between the studs. The circular scale lies between
18th and 19th division of main scale and circular scale reads 20 divisions. Then
(A) The least count of the screw gauge is 0.02 mm
(B) The least count of the screw gauge is 0.2 mm
(C) Thickness of the glass plate is 18.4 mm
(D) Thickness of the glass plate is 18.6 mm
17. X-ray from a tube with a target A of atomic number Z shows strong K lines for target A and weak K line for
  1
impurities. Wavelength of K lines is z for target A and 1 and 2 for two impurities. z = 4 and z = .
1 2 4

Consider screening constant for K line to be unity. Select the correct option/s from the followings.
(A) The atomic number of first impurity is 2Z – 1
(B) The atomic number of first impurity is 2Z + 1
Z +1
(C) The atomic number of second impurity is
2
Z+2
(D) The atomic number of second impurity is
2
18. A dose containing radioactive F18 is scheduled to be prepared at 6 : 10 AM and 1.00 mL of it to be given to a
patient at 8 : 00 AM. Half life of F18 is 110 min.
1
(A) For some reason if dose is given to him at 7 : 05 AM. Then quantity of dose to be given is mL
2
1
(B) For some reason if dose is given to him at 7 : 05 AM. Then quantity of dose to be given is mL
2
(C) 2 mL of dose will have same activity at 8 : 55 AM as the activity of 1.75 mL of dose at 9 : 50 AM

(D) 2 mL of dose will have same activity at 8 : 55 AM as the activity of 2 mL of dose at 9 : 50 AM

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A)

SECTION - 3

Matching Column Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I has
four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in Column I
with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II. The OMR
contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :

For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

19. For an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen like atom (atomic number, Z), the quantities given in Column-I are directly
proportional to quantities given in Column-II. Match the following.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Radius of nth orbit (P) n3

1
(B) Current due to electron in nth orbit (Q)
Z

(C) Magnetic field at centre due to circulating (R) Z 3

electron in nth orbit

(D) Time period of electron in nth orbit (S) Z 2

1
(T)
n5

(Space for Rough Work)

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20.

In the shown figure S1 and S2 are two coherent source producing intensity I0 individually on screen 1 are placed
symmetrically with respect to two screens. S3 and S4 are two small openings on screen 1 at distance d1 and d2
respectively from central line. If i is the intensity of central maxima on screen 2 given in Column-I and
corresponding value of d1 and d2 are given in Column-II, then match the entries appropriately. [Given d << D and
wavelength of light is  << d]
Column-I Column-II
D
(A) Zero (P) d1 = d2 =
3d
D 3D
(B) I0 (Q) d1 = ; d2 =
2d 2d
D D
(C) 4I0 (R) d1 = ; d2 =
2d d
3D D
(D) 16I0 (S) d1 = ; d2 =
2d 3d
D 2D
(T) d1 = ; d2 =
d d

PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the correct
answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A)

21. Consider the following reaction sequence.

The number of 6 membered rings in product (P) is x, the number of moles of Grignard reagent that can react
with one mole of product (P) is y. The value of x + y is
22. When phenol reacts with hydrogen (3 eq) in the presence of Ni catalyst under high pressure it forms a
compound A, further vapours of A are passed through copper gauze at temperature 573 K, a new compound
B is formed.
Consider the following statements.
(P) Compound B can give positive Fehling test
(Q) Compound A is a hydrocarbon with molar formula C6H12
(R) When compound A is oxidised using PCC, an aldehyde is produced with molar formula C 6H10O
(S) One molecule of compound B can react with one molecule of CH3MgBr (dry ether)
(T) One mole of compound A reacts with one mole of C6H5MgBr (dry ether)
(U) Compound B is an aromatic compound
(V) Compound A is an aromatic compound
How many of the above given statements are incorrect?
23. When benzaldehyde is refluxed with aq. alcoholic KCN after the complete reaction it forms a compound x.
When benzaldehyde reacts with ethyl-2-bromoethanoate and zinc after acidic hydrolysis and heating it forms
M
a compound y. The difference in the molar mass of x and y is M. Find the value of .
8
24. Aspartic acid is subjected to gel electrophoresis.

(Aspartic acid)
It is given that pK a1 = 2, pK a2 = 4, pK a3 = 10

What will be the pH when aspartic acid shows no net migration towards any electrode.

(Space for Rough Work)

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25. Consider the following reaction

The number of groups which can lead to the formation of an oxime when Q is treated with hydroxyl amine
(excess) at pH = 5, is
26. Find the number of reactions which are leading to the formation of correct major product.

(A)

1. Ag2O (moist )
(B) (C2H5 )4 N+ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2. 
→ ( C2H5 ) N + C2H6
3

(C)

(D)

(E) C6H5NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH → C6H5NC + KCl + H2O

(F)

27. When phthalic acid react with excess of NH3 and then strongly heated, it forms a compound X. X on reaction
with 2-chloroethanamine in presence of base follows ‘n’ order kinetics for nucleophilic substitution and give a
compound y. After the hydrolysis of y in acidic medium, phthalic acid is obtained along with compound Z.
The number of nitrogen atoms present in 1 molecule of X and Z is x and z respectively. Find value of
(x + z + n).
28. When meta-dinitrobenzene reacts with H2S in presence of NH3 form a compound X by gaining ‘n’ number of
electrons. The value of ‘n’ is

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020 Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A)

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out
of which one or more than one is/are correct.

29. Identify the compound(s) which would have greater boiling point than n-butyl alcohol.

(A) 1, 2-Propanediol

(B) 1, 3-Propanediol

(C) Dimethyl ether

(D) N, N-Dimethylmethanamine

30. Consider the following reaction sequence.

Identify the statement(s) which is/are correct about P.

(A) The product P contains one chlorine atom

(B) The product P is formed via SN2 mechanism
(C) The product P is formed by involving carbanion as an intermediate
(D) The product P has lesser molar mass as compared to the reactant
31. Consider the following reaction procedure.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(A) P1 has two alkoxy groups

(B) P2 has two carboxy groups
(C) P3 has one ester group
(D) P2 is 2-methoxybenzoic acid

(Space for Rough Work)

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32. Consider the following two molecules C1 and C2.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding C1 and C2?

(A) Both C1 are C2 are non-reducing
(B) Both C1 and C2 are reducing
(C) Out of C1 and C2, only one molecule is reducing
(D) C1 molecule has a hemiacetal unit
33. A polymer undergoes reductive ozonolysis to give major product P, which on reaction with NaOH(aq) and
further heating gives cyclopent-2-en-1-one.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) The monomer of the polymer is 2-methyl 1, 3-butadiene
(B) The monomer of the polymer is isoprene
(C) The monomer of the polymer can show geometrical isomerism
(D) The molar formula of the monomer is C5H8
34. Which of the following given drug is not correctly matched with its function?
Drug Function of drug
(A) Histamine Antacid
(B) Cimetidine Antacid
(C) Brompheniramine Tranquilizers
(D) Seldane Antihistaminic

(Space for Rough Work)

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35. Consider the following reaction.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(A) Compound P is (B) Compound P is

(C) Compound Q is (D) Compound P is

36. Which of the following compound will give CHI3 when reacted with I2 in presence of NaOH and also gives
turbidity with 2, 4-DNP reagent?

(A) Ph — CHO (B)

(C) (D)

37. Consider the following molecules.

Which of the following is the correct order for basic strength?

(A) B > C > A (B) D > A > C
(C) C > A > B (D) C > A > D

(Space for Rough Work)

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38. Which of the following amines is/are resolvable?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I has
four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in Column I
with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II. The OMR
contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

39. Match Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Reaction or Process) (Optical activity or nature
of the product obtained after
reaction or process)

(A) (P) Optically active

(B) 1, 2-dichloroethane → 1, 2-dichloroethane (Q) Optically inactive

(gauche) (anti)

(Space for Rough Work)

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(C) (R) Pure Enantiomer

(D) (S) Mixture of E and Z isomers

(T) Diastereomers
40. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(Carbohydrate) (Product obtained after hydrolysis of
carbohydrate or characteristic of carbohydrate)
(A) Sucrose (P)  - D - glucose
(B) Maltose (Q)  - D - fructose
(C) Starch (R) C1 - C4 - linkage
(D) Cellulose (S) C1 - C2 - linkage
(T) C1 - C6 - linkage

PART - III : MATHEMATICS

SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the correct
answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

41. Let four fair dice A, B, C and D are rolled once. If their outcomes are a, b, c and d respectively, then the
k
probability that (a –3)(b – 4)(c – 5)(d – 6) = 1 is 4 . The value of k is
6
42. Let x be a unit vector on xy plane which is along the normal to the curve xy2 = 8 at (2, 2). Then the length of
projection of vector 3iˆ − 4 jˆ + kˆ along vector x is k . The value of k is

(Space for Rough Work)

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x −1 y − 2 z −1 x −3 y −2 z−3
43. If lines = = and = = are the equations of two adjacent sides of a rhombus
1 −1 0 1 0 1
whose area is 2 3 square units. Then the side length of rhombus is
x y z
44. The shortest distance between the lines = = and 2x – 2y + z – 9 = 0 = x + 2y + 2z + 12 is
2 1 −2
1 1
45. Let A and B are two independent events such that P ( B ) = and P ( A  B ) = ; then the value of
2 10
 A 
9P   is
 AB
46. A word is selected from all words formed by using letters of word ‘ORDINATE’. The probability that in selected
word the number of letters between A and E is equal to the number of letters between A and I is P. Then the
1
value of equals.
2P
47. Eight badminton players are ranked 1 to 8. Four groups of two players each are formed at random and matches
are organised between them. A lower ranked player always wins the match. Out of these four winners again
two groups of two players each are formed at random to get the finalists. The probability that a player with rank
a
5 is in the finals is (in simplest form). Then the number of divisors of (a + b) is
b
48. Consider the two lines

( ) ( )
L1 : 2iˆ − jˆ − kˆ +  ( sin  − 2) i + 5 cos jˆ + ( 2sin  + 1) kˆ and

L : ( iˆ + ˆj − 5kˆ ) +  ( aiˆ + bjˆ + kˆ )

2


where λ and μ are scalars and α is the acute angle between L1 and L2 which is independent of θ. If  =
n
where n  N , then n equals

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out
of which one or more than one is/are correct.
49. Odds in favour of one event is three times the odds in favour of second event. If probability of first event
happening is twice of the probability of second event happening. Then the probability of first event may be
(A) 1 (B) 0
1 1
(C) (D)
2 3

(Space for Rough Work)

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50. In a game of tosses a person wins the game if he gets head in more than 50% tosses. The coin used for tosses
has probability p of showing head. Two persons A and B toss the coin 3 and 5 times respectively. If their
probability of winning the game are same, then the possible value of p may be
(A) 0 (B) 1
1 1
(C) (D)
3 2

( ) ( )
51. If a  b  c = a  b  c then which of the following may be correct?

(A) b is a zero vector (B) a  c = b (where λ is a scalar)

(C) a and c are collinear (D) a and c are perpendicular

52. Consider two vectors a and b such that | a |= 2, | b |= 1 and angle between vectors a and b is . Then
3
which of the following is not a unit vector?
1
(A) a − b (B) b − a
2
3a − 7b
(C) (D) 2a − 5b
2
53. If the planes x + ky + z = 1, x + y + kz = –1 and x – 3y + 3z = 2 form a triangular prism then k is not equal to
(A) –1 (B) –2
(C) 1 (D) 3
54. Given a parallelogram ABCD. If AB = x, DA = y , AC = z and BD · DA = ax + by + cz (where a, b, c,  Q), then
2 2 2

1 3
(A) a = (B) b = −
2 2
1 3
(C) c = (D) a + b + c = −
2 2
55. Let AC is a circular arc of radius one and centre O (origin). If position vectors of A and C are a and c
2
respectively and AOC is . Consider a point B with position vector b on arc AC such that AOB is θ,
3
then c is equal to
3 3  
(A) − a+ b if  = (B) −a + b if  =
2 2 4 3
 3 + 1 3  1 3 
(C) −  a+ b if  = (D) − a + b if  =
 2  2 4 2 2 2

(Space for Rough Work)

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Test - 4A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2020

56. Consider three dice X, Y and Z. Die X has 1 red, 3 blue and 2 white faces; die Y has 3 red and 3 blue faces;
while die Z has 2 red, 2 blue and 2 white faces. Two fair coins are tossed, if coins show two heads die X is
rolled. In case of one head and no head dice Y and Z are rolled respectively. If red face turns up in the die
m
then the probability that die Z was rolled is (where m and n are coprime).
n
The correct statements is/are
(A) nm is perfect square of an integer (B) n is a prime number
(C) (m + n) is a prime number (D) |m – n| is a prime number
57. Let A(0, 1, 2), B(2, –1, 3) and C(0, –4, –3) are the vertices of a triangle. The internal angle bisector of angle B
meets AC at D, then

21
(A) Possible set of DR’s of BD is 4, 1, 5 (B) Length BD is equal to units
2

153 5 17
(C) Area of triangle ABD is sq. units (D) Area of triangle ABC is sq. units
2 2
58. If three numbers a, b, c are selected from the set S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} with replacement. Then the probability
that
279
(A) The product of a, b and c is an even number is
73
27
(B) The product of a, b and c is an even number is
73
163
(C) (ab + c) is an even number is
73

75
(D) (a + b + c) is an even number is
73

SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I has
four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in Column I
with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II. The OMR
contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).

(Space for Rough Work)

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(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

59. Consider the points A(0, 0, 0); B(–1, 1, 2), C(0, 3, 1) and A(2, 1, 3) are the four vertices of a triangular prism
where two parallel faces are ABC and ABC. AA, BB and CC  are three parallel edges.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Co-ordinates of point B are (P) (1, 2, 2)
(B) Co-ordinates of point C  are (Q) (2, 4, 4)
1 5
(C) Co-ordinates of point(s) of intersection (R)  , 1, 
2 2
of face diagonals may be
3 9
(D) Co-ordinates of point D where AD is a (S)  , 3, 
2 2
median of A  B C  are
(T) (1, 2, 5)
60. Let S be a set containing all four digit numbers formed by using distinct digits out of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. A number
is selected at random from set S. Then match the entries of Column-I to the appropriate entries of Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Probability that selected number is divisible (P) 3
p
by 4 is then (q – p) is (where p and q are
q
coprime)
(B) Probability that the sum of digits of selected (Q) 4
p
number is odd; is then (q – p) is (where p and
q
q are coprime)
(C) Probability that selected number is divisible by (R) 21
p
6 is then (q – p) is (where p and q are coprime)
q
(D) Probability that selected number is divisible by 11 (S) A prime number
p
is then (q – p) is (where p and q are coprime)
q
(T) Greater than 10

❑ ❑ ❑

(Space for Rough Work)

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