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Privious Year Question 2008

The document discusses a pharmaceutical science exam with multiple choice questions covering topics like mechanisms of action of antidiabetic and antihypertensive drugs, drug interactions, plant cell constituents, microbial virulence factors, DNA equations, clinical markers of disease, analytical techniques, drug development guidelines, and classification of formulation excipients.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
20 views

Privious Year Question 2008

The document discusses a pharmaceutical science exam with multiple choice questions covering topics like mechanisms of action of antidiabetic and antihypertensive drugs, drug interactions, plant cell constituents, microbial virulence factors, DNA equations, clinical markers of disease, analytical techniques, drug development guidelines, and classification of formulation excipients.

Uploaded by

jagjeet00066
Copyright
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PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCE

Time : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 150


(Q. 1 - 20) CARRY ONE MARK EACH
1. An antidiabetic drug Pioglitazone used in Type 2 diabetes acts by
(a) Decrease of glucose uptake in muscles (b) Increasing insulin sensitivity
(c) Inhibiting intestinal a-glucosidase (d) Stimulating insulin secretion
2. An angiotensin-II receptor blocker useful in treating hypertension is
(a) Enalaprilat (b) Valsartan (c) Atenolol (d) Amlodipine
3. Co-administration of NSAIDs with Warfarin may often lead to
(a) Antagonistic interaction
(b) Interaction due to change in drug transport
(c) Interaction due to disturbances in electrolyte balance
(d) Additive or synergistic interaction
4. Laminaria and Kelp are the principal genera, currently used for the industrial production of
(a) Carrageenans (b) Agar
(c) Fucans (d) Alginic acid and alginates
5. A transverse section of Glycyrrhiza glabra when treated with 80% sulphuric acid gave
(a) Deep yellow color (b) No reaction, but only charring
(c) Deep blue color (d) Deep red color
6. Microscopy of the bulbs of Urginea indica family Liliaceae shows
(a) Prisms of calcium oxalate (b) Calcium carbonate and silica
(c) Rosettes if calcium oxalate (d) Raphides of calcium oxalate
7. Streptomycin is a
(a) Di-acidic base possessing an aldehydic carbonyl group
(b) Tri-acidic base possessing an aldehydic carbonyl group
(c) Neutral compound possessing a ketonic group
(d) Acid compound possessing a carboxyl group

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GATE - 2008

8. The antihistaminic with diphenyl methyl group is


(a) Methdilazine (b) Cyclizine hydrochloride
(c) Pheniramine (d) Phenindamine
9. Heterocyclic rings present in pilocarpine are
(a) Imidazole and Quinoline (b) Imidazole and Thiazole
(c) Quinoline and phenanthrene (d) Imidazole and Dihydrofuran
10. The most important microbial virulence factor in etiology of meningitis is
(a) Exotoxin (b) Components of the capsule
(c) Coagulase (d) Hyaluronidase
11. Commonly used tetanus vaccine is produced by
(a) Treatment of the causative organism with heat or UV light and finally obtaining the toxoid
(b) Subculturing the virus at pH 10.4
(c) Artificially generating antibodies to viral glycoproteins
(d) Isolating the antigenicity genes from the causative organism
12. Which of the following equations is valid for standard B-DNA
(a) A +T =G + C (b) A + T = 2(G + C)
(c) 2(A + T) = 3(G + C) (d) A + G = T + C
13. Clinical jaundice, typified by yellowing of the tissues is associated with elevated levels of
(a) Serum lysozyme (b) Serum bilirubin
(c) Serum creatinine (d) Serum g-glutamyl transferase
14. In NMR spectrometry, the chemical shift () is expressed in
(a) Parts per million (b) Gauss (c) Tesla (d) Hertz
15. In chromatographic separation, the different species in the sample, undergo the process of
(a) Chemical interaction (b) Partition
(c) Volatilization (d) Ionization
16. A target material used in the production of X-rays is
(a) Potassium (b) Copper
(c) Aluminium (d) Sodium
17. The requirement and guidelines for clinical trials, import and manufacture of new drugs as per the Drugs
& Cosmetics Rules is given under Schedule
(a) N (b) Y (c) A (d) B

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GATE - 2008

18. The growth of large particles at the expense of smaller ones, as a result of a difference in the solubility of
the particles of varying sizes, is termed as
(a) Interfacial phenomenon (b) Partitioning
(c) Erosive formulation (d) Ostwald ripening
19. Cyclic oligomers of glucose that form water soluble inclusion complexes, which are biocompatible
andimprove the bioavailability of drugs
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Polyethylene glycol
(c) Cross povidone (d) Cyclodextrin
20. ‘Draves test’ is associated with measuring the efficiency of
(a) Detergent (b) Witting agents
(c) Suspending agents (d) Adsorbent

Q.21 to Q.75 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH.


21. Effect of fibrates on blood lipids are mediated by
(a) Inhibiting both synthesis and esterification of fatty acids
(b) Their interaction with peroxime proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs)
(c) Reducing the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate
(d) Sequstering bile acids
22. A cardioselective beta blocker with vasodilating properties is
(a) Pindolo (b) Atenolol (c) Bisoprolol (d) Nebivolol
23. Choose the correct option

-CH=CH-COOH is the precursor for the biosynthesis of

CH2OH

(a) (b)
N
O O

COOH
CH2-COOH3
CH2OH
(c) (d)
NH

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GATE - 2008

24. (-)-Hyscyamine is
(a) 15-20 times more active as a mydriatic than (+)-hyoscyamine
(b) Inactive as a mydriatic
(c) 3-5 times less active as a mydriatic than (+)-hyoscyamine
(d) 100 times more active as a mydriatic (+)-hyoscyamine
25.

H3C
+ N - CH2-CH2-CH2-Cl + Mg
H3C

OH
CH2CH2CH2N(CH3)2

The reaction is known as


(a) Grignard reaction (b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Gomberg reaction (d) Reimer Tiemann reaction
26. In thiazole diuretics, the position 7 is very important and is occupied by a
(a) CH3 group (b) Free sulphamoyl group
(c) Chloro group (d) Free – NH2 group
27. Compound I reacts with II to form X is
X is
O O

+ CH=CH-COOCH3 X

OH
I II
(a) Ethyle biscoumacetate (b) Phenindione
(c) Warfarin (d) Dicoumarol

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GATE - 2008

28. A mass spectrum is obtained by plotting


(a) Molecular weight versus peak height
(b) Concentration versus peak height
(c) Concentration versus degree of deflection of ions
(d) Abundance of ions versus their m/e ratio
29. Aldehydes can be distinguished from other C=O containing compounds by IR, due to
(a) The low frequency of absorpition of aldehydes
(b) The alkyl or group is attached to >C=O
(c) The double bond present
(d) The doublet at the C-H-strecthing region
30. A super disintegrant in tablet formulation is
(a) Sodium starch glycollate (b) Starch
(c) PVP (d) Mg-Aluminium silicate
31. A drug was administered to 30 subjects as a tablet (30 mg), an oral aqueous solution (30 mg) and as an
intravenous (0.3 mg). Mean AUC’s (ng.hr/mL), dose normalized to1 mg, for tablet, oral solution and IV
were 0.91, 0.87 and 103.0 respectively.
(a) 104.6%, 0.883% (b) 81%, 5.6%
(c) 10.46%, 8.83% (d) 19%, 56%
Calculate the relative bioavailability of the drug in table compared to the solution to the oral solution absolute
bioavailability of tables from.
32. When ammonium chloride is gradually and slowly incorporates in to an emulsion stabilized withammonium
oleate,
(a) Emulsion will crack immediately (b) It will invert from o/w to w/o type
(c) It will invert from w/o to o/w type (d) There will be no impact on its physical stability
33. A prescription requires 4 mEq/litervofhydrogen phosphateion HPO 4-2.How many milligrams of diabasic
potassium phosphate, K2HPO4 (molecular weight 174) will be required ?
(a) 174 mg/liter (b) 130.5 mg/liter
(c) 522 mg/liter (d) 348 mg/liter
34. Gram positive bacterial typically contain
(a) Cell wall that lack peptidoglycans
(b) Repeating units arabinogalactan and mycolates in their cellwalls
(c) Peptidoglycan muramic acid and D-amino acids in their cell walls
(d) Cell walls containing predominantly polysaccharides and glycoproteins

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GATE - 2008

35. Quartenary structure of a protine molecule refers to


(a) Specific association to two or more copies of a polypeptide chain to result in a biologically activemolecule
(b) Regular seen local structure within a polypeptide chain
(c) The portion of the polypeptide chain that comes into contact with another protein molecule
(d) The portion of the structure that gets stabilized upon binding to nucleic acid
36. A blood sample is treated with alkaline phosphotungstic acid to from tungsten blue, which is estimated
colorimetrically to give a positive reaction. The sample contains
(a) Protein (b) Serum creatinine
(c) Serum phenylalanine (d) Uric acid
37. Two important steps for plant regeneration by organogenesis are
(P) Establishment of callus cultures (Q) Initiation of somatic embryogenesis
(R) Germination of seeds (S) Initiation of cell suspensions
(a) Q, S (b) P, R (c) P, S (d) Q, R
38. Two tests for ephedrine are
(P) A solution in dilute HCI, treated with copper sulphate and sodium hydroxide gives a violet colour
(Q) An alcoholic solution gives a red colour withFeCI3
(R) On shaking with solvent ether, the organic layer shows purple while the aqueous layer becomes blue
(S) A solution of vanillin gives a violet-red colour
(a) Q, S (b) P, S (c) P, R (d) Q, R
39. Dried fruits of sweet fennel has two the following properties
(P) 80 % of E-anethole, 10 % of methyl chavicol and 5% (+)-fenchone as constituents
(Q) 65-75 % (+) Linalool as a constituent
(R) The fruit is a diankene, almost cylinder and surrounded bylarge stylopod
(S) The fruit is elongated and surrounded by cayculus
(a) P, R (b) Q, S (c) P, S (d) Q, R
40. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is involved in the biosyntheses of two of the following
(P) Serotonin (Q) Triacylglycerol
(R) Pyruvate (S) Methionine
(a) P, Q (b) P, R (c) Q, S (d) Q, R
41. The virus responsible for SARS can be described by two of the following features
(P) It contains double-standards DNA and requires two complementary strands to be synthesized to serve
as mRNA
(Q) It has distinctive club shaped particles projecting from the surface, appearing like a crown

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(R) It contains plus-strand RNA that can serve directly as mRNA


(S) It is a retrovirus and requires extracellular DNA for replication
(a) P, Q (b) P, S (c) Q, R (d) R, S
42. Two of the following facts are associated with Ethylene oxide gas
(P) It is non toxic and non inflammable and used for sterilization
(Q) It is a colourless inflammable gas. Toxic in nature and used for sterilization
(R) It is diluted with CO2
(S) It cannot penetrated plastic and paper packaging
(a) P, R (b) P, S (c) R, S (d) Q, R
43.
OH
CH3 CH

H
H

HO
(P) Is active parenterally
(Q) Shows greater activity orally than parenterally
(R) Is orally inactive
(S) Has no parenteral activity
(a) P, S (b) Q, R (c) R, S (d) P, S
44. Tranexamic acid is
(P) Trans-4-amino methyl cyclohexane carbolic acid
(Q) A polypeptide
(R) An inhibitor of proteolytic enzymes including plasmin
(S) Used for the prophylaxis of hemorrhage associated with excessive fibrinolysis
(a) P, S (b) P, R (c) Q, R (d) R, S
45. Prostaglandines are derivatives of
(P) C25 acid (Q) 7-(2 cyclohexyl) pentenoic acid
(R) C20 prostanoicacid (S) 7-(2 octyl cyclopentyl) heptanoic acid
(a) P, Q (b) R, S (c) P, R (d) Q, S

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46. Two ex-officio members of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board under Drugs and Cosmetic Act are
(P) The Drugs Controller Genral of India
(Q) The President, Medical Council of India
(R) The Secretary, Pharmacy Council of India
(S) The Director, National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, India
(a) P, Q (b) P, R (c) R, S (d) P, S
47. Calfactant is
(P) A sterile non-pyrogenic lung surfactant intended for intractracheal instillation to premature infants
(Q) A synthetic surfactant popularly usedto prepare totaleparenteral nutritionto premature infants
(R) A potentchelating agent used to prevent metal induced oxidation process
(S) An extract of natural surfactant from calf lungs
(a) P, Q (b) R, S (c) P, S (d) Q, R
48. In cross-over bioavailability studies, in which the subjects must be rested for sufficient time betweeneach
drug administration to ensure that ‘washout’ is complete. Practically, wash-out is deemed complete, when
(P) 95% is wash out (Q) 100% is wash out
(R) 5 biologica half-lives have elapsed (S) 2 biological half-lives have elapsed
(a) P, R (b) P, S (c) Q, R (d) Q, S
49. Two reference electrodes are
(P) Glass membrane electrodes (Q) Sb/Sb2O3 electrodes
(R) Calomel electrodes (S) Silver/silver-chloride electrodes
(a) P, Q (b) Q, S (c) R, S (d) P, R
50. Polarography can be used for the
(P) Simultaneous determination of several analytes
(Q) Study of resistance of solution
(R) Study of current potential relationship
(S) Study of optical activity of organic compounds
(a) P, S (b) Q, S (c) P, R (d) P, Q
51. Primary amines show
(P) Two N-H stretching bands in the range of 3500-3300 cm-1
(Q) Only one band in the region3500-3300 cm-1
(R) -NH band in primary amine results in a broad band in the region 1640-1560 cm -1
(S) The typical –NH2 stretching value at 1715 cm-1
(a) Q, R (b) P, R (c) P, S (d) Q, S

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52. The drug Disulfiram is


(P) Known to inhibit dopamine -hydroxylase and cause noradrenaline depletion
(Q) A substance that produce aversive reaction to alcohol
(R) Known to stimulate dopamine -hydroxylase
(S) Used in barbiturate poisoning
(a) P, S (b) Q, R (c) R, S (d) P, Q
53. Two important attributes associated with L-asparaginase
(P) An enzyme obtained from E coil and is administered parenterally
(Q) An enzyme obtained from Streptococcus caespitosus and is administered orally
(R) Used in acute lymphocytic leukemia
(S) Used as a fibrinolytic agent
(a) P, S (b) P, R (c) Q, R (d) Q, S
54. Amikacin is
(P) A semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of kanamycin
(Q) A semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of tobramycin
(R) It is administered parenterally and does not cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
(S) It is administered parenterally and is both nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
(a) P, Q (b) P, R (c) P, S (d) Q, S

Q.55-70 Are Matching Exercise Match Group I with Group II and identify the
correct combinations
55. Group I Group II
Plant Source
(P) Thorn apple (1) Dried leaves and flowering tops of Hyoscyamus
niger
(Q) Henebane (2) Dried leaves and flowering tops of Datura
atramonium
(R) Deadly nightshade (3) Leaves of Diditalis purpurea dried at a
Temperature below 600C
(S) Foxglove leaves (4) Dried leaves and other aerial parts of Atropa
bellodona or Atropa acuminate
(a) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (b) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

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GATE - 2008

56. Group I Group II


Drugs Source
(P) Kaolin (1) Natural diatomaceous earth consisting of
siliceous skeletons of fossils
(Q) Keiselguhr (2) Purified native hydrated aluminium Silicate
(R) Calamine (3) Hydrated magnesium silicate
(S) Talc (4) An ore contain zinc oxide with a small Amount
of ferric oxide
(a) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (b) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
57. Proof for the following in the natural products is obtained by some reactions.
Group I Group II
Natural Products Reactions
(P) Cholesterol-nature of ring (1) Treatment with HNO2 forms a nitroso compound
(Q) Ephedrine-secondary amino group (2) Selenium dehydrogenation gives Diel’s
hydrocarbon
(R) Morphine-secondary –OH group (3) With CH 3 I in aqueous KHO gives (-) codeine,
which is not soluble in alkali; codeine can be
oxidized with chromic acid to codeinone
(S) Caffeine-nature of ring (4) Oxidation which potassium chlorate in
hydrochloride acid gives diamethyl alloxan and
methyl urea
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-4 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
58. Derivatives of cortisol and their structural modification are
Group I Group II
Derivative Structural modifaction
(P) Prednisolone (1) 1, 2-dehydro, 9-fluoro, 16-methyl
(Q) Dexamethasone (2) 1, 2-dehydro
(R) Betamethasone (3) 1, 2-dehydro, 9-fluoro, 16-methyl
(S) Triamcinolone (4) 1, 2-dehydro, 9-fluoro, 16-hydroxy
(a) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

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59. Group I Group II


Drugs Starting material for synthesis
(P) Clofazimine (1) p-chloronitro benzene
(Q) Ketoconazole (2) L-phenyl alanine
(R) Melphalan (3) –N-(4-chlorophenyl)-O-phenylenediamine
(S) Dapsone (4) 2,4-dichloro phenylbromide and glycerine
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
60. Group I Group II
Industrial dryers Pharmaceutical material dried
(P) Drum dryer (1) Antibiotic solution
(Q) Fluidized bed dryer (2) Tablet granules
(R) Spray dryer (3) Gelatin
(S) Freeze dryer (4) Suspension of kaolin
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(c) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
61. Group I Group II
Name of equation Equation
dM DS
(P) Noyes & Whitney equation (1)   Cs  C 
dt h
P 1 b-1 P
(Q) B.E.T equation (2)  
Y  P0 -P  Ym b y m b P0

d2  Ps  P0  g
(R) Stokes equation (3) v 
18η0
DCs t
(S) Higuchi equation (4) Q    2A  Cs 
2A  Cs
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (b) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
62. Group I Group II
Types of coating Coating maerial
(P) Seal coating (1) HPMC
(Q) Sub coating (2) Carnauba wax
(R) Polishing (3) Gelatin

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(S) Film coating (4) PEG4000


(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
63. Group I Group II
Interacting drugs Pharmacological effect
(P) Verapamil and Atenolol (1) Increased risk of hyperkalemia
(Q) Clozapine and Co-trimoxazole (2) Bradycardia and asystole
(R) Alcohol and Flunitrazepam (3) Increased risk of bone marrow suppresssion
(S) Ramipril and amiloride (4) Severe CNS depression
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (b) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
64. Group I Group II
Receptors Agonists
(P) -adrenergic (Type 2) (1) Phenylephrine
(Q) -adrenergic (Type 1) (2) Bromocriptine
(R) Dopaminergic (Type 2) (3) Ritodrine
(S) 5-hydroxytryptamine (Type 1A) (4) Buspirone
(a) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (b) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
65. Group I Group II
Drugs Mechanisms
(P) Terbinafine (1) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
(Q) Cidofovir (2) Selective inhibition of squalene epoxidase
(R) Imatinib (3) Inhibition of DNA polymerase
(S) Stavudine (4) Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
66. Group I Group II
Materials used Instrumental techniques
(P) Sodium chloride (1) Colorimetry
(Q) Glass (2) UV spectrophotometry
(R) Quartz (3) X-ray diffraction
(S) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (4) IR spectrophotometry

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(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (b) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
67. Group I Group II
Drugs B.P Assay
(P) Iopanoic acid (1) Titration of a solution in anhydrous formic acid
and acetic anhydride with 0.1N perchloric acid
(Q) Cyclizine hydrochloride (2) Titration of a solution in dimethylformamide with
0.1M tetrabutyl ammonium hydroxide
(R) Chlorothiazide (3) Treating with sodium hydroxide and zinc powder
and then titration with 0.1N silver nitrate
(S) Chlorambucil (4) Titration with 0.1N sodium hydroxide using
phenolphthalein indicator
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (b) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (d) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
68. Group I Group II
Techniques Related equations
(P) Potentiometry (1) id=708 n CD1/2 m2/3 t1/6
(Q) Polarography (2) VR=tR Fc
RT
(R) Colorimetry (3) E  E0  log[H+ ]
nF
(S) Column chromatography (4) A=ebc
(a) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (b) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
69. Group I Group II
Test Principle
(P) Direct agglutination test (1) Measures antibody titres after soluble antigens
are attached to inert particles and incubated with
antibodies.
(Q) Passive agglutination (2) Detects blocking-type antibodies, globulins and
complement that are attached to red cell antigens.
(R) Haemagglutination inhibition test (3) RBCs coated with homologous antigens added
to antibodies incubated with soluble antigens
(S) Coomb’s test (4) RBC antigen incubated with antibodies and

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antibody titre visually examined


(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (b) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(c) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
70. Group I Group II
Enzymes Function
(P) Na -K ATPase
+ +
(1) Electron transport
(Q) Cytochrome c oxidase (2) Pathway converting pyruvate to oxaloacetate
(R) Malate dehydrogenase (3) Generation of electrochemical potential gradient
across membranes
(S) Tyrosine kinase (4) Signal transduction
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Common Data Question 71,72,73


N CH3
H H3C H
O

NO2 H3COOC COOCH3


X + + NH3 NO2

Nifedipine
71. Reagent X is
(a) H3C O (b) H2
C
CH3 CH2
CH2
H3COOC CH2
CH3OOC

(c) H3C NH2 (d) H3C O

CH2 CH2
H3C
H2N
72. Nifedipine when exposed to day light is readily converted into derivative of
(a) 4-phenyl pyridine (b) Nitrosophenyl pyridine
(c) Diazophenyl pyridine (d) Nitrobenzene

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73. The B.P. assay of Nifedipine is by a titration of a


(a) Solution in anhydrous acetic acid with 0.1 perchloric acid
(b) Solution in previously neutralized acetone with 0.1N sodium hydroxide; end point by potentiometry
(c) Solution is previously neutralized acetone against standard potassium dichromate solution
(d) A solution in 2-methyl 2-propanol and perchloric acid with 0.1 M cerium sulphate using ferroin as
indicator

COMMON DATA FOR QUESTION 74 AND 75


Tenoposide is a natural product used for the management of certain diseases
74. It is derived from
(a) Flavonolignans from Silybum marianum (b) Lignans from Podophyllum peltatum
(c) Lignans from Schizandra chinesis (d) Neolignans from Piper futokadsura
75. This drug is used in the management of
(a) Candidiasis (b) Trypanosomiasis
(c) Cardiac arrythmia (d) Acute leukemia in children

Linked Answer Question: Q.76 to Q.85 carry two marks each.

Statement for Linked Answers Question 76.& 77.

Extract of chondrodendron tomentosum, family manispermaceae contains several alkaloids


76. One of the important alkaloid is
(a) (-) Phyllandrene (b) (+) Hollarhenine
(c) (+) Tubocurarine (d) ( ) Colchicine
77. This alkaloid has
(a) Bis benzyl tetrahydo isoquinoline ring (b) Quinoline ring
(c) Phenenthrene ring (d) Pyrido pyrimidine ring
Statement for Linked Answers Question78.&79.

Several drugs are used for migraine


78. Acute migraine is treated with
(a) Prazosin (b) Formeterol (c) Sumatriptan (d) Dopamine
79. The drug chosen is the agonist of
(a) 1 adrenociptoe (b) 2 adrenoceptor (c) M2 receptor (d) 5-HT1D receptor

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Statement for Linked Answer Question 80 & 81

A drug which is used for malignant melanoma is obtained as follows:


H
H2N N
diazotization
X
N
H2NOC
80. X is
H
(a) N+ (b) H2N N
H
N N N
HOOC
N
H2NOC

(c) H (d) H
H2N N N

N+ N N N
H2NOC
O

81. X on treatment with dimethylamine gives the drug


H3C
CH3
(a) (b) N
H
N N H3C N
H3C H
N N
N
H2NOC
N
H2NOC

H H H
(c) H3C N N (d) H2N N
N
CH3 N N N
H2NOC N
N
H3C O
CH3

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Statement for Linked Answer Question 82.& 83.

A 250 mg dose of a drug was administered to a patient by rapid IV injections. The initial plasma concentration
was 2.50ìg/mL. After 4 hours the plasma concentration was 1.89 g/mL. Assuming that the drug was
eliminated by a pseudo first order process and the body behaves as one compartment model.
82. Kel is
(a) 0.0699h-1 (b) 0.0349h-1 (c) 1.623h-1 (d) 0.699h-1
83. Biological half life is
(a) 4.95 hours (b) 19.82 hours (c) 99.1 hours (d) 9.91 hours
Statement for Linked Answers Question84.&85.

As per the woodward-Fieser rule, the absorption maxima of the compound shown is calculated from the
base value and the ring residue values
84. Base value is
(a) 215nm (b) 233nm (c) 240nm (d) 217nm
85. Absorption maxima is
(a) 273nm (b) 258nm (c) 265nm (d) 237nm

End of paper

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ANSWER KEY GATE 2008

1-b 2-b 3-d 4-d 5-a 6-d


7-b 8-b 9-d 10-b 11-a 12-d
13-b 14-a 15-b 16-b 17-b 18-d
19-d 20-b 21-b 22-d 23-b 24-d
25-a 26-b 27-c 28-d 29-d 30-a
31-a 32-a 33-d 34-c 35-a 36-b
37-c 38-c 39-a 40-d 41-c 42-d
43-a 44-a 45-b 46-a 47-c 48-a
49-d 50-c 51-b 52-d 53-b 54-c
55-a 56-c 57-b 58-b 59-c 60-c
61-d 62-a 63-b 64-d 65-c 66-b
67-b 68-d 69-b 70-a 71-a 72-b
73-d 74-b 75-d 76-c 77-a 78-c
79-d 80-a 81-b 82-a 83-d 84-b
85-a

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