Study guide Grade 10 Biology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which bacteria killed the mice in Griffith’s transformation experiment?

a. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmful bacteria
b. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria
c. live harmful bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria
d. live harmless bacteria, and live, harmful bacteria
____ 2. What do bacteriophages infect?
a. mice.
b. humans.
c. viruses.
d. bacteria.
____ 3. What stores information in a cell?
a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. lipids
d. DNA
____ 4. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of
a. adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules.
b. thymine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine molecules
c. adenine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of thymine molecules.
d. cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.

Nitrogenous Bases (%)

A G T C
Human 19.9 29.4
Chicken 28.8 21.5
Bacterium 2
(S. lutea) 13.4
Figure 12–3

____ 5. The table in Figure 12–3 shows the results of measuring the percentages of the four bases in the DNA of
several different organisms. Some of the values are missing from the table. Based on Chargaff’s rule, the
percentages of guanine bases in chicken DNA should be around
a. 28.8%
b. 19.9%
c. 21.5%
d. 13.4%
____ 6. Watson and Crick discovered the two strands in DNA
a. run in perpendicular directions.
b. run in the same direction.
c. run in opposite directions.
d. run in random directions.
____ 7. During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases
a. TCGAAC.
b. GATCCA.
c. AGCTTG.
d. GAUCCA.
____ 8. Which of the following include all the others?
a. DNA molecules
b. histones
c. chromosomes
d. nucleosomes
____ 9. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, DNA replication happens
a. before cell division.
b. in the nucleus.
c. only to telomeres.
d. around the histones.
____ 10. Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?
a. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b. deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
d. phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine

Figure 13–1

____ 11. Which nucleotide in Figure 13–1 indicates the nucleic acid above is RNA?
a. uracil
b. guanine
c. cytosine
d. adenine
____ 12. Which molecules are involved in protein synthesis?
a. transfer RNA, introns, and mutagens
b. messenger RNA, introns, and ribosomal RNA
c. ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, and mutagens
d. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
____ 13. What happens during translation?
a. Messenger RNA is made from a DNA code.
b. The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins.
c. Transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code.
d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
____ 14. Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms?
a. protein to DNA to RNA
b. RNA to DNA to protein
c. DNA to RNA to protein
d. RNA to protein to DNA
____ 15. A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called
a. a mutagen.
b. an inversion.
c. a point mutation.
d. a translocation.
____ 16. One difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation is that
a. A gene mutation affects the DNA of more genes than a chromosomal mutation.
b. A gene mutation can involve a insertion or deletion, but cannot result in a frameshift.
c. A chromosomal mutation can change the number of chromosomes in a cell.
d. A chromosomal mutation is more likely to be passed on to offspring or daughter cells.
____ 17. Most mutations
a. have no effect on an organism.
b. are fatal to an organism.
c. are helpful to an organism.
d. are harmful to an organism.
____ 18. Which is involved with the regulation of eukaryotic genes?
a. operon
b. DNA polymerase
c. TATA box
d. operator
____ 19. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
____ 20. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
____ 21. Sex-linked genes are located on
a. the autosomal chromosomes.
b. the X chromosome only.
c. the Y chromosome only.
d. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
____ 22. If the allele for having a white forelock is dominant, family members WITHOUT a white forelock are
a. homozygous recessive.
b. heterozygous.
c. homozygous dominant.
d. trisomal.
____ 23. Which of the following diseases and conditions does not appear until late in a person’s life?
a. cystic fibrosis
b. sickle cell disease
c. colorblindness
d. Huntington disease
____ 24. Sickle cell disease is caused by a
a. change in one allele.
b. change in the size of a chromosome.
c. change in two proteins.
d. change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
____ 25. The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called
a. nondisjunction.
b. X-chromosome inactivation.
c. Turner’s syndrome.
d. Down syndrome.
____ 26. Because the X chromosome contains genes that are vital for normal development, no baby has been born
a. with one X chromosome.
b. with three X chromosomes.
c. without an X chromosome.
d. with four X chromosomes.
____ 27. Which of the following can be used to cut DNA so it can be studied?
a. restriction enzymes
b. gel electrophoresis
c. karyotypes
d. haplotypes
____ 28. To create animals that have the characteristics of both species, some people have bred buffalo and cattle
together. This is an example of
a. inbreeding
b. hybridization
c. genetic engineering
d. transformation
____ 29. Which of the following could include all the others?
a. hybridization
b. inbreeding
c. selective breeding
d. induced mutations
____ 30. Suppose a bacterial culture was transformed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to
penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements will
happen to the transformed bacteria?
a. They will die.
b. They will live.
c. They will under go PCR.
d. They will become polyploid.
____ 31. Which of the following joins two pieces of DNA together?
 a. restriction enzyme
b. DNA ligase
c. plasmid
d. genetic marker

Figure 15–1

____ 32. What does Figure 15–1 represent?

a. gel electrophoresis being used to sequence DNA
b. hybridization being used to manipulate DNA
c. an enzyme being used to cut DNA
d. polymerase chain reaction being used to copy DNA
____ 33. Which of the following correctly describes the polymerase chain reaction?
a. A piece of DNA is cut with restriction enzymes into smaller pieces. DNA ligase is then
used to join the pieces together.
b. A restriction enzyme cuts a plasmid, and an antibiotic resistance gene is added. The
plasmid is then used to transform bacteria.
c. The gene for the GFP protein is inserted into a bacterial genome. The bacteria then make
the protein and pass the gene to their offspring.
d. DNA is heated to separate the strand, then primers are added. DNA polymerase then
builds new strands in the region between the primers.
____ 34. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as
a. a mutant.
b. a hybrid.
c. a polyploid.
d. recombinant DNA.
____ 35. A plant cell is successfully transformed if
a. a plasmid enters the cell and the cell breaks down the plasmid.
b. the cell integrates foreign DNA into one of its chromosomes.
 c. the cell reproduces normal offspring, which also produce offspring.
d. a plasmid is unable to enter the cell.
____ 36. To produce transgenic bacteria that make insulin, which of the steps listed below would a scientist do FIRST?
a. Insert the human insulin gene into a plasmid.
b. Extract the insulin from the bacterial culture.
c. Cut out the insulin gene from human DNA.
d. Transform bacteria with the recombinant plasmid.
____ 37. The genes carried by all members of a particular population make up the population’s
a. allele frequency.
b. phenotype.
c. genotype.
d. gene pool.
____ 38. If an allele makes up one half of the frequency of a population’s allele for a given trait, its allele frequency is
a. 100 percent.
b. 75 percent.
c. 50 percent.
d. 4 percent.
____ 39. Natural selection acts directly on
a. alleles.
b. genes.
c. phenotypes.
d. mutations.
____ 40. In a fox population, the allele frequency of a gene for red fur changes from 20 percent to 30 percent. What can
you say about that population of foxes?
a. The population is expanding.
b. The population is evolving.
c. The population is decreasing.
d. The population is not evolving.
____ 41. Sexual reproduction among members of a population results in
a. different types of alleles in the gene pool.
b. changes in the allele frequencies in the gene pool.
c. no changes in the allele frequencies in the gene pool.
d. an absence of genetic variation in the population.
____ 42. Three sources of genetic variation are
a. genotypes, phenotypes, and polygenic traits.
b. sexual reproduction, lateral gene transfer, and mutations.
c. single-gene traits, polygenic traits, and adaptation.
d. directional selection, disruptive selection, and stabilizing selection.
____ 43. Genetic recombination includes the independent movement of chromosomes during meiosis as well as
a. mutations from radiation.
b. changes in the allele frequencies.
c. crossing-over.
d. mutations from chemicals.
 Figure 17–1

____ 44. One end of Figure 17–1 shows an increase in average beak size for a population of birds. When individuals at
only one end of a bell curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is
a. directional selection.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. disruptive selection.
d. genetic drift.
____ 45. Genetic drift tends to occur in populations that
a. are very large.
b. are small.
c. are formed from new species.
d. have unchanging allele frequencies.

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.

____ 1. Bacteriophages inject protein into bacteria, altering the bacteria’s genetic information.

____ 2. Watson and Crick discovered that covalent bonds hold base pairs together at the center of a strand of DNA.
_________________________

____ 3. DNA molecules stay in the nucleus; RNA molecules leave the nucleus and move through the cytoplasm to the
ribosomes. _________________________
 Figure 13–5

____ 4. A deletion mutation is shown in line B of Figure 13–5. _________________________

____ 5. In a human karyotype, 44 of the chromosomes are autosomes. _________________________

____ 6. Information from the Human Genome Project can be used to learn more about human diseases.
_________________________

____ 7. Native Americans took teosine and used selective breeding to make corn, a more productive and nutritious
plant. _________________________

____ 8. Farmers growing Bt corn can use more insecticide than farmers growing the same amount of non-GM corn.
______________________________

____ 9. Because all members of a population can interbreed, biologists often study their genes as a single group.
__________________

____ 10. A lack of mutations that introduce new alleles into a population is one condition of genetic variation.
_________________________

Completion
Complete each statement.

Figure 12–2
 1. The structure labeled X in Figure 12–2 is a(an) _________________________.

2. DNA replication is carried out by a series of _________________________.

3. The tips of chromosomes are known as _________________________.

Figure 13–6

4. In Figure 13–6, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

5. The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.

Figure 13–7

6. Mutant 1 in Figure 13–7 is the result of a(n) ________________ because part of the chromosome reverses
direction.

7. A(An) ____________________ can be used to determine whether a person has inherited the normal number
of chromosomes.

8. The alleles IA and ____________________ for the AB blood group are codominant.

9. Nondisjunction can lead to the disorder called ______________________________, in which a male has an
extra X chromosome.

10. After many generations of ____________________ individual dogs of the same breed are likely to be very
genetically similar.

11. To produce a fruit that has some characteristics of an orange and some of a grapefruit, you would use the
selective breeding technique of _________________________.

12. Bananas planted as crops are____________________ plants which have 2 or 3 times the normal diploid
number of chromosomes.
 13. A polygenic trait can have many possible genotypes and ____________________.

14. After a forest fire, a deer population is reduced to one tenth of its original number. By chance, the average
deer that remain are larger than the average deer in the original population. This change in the population’s
gene pool is known as _____________________.

15. If two populations have been reproductively isolated and can no longer breed and produce fertile offspring,
the process of _________________________ has occurred.

Short Answer

Figure 13–2

1. According to Figure 13–2, what codons specify the amino acid glycine?

2. What is a pedigree chart?

3. How are the selective breeding techniques of hybridization and inbreeding opposites?

4. List the five conditions that can disturb genetic equilibrium in a population.
Science Skills

Griffith’s Experiments

Figure 12–11

1. Interpret Visuals What process did Griffith identify in the series of experiments in Figure 12–11?

Figure 14–11

2. Interpret Visuals Study the human karyotype in Figure 14–11. Explain whether the person will be male or
female, and describe the abnormality that this person has.
 Figure 15–4

3. Interpret Visuals What process is being illustrated in Figure 15–4?

Figure 17–5

4. Interpret Graphs According to Graph C in Figure 17–5, what has occurred?

Essay

1. How is DNA like a book? Explain your answer.

2. Contrast the functions of the three main types of RNA