SECTION NAME

Date : 26/04/2024 AA12N2401

Time : 3 Hours 0 Minutes Marks : 720

Physics
1. A spherical conductor A of radius r is placed concentrically inside a conducting shell B of radius
R(R>r).A charge Q is given to A, and then A is joined to B by a metal wire. The charge flowing from A
to B will be

C) Q D) Zero
A) B)

2. A point charge +q is fixed at point B. Another point charge + q at A of mass m vertically above B at
height h is dropped from rest. Choose the correct statement:

A) It will collide with B B) It will execute SHM

C) It will go down only if < mgh2

D) It will go down up to a point and then come up

3. Three charges (each Q) are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle. A fourth charge q is
placed at the center of the triangle. The ratio |q/Q| so as to make the system in equilibrium is

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 A) 1:3 B) C) D)

4. When two particles q and −q are placed at a distance r, then Coulomb’s force of attraction between
them has magnitude F. If another charge particle having charge + 3q is placed near to −q, then the
force exerted by −q on q will be

A) 4 F, repulsive B) 2F, attractive C) F, attractive D) 2 F, repulsive

5. Under the action of a given coulombic force the acceleration of an electron is 2.5 × 1022 m/s2. Then
the magnitude of the acceleration of a proton under the action of same force is nearly

A) 1.6 × 10−19 m/s2 B) 9.1 × 1032 m/s2 C) 1.5 × 1019 m/s2 D) 1.6 × 1027 m/s2

6. Two charges +6 µC and +15 µC are placed along the x-axis at x = 0 and x = 2 m respectively A negative
charge is placed between them such that the resultant force on it is zero. The negative charge is placed
at

A) x = 0.775m B) x = 1.2m C) x = 0.05m D) Position depends on the mount of charge

7. Under the influence of the Coulomb field of charge +Q, a charge −q is moving around it in an elliptical
orbit. Find out the correct statement(s)

A) The angular momentum of the charge −q is constant

B) The linear momentum of the charge −q is constant

C) The angular velocity of the charge −q is constant

D) The linear speed of the charge −q is constant

8. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of the

other two corner. If the net electrical force on Q is zero, then equals

A) B) −1 C) 1

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 A) B) −1 C) 1
D)

9. There are two charges +1 µC and +5 µC. The ratio of the forces acting on them will be

A) 1:5 B) 1:1 C) 5:1 D) 1:25

10. Two charges +4e and +e are at distance × apart. At what distance, a charge q must be placed from
charge +e, so that it is in equilibrium?

A) B) C) D)

11. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in
equilibrium, then the value of q

A) B) C) D)

12. Two parallel infinite line charges +λ and −λ are placed with a separation distance R in free space. The
net electric field exactly mid-way between the two line charges is

A) Zero
B) C) D)

13. A long string with a charge of λ per unit length passes through an imaginary cube of edge a. The
maximum flux of the electric field through the cube will be

A) λa/ε0
B) C) D)

14. The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that,an electron of mass m and charge e placed in it
would experience an electrical force equal to its weight is given by

A) mge
B) C) D)

15. The electric field intensity at a point at a distance 2 m from a charge q is E. The amount of work done
in bringing a charge of 2 coulomb from infinity to this point will be

A) 2E J B) 4E J
C) J D) J

16. Five point charges, +q each, are placed at the five vertices of a regular hexagon. The distance of the
center of the hexagon from any of the vertices is a. The electric field at the centre of the hexagon is

D) zero
A) B) C)

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 17. A semicircular ring of radius 0.5m is uniformly charged. The total charge is 1.4 × 10−9 C. The Electric
field at the centre is

A) 100 V/m B) 320 V/m C) 64 V/m D) 32 V/m

18. An oil drop of 10 excess electrons is held stationary under a constant electric field of 3.65 × 104 N C−1
in Millikan's oil drop experiment. The density of oil is 1.26 g cm−3. Radius of the oil drop is

(Take, g = 9.8 m s−2, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C)

A) 1.04 × 10−6 m B) 4.8 × 10−5 m C) 4.8 × 10−18 m D) 1.13 × 10−18 m

19. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field whose direction is fixed but whose magnitude varies
with distance. The incorrect option is

A) it experiences no net force and no torque B) it experiences a net force but no torque

C) it experiences a net force and a torque D) it experiences no net force but a torque

20. A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field of 3 × 104 NC−1. The dipole moment of each
HCl molecule is 6 × 10−30 c × m. The maximum torque that can act on a molecule is

A) 2 × 10−34 C2 N−1 m B) 2 × 10−34 Nm C) 18 × 10−26 Nm D) 0.5 × 1034 C−2 N−1 m−1

21. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2 × 105 N / C. It
experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2cm, is

A) 7 µC B) 8 mC C) 2 mC D) 5 mC

22. One metallic sphere A is given positive charge whereas another identical metallic sphere B of exactly
same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative charge. Then

A) Mass of A and mass of B still remain equal B) Mass of A increases C) Mass of B decreases

D) Mass of B increases

23. What is charge on 90 kg of electrons?

A) 1.58 × 1013 C B) 2.3 × 1012 C C) 2.53 × 1012 C D) None of these

24. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of −1 × 10−2 C and 5 × 10−2 C,
respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is

A) 2 × 10−2C B) 3 × 10−2C C) 4 × 10−2C D) 1 × 10−2C

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 25. Electrical force between two point charges is 200 N. If we increase 10% charge on one of the charges
and decrease 10% charge on the other, then electrical force between them for the same distance
becomes

A) 198 N B) 100 N C) 200 N D) 99 N

26. Assertion (A) If the bob of a simple pendulum is kept in a horizontal electric field, its period of
oscillation will remain same.
Reason (R) If bob is charged and kept in horizontal electric field, then the time period will be
decreased.

A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is correct but R is incorrect D) A is incorrect but R is correct

27. If a charge on the body is 1 nC, then how many electrons are present on the body?

A) 1.6 × 1019 B) 6.25 ×109 C) 6.25 × 1027 D) 6.25 × 1028

28. If charge and distance between two charges are reduced to half. Force between them

A) remains same B) increase four times C) reduce four times D) None of the above

29. A pendulum bob carriers a negative charge −q. A positive charge +q is held at the point of support.
Then, the time period of the bob is

A) greater than B) less than C) equal to D) equal to

30. Point charges +4q, −q and +4q are kept on the X-axis at point x = 0, x = a and x = 2a respectively.

A) only −q is in stable equilibrium B) all the charges are in stable equilibrium

C) all of the charges are in unstable equilibrium D) none of the charges is in equilibrium

31. Assertion (A) The lightning conductor at the top of high building has sharp pointed ends.
Reason (R) The surface density of charge at sharp points is very high resulting in setting up of electric
wind.

A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

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 C) A is correct but R is incorrect D) Both A and R are incorrect

32. Two identical metal spheres charged with +12µF and −8µF are kept at certain distance in air. They are
brought into contact and then kept at the same distance. The ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic
forces between them before and after contact is

A) 12 : 1 B) 8 : 1 C) 24 : 1 D) 4 : 1

33. What is the force between two small charged spheres having charges of 2 × 10−7 C and 3 × 10−7 C
placed 30 cm apart in air?

A) 5 × 10−2N B) 6 × 10−3N C) 7 × 10−4N D) 8 × 10−4N

34. Force between two charges q1 and q2 separated by a distance r is proportional to q1 q2 / r2.
Proportionality constant is

B) 4πε0 D) 1
A) C)

35. Three charges each of magnitude q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle, the electrostatic
force on the charge placed at the centre is (each side of triangle is L)

A) zero
B) C) D)

36. Four charges equal to −Q are placed at four corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If the
system is in equilibrium the value of q is

A) B) C) D)

37. Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?

A) They always start from positive charges and terminate on negative charges

B) They are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged conductor

C) They always form closed loops

D) They are parallel and equally spaced in a region of uniform electric field

38. Electric field at centre O of semicircle of radius a having linear charge density λ given as

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 A) B) C) D)

39. Electric lines of force

A) exist everywhere B) exist only in the immediate vicinity of electric charges

C) exist only when both positive and negative charges are near one another D) are imaginary

40. The Gaussian surface for calculating the electric field due to a charge distribution is

A) any surface near the charge distribution B) always a spherical surface

C)

a symmetrical closed surface containing the charge distribution, at every point of which electric field
has a single fixed value

D) None of the above

41. A Gaussian sphere encloses an electric dipole within it. The total flux across the sphere is

A) zero B) half that due to a single charge C) double that due to a single charge

D) dependent on the position of the dipole

42. Electric field at a point of distance r from a uniformly charged wire of infinite length having linear
charge density λ is directly proportional to

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 A) r−1 B) r C) r2 D) r−2 E) None of these

43. Two parallel infinite line charges +λ and -λ are placed with a separation distance R in free space. The
net electric field exactly mid way between the two line charges is

A) zero
B) C) D)

44. A point charge +q, is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting plane. The field at a point P on
the other side of the plane is

A) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane.

B) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the plane.

C) directed radially away from the point charge. D) directed radially towards the point charge.

45. A point charge is kept at the centre of metallic insulated spherical shell. Then

A) electric field out side the sphere is zero B) electric field inside the sphere is zero

C) net induced charge on the sphere is zero D) electric potential inside the sphere is zero

Chemistry
46. Which is the correct IUPAC name for

A) 1-bromo-2-ethylpropane B) 1-bromo-2-ethyl-2-methylethane C) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane

D) 2-methyl-1-bromobutane

47. Which of the following represents the correct order of densities?

A) CCl4 > CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl > H20 B) CCl4 > CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 > H2O > CH3Cl

C) H2O > CH3Cl > CH2Cl > CHCl3 > CCl4 D) CCl4 > CHCl3 > H2O > CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl

48. Alkyl fluorides are prepared when alkyl chlorides are treated with metallic fluorides. This reaction is
called

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 A) Finkelstein reaction B) Wurtz reaction C) Gattermann reaction D) Swarts reaction

49. CH3Cl + NaI → CH3I + NaCl

1. It is Finkelstein reaction
2. NaCl is precipitated out in dry acetone
3. If follows SN2 mechanism
4. Reaction goes forward w.r.t Le Chatelier's principle

Which of the above is(are) true statement(s)?

A) 1, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2 D) 1, 2, 3, 4

50. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their densities

A) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) B) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii) C) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

D) (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (i)

51. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points

A) (ii) < (i) < (iii) B) (i) < (ii) < (iii) C) (iii) < (i) < (ii) D) (iii) < (ii) < (i)

52. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds ?
1-iodobutane, 1-bromobutane, 1-chlorobutane, butane

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 A) Butane < 1-chlorobutane < 1-bromobutane <1-iodobutane

B) 1-iodobutane < 1-bromobutane < 1-chlorobutane < butane

C) Butane <1-iodobutane < 1-bromobutane < 1-chlorobutane

D) Butane < 1-chlorobutane <1-iodobutane < 1-bromobutane

53. In which of the following reactions, chlorine acts as an oxidising agent

The correct answer is

A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (i) and (iii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

54. The isomerism shown by 2, 3-dichlorobutane is

A) Diastereo B) Optical C) Geometric D) Structural

55. Vinyl chloride reacts with HCl to form

A) Mixture of 1, 2 and 1,1−dichloro ethane B) 1, 2-dichloro ethane C) Tetrachloro ethylene

D) 1, 1-dichloro ethane

56. Substitution of chlorine takes place at higher temperature in

A) CH2=CH2 B) CH3CH=CH2 C) CHΞCH D) none of the above

57. Allyl chloride on dehydrochlorination gives

A) propylene B) acetone C) propadiene D) allyl alcohol

58. For the preparation of n-propyl bromide from n-propyl alcohol, which of the following reagents is
most preferred.

A) P4/Br2 B) Br2/CH3COOH C) HBr/H2SO4 D) NaBr

59. Alkyl halides are treated with metallic fluorides to form alkyl fluorides is called

A) Sand meyer's reaction B) Wurtz reaction C) Swarts reaction D) Williamson's synthesis

60. Identify name of the following reaction

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 A) Finkelstein reaction B) Gattermann reaction C) Sandmeyer reaction D) Wurtz reaction

61. Isobutyl bromide may be obtained from isobutylene and HBr in the presence of

A) hydroquinone B) diphenylamine C) peroxide D) all of these

62. C-X bond is strongest in

A) CH3Br B) CH3CI C) CH3I D) CH3F

63. Toluene when refluxed with Br2 in the presence of light mainly gives

A) p-bromotoluene B) benzyl bromide C) o-bromotoluence

D) mixture of o- and p-bromotoluene

64. What is 'A' in the following reaction

B)
A)

C)

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 D)

65. Toluene when treated with Br2 and Fe, gives p-bromotoluene as the major product, because the major
product, because the methyl group

1. is para-directing
2. is m-directing
3. activates the ring by hyperconjugation
4. deactivates the ring of the above

A) 1, 3 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2 D) none of these

66.
is an example of

A) elimination B) substitution C) addition D) rearrangement reaction

67. The order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards elimination reaction is

A) 1º > 2º > 3º B) 2º >1º >3º C) 3º > 2º > 1º D) 3º > 1º > 2º

68. Consider the following haloalkanes:

1. CH3F 2. CH2Cl

3. CH3Br 4. CH3I

The increasing order of reactivity in nucleophilic substitution reaction is

A) 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 B) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 C) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 D) 1 < 2 < 4 < 3

69. Which of the following statements are correct for nucleophile?

A) All negatively charged species are nucleophiles B) Nucleophiles are Lewis bases

C) Alkenes, alkynes, benzene and pyrrole are nucleophiles D) All are correct

70. Reaction of ethyl benzene with bromine in presence of FeBr3 gives

A) 2-bromoethyl benzene B) 2-bromoethyl benzene C) 3-bromoethyl benzene

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 D) 4-bromoethyl benzene

71. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment I. toluene, II. m-
dichlorobenzene, III. o-dichlorobenzene, and IV. p-dichlorobenzene

A) I < IV < II < III B) IV < I < II < III C) IV < I < III < II D) IV < II < I < III

72. Predict the major product in the following reaction.

D) all of these

B)
A)
C)

73. Which of the following possesses highest melting point?

A) chlorobenzene B) o-dichlorobenzene C) m-dichlorobenzene D) p-dichlorobenzene

74. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

B)
A)

C)

D)

75. At normal temperature, iodoform is

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 A) Solid B) Gas C) Volatile liquid D) Thick viscous liquid

76. When but -3-en -2- ol reacts with aq. HBr, the product formed is

A) 3-bromobut-1-ene B) 1-bromobut-2-ene C) A mixture of both (a) and (b)

D) 2-bromobut-2-ene

77. 1, 2-di-bromo cyclohexane on dehydrohalogenation gives

A) B) C)

D) None of these

78. Which of the following leads to the formation of an alkyl halide?

A) B) C) D) All of these

79. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by

A) substitution B) addition C) elimination D) dehydrohalogenation

80. When chlorine is passed through propene at 400ºC, which of the following is formed?

A) allyl chloride B) PVC C) vinyl chloride D) 1,2-dichloroethane

81. Of the following compounds, the one with the lowest boiling point is ?

A) pentyl chloride B) tertiary butyl chloride C) isobutyl chloride D) n-butyl chloride

82. Which of the following product is obtained when o-xylene is treated with Br2 in the presence of iron?

A)

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 A)
B)

D)

C)

83. Correct order of boiling point for the alkyl halide is

A) C2H5Cl > C2H5Br > C2H5I B) C2H5I > C2H5Br > C2H5Cl C) C2H5I > C2H5Cl > C2H5Br

D) C2H5BR > C2H5I > C2H5Cl

84. Identify the final product (B).

A) m-chloro benzene B) m-chloro benzaldehyde C) m-chloro benzoic acid

D) m-chloro benzyl alcohol

85. The number of isomeric alkyI halides possible for C5H11Cl is

A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 8

86. In the reaction The order of the reactivity of HX is

A) HCl < HBr < HI B) HI < HBr < HCl C) HCl < HI < HBr D) HBr < HI < HCl

87. Among the following compounds, the one with the least percentage of chlorine is

A) chloroform B) vinyl chloride C) gammexane D) pyrene

88. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

water carbon dioxide chlorofluorocarbons methane

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 A) water B) carbon dioxide C) chlorofluorocarbons D) methane

89. The number of dibromo derivatives of propane are

A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

90. The fire extinguisher "pyrene" contains

A) Carbon dioxide B) Carbon disulphide C) Carbon tetra chloride D) Chloroform

Zoology
91. The main reason for the success of Mendel was that he

A) made statistical analysis of the offsprings

B) first took only one character at a time in his crosses C) kept pedigree record

D) selected pea plant

92. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results. From that he concluded that

A) there is independent assortment of trait B) sex plays a role in deciding the dominance of a trait

C) there is no dominance of any trait D) sex has no influence on the dominance of traits.

93. The offspring by matting between two pure strains are called

A) hybrid B) mutant C) the P generation D) the F2 - generation

94. What is the genotype for a short pea plant?

A) tt B) Tt C) TT D) Cannot be determined

95. Violet flower colour in garden pea is

A) recessive B) dominant C) epistatic D) complementary

96. Mendel conducted his experiments using several pea lines, which are

A) true-breeding B) non-breeding C) self-breeding D) None of the above

97. Mendel was the first biologist

A) to study the mechanism of inheritance

B) to discover that chromosomes are responsible for inheritance

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 B) to discover that chromosomes are responsible for inheritance

C) to use statistical methods in analysing his results D) All of the above

98. A fruitfly has two genes for eye colour, but each of its sperm cell has only one. This illustrates

A) segregation B) independent assortment C) linked genes D) pleiotropy

99. Mendel studied seven contrasting characters for his breeding experiments with Pisum sativum, which
of the following characters he did not use?

A) Pop shape B) Leaf shape (or size) C) Plant height (or internode size) D) Pod colour

100. Which of the following is correct about Mendel's statement ?

A) 7 characters, 7 pair traits B) 7 pair characters, 7 traits C) 7 characters, 7 traits

D) 7 pair characters, 7 pair traits

101. Which of the following is helpful in studying sex-linked characters?

A) Back cross B) Test cross C) Reciprocal cross D) Trihybrid cross

102. Test cross is a cross between

A) hybrid x dominant parent B) hybrid x recessive parent C) hybrid x hybrid parent

D) two distantly related species

103. It is said Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and independent. This
proposition was based on the

A) results of F3 generation of a cross

B)

observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters
shows only one character without any blending

C) self pollination of F1 offsprings D) cross pollination of parental generations

104. Cross of F1-progeny back to one of recessive parent is

A) test cross B) back cross C) dihybrid cross D) trihydrid cross

105. When an albino plant of maize female is crossed with a normal green male plant, all plants in the

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 progeny are albino because

A) albinism is dominant over green characters B) plastids are inherited through maternal plants

C) green plastids of male parent become maternal

D) crossing results in structural change in green plants

106. A wild type is

A) the phenotype found most commonly in nature B) the dominant allele

C) designated by a small letter if it is recessive or a capital letter if it is dominant

D) All of the above

107. Phenotype is influenced by

A) environment B) development C) ageing D) All of these

108. An interaction between non-allelic genes in which an allele at one locus prevents expression of an
allele at another locus, but not vice versa, is called

A) collaboration B) complementation C) epistasis D) modification

109. Mendel's law of segregation states that

A) the two factors for the same trait separate in the production of gametes

B) the two different traits will be inherited independently of each other

C) the gametes are produced by meiosis D) All of the above

110. Which two processes are best represented by the diagram shown below?

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 A) Recombination and codominance B) Segregation and recombination

C) Segregation and intermediate inheritance D) Codominance and gene linkage

111. Hybrids are generally superior to parents due to

A) heterosis B) homozygosity C) heterozygosity D) parents are generally weak

112. Mating of an organisms to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or

heterozygous for a character under consideration, is called

A) resiprocal cross B) test cross C) dihybrid cross D) back cross

113. Pure line is connected with the development of

A) complete homozygosity B) complete heterozygosity C) homozygosity and linkage

D) heterozygosity and linkage

114. A gamete normally contains

A) many alleles of a gene B) all alleles of a gene C) two alleles of a gene

D) one alleles of a gene

115. Punnett's square is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of

A) all possible genotypes of offsprings in a genetic cross

B) all possible phenotypes of offsprings in genetic cross C) Both (a) and (b)

D) only the hybrid offsprings in a genetic cross

116. In first filial progeny of his experiment, Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny plants were

A) dwarf B) tall C) hybrid D) All of these

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 117. Punnett's square was developed by

A) Robert Punnett B) RC Punnett C) GJ Mendel D) W Bateson

118. Alternative forms of genes for a particular characteristic are called

A) homologous chromosomes B) alleles C) linked genes D) genotypes

119. For a given character, a gamete is always

A) homozygous B) pure C) hybrid D) heterozygous

120. Mendel was the first biologist

A) to study the mechanism of inheritance

B) to discover that chromosomes are responsible for inheritance

C) to use statistical methods in analysing his results D) All of the above

121. Heterozygous purple flower is crossed with recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio

A) all purple B) all white C) 50% purple, 50% white D) 75% purple, 25% white

122. A purple flowered plant is cross-pollinated with a yellow flowered plant of the some species. The F1
plants are all yellow-flowered. If a yellow-flowered F1 plant is cross-pollinated with a purple-flowered
plant, what percentage of the offsprings do you expect to have purple flowers?

A) 75% B) 50% C) 25% D) 100%

123. Phenotype is

A) the genetic make up of an individual B) the same for parent and offspring

C) the account of physiological activities D) the appearance of an individual

124. When two hybrids are crossed, the percentage of recessive population is

A) 25% B) 100% C) 50% D) 75%

125. Mendel's law is still true because it takes place in

A) sexually reproducing plants B) asexually reproducing plants C) Both (a) and (b)

D) apomictic reproducing plants

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 126. The crossing of a homozygous tall plant with a dwarf in F2 would yield plants in the ratio of

A) all homozygous dwarf B) all heterozygous tall

C) one homozygous tall, one homozygous dwarf and two heterozygous tall

D) two tall and two dwarf

127. Which of the following pea plants will be always white flowered?

A) In which stem is elongated B) In which stem is short C) In which seed coat is white

D) In which pod is constricted

128. If a cross is made between AA and aa, the nature of F1 progeny will be

A) genotypically AA, phenotypically a B) genotypically Aa, phenotypically a

C) genotypically Aa, phenotypically A D) genotypically aa, phenotypically A

129. If heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous dwarf plants, then the percentage of progeny
having dwarf character, is

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100%

130. Heterozygous organisms Bb produce B and b gametes. The chance of b combining with B or b are

A) 1/1 B) 1/2 C) 1/4 D) None of these

131. Mendel developed the basic principles of heredity by

A) examining chromosomes with microscope B) analysing large numbers of offsprings

C) using X-rays to induce mutations D) observing crossing-over during meiosis

132. Hybrid breakdown refers to the condition when offsprings are physiologically inferior to the following
generation

A) F1 B) F2 C) P1 D) All of these

133. Mendelian recombination is due to

A) linkage B) independent assortment of genes C) mutation D) dominant characters

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 134. Mendel is popular for formulating, which among the to following

A) origin of species B) cell theory C) linkage theory D) law of inheritance

135. Mendel proposed that in a true-breeding, tall or dwarf pea variety the allelic pair of genes for height
are

A) homozygous B) heterozygous C) hybrid D) Both (b) and (c)

136. When a monohybrid is crossed with a recessive parent, the cross is described as a

A) test cross B) monohybrid cross C) dihybrid cross D) None of the above

137. Mendel crossed the tall plant from F2 with a dwarf plant. It is called a

A) back cross B) test cross C) reciprocal cross D) None of these

138. Mendel started his experiments with pure strains of peas. A pure strain was developed by removing all

A) female plants B) male plants C) typical plants in each generation D) weak plants

139. Mendal found that the reciprocal a crossed yielded identical results. From that

A) there is no dominance of any trait B) sex has no influence on the dominance of traits

C) there is independent assortment of traits D) sex plays a role in deciding the dominance of a trait

140. Leaf colour in Mirabilis jalapa is an example of

A) Non-Mendelian inheritance B) Mendelian inheritance C) Chemical inheritance

D) Both (b) and (c)

141. In squirrels, the gene for grey fur (G) is dominant over the gene for black fur (g). If 50% of a large
litter of squirrels are grey, the parental cross that produced this litter was most likely

A) GG × Gg B) Gg × gg C) GG × GG D) gg × gg

142. The F2-generation of a cross

A) has a phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1

B) is the result of the self-fertilisation or crossing of F1 individuals

C) can be used to determine the gentotype of individuals with the dominant phenotype

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 D) has a phenotypic ratio that equals its genotypic ratio

143. The F2 ratio resulting from a monohybrid cross will be

A) 15 : 1 B) 9 : 7 C) 3 : 1 D) 1 : 1

144. The resemblance of individuals of their progenitors is called

A) heredity B) genetics C) evolution D) None of these

145. Gametes are never hybrid, it is a statement of law of

A) dominance B) segregation C) independent assortment D) random fertilisation

146. A heterozygous parent produces

A) one kind of gamete B) two kinds of gametes each having two alleles

C) two kinds of gametes each having one allele with equal proportion D) two kinds of gametes

147. When a particular characteristic of an individual, e.g., petal colour, shows variation among the
offspring produced after the individual is selfed, it is said to be

A) pure-breeding B) true-breeding C) homozygous D) heterozygous

148. What would the parent's genotypes be if both were heterozygous for flower colour? (purple-W, white-
w)

A) ww and ww B) Ww and Ww C) WW and WW D) WW and ww

149. Mendelism is related with

A) heredity in living beings B) meiosis during sexual reproduction

C) mutation in living organisms D) None of the above

150. An allele is said to be dominant if it is expressed

A) only in heterozygous combination B) only in homozygous combination

C) in both homozygous and heterozygous condition D) only in second generation

151. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel?

A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Seven

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 152. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature

A) axial flower position B) green seed colour C) green pod colour D) round seed shape

153. If one gametophyte fern plant shows characters A and B and is crossed with another plant having a and
b then what will be the gametophytic generation (gametes) with respect to these two characters?

A) 1 AB : 1 Ab : 1 aB : 1 ab B) 1 AB : 2 AB : 1 ab C) 3 AB : ab D) 9 AB : 3 Ab : 3 aB : 1 ab

154. Mendel found that the F1 always resembled

A) Either one of the parent B) Both of the parents C) None of the parents

D) May be (a), (b) and (c)

155. Assume that in mice, B = black fur, b = brown fur. If a heterozygous black mouse mates with a
homozygous brown mouse, what per cent of their offspring will have black fur?

A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100%

156. what would be the genotype of a plant that was homozygous for the dominant trait of axial flowers?

A) AA B) Aa C) aa D) Cannot be determined

157. Ratio of progeny when a red coloured heterozygote is crossed with a white coloured plant in which red
colour is dominamt over white colour

A) 3 : 1 B) 1 : 1 C) 1 : 2 : 1 D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

158. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of

A) test-cross B) back-cross C) monohybrid cross D) dihybrid cross

159. A 1 : 1 phenotypic ratio in a test cross indicates that

A) the alleles are dominant B) one parent must have been homozygous recessive

C) the dominant phenotype parent was a heterozygote D) the alleles segregated independently

160. Back cross is used for determining

A) purity of gametes B) mutant genes C) genotype of one of the parent D) sibling relationship

161. How many different genotypes are possible from a cross between the parents RR and rr?

A) Four B) One C) Three D) Two

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 162. Which of the following genes show the heterozygous condition?

A) Rr B) RR C) rr D) None of these

163. Identify the correctly matched pair.

A) Genetic make up of gametes — Heterosis B) Identical allele of gene — Homozygous

C) Genes that fail to express in F1 — Epistatic

D) Alternate forms of genes — Complementary genes

164. Mendel proposed that something was being stably passed down from parent to offsprings through the
gametes. He called these things as

A) genes B) factors C) characters D) traits

165. In raccoons, a dark face mask is dominant over a bleached face mask. Several crosses were made
between raccoons that were hetetozygous for dark face mask and that were homozygous for bleached
face mask. What percentage of the offspring would be expected to have a dark face mask?

A) 0% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100%

166. What phenotypes are possible from the cross, between round seeded plant and wrinkled seeded plants?

A) All round B) Round and wrinkled C) All wrinkled D) Slightly wrinkled

167. Test cross is when

A) F1 crossed with heterozygous parents B) F2 crossed with homozygous recessive parents

C) F1 crossed with homozygous recessive parents D) F1 crossed with homozygous parents

168. HbA and HbS alleles of normal and sickle cell haemoglobin are

A) codominant alleles B) multiple alleles C) polygenic alleles D) cumulative alleles

169. A child has blood group 'O'. If father has blood group 'A' and mother has blood group 'B', work out the
genotypes of the parents.

A) lAlA and lBi B) lAi and lBi C) lAi and ii D) ii and lBlB

170. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option in question.

Assertion : Mendel conducted artificial pollination / cross pollination experiments using 14 true

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 breeding pea lines.
Reason : A true breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous cross−pollination, shows the
stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.

A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C) If assertion is true but reason is false. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

171. Human blood grouping is common example of:

(i) Quantitative inheritance
(ii) Multiple allelism
(iii) Incomplete dominance
(iv) Co - Dominance

A) Only (ii) B) Only (iv) C) Both (ii) and (iii) D) Both (ii) and (iv)

172. According to 'law of dominance' by Mendel, if in a gene with heterozygous condition, a normal allele
produces a normal enzyme then another allele (modified allele) should produce 5.2.1

A) normal enzyme B) non functional enzyme C) less efficient enzyme D) both 2 and 3

173. In case of incomplete dominance, what will be the phenotypic ratio of generation?
ad a

A) 3 : 1 B) 1 : 2 : 1 C) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 D) 2 : 2
y
Ac ila

174. Mendel work later formulated into laws of

em

I. Linkage
II. Segregation
III. Incomplete dominance
IV. Independent assortment
Ak

Choose the correct option

A) I, III and IV B) II and IV C) I and III D) I, II and III

175. In monohybrid crosses, absence of complete dominance is indicated by the plants that exhibit
intermediate characters. This can be further confirmed if the phenotypic ratio in is

A) 1 : 1 B) 1 : 2 : 1 C) 2 : 1 : 1 D) 3 : 1

176. Select the set of wrong statements :

A – Sexual reproduction was known to human as a source of variation since 8000-10000 BC
B – Mendel succeeded as he has taken small sampling size for experiments
C – ABO blood group is an example of multiple allelism

A) B) C) D)

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 A) B) C) D)

177. Phenomenon of co-dominance is shown by

A) iA i B) iA iB C) iB i D) i i

178. Number of allelic forms for gene I (for expression of blood groups) in a population is / are

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

179. Which allele/s is required for the expression of blood group AB ?

A) iA B) iB C) both iA iB D) iAB

180. Study the following and select correct set of statements

I. In Co-dominance recessive character is absent
II. In humans blood group is due to the equal expression of and alleles
III. Co-dominance is expressed in homozygotic condition only
The correct combination is

A) I and III B) I and II C) III and II D) only III only

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