KCET 2023 Biology Solution Set B4

Ques 1. The Lac-Operon model was elucidated by

(A) Jacob and Crick
(C) Francois Jacob and Jaques Monad
(B) Watson and Crick
(D) Hershey and Chase

Solu. The Lac Operon model, a fundamental concept in molecular biology,

was elucidated by:
(C) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod.

Ques 2. Which of these is NOT an example for Adaptive radiation?

(A) Long-necked Giraffe
(C) Australian marsupials
(B) Darwin's finches
(D) Placental mammals

Solu. Adaptive radiation refers to the diversification of a group of

organisms into forms filling different ecological niches. This process often
occurs when a single ancestral species rapidly evolves into a variety of
forms to take advantage of different environmental opportunities.

Given the options:

(A) Long-necked Giraffe - This is an example of adaptive radiation, where
different species of giraffes evolved with long necks to reach high foliage.
(B) Darwin's finches - This is a classic example of adaptive radiation
observed by Charles Darwin in the Galapagos Islands. Different species of
finches evolved from a common ancestor to occupy different ecological
niches, with variations in beak size and shape allowing them to exploit
different food sources.
(C) Australian marsupials - This is also an example of adaptive radiation.
Australia, isolated for millions of years, allowed marsupials to diversify into
various ecological niches, leading to the evolution of numerous marsupial
species.
(D) Placental mammals - This is NOT an example of adaptive radiation.
Placental mammals, including humans, evolved from a common ancestor
but do not typically exhibit the rapid diversification seen in adaptive
radiation. Instead, their diversification occurred over longer evolutionary
timescales and was driven by various factors such as environmental
changes and competition.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
(D) Placental mammals

Ques 3. In a population of 800 rabbits showing Hardy-Weinberg

equilibrium, the frequency of recessive individuals was 0.16. What is
the frequency of heterozygous individuals ?
(A) 0.36
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.48
(D) 0.84

Solu. To resolve this trouble, we will use the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

equation:
[ p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 ]
Where:
- ( p^2 ) represents the frequency of homozygous dominant people
- ( 2pq ) represents the frequency of heterozygous people
- ( q^2 ) represents the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals
- ( p + q = 1 ), where ( p ) is the frequency of the dominant allele and ( q ) is
the frequency of the recessive allele
Given:
- Total population (( N )) = 800 rabbits
- Frequency of recessive people (( q^2 )) = zero.16
First, we will discover the frequency of the recessive allele (( q )):
[ q^2 = 0.16 ]
[ q = sqrt0.16 ]
[ q = 0.4 ]
Now, we will find the frequency of the dominant allele (( p )):
[p=1-q]
[ p = 1 - 0.4 ]
[ p = 0.6 ]
Now, we will find the frequency of heterozygous people (( 2pq )):
[ 2pq = 2 times 0.6 times 0.4 ]
[ 2pq = 0.48 ]
So, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is zero.48. Therefore, the
ideal answer is zero.48.

Ques 4. In male heterogametic type of sex determination

(A) Males do not produce gametes.
(B) Male parent produces similar gametes.
(C) Female parent produces dissimilar gametes.
(D) Male parent produces dissimilar gametes.

Solu. The correct answer is (D), Male parent produces dissimilar gametes.
Here's why:
Male Heterogamety:
In male heterogametic sex determination systems, the male sex
chromosomes are different (XY), while females have a homologous pair
(XX). This means:
● Male Gametes: Sperms produced by males can be either X or Y,
depending on which sex chromosome is segregated during meiosis.
This creates two types of gametes (dissimilar) with respect to the
sex-determining region.
● Female Gametes: Ova produced by females all carry the same sex
chromosome (X).
Key Point:
The dissimilar gametes produced by the male parent are the key
characteristic of male heterogamety. This is in contrast to female
heterogamety, where females produce the dissimilar gametes.
Examples:
 ● Humans are an example of a species with male heterogamety (XY
males, XX females).
● In grasshoppers, males have only one sex chromosome (XO) while
females have two (XX). This is another example of male
heterogamety, although the chromosome representation differs.
Therefore, in a male heterogametic system, the male parent is responsible
for producing the dissimilar gametes that determine the sex of the offspring.

Ques 5. In one of the hybridisation experiments, a homozygous

dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent are crossed for
a trait. (Plant shows Mendelian inheritance pattern)
(A) Dominant parent trait appears in F₂ generation and recessive
parent trait appears only in F₁ generation.
(B) Dominant parent trait appears in F₁ generation and recessive
parent trait appears in F₂ 2 generation.
(e) Dominant parent trait appears in both F₁ & F2 F generations,
recessive parent trait appears 1 in only F₂ generation.
(D) Dominant parent trait appears in F₁ generation and recessive
parent trait appears in F₁ and F₂ generations.

Solu. The correct answer is (C), Dominant parent trait appears in both F₁ &
F₂ generations, recessive parent trait appears only in F₂ generation.
Here's why:
Mendelian Inheritance and Punnett Square:
When a homozygous dominant parent (AA) is crossed with a homozygous
recessive parent (aa) for a trait that follows Mendelian inheritance, we can
predict the offspring genotypes and phenotypes using a Punnett square:
|A A
-------|----------
a | Aa Aa (F1 generation)
-------|----------

Explanation:
● F₁ generation (First filial generation): All offspring (Aa) will inherit one
dominant allele (A) from the dominant parent and one recessive allele
 (a) from the recessive parent. Since the dominant allele is expressed
when present (complete dominance assumed), the F₁ generation will
exhibit the dominant parent's trait.
● F₂ generation (Second filial generation): When the F₁ individuals (Aa)
self-cross (Aa x Aa), their gametes will carry either A or a allele. The
Punnett square for the F₂ generation looks like this:
|A a
-------|----------
A | AA Aa
-------|----------
a | Aa aa (F2 generation)
-------|----------

Here, we see a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the F₂ generation:

● Three-fourths (¾) of the offspring will be Aa (dominant phenotype)
● One-fourth (¼) will be aa (recessive phenotype)
Therefore, the dominant trait appears in both F₁ and F₂ generations, while
the recessive trait only appears in the F₂ generation.
The other answer choices are incorrect because:
● (A): Recessive trait wouldn't appear in the F₁ generation if both
parents are homozygous.
● (B): Dominant trait persists in F₂ due to segregation and inheritance.
● (D): Recessive trait only appears in F₂, not both F₁ and F₂.

Ques 6. Histone proteins are positively charged because they are rich
in basic amino acid residues
(A) Arginine and Proline
(C) Arginine and Lysine
(B) Arginine and Alanine
(D) Arginine and Phenylalanine

Solu. The answer is (C), Arginine and Lysine.

Histones and Positive Charge:
Histone proteins play a crucial role in DNA packaging within the nucleus of
eukaryotic cells. They are positively charged due to the presence of a high
amount of specific amino acids in their structure.
Basic Amino Acids:
These specific amino acids are classified as basic amino acids, which have
side chains that can become positively charged at physiological pH (around
7.4 in cells). The two main basic amino acids responsible for the positive
charge of histones are:
1. Arginine (Arg): This amino acid has a guanidinium group in its side
chain, which can gain a proton (H+) at physiological pH, resulting in a
positive charge.
2. Lysine (Lys): This amino acid has an amino group (NH₂) in its side
chain, which can also gain a proton (H+) at physiological pH,
contributing to the positive charge.
Other Choices:
● Proline (Pro): While proline has a unique structure, it is not a basic
amino acid and doesn't contribute to a positive charge.
● Alanine (Ala): Alanine is a neutral amino acid and doesn't have a
charged side chain.
● Phenylalanine (Phe): Similar to alanine, phenylalanine is a neutral
amino acid and doesn't contribute to a positive charge.
Importance of Positive Charge:
The positive charge of histones interacts with the negatively charged
phosphate groups of DNA, facilitating tight binding and condensation of
DNA into compact structures called nucleosomes. This organization is
essential for efficient storage, access, and regulation of genetic information
within the cell.

Ques 7. Eukaryotic genes are monocistronic but they are split genes
because
(A) Introns are interrupted with Mutons.
(C) they contain Introns only.
(B) they contain Exons only.
(D) Exons are interrupted by Introns
Solu. The correct answer is (D), Exons are interrupted by Introns.
Here's why:
Eukaryotic Genes:
● Monocistronic: Eukaryotic genes typically code for a single protein
(monocistronic). This means a single mRNA molecule is transcribed
from a single gene.
● Split Genes: Unlike prokaryotic genes, eukaryotic genes often have a
split-gene structure. This means the coding sequence (exons) is
interrupted by non-coding sequences (introns).
Introns vs. Exons:
● Exons: These are the coding regions of a gene that contain the
instructions for building a protein. They are eventually spliced
together to form the mature mRNA that is translated by ribosomes.
● Introns: These are intervening sequences within a gene that do not
code for proteins. They are removed from the pre-mRNA transcript
during a process called splicing before the mRNA is used for protein
synthesis.
Split-Gene Significance:
The presence of introns in eukaryotic genes adds complexity to gene
expression but may offer some advantages, such as:
● Alternative splicing: Introns can allow for alternative splicing, where
different combinations of exons are included in the mature mRNA,
leading to protein diversity from a single gene.
● Regulation: Introns might play a role in gene regulation by influencing
splicing or mRNA processing.
Key Point:
The interrupted nature of exons by introns is the defining characteristic of
split genes in eukaryotes. This is in contrast to prokaryotic genes, which
are generally continuous coding sequences without introns.

Ques 8. Identify from the following a pair of better yielding semi dwarf
varieties of rice developed in India.
(A) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika
(C) Sonalika and Ratna
(B) Jaya and Ratna
(D) Jaya and Kalyan Sona

Solu. You are right! The answer is (C) Sonalika and Ratna.
Jaya and Ratna are two high yielding semi-dwarf rice varieties developed in
India during the 1970s and 1980s. These varieties played a significant role
in the Green Revolution, helping to increase rice production in India.
Here's some additional information about Sonalika and Ratna rice varieties:
● Sonalika: This variety is known for its good grain quality, high yield,
and resistance to some diseases. It is a popular choice for farmers in
many parts of India.
● Ratna: This variety is also known for its high yield and resistance to
some diseases. It is a medium-duration rice variety, maturing in about
140-150 days.

Ques 9. In MoET technique fertilized eggs are transferred into

surrogate mother in which of the following stage?
(A) 16-32 celled stage
(B) 2-4 celled stage
(C) 8-16 celled stage
(D) 8-32 celled stage

Solu. The answer is (D), 8-32 celled stage.

MoET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer) Technique:
In MoET, fertilized eggs are transferred to a surrogate mother at a specific
stage of development to improve livestock breeding efficiency. This stage is
the:
8-32 celled stage (Blastocyst stage).
Here's a breakdown of the MoET process:
1. Superovulation: The female animal (usually a cow) is stimulated with
hormones to produce multiple eggs instead of the single egg typically
released in a natural cycle.
 2. Fertilization: The eggs are fertilized naturally through mating or
artificially using sperm from a desired male.
3. Embryo Collection: The fertilized eggs are collected from the female's
oviduct at the blastocyst stage (8-32 celled stage). This stage offers a
good balance between developmental viability and ease of
manipulation.
4. Surrogate Selection: A surrogate mother, which may be another
female of the same breed or a different breed depending on the
specific goals, is prepared to receive the embryos.
5. Embryo Transfer: The collected embryos are carefully transferred into
the uterus of the surrogate mother, where they can implant and
develop into offspring.
Choosing the Right Stage:
● Stages earlier than 8-32 cells (like 2-4 celled stage) are too young
and less developed, potentially reducing their viability and success
rate after transfer.
● Stages later than 32 cells might be more difficult to manipulate and
transfer without damaging the developing embryo.
Therefore, the 8-32 celled blastocyst stage provides a suitable balance
between development and transferability in MoET.

Ques 10. Roquefort cheese is ripened by

(A) Yeast
(B) Bacterium
(C) Fungi
(D) Virus

Solu. The answer is (C), Fungi.

Roquefort cheese is ripened by a specific type of fungus called Penicillium
roqueforti. This fungus is responsible for the characteristic blue veins and
strong flavor of Roquefort cheese.
Here's a breakdown of the role of fungi in Roquefort cheese ripening:
● Spores Introduced: During the cheesemaking process, spores of
Penicillium roqueforti are often intentionally introduced to the curds or
the surface of the cheese.
 ● Growth: As the cheese matures in cool, humid caves, the Penicillium
roqueforti spores germinate and grow, forming the blue veins
throughout the cheese.
● Enzyme Production: The fungus produces enzymes that break down
the milk proteins and fats in the cheese. This breakdown process
contributes to the development of the cheese's texture and flavor.
● Flavor Development: Penicillium roqueforti also produces various
volatile compounds that contribute to the characteristic sharp,
peppery, and pungent flavor profile of Roquefort cheese.
Other Microorganisms:
While Penicillium roqueforti is the key player in Roquefort cheese ripening,
other microorganisms like bacteria might also be involved in the process.
However, their role is generally less prominent compared to the specific
fungus.
Therefore, fungi (specifically Penicillium roqueforti) are essential for the
ripening and development of the unique characteristics of Roquefort
cheese.

Ques 11. Four students were assigned a science project to find out
the pollution levels of lakes in their surrounding. After analysing the
quality of water samples, the BOD values were found as follows:
Which among the following water samples is highly polluted ?
(A) 0.16 mg/L
(B) 0.6 mg/L
(C) 0.06 mg/L
(D) 6 mg/L

Solu. The water sample with the highest BOD (Biochemical Oxygen
Demand) value is considered the most highly polluted. Here's how we can
identify it:
BOD and Water Pollution:
● BOD indicates the amount of dissolved oxygen (DO) required by
microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water.
● Higher BOD signifies greater organic matter content, potentially
leading to oxygen depletion and harming aquatic life.
Analyzing the Options:
● (A) 0.16 mg/L: This is a relatively low BOD value and suggests
minimal organic matter.
● (B) 0.6 mg/L: This value is still on the lower end and wouldn't
necessarily indicate high pollution.
● (C) 0.06 mg/L: This is the lowest BOD value among the options,
suggesting very little organic matter and likely clean water.
● (D) 6 mg/L: This is the highest BOD value. It indicates a significant
amount of organic matter, suggesting high pollution.
Therefore, the answer is (D), 6 mg/L.

Ques 12. The toxic substance 'haemozoin' responsible for high fever
and chill, is released in which of the following diseases ?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Dengue
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Malaria

Solu. The answer is (D), Malaria.

Hemozoin and Malaria:
● Hemozoin, also known as malaria pigment, is a toxic byproduct
formed during the Plasmodium parasite's life cycle within red blood
cells in malaria infection.
● As the parasite digests hemoglobin (the oxygen-carrying protein in
red blood cells), it releases heme, a toxic molecule. Plasmodium
parasites convert heme into hemozoin crystals to detoxify it.
● However, hemozoin is still somewhat toxic to the host (human) and
triggers immune responses.
Symptoms of Malaria:
The presence of hemozoin contributes to several characteristic symptoms
of malaria, including:
● High fever: The immune system's response to hemozoin and infected
red blood cells can lead to high fever.
 ● Chills: The body's attempt to regulate temperature during a fever can
sometimes cause chills or shivering.
Other Diseases:
The other diseases listed (Typhoid, Dengue, Pneumonia) are not directly
associated with hemozoin. They have different mechanisms for causing
fever and chills.
Conclusion:
Hemozoin is a specific byproduct of the malaria parasite and plays a role in
the characteristic symptoms of malaria, including high fever and chills.

Ques 13. Identify the symptoms of pneumonia.

(A) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite
(B) Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills, cough, headache
(C) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
(D) Constipation, Abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots

Solu. The answer is (B), Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills, cough,

headache.
Here's a breakdown of the symptoms of pneumonia:
● Difficulty in breathing: This is a hallmark symptom of pneumonia,
especially when taking shallow breaths or feeling short of breath even
at rest.
● Fever: A rise in body temperature is a common response to the
infection.
● Chills: Shivering or feeling cold despite having a fever can occur.
● Cough: A persistent cough, sometimes productive (bringing up
mucus) or dry, is a significant sign.
● Headache: Mild to moderate headache can be present.
Other Choices Explained:
● (A) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite: These
symptoms can occur with pneumonia, but they are not as specific and
could be present in other illnesses.
● (C) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache:
These are more indicative of a common cold or upper respiratory
 infection. While a cough can persist after a cold, pneumonia typically
presents with a more severe and productive cough.
● (D) Constipation, Abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots: These
symptoms are not typically associated with pneumonia.
It's important to note that:
● The severity of symptoms can vary depending on the type of
pneumonia, the person's age and overall health.
● Some people, especially older adults and infants, may have atypical
symptoms or no noticeable fever.
If you experience any combination of these symptoms, especially difficulty
breathing, it's crucial to seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and
treatment.

Ques 14. The variety of Okra, Pusa Sawani is resistant to which of the
following insect pests?
(A) Cereal leaf beetle
(B) Aphids
(C) Jassids
(D) Shoot & Fruit borer

Solu. The variety of Okra, Pusa Sawani, is resistant to (D), Shoot & Fruit
borer.
Pusa Sawani is a popular okra variety developed by the Indian Institute of
Vegetable Research (IIVR) known for its resistance to shoot and fruit borer.
These borers are major insect pests that can significantly damage okra
crops.
Here's a table summarizing the resistance of different Pusa Okra varieties
to insect pests:

Okra Resistant Insect

Variety Pest

Pusa Shoot & Fruit borer

Sawani
 Pusa A-4 Shoot & Fruit borer

Pusa Jassids, Aphids,

Sem 2 Fruit borer

Pusa Jassids, Aphids,

Sem 3 Fruit borer

Ques 15. With respect to Inbreeding, which among the following is not
true?
(A) It helps to evolve a pure line in an animal.
(B) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity.
(C) It helps in accumulation of superior genes.
(D) It helps in elimination of less desirable genes.

Solu. Inbreeding has both advantages and disadvantages. Let's analyze

each option to find the statement that's not true about inbreeding:
(A) It helps to evolve a pure line in an animal. - This statement is true.
Inbreeding can be used to create lines of animals (or plants) that are
homozygous for most of their genes. This is useful for developing purebred
lines for selective breeding programs.
(B) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity. - This statement is false.
Inbreeding actually increases homozygosity. By repeatedly breeding closely
related individuals, the offspring inherit more copies of identical genes from
their parents, leading to a higher proportion of homozygous genotypes.
(C) It helps in accumulation of superior genes. - This statement can be
partially true, but it depends on the initial gene pool. If the initial population
already has a high frequency of desirable genes, inbreeding can help
concentrate those genes. However, inbreeding doesn't create new genes.
(D) It helps in elimination of less desirable genes. - This statement is true.
Inbreeding can expose and eliminate recessive alleles for undesirable
traits. If a population carries recessive alleles for detrimental traits,
inbreeding can bring these alleles to light, allowing for their selection
against them. However, this process can also lead to the loss of beneficial
recessive alleles.
Therefore, the statement that's not true about inbreeding is:
(B) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity.
Inbreeding actually increases homozygosity, which can be both
advantageous and disadvantageous depending on the breeding goals and
the initial genetic makeup of the population.

Ques 16. Generally, bears avoid winter by undergoing

(A) Migration
(B) Diapause
(C) Hibernation
(D) Aestivation

Solu. The answer is (C), Hibernation.

Here's why:
● Migration: While some animals migrate to warmer climates to avoid
harsh winters, bears typically do not. They remain in their habitat and
undergo a physiological change to survive the cold and lack of food
resources.
● Diapause: This is a state of developmental arrest in insects and some
other invertebrates to survive unfavorable conditions. It's not typically
observed in mammals like bears.
● Hibernation: This is a state of dormancy in mammals characterized
by a lowered metabolic rate, body temperature, and activity level.
Bears are well-known for hibernating during winter to conserve
energy and survive on stored fat reserves.
● Aestivation: This is a state of dormancy in some animals during hot
and dry periods, not during winter.
Therefore, hibernation is the most common way bears avoid the challenges
of winter.

Ques 18. PCR is used for

(A) DNA amplification
(B) DNA isolation
(C) DNA ligation
(D) DNA digestion

Solu. The answer is (A), DNA amplification.

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a fundamental technique in molecular
biology used for amplifying (making many copies) of a specific DNA
segment. It plays a crucial role in various applications, including:
● Gene cloning: Amplifying DNA fragments for further manipulation and
study.
● DNA fingerprinting: Identifying individuals based on their unique DNA
patterns.
● Diagnosis of genetic diseases: Detecting mutations or abnormalities
in specific genes.
● Gene expression studies: Analyzing the levels of mRNA transcripts to
understand gene activity.
Here's a simplified overview of the PCR process:
1. Template DNA: The DNA sample containing the target sequence to
be amplified is used as the template.
2. Primers: Short, single-stranded DNA molecules complementary to the
flanking regions of the target sequence are used to initiate DNA
synthesis.
3. DNA Polymerase: This enzyme synthesizes new DNA
complementary to the template strand, extending from the primers.
4. Thermal Cycling: The reaction mixture undergoes repeated cycles of
heating and cooling to denature (separate) the DNA strands, allow
primer annealing, and enable DNA polymerase to extend the new
copies.
Through these cycles, millions of copies of the target DNA segment are
generated, facilitating further analysis or manipulation.
Other Choices Explained:
● (B) DNA isolation: While PCR often requires isolated DNA as a
starting material, it's not the primary function of PCR itself.
 ● (C) DNA ligation: This process joins DNA fragments together, not
amplifying them.
● (D) DNA digestion: Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at
specific sites, not for amplification.

Ques 19. Which of these is NOT a method to make host cells

'competent' to take up DNA?
(A) Use of disarmed pathogen vectors
(B) Micro-injection
(C) Elution
(D) Biolistics

Solu. The process of making host cells "competent" to take up DNA

involves various techniques. Let's go through each option:

(A) Use of disarmed pathogen vectors - This is a method used to introduce

DNA into host cells by using vectors derived from pathogens (such as
viruses) that have been rendered harmless (disarmed) by removing their
pathogenic elements. This technique is commonly used in molecular
biology and biotechnology for gene transfer.
(B) Micro-injection - Micro-injection involves physically injecting DNA into
the nucleus of host cells using a fine needle. While this is a method to
introduce DNA into cells, it is not typically used to make host cells
"competent" in the sense of enhancing their ability to uptake DNA naturally.
(C) Elution - Elution refers to the process of extracting DNA or other
molecules from a matrix or surface using a solvent or buffer. It is not a
method used to make host cells "competent" to take up DNA.
(D) Biolistics - Biolistics, also known as particle bombardment or gene gun
method, involves shooting DNA-coated microscopic particles (such as gold
or tungsten) into host cells using a specialized device. This method is used
to introduce DNA into cells but does not involve making host cells
"competent" in the traditional sense.
Given these explanations, the correct answer is:
(C) Elution
Ques 20. Select the correct statement from the following:
(A) DNA from one organism will not band to DNA from other
organism.
(B) Genetic engineering works only on animals and not yet
successfully used on plants.
(C) There are no risk factors associated with r-DNA technology.
(D) The first step in PCR is heating which is used to separate both the
strands of gene of interest.

Solu. Let's evaluate each statement:

(A) DNA from one organism will not band to DNA from another organism.
This statement is incorrect. DNA from different organisms can indeed bind
together under certain conditions, such as in hybridization experiments or
when forming recombinant DNA molecules in genetic engineering.
(B) Genetic engineering works only on animals and not yet successfully
used on plants.
This statement is incorrect. Genetic engineering techniques have been
successfully used in both animals and plants for various purposes,
including the production of genetically modified organisms (GMOs), gene
editing, and crop improvement.
(C) There are no risk factors associated with r-DNA technology.
This statement is incorrect. While recombinant DNA (r-DNA) technology
has led to significant advancements in biotechnology and medicine, it also
poses potential risks, such as unintended gene transfer, introduction of new
allergens or toxins, and environmental concerns.
(D) The first step in PCR is heating, which is used to separate both the
strands of the gene of interest.
This statement is correct. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) involves a
series of temperature cycles, including a high-temperature step
(denaturation) to separate the DNA strands, followed by annealing and
extension steps. Heating is indeed used in the first step to denature the
double-stranded DNA into single strands.
Therefore, the correct statement is:
(D) The first step in PCR is heating, which is used to separate both the
strands of the gene of interest.

Ques 21. Choose the incorrect statement with reference to Kangaroo

rat.
(A) eliminates dilute urine.
(B) found in North American desert.
(C) meets its water requirements through internal fat oxidation.
(D) uses minimal water to remove excretory products.

Solu. Let's evaluate each statement:

(A) Eliminates dilute urine.

This statement is correct. Kangaroo rats are known for their ability to
produce highly concentrated urine, which helps them conserve water in
their arid desert habitat.
(B) Found in North American desert.
This statement is correct. Kangaroo rats are native to North American
deserts, particularly in the southwestern United States and northern
Mexico.
(C) Meets its water requirements through internal fat oxidation.
This statement is incorrect. While kangaroo rats are adapted to arid
environments and can conserve water through various mechanisms, they
primarily obtain water from their diet rather than relying solely on internal fat
oxidation.
(D) Uses minimal water to remove excretory products.
This statement is correct. Kangaroo rats have highly efficient kidneys that
allow them to produce concentrated urine, minimizing water loss while
removing excretory products.
Therefore, the incorrect statement is:
(C) Meets its water requirements through internal fat oxidation.

Ques 22. During transcription the DNA strand with 3' 5' polarity of the
structural gene always acts as a template because
(A) Nucleotides of DNA strand with 5'→ 3' are transferred to mRNA.
(B) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the
polymerisation in 5'→3' direction.
(C) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the
polymerisation in 3'→5' direction.
(D) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse
polymerisation in both the directions.

Solu. During transcription, the DNA strand with a 3' to 5' polarity of the
structural gene always acts as a template because:
(B) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyzes the
polymerization in the 5'→3' direction.
This statement is correct. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, the enzyme
responsible for transcription, synthesizes mRNA in the 5'→3' direction,
complementary to the template DNA strand. Therefore, the DNA strand
with a 3' to 5' polarity serves as the template for mRNA synthesis because
the RNA polymerase moves along the template DNA strand in the 3'→5'
direction, synthesizing mRNA in the 5'→3' direction.

Ques 23. According to David Tilman's long term ecosystem

experiments, the total biomass in plots with more species shows,
(A) No variation from year-to-year.
(B) Less variation from year-to-year.
(C) High variation from year-to-year.
(D) Average variation from year-to-year

Solu. David Tilman's long-term ecosystem experiments, particularly his

work on biodiversity and ecosystem functioning, have shown that the total
biomass in plots with more species exhibits:
(B) Less variation from year-to-year.
This is one of the key findings of Tilman's research. He observed that
ecosystems with higher species diversity tend to be more stable over time,
with less variation in total biomass from year to year compared to
ecosystems with lower species diversity. This phenomenon is often referred
to as the "insurance hypothesis," where higher species diversity provides
ecological "insurance" against environmental fluctuations and disturbances.
Ques 24. The toxic heavy metals from various industries which cause
water pollution, normally have a density
(A) more than 12.5 g/cm³
(B) more than 5 g/cm³
(C) more than 15 g/cm³
(D) more than 7.5 g/cm³

Solu. The density of toxic heavy metals from various industries that cause
water pollution varies, but they typically have a high density due to their
metallic nature. Let's assess the options:
(A) more than 12.5 g/cm³
(B) more than 5 g/cm³
(C) more than 15 g/cm³
(D) more than 7.5 g/cm³
While heavy metals can have a range of densities, they generally have
densities significantly higher than water (which has a density of about 1
g/cm³). Among the given options, option (B) more than 5 g/cm³ is the most
reasonable choice. Many toxic heavy metals commonly found in industrial
pollutants, such as lead, mercury, and cadmium, have densities well above
5 g/cm³. Therefore, the correct answer is:
(B) more than 5 g/cm³

Ques 25. Identify the correct option showing the relative contribution
of different green house gases to the total global warming.
(A) CFC-14%, CO2-60%, Methane-6%, N2O-20%.
(B) CFC-14%, CO2-60%, Methane-20%, N2O-6%.
(C) CFC-20%, CO2-60%, Methane-14%, N2O-6%.
(D) CFC-6%, CO2-60%, Methane-20%, N2O-14%.

Solu. The relative contribution of different greenhouse gases to total global

warming is as follows:
(A) CFC-14%, CO2-60%, Methane-6%, N2O-20%.
This statement is incorrect. While carbon dioxide (CO2) does contribute
significantly to global warming and is estimated to account for
approximately 60% of total warming, the contributions of other greenhouse
gases such as methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are not accurately represented in option (A).
(B) CFC-14%, CO2-60%, Methane-20%, N2O-6%.
This statement is also incorrect. The percentages for methane and nitrous
oxide are swapped compared to the typical contributions reported by
scientific studies.
(C) CFC-20%, CO2-60%, Methane-14%, N2O-6%.
This statement is incorrect. The percentages for methane and CFCs are
swapped compared to the typical contributions reported by scientific
studies.
(D) CFC-6%, CO2-60%, Methane-20%, N2O-14%.
This statement is the most accurate representation of the relative
contributions of greenhouse gases to total global warming. While the
percentages may vary slightly in different studies, carbon dioxide (CO2) is
indeed the largest contributor, followed by methane (CH4), nitrous oxide
(N2O), and then chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
Therefore, the correct option is:
(D) CFC-6%, CO2-60%, Methane-20%, N2O-14%.

Ques 26. A flower has 10 stamens each having bilobed dithecous

anther. If each microsporangium has 5 pollen mother cells, how many
pollen grains would be produced by the flower?
(A) 1600
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 800

Solu. To find the total number of pollen grains produced by the flower, we
need to calculate the number of pollen grains produced by each stamen
and then multiply by the total number of stamens.
Given:
- Each stamen has bilobed dithecous anther.
- Each microsporangium has 5 pollen mother cells.
Since each stamen has a bilobed anther, it has two locules (lobes), and
each locule contains pollen mother cells. So, each stamen produces pollen
grains from both locules.
Number of pollen grains produced by each stamen = Number of
microsporangia in each locule × Number of pollen mother cells in each
microsporangium
Number of microsporangia in each locule = 2 (since each stamen has
bilobed anther)
Number of pollen mother cells in each microsporangium = 5
So, the number of pollen grains produced by each stamen = 2 * 5 = 10
Since there are 10 stamens in the flower, the total number of pollen grains
produced by the flower = Number of pollen grains produced by each
stamen × Number of stamens
Total number of pollen grains = 10*10 = 100
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) 400.

Ques 28. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the flow of energy
between various components of the food chain.
(A) Each trophic level loses some energy as heat to the environment.
(B) The amount of energy available at each trophic level is 10% of
previous trophic level.
(C) Energy flow is unidirectional.
(D) Green plants capture about 10% of the solar energy that falls on
leaves.

Solu. Let's evaluate each statement:

(A) Each trophic level loses some energy as heat to the environment.
This statement is correct. As energy flows through the food chain, some
energy is lost at each trophic level due to metabolic processes and heat
production, which is eventually released to the environment.
(B) The amount of energy available at each trophic level is 10% of the
previous trophic level.
This statement is generally correct and represents the 10% rule, which
states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is
transferred to the next trophic level. However, the statement does not
explicitly mention that this is the amount of energy available; rather, it's the
amount of energy transferred. So, this statement might be considered as
correct based on interpretation.
(C) Energy flow is unidirectional.
This statement is correct. Energy flows through an ecosystem in a
unidirectional manner, starting from producers (usually green plants) and
moving through various trophic levels until it is ultimately lost as heat to the
environment.
(D) Green plants capture about 10% of the solar energy that falls on
leaves.
This statement is incorrect. Green plants capture only a small fraction of
the solar energy that falls on leaves, typically much less than 10%. The
actual efficiency of solar energy conversion by photosynthesis can vary
widely depending on factors such as plant species, environmental
conditions, and photosynthetic pathways.
Therefore, the incorrect statement regarding the flow of energy between
various components of the food chain is:
(D) Green plants capture about 10% of the solar energy that falls on
leaves.

Ques 31. When the vascular cambium is present between the xylem
and phloem, then the vascular bundle is called,
(A) Closed
(B) Exarch
(C) Open
(D)Endarch

Solu. When the vascular cambium is present between the xylem and
phloem, the vascular bundle is called:
(A) Closed.
In a closed vascular bundle, the vascular cambium forms a complete ring
or cylinder around the central region containing both xylem and phloem
tissues. This arrangement allows for secondary growth, where the vascular
cambium produces secondary xylem (wood) towards the inside and
secondary phloem towards the outside, contributing to the increase in girth
or diameter of the stem or root.

Ques 32. The function of Typhlosole in earthworm is

(A) Increasing the effective area of absorption in the intestine
(B) Grinding of soil particles
(C) Grinding of decaying leaves
(D) Transportation

Solu. The function of the typhlosole in an earthworm is:

(A) Increasing the effective area of absorption in the intestine.
The typhlosole is a longitudinal fold in the intestinal wall of earthworms. It
increases the surface area available for absorption in the intestine, allowing
for more efficient absorption of nutrients from the ingested organic material
as it passes through the digestive system. This adaptation is essential for
earthworms as they primarily feed on organic matter in the soil and need to
extract nutrients efficiently from their food source.

Ques 35. Flame cells present in the members of platyhelminthes are

specialized to perform,
(A) Respiration and Osmoregulation
(B) Osmoregulation and Circulation
(C) Osmoregulation and Excretion
(D) Respiration and Excretion

Solu. Flame cells, also known as protonephridia, are specialized structures

found in the members of Platyhelminthes (flatworms) and some other
invertebrates. These cells are primarily responsible for:
(C) Osmoregulation and Excretion.
Flame cells function in osmoregulation by regulating the water and solute
balance within the organism's body. They also play a crucial role in
excretion by removing metabolic wastes and excess ions from the body
fluids. Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
Ques 37. Toxicity of which micronutrient induces deficiency of iron,
magnesium and calcium ?
(A) Boron
(B) Zinc
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Manganese

Solu. Toxicity of which micronutrient induces deficiency of iron,

magnesium, and calcium?
(D) Manganese.
Excessive levels of manganese can interfere with the uptake and utilization
of other essential nutrients such as iron, magnesium, and calcium, leading
to deficiencies in these minerals. Therefore, option (D) Manganese is the
correct answer.

Ques 38. Considering the stroke volume of an adult healthy human

being is 70 mL, identify the cardiac output in one hour from the
following:
(A) 50.40 Lit/hour
(B) 504.0 Lit/hour
(C) 30.24 Lit/hour
(D) 302.4 Lit/hour

Solu. The correct answer is (D), 302.4 Lit/hour.

Here's how we can calculate the cardiac output:
1. Define Stroke Volume: We are given that the stroke volume (SV) is
70 mL.
2. Heart Rate: A typical resting heart rate for an adult is around 72 beats
per minute (bpm). We can use this value for our calculation, but it's
important to note that heart rate can vary depending on factors like
age, fitness level, and activity.
3. Time Conversion: We need to convert the time from minutes (min) to
hours (hr) for the final answer in liters per hour (Lit/hour). There are
60 minutes in 1 hour.
 4. Cardiac Output Formula: Cardiac output (CO) can be calculated
using the following formula:
CO = SV x Heart Rate x Time
5. Calculation:
CO = 70 mL/beat x 72 beats/min x (60 min/hour)
Convert milliliters (mL) to liters (L) by dividing by 1000:
CO = (70 mL/beat x 72 beats/min x (60 min/hour)) / 1000 mL/L
CO = 302.4 L/hour
Therefore, the cardiac output of an adult healthy human with a stroke
volume of 70 mL and a heart rate of 72 bpm is approximately 302.4 liters
per hour.

Ques 39. Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is

(A) Digestion and excretion
(B) Excretion and osmoregulation
(C) Digestion and respiration
(D) Osmoregulation and movements

Solu. The function of the contractile vacuole in Amoeba is (B), Excretion

and osmoregulation.
Here's why:
Contractile Vacuole in Amoeba:
The contractile vacuole is a specialized organelle found in Amoeba, a
single-celled organism. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the cell's
internal environment.
Key Functions:
1. Excretion: The contractile vacuole collects excess water, waste
products, and some dissolved solutes from the cytoplasm of the
Amoeba.
2. Osmoregulation: Amoeba lives in freshwater environments where the
external environment is hypotonic (less concentrated) compared to its
cytoplasm. Water tends to move into the cell due to osmosis. The
contractile vacuole pumps out this excess water and maintains the
appropriate balance of water and solutes within the cell, preventing it
from bursting.
Other Options Explained:
● (A) Digestion and excretion: While the contractile vacuole is involved
in excretion, it's not directly involved in digestion, which is carried out
by food vacuoles in Amoeba.
● (C) Digestion and respiration: These are separate processes not
directly related to the contractile vacuole's function.
● (D) Osmoregulation and movements: Osmoregulation is indeed a
primary function, but movement in Amoeba is primarily achieved
through pseudopodia (extensions of the cell membrane), not directly
by the contractile vacuole.

Ques 41. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous

chromosomes is called,
(A) Univalent
(B) Pentavalent
(C) Triad
(D) Bivalent

Solu. The correct answer is (D), Bivalent.

Here's why:
● Homologous Chromosomes: During meiosis, cells undergo cell
division twice to produce gametes (sperm or egg cells) with half the
number of chromosomes compared to the parent cell. Homologous
chromosomes are paired chromosomes that contain the same genes
but may have different alleles (versions) of those genes.
● Synapsis: In prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes come
together and pair up along their entire length in a process called
synapsis.
● Bivalent: The structure formed by a pair of synapsed homologous
chromosomes is called a bivalent. Each bivalent consists of four
sister chromatids (two from each homologous chromosome).
● Other Options Explained:
○ Univalent: A univalent refers to a single, unpaired chromosome,
which can occur under some abnormal circumstances during
meiosis.
 ○ Pentavalent: This term describes a structure with five
chromosomes linked together, which is not typical in meiosis.
○ Triad: A triad refers to a complex of three chromosomes linked
together, also uncommon in normal meiosis.
Therefore, a bivalent is the most accurate term for the complex formed by a
pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Ques 43. In Bryophyllum, the adventitious buds arise from

(A) Leaf base
(C) Notches in the leaf margin
(B) Leaf axil
(D) Shoot apex

Solu. The adventitious buds in Bryophyllum arise from (C), Notches in the
leaf margin.
Bryophyllum, also known as the miracle leaf plant, is known for its
vegetative propagation through adventitious buds. These buds are unlike
regular buds that arise from the leaf axil (the junction of the leaf and stem)
or the shoot apex (growing tip of the stem).
Here's a breakdown of why the other options are incorrect:
● (A) Leaf base: While some plants might have structures like bulbils at
the leaf base for reproduction, Bryophyllum specifically forms
adventitious buds on the leaf margins.
● (B) Leaf axil: Buds arising from the leaf axil are axillary buds, not
adventitious buds. Axillary buds develop into new shoots or branches.
● (D) Shoot apex: The shoot apex is the growing tip of the stem where
new tissues are produced. Adventitious buds don't typically arise from
this region in Bryophyllum.
Therefore, the notches present on the margins of Bryophyllum leaves are
the specific location where adventitious buds develop, allowing for efficient
vegetative propagation when these leaves fall onto moist soil.

Ques 44. Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by fusion of

(A) Two polar nuclei and two male gametes
(B) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete
(C) Ovum and male gamete
(D) One polar nucleus and male gamete

Solu. The primary endosperm nucleus is formed by a specific fusion event

during fertilization in flowering plants. Let's analyze the options:
(A) Two polar nuclei and two male gametes: This is incorrect. Only one
male gamete participates in fertilization events.
(B) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete: This is the correct answer!
During double fertilization in flowering plants, one male gamete fuses with
the egg cell to form the zygote. The other male gamete fuses with the two
polar nuclei (one from the egg cell and another from the central cell) to form
the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
(C) Ovum and male gamete: This refers to the formation of the zygote, not
the primary endosperm nucleus.
(D) One polar nucleus and male gamete: This wouldn't form a complete
primary endosperm nucleus, as it requires the fusion of both polar nuclei
with the male gamete.
Therefore, the primary endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of (B)
Two polar nuclei and one male gamete.

Ques 46. Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a

(A) Hypertension inducer X
(B) Check on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
(C) Promoter on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
(D) Vasoconstricter

Solu. You are right! The answer is (B), Check on Renin-Angiotensin

mechanism.
Here's why:
● Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF): ANF is a hormone produced by the
heart in response to high blood pressure and blood volume.
● Renin-Angiotensin Mechanism: This is a hormonal system that helps
regulate blood pressure. When blood pressure drops, the kidneys
 release renin, which triggers a cascade of events leading to
increased blood pressure.
● ANF's Role: ANF acts as a counterpart to the Renin-Angiotensin
mechanism. It helps to decrease blood pressure by:
○ Vasodilation: Relaxing blood vessels, allowing for increased
blood flow and reducing pressure.
○ Sodium excretion: Promoting the excretion of sodium and water
by the kidneys, which reduces blood volume and pressure.
○ Inhibiting renin release: Suppressing the renin-angiotensin
pathway, preventing further blood pressure elevation.
Therefore, ANF acts as a check on the Renin-Angiotensin mechanism,
helping to maintain blood pressure homeostasis.
Here's a brief explanation of why the other options are incorrect:
● (A) Hypertension inducer: ANF has the opposite effect, acting to
lower blood pressure.
● (C) Promoter on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism: ANF actually inhibits
the renin-angiotensin pathway.
● (D) Vasoconstrictor: ANF is a vasodilator, causing blood vessels to
relax and expand.

Ques 47. The vibrations from the ear drum are transmitted through
ear ossicles to
(A) Auditory nerves y
(C) Oval window
(B) Cochlea
(D) Tectorial membrane

Solu. The vibrations from the eardrum are transmitted through the ear
ossicles to (C), Oval window.
Here's the pathway of sound transmission in the ear:
1. Outer Ear: Sound waves enter the outer ear canal and strike the
eardrum (tympanic membrane).
 2. Middle Ear: The vibrations cause the eardrum to vibrate. These
vibrations are then transferred across the three tiny bones of the
middle ear: the malleus, incus, and stapes.
3. Inner Ear: The stapes, the last ossicle, connects to the oval window
of the cochlea, a fluid-filled snail-shaped structure in the inner ear.
Importance of Oval Window:
● The vibrations of the stapes against the oval window create pressure
waves in the cochlear fluids.
● These pressure waves travel through the cochlear fluids, stimulating
the hair cells located along the Organ of Corti within the cochlea.
● Stimulation of hair cells converts the mechanical vibrations into
electrical signals, which are then transmitted by the auditory nerve to
the brain, where they are interpreted as sound.
Other Options Explained:
● (A) Auditory nerves: The auditory nerves carry electrical signals from
the hair cells in the cochlea to the brain, but they are not directly
involved in the initial transmission of vibrations.
● (B) Cochlea: While the cochlea is the final destination of the
vibrations, the oval window is the specific point of entry for these
vibrations into the fluid-filled inner ear chamber.
● (D) Tectorial membrane: The tectorial membrane is a structure within
the cochlea that interacts with the hair cells during sound transduction
but is not directly involved in the initial transmission of vibrations from
the ear ossicles.

Ques 48. Bamboo species flowers

(A) Twice in 50-100 years
(B) Every year
(C) Once in 12 years
(D) Once in lifetime

Solu. Bamboo species flower infrequently, typically (A) Twice in 50-100

years.
Here's a breakdown of bamboo flowering:
 ● Flowering Cycle: Most bamboo species have an extended vegetative
phase where they focus on growing new shoots and expanding the
bamboo grove. However, at irregular intervals, they undergo a
synchronized flowering event. This flowering cycle can vary greatly
depending on the specific bamboo species.
● Flowering Frequency: The range you provided, 50-100 years, is a
common timeframe for many bamboo species. Some species flower
even less frequently, while a few flower more often.
● Mass Flowering: An interesting aspect of bamboo flowering is that it
often occurs synchronously within a particular species or even across
a large geographical region. This mass flowering can have significant
ecological and economic impacts.
● Semelparous vs. Annual Flowering: It's important to distinguish
bamboo from plants that flower annually. Bamboo is classified as
semelparous, meaning they flower once (or a few times) in their
lifetime, and the flowering event is often followed by the death of the
plant.
Therefore, while the exact frequency can vary depending on the species,
bamboo flowering typically occurs on a much longer timescale compared to
annual flowering plants.

Ques 50. Which pair of the following cells in the embryo sac are
destined to change their ploidy after fertilization?
(A) Egg cell and central cell
(C) Synergids and egg cell
(B) Antipodals and synergids
(D) Central cell and antipodals

Solu. The correct answer is (D), Central cell and antipodals.

Here's why:
● Ploidy in the Embryo Sac: Most cells in the embryo sac are haploid
(n), meaning they have one set of chromosomes.
● Changes after Fertilization: During fertilization in flowering plants, two
key changes in ploidy occur:
 ○ Egg cell (n) fuses with one male gamete (n) to form the zygote
(2n). The zygote becomes the diploid (2n) embryo, which will
develop into the new plant.
○ Central cell (n) fuses with two male gametes (n + n) to form the
triploid (3n) primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). The PEN
divides and develops into the endosperm, a nutritive tissue that
provides food for the developing embryo.
● Other Cells:
○ Synergids and antipodals are also haploid cells, but they
typically degenerate after fertilization and don't contribute
directly to the formation of the embryo or endosperm. Their
ploidy doesn't change.
Therefore, only the central cell and antipodals experience a change in
ploidy after fertilization, becoming triploid in the case of the central cell.

Ques 51. In the female reproductive system, a tiny finger like structure
which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the
urethral opening is called
(A) Vagina
(B) Hymen
(C) Mons pubis
(D) Clitoris

Solu. The tiny finger-like structure at the upper junction of the two labia
minora above the urethral opening in the female reproductive system is the
(D) Clitoris.

Ques 52. Consider the following statements with reference to female

reproduction system:
Statement 1. The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable
indicator of virginity or sexual experience.
Statement 2. The sex of the foetus is determined by the father and not
by the mother.
Choose the correct option from the following:
(A) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are wrong.
(B) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong.
(C) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(D) Statement 1 is wrong and Statement 2 is correct.

Solu. The correct answer is (B), Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is

wrong.
Let's analyze each statement:
● Statement 1:
○ The hymen is a thin membrane that can partially cover the
vaginal opening.
○ It can vary in shape and size, and some women may be born
without one.
○ The hymen can also break easily due to physical activity or use
of tampons, not necessarily due to sexual intercourse.
● Therefore, the presence or absence of a hymen is not a reliable
indicator of virginity or sexual experience.
● Statement 2:
○ The sex of the fetus is determined by the chromosomes
inherited from both parents.
○ Sperm cells can carry either an X or Y chromosome, while egg
cells carry an X chromosome.
○ Fertilization by a sperm carrying an X chromosome results in an
XX combination (female), and fertilization by a Y chromosome
sperm results in an XY combination (male).
● Therefore, the sex of the fetus is determined by a combination of
chromosomes from both parents, not solely by the father.
In conclusion, Statement 1 is scientifically accurate, while Statement 2 is
incorrect.

Ques 53. The male sex accessory ducts include,

(A) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
(B) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and seminal vesicle
(C) Rete testis, urethra, epididymis and vas deferens
(D) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle and vas deferens
Solu. The male sex accessory ducts include:
● Rete testis
● Vasa efferentia
● Epididymis
● Vas deferens
These ducts are responsible for transporting and storing sperm before
ejaculation.
Here's why the other options are incorrect:
● (B): Seminal vesicle is a gland, not a duct. It contributes fluids that
nourish and activate sperm but doesn't directly transport them.
● (C): Urethra is another passage but serves a different purpose. It
carries urine from the bladder and semen during ejaculation.
● (D): Similar to (B), seminal vesicle is a gland, not a duct.
So, the correct answer is:
A) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens

Ques 54. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Female carrier for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
(B) Thalassemia is a qualitative problem.
(C) Change in whole set of chromosomes is called aneuploidy.
(D) Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem.

Solu. Let's analyze each statement to find the correct one:

(A) Female carrier for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons. - This
statement is correct. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive genetic disorder
carried on the X chromosome. Females can be carriers if they have one
altered copy of the gene on one X chromosome, while males with the
altered gene on their only X chromosome will have the disease. Therefore,
a carrier mother can pass the altered gene to her sons, who may then have
hemophilia.
(B) Thalassemia is a qualitative problem. - This statement is incorrect.
Thalassemia is a quantitative problem. It affects the quantity or rate of
hemoglobin production, not the quality of the hemoglobin itself. People with
thalassemia have normal or slightly abnormal hemoglobin structure, but
they produce less of it, leading to anemia.
(C) Change in whole set of chromosomes is called aneuploidy. - This
statement is correct. Aneuploidy refers to a condition where an organism
has an abnormal number of chromosomes. This can involve having extra or
missing copies of individual chromosomes, but it doesn't involve a change
in the entire chromosome set (which is very rare and usually not viable).
(D) Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem. - This statement is
incorrect. Sickle cell anemia is a qualitative problem. It's caused by a
mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin, leading to the production
of abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells. While the number of red blood
cells might also be reduced, the primary issue is the altered quality of
hemoglobin affecting oxygen transport.
Therefore, the correct statement is:
(C) Change in whole set of chromosomes is called aneuploidy.

Ques 55. 'Gene-mapping' technology was developed by

(A) Mendel
(B) Tschermak
(C) Correns
(D) Sturtvent

Solu. Gene mapping is a fundamental concept in genetics.

● Mendel: Gregor Mendel, often called the "father of genetics," laid the
foundation for genetics with his experiments on pea plants, but he
didn't develop gene mapping techniques. His work focused on
inheritance patterns and led to Mendel's Laws of Inheritance.
● Tschermak: Like Mendel, Hugo de Vries also conducted experiments
with peas and independently arrived at similar conclusions about
inheritance patterns. He wasn't directly involved in gene mapping.
● Correns: Carl Correns was another contemporary of Mendel who
studied inheritance in plants. While he contributed to the
understanding of genetics, he wasn't the one who developed gene
mapping.
 ● Sturtvent: Alfred Sturtevant is the scientist credited with developing
the first genetic map. He analyzed data on fruit fly chromosomes and
recombination rates to map the relative positions of genes.
Therefore, the answer is (D) Sturtvent.

Ques 56. Find the correct statement.

(1) Generally a gene regulates a trait, but sometimes one gene has
effect on multiple traits.
(2) The trait AB-blood group of man is regulated by one dominant
allele and another recessive allele. Hence it is co-dominant.
(A) Both the Statements are wrong.
(C) Statement (2) is correct.
(B) Statement (1) is correct.
(D) Both Statements (1) and (2) are correct.

Solu. The correct answer is (D), Both Statements (1) and (2) are correct.
Let's analyze each statement:
Statement (1):
● This statement is generally true. Most genes code for proteins that
play specific roles in an organism's development and function. These
proteins influence various traits, like eye color, height, or disease
susceptibility.
● However, some genes can have pleiotropic effects, meaning they
influence multiple traits. For example, a single gene mutation might
affect coat color and eye color in an animal.
Statement (2):
● This statement is incorrect. The ABO blood group system in humans
is an example of codominance, not dominance and recessiveness.
● In codominance, both alleles for a gene are expressed
simultaneously. In the ABO system, individuals with genotype A or B
have red blood cells that express either the A or B antigen,
respectively. People with genotype AB have both A and B antigens
present on their red blood cells.
Therefore, both statements hold some truth:
● Genes can influence multiple traits (statement 1).
 ● The ABO blood group system exhibits codominance, not
dominance-recessiveness (statement 2, with a correction).

Ques 58. Which of the following is abbreviated as ZIFT?

(A) Zygote Inter Fallopian Tube
(C) Zygote Inter Fallopian Transfer
(B) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
(D) Zygote Intra Fallopian Tube

Solu. The correct answer is (B), Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer.

ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) is a fertility treatment used to help
couples conceive. In this procedure:
1. Eggs are retrieved from the female partner.
2. Sperm is collected from the male partner.
3. Fertilization occurs in a laboratory dish (in vitro fertilization).
4. The resulting zygote (fertilized egg) is transferred to the woman's
fallopian tube using laparoscopy (a minimally invasive surgical
procedure).
The other options have slight variations in wording but do not accurately
represent the abbreviation:
● (A) Zygote Inter Fallopian Tube: "Inter" suggests between, which isn't
quite the intended meaning.
● (C) Zygote Inter Fallopian Transfer: Same issue as (A) with "Inter."
● (D) Zygote Intra Fallopian Tube: While grammatically correct,
"Transfer" is the more commonly used term in the context of assisted
reproductive technologies.

Ques 59. An example for hormone releasing IUD is

(A) Implant
(B) LNG-20
(C) Multiload 375
(D) Lippes loop

Solu. The example for a hormone-releasing IUD is (B) LNG-20.

 ● Hormone-Releasing IUDs: These intrauterine devices (IUDs) release
a progestin hormone, typically levonorgestrel, to prevent pregnancy.
The hormone thickens cervical mucus, making it difficult for sperm to
reach the egg, and can also thin the lining of the uterus, making
implantation less likely.
● LNG-20: This is a specific brand name for a hormone-releasing IUD
that releases levonorgestrel. Other brand names for
hormone-releasing IUDs include Mirena, Skyla, and Jaydess.
● Other Options:
○ (A) Implant: Implants are another form of hormonal birth control,
but they are inserted under the skin in the arm and not placed in
the uterus like IUDs.
○ (C) Multiload 375: Multiload 375 is a copper-containing IUD,
which works by a different mechanism than hormone-releasing
IUDs. Copper IUDs are effective in preventing sperm from
fertilizing an egg.
○ (D) Lippes Loop: Lippes Loop is another type of copper IUD.
Therefore, LNG-20 is a specific example of a hormone-releasing IUD.

Ques 60. MTPs are considered relatively safe during

(A) First trimester
(B) Second trimester
(C) 24 weeks of pregnancy
(D) 180 days of pregnancy

Solu. MTPs (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) are generally considered

safer when performed earlier in pregnancy.
The correct answer is (A), First trimester.
Here's why:
● Fetal Development: During the first trimester (up to 12 weeks), the
fetus is still in the early stages of development. The organs and
systems are not fully formed yet. This makes the procedure less
complex and minimizes potential risks to the woman's health.
● Risks Increase Later: As the pregnancy progresses, the fetus grows
and develops more complex systems. MTPs become technically
 more challenging and carry a higher risk of complications after the
first trimester.
● Legal Considerations: The legal timeframe for allowing MTPs can
vary by country or region. Still, most jurisdictions have restrictions on
MTPs in later stages of pregnancy, except for specific medical
reasons to protect the mother's health.
Therefore, MTPs are considered relatively safer when performed during the
first trimester due to lower risks associated with the earlier stage of fetal
development.