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Polity 6thstd 7th Std. 8th std11th STD

The document discusses various aspects related to the Indian constitution and parliamentary democracy in India including definitions of concepts like freedom, liberty, equality and dimensions of these concepts. It also discusses parliamentary tools for executive accountability and roles of different houses of parliament.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
48 views

Polity 6thstd 7th Std. 8th std11th STD

The document discusses various aspects related to the Indian constitution and parliamentary democracy in India including definitions of concepts like freedom, liberty, equality and dimensions of these concepts. It also discusses parliamentary tools for executive accountability and roles of different houses of parliament.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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OFFICERS IAS ACADEMY

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Serial No. 1901220 TESTBOOKLET Test Booklet Series

GENERAL STUDIES

Test– 5 A
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE CO MMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COPMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C, or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN
THEAPPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET,
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet Contains 100 questions. Each item is printed in English. Each item
Comprises four options for responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to
make on the Answer Sheet. In Case you feel that there are more than one correct responses,
mark the option which you consider the most suitable. In any Case, Choose ONLY ONE
response for each question.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Before you proceed to mark your responses, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
sheet as per the given instructions.
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
8. After you have Completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take the test booklet with you.
9. Sheet for rough work is appended at the end of the Test Booklet.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
ii) If a Candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that Question.
iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO S


OFFICERS IAS ACADEMY
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1. In the context of the word Freedom, consider a) 1 only
the following statements – b) 2 only
1. Freedom is defined as the absence of external c) Both 1 and 2
constraints and coercion. d) Neither 1 and 2
2. The Positive dimension of freedom is the
existence of conditions in which people can 3. Consider the following statements regarding
develop their talents and capabilities. Equality and its dimensions –
3. Indian Constitution incorporates both the 1. Equality, as a concept is defined as equality
above aspects of freedom, that is the positive of all people, be it in status, privileges and
and the negative aspects. rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Minimum conditions of education, health,
correct? wages and equal rights to opportunities are
a) 1 only aspects of Political equality.
b) 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 2 and 3 correct?
d) All of the above. a) 1 only
b) 2 only
2. Consider the following, regarding the c) Both 1 and 2
dimensions of the term “Liberty”- d) Neither 1 and 2
1. Liberty, in its positive dimension is defined
as not interfering with an individual’s need of 4. Which of the following statements is/are true?
expressing and doing what he/she wants to 1) Question Hour is a weekly Question answer
do. session of the Parliament, discussing issues
2. The Negative Liberty however recognises an of Public Interest.
individual’s place with respect to their place 2) Presentation of Budget in the Legislature, by
and relation with society. the Government is a Constitutional mandate.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3) No-Confidence Motion can dissolve the
correct? Government if passed.

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Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct answer using the code given
below- below
a) 1 and 2 a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 b) 2,3 and 4
c) 2 and 3 c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above d) All of the Above

5. Consider the following statements 7. Consider the following-


1. Tools of affirmative actions like special 1) The 91st Amendment of the Constitution
quotas and reserved seats go against the added the Anti- Defection law for the first time.
principle of equality. 2) Defection includes voting against the party
2. Positive discrimiNation is, most often used to instructions or not being present when specified
balance the social and economic inequalities so by the Party.
of the past. Select the INCORRECT statements based on the
Which of the statements given above is/are code given below-
correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
8. Consider the following –
6. The legislature in a Parliamentary system ensures 1) Rajya Sabha represents the States of the
executive accountability. Which among the Nation and has a fixed number of candidates
following deVices are used in Parliamentary appointed to it from each state.
control over executive– 2) The Members to State Legislative councils
1) Discussions and deliberations on Bills are elected by the Candidates of Lok Sabha.
2) Question Hour 3) The Rajya Sabha members are elected by the
3) Zero Hour members of the state Legislative Assemblies.
4) Budgetary allocations and reviews Select the correct answer-

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a) 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2
b) 3 only d) Neither 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3 11. Which of the following is/are true regarding Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
9. Which of following is NOT correct? 1) Both participate in the election of President,
1) The Lok Sabha has exclusive power over the Vice President and also initiate the removal of
money bills compared to Rajya Sabha, because of them.
it being the house of Representatives and the 2) They can exercise control over the executive
executive being responsible to Lok Sabha. through questions, motions and resolutions.
2) The Impeachment of President can also be Select the correct answer using the code given
processed by Lok Sabha. below
Select the answer using the code given below - a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
12. Consider the following –
10. Consider the following statements – 1) Standing Committees usually, supervise the
1) Indian Secularism is different from work of respective departments, their budget etc.
mainstream and western secularism, in the 2) Joint Parliamentary Committees are formed by
sense that the State can be more theocratic. members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, for
2) Indian Secularism deals with religious business and daily activities.
freedom of Individuals and religious Select the correct answer using the code given
communities. below
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only
correct? b) 2 only
a) 1 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only d) Neither 1 and 2

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13. Consider the following statements about a) 1 and 2 only
Fundamental Rights – b) 2 and 3 only
1) Freedom of Religion includes Freedom of not c) 1 and 3 only
choosing any religion too. d) 1 , 2 and 3
2) The Rights of Citizens to choose, follow and
propagate their religion is subject to restrictions 15. Consider the following statements –
like - public order, decency or morality. 1) Indian Constitution adopts a Parliamentary
3) Right to Freedom of Religion is seen as a system of executive which has collective
hallmark of democracy and to sustain India’s leadership and responsibility.
principle of secularism. 2) Executive systems which have individual
Which of the statements given above are correct? leadership are Presidential in nature.
a) 1 and 2 only 3) The Indian Executive typically consists of
b) 2 and 3 only Political executive and permanent executive.
c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
d) 1,2 and 3 correct?
a) 1 and 2
14. Consider the following statements – b) 2 and 3
1) A writ of habeas corpus can be given to set free c) 1 and 3
an arrested person if the manner or grounds of d) All of the above
arrest are not lawful or satisfactory.
2) Mandamus writ can only be issued against 16. Which of the following best describes the concept
public officials and office holders. of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution?
3) Under Quo Warranto writ, the court orders a a) They are Basic Rights an Individual enjoys by
lower court or another authority to transfer a virtue of being a human.
matter pending before it to the higher authority or b) They are Rights which empower a citizen
court. against the state.
Which of the Statements given above is/are c) They are rights given and protected by the
correct? Constitution.

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d) They are rights which are sacrosanct and it to the higher authority or
court.
cannot be restricted.
4. If the court finds that a
person is holding office but is
17. Consider the statements regarding the D.
not entitled to hold that office,
Mandamus
Constitution – the court restricts that person
from acting.
1) Constitution sets limits and restrictions on the Select the correct answer –
Government and its power, and these limits a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
are fundamental in nature. b) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
2) The Indian Constitution incorporates ethnic c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
identities and citizens by descent as criteria d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
for citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are 19. Which of the following is correctly matched?
correct? 1. Institution of the Speaker and his role
a) 1 only - Irish Constitution
b) 2 only 2. Directive Principles of State policy
c) Both 1 and 2 - Canadian Constitution
d) Neither 1 and 2 3. Power of Judicial Review
- US Constitution
18. Match the following terms- 4. Principles of Liberty, Equality and
List-I List-II Fraternity - French Constitution
1. The court finds that a 5. The idea of Residual powers
particular office holder is not
A. Habeas - British system
doing legal duty and is
corpus
infringing on the right of an Select the correct answer using the code given
individual.
below
2. The court orders that the
B.
arrested person should be a) 1 , 2 and 3
Certiorari
presented before it.
b) 2 and 4
3. The court orders a lower
C. Quo c) 3 and 4
court or another authority to
warranto
transfer a matter pending before d) All of the Above

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20. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT?– 22. Which of the following participate in the process
1) The Constitution prohibits the employment of the Amendment of the Constitution?
of children below the age of 14 years in 1) President of India.
dangerous jobs like factories and mines. 2) The Cabinet/Executive
2) Only Religious minorities can set up their 3) State Legislatures
own education institutions. 4) Parliament
3) The Right to Freedom of Religion has 5) Judiciary
sanctity and is absolute, because the Select the correct answer –
Constitution acknowledges all religions. a) 1,2 and 3
Select the answer using codes given below- b) 1,3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 c) 1,3 4 and 5
b) 2 only d) All of the above
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 23. Consider the following –
1) The President cannot send back a
21. Consider the following about the passing of a Bill Constitutional Amendment Bill for
– reconsideration to the Parliament.
1) Drafting of Bill by concerned 2) The judiciary can amend the Constitution,
ministry/committee that is, can effectively change it by
2) Introduction in one of the Houses interpreting it differently.
3) Passing of the Bill to another House. 3) The Parliament can amend any section and
4) Referring to Committees and Discussions part of the Constitution as long as it does not
5) Cabinet Approval of Policy/Legislation disturb the basic structure.
Select the correct procedural order- Select the INCORRECT statement using codes
a) 1-2-3-4-5 given below-
b) 1-2-4-3-5 a) 1 only
c) 5-1-2-3-4 b) 2 only
d) 5-1-2-4-3 c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

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24. Consider the following matches – 26. Which of the following is/are correct?
1) Police - Union List 1) The Role of the Chief Justice of India, in the
2) Land - State List appointment of other Supreme Court judges
3) Education - Concurrent List is consultative.
4) Airways - Union List 2) The principle of Collegium has been adopted
Select the correct match(es) by the Parliament for the matter of
a) 1,2 and 4 appointments efficiently.
b) 2,3 and 4 3) In the appointment of judges the executive
c) 1,3 and 4 plays a role, while for removal, legislature is
d) All of the above involved.
Select the correct answer using the code given
25. Which of the Following is/are the criteria to be below
elected to the Lok Sabha? a) 1 and 2
1) Candidates should be above the age of 18 and b) 2 only
must be a citizen of India. c) 3 only
2) Candidates who have undergone imprisonment d) 1 and 3
for two or more years are disqualified from
contesting 27. Consider the following –
3) Certain criteria with regard to education, 1) The Structure of Indian Judiciary is
income, class etc. integrated from the High Courts all the way
Select the correct answer- upto the district and subordinate courts.
a) 1 only 2) Only the Judges of High court and Supreme
b) 2 only court are appointed by the President.
c) 3 only 3) The Supreme Court functions within the
d) None of the above limitations of the Constitution.
Select the INCORRECT answer based on the
code given below-
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only

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c) 1 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
d) 1 only below
a) 1 only
28. Consider the following – b) 2 and 3
1) The Constitution of India has empowered the c) 1 and 3
President to seek adVice from the Supreme d) None of the above
Court, if he deems it fit on any matter and it
comes under Appellate Jurisdiction. 30. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2) The Matter should be of public importance or 1) Writ Jurisdiction is exclusively under the
on the interpretation of the Constitution. Supreme Court, to issue writs against the
3) If the Supreme Court is approached for its violation of fundamental rights.
adVice, the court is bound to give the adVice 2) The Writs can be issued against offices,
on the matter sought, though the President is individuals or executives.
not bound to act upon the adVice. 3) Appellate Jurisdiction is shared by both
Which of the Statements given above is/are Supreme and High Courts.
correct? Select the correct answer-
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 b) 2 only
c) 2 only c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above. d) 2 and 3

29. Which of the following is/are true? 31. Consider the following statements in the context
1) Rajya Sabha members are elected for a term of First Past the Post system of Election.
of 6 years and it is a permanent house, unlike 1) Under this system, the Candidate who
the Lok Sabha. secured most number of votes is declared
2) Every year, one third of the members elected.
complete their term in Rajya Sabha. 2) First Past the Post system of Election is also
3) Nominated members of the house are called the Plurality System and is prescribed
appointed by the Vice President. by the Constitution.

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3) FPTP is the most suitable system for India 2) According to Constitution, council of ministers
because of its suitability to Parliamentary can consist of 15% of the total members of the
system of Government. Majority party.
Which of the Statements given above is/are Select the INCORRECT answer-
correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 c) Both 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 d) Neither 1 and 2
d) All of the above
34. Consider the following –
32. Which of the following statements regarding 1) The Constitution had the provision of
Judiciary is NOT true? reservation of seats in Lok Sabha and
1) The Grounds on which a Supreme Court Judge Legislative assemblies for categories of
can be removed are incapacity, insolvency, Scheduled castes and Tribes.
proven misbehaviour or corruption. 2) The Provision was, initially made for a period
2) The Removal of a Judge needs a Special of 10 years.
majority in both the houses. Select the INCORRECT answer based on the
3) High Courts cannot issue writs for restoring code given below-
Fundamental rights. a) 1 only
Select the answer based on the code given below- b) 2 only
a) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3 35. Which the Following are part of the DPSPs –
1) Abolition of Child Labour
33. Consider the following – 2) Promotion of Uniform Civil Code
1) Collective responsibility of the council of 3) Promotion of Labour Unions and Cottage
ministers translates to a policy or decision being Industries
binding on all the ministers. 4) Promotion of Fraternity and Brotherhood.

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Select the correct answer- 3) Right against Exploitation includes,
a) 1, 3 and 4 Prohibition of Forced Labour, Manual
b) 1, 2 and 3 Scavenging etc.
c) 1 and 4 Select the correct answer based on the code given
d) 2 and 3 below-
a) 1 only
36. Consider the following Statements – b) 2 and 3
1) The Makers of the Constitution deliberated c) 1 and 3
over the need for Universal Adult Suffrage, d) All of the above
during the Constituent Assembly.
2) The Objectives Resolution emphasized on the 38. Consider the Following Statements regarding
values like sovereignty, equality and Liberty etc. cultural and educational rights–
3) The Objective Resolution describes the 1) Cultural Rights guaranteed by the
Nation, as a Union of Subsidiary states. Constitution applies to Religious and
Which of the Statements given above is/are Cultural Minorities only.
INCORRECT? 2) The Institutions set up by minorities cannot
a) 1 only be discriminated against, with respect to
b) 1 and 3 Government grants.
c) 2 only Which of the Statements given above is/are
d) All of the Above correct?
a) 1 only
37. Which of the following Statements is true? b) 2 only
1) The Right to Equality includes, Equality c) Both 1 and 2
before law, equal Opportunity and Abolition d) Neither 1 and 2
of Titles.
2) The Constitution incorporated a wide range 39. Consider the Following –
of rights in the applicability of Right to life, 1) National Human Rights Commission is one
which include, Right to livelihood and human of the mechanism to ensure the fundamental
dignity etc.

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rights of individuals. It can investigate and 41. Consider the Following Statements-
prosecute Human right violations. 1) The Constitutions lays down a variant of the
nd
2) Fundamental Duties were added by the 42 Proportional Representation System, using
Amendment, which included certain ethical Single transferable vote system, to be
responsibilities on the citizens. followed for the elections of Vice President
Which of the Statements given above is/are and Rajya Sabha.
correct? 2) Single Transferable Vote System, gradually
a) 1 only eliminates candidates by transfereing votes of
b) 2 only the least voted Candidates to the next
c) Both 1 and 2 preferred ones.
d) Neither 1 and 2 Which of the Statements given above is/are
INCORRECT?
40. Which of the Following is true – a) 1 only
1) The Proportional Representation System has b) 2 only
small geographical units divided into c) Both 1 and 2
constituencies, in which one representative is d) Neither 1 and 2
elected from each party.
2) The Party gets seats in proportion to the 42. Which of the following is true?
percentage of votes it acquired, hence its 1) Under the First Past The Post Electoral
name, Proportional Representation. system, voting at a constituency level can be
3) The Voters, generally prefer Party, in favour a disadvantage for smaller minorities and
of the representative, in a particular communities.
constituency in this system. 2) The Constitution prescribes reserved
Select the correct answer based on the code given constituencies as a solution for better
below- representation of all the communities.
a) 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
b) 2 and 3 below
c) 1 and 3 a) 1 only
d) All of the above b) 2 only

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c) Both 1 and 2 45. Which of the following is a discretionary power
d) Neither 1 and 2 of the President?
1) President’s veto power for the Parliament
43. Consider the following statements is NOT true– Bills.
1) Resignation of one of the Council of Ministers, 2) The Appointment of Prime Minister, when
leads to collapse of the whole council. there is no clear majority.
2) Prime Minister is selected by choosing the 3) Appointment of Election Commissioners and
leader of the largest party in Lok Sabha. removal of them.
3) The President and Prime minister are 4) His decision making power with respect to the
empowered to allocate ranks and port folios to the adVices of council of ministers.
council of ministers. Select the correct answer-
Select the answer using the code given below a) 1 and 3
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 c) 2,3 and 4
c) 2 only d) 1 and 4
d) All of the above
44. Which of the following is similar to the offices 46. Consider the following –
President and Vice President – 1) The Constitution empowers President with the
1) They are elected for a fixed tenure of 5 years. right to be informed of all the matters from the
2) Elected by Proportional representation council of ministers.
system by the members of Lok Sabha and 2) The President can exercise his discretionary
State assembles. power, to prod the council of ministers to
3) They can be removed from office by a reconsider certain decisions.
resolution passed in either of the houses. 3) His Decision, in such type of matters, will be
Select the correct answer- final and binding.
a) 1 only Which of the Statements given above is/are
b) 1 and 2 correct?
c) 2 and 3 a) 1 and 2
d) All of the above b) 2 and 3

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c) 1 and 3 a) 1 and 2
d) All of the above b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
47. Which of the following can be seen as d) All of the above
characteristic of Indian Federal Government with
a Strong Centre? 49. Which of the following belong to the State lists?
1) Emergency Provisions. 1) Local Government
2) Constitution as a written document 2) Public Health
3) The Union, state and Concurrent lists. 3) Currency and coinage
4) All India Services 4) Post Telegraph
Select the correct answer- Select the correct answer based on the code given
a) 1, 2 and 3 below-
b) 2 and 3 a) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1 and 4 b) 1 and 2 only
d) All of the above c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All of the above
48. Consider the following Statements about equality
– 50. Consider the following statements–
1. Political equality includes Right to vote, 1. Natural Rights are born with individuals and
equal citizenship, freedom of expression and inalienable. They include right to life, liberty
belief. and property.
2. Economic equality strives to even out the 2. Human Rights are granted by the UN
wealth and income differences between Declaration of Human rights, in which, all
groups in a society. humans are identified equal and valuable.
3. Right to equal opportunities, poverty 3. Legal and Constitutional rights place certain
elimiNation legislation and programmes are restrictions and obligations on the
aimed at economic inequality. Government of a country.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?

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a) 1 only 2) As per the Constitution, the Rights under
b) 2 and 3 Article 32 can be suspended by the Parliament at
c) 3 only any time by suitable legislation.
d) 1 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
51. Consider the following statements – a) 1 only
1) Citizenship in India can be obtained only by b) 2 only
birth, descent, naturalisation and registration. c) Both 1 and 2
2) Part II of the Constitution includes provisions d) Neither 1 and 2
about Citizenship rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are 54. Which of the following is true regarding India’s
correct? secularism?
a) 1 only 1) Indian Constitution has guaranteed
b) 2 only propagation of one’s religion, which may
c) Both 1 and 2 include voluntary conversions.
d) Neither 1 and 2 2) India’s secularism includes the Governments
having power to legislate and intervene in
52. Among the Following, which feature of the religious issues.
Indian Constitution is NOT influenced from the Select the correct answer –
British system? a) 1 only
a) The Institution of Speaker b) 2 only
b) First past the post c) Both 1 and 2
c) Residual Powers d) Neither 1 and 2
d) Law making procedure
55. Consider the following –
53. With reference to Constitutional remedies, 1) The Constitution accords higher executive
consider the following statements- powers to the centre compared to the
1) Supreme Court can empower lower courts to executive power of states.
enforce writs under Article 32.

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2) During an emergency, the States 57. Which of the following is incorrect?
Governments and machinery are replaced 1) In India, First past the Post system resulted in
and the Legislative power is assumed by the a two party dominant model, with little or no
Parliament. space for smaller parties.
3) The Role of Governor acquires more 2) President of India cannot remove an Election
importance, if Article 356 is invoked. Commissioner.
4) Sarkaria Commission was appointed to 3) Election commission does not conduct local
examine the Administrative reforms and body elections.
practices. 4) Election commission nominates the
Select the INCORRECT statement/s from above- candidates, who are contesting before the
a) 1 and 2 elections.
b) 3 only Select the answer using the code given below
c) 2 and 4 only a) 1 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 2
56. Which of the following is correct? c) 2 only
1) President’s rule is invoked in a state when the d) 1,2 and 4
rule of the Government in state cannot be
done in accordance with the Constitutional 58. Consider the following –
provisions. 1) The Chief Election Commissioner, has the
2) The President has the power to approve power to decide over the multi-member body
dissolution of the state assembly, in the above consisting of other election commissioners.
scenario. 2) They are appointed by President on the
3) President’s rule can be extended upto 5 years. adVice of Supreme court.
Select the correct answer using the code given 3) The Constitution provides for security of the
below tenure of the Election commissoners and they
a) 1 only can only be removed by a special majority in
b) 2 only both the houses.
c) 3 only Which of the Statements given above is/are
d) All of the above INCORRECT?

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a) 1 and 2 3) The Members of Public service commissions
b) 2 and 3 are given fixed tenure and security to ensure
c) 1 and 3 neutrality.
d) All of the above 4) The removal of the members of Public
service commissions can be only done
59. Consider the following – through a Parliamentary process.
1) The Election Commission is empowered to Select the correct answer-
cancel the election in an entire state or a) 1 and 2
country, if the circumstances are not b) 1 and 3
conducive. c) 2 and 4
2) The EC can also transfer, appoint people in d) 2 and 3
the administrative machinery or take actions
against officials during the conduct of 61. Which of the following are functions of
elections. Parliament–
Which of the Statements given above is/are 1) Legislation
INCORRECT? 2) Control of Executive
a) 1 only 3) Electing the President and CJI.
b) 2 only 4) Removal of Officials like UPSC members,
c) Both 1 and 2 Judges.
d) Neither 1 and 2 5) Financial issues and Taxation.
Select the correct answer-
60. Which of the Following Statements are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3
1) In a Parliamentary system, the legislature b) 1,2,3 and 4
exerts control over administration and c) 1,2 and 5
administrative officers. d) All of the above
2) Only the Centre has the power to take any
disciplinary action against the officials of All 62. Consider the Following Statements –
India and state services. 1) A Private Bill is a bill introduced by a
nominated member.

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2) A Non-money Bill needs to be passed by both an issue which negatively affects public at
the houses for enactment. large.
Which of the Statements given above is/are 2) The Right to Property was declared as a
correct? fundamental right and part of the basic
a) 1 only structure of the Constitution, by the
b) 2 only Judiciary.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the Statements given above is/are
d) Neither 1 and 2 INCORRECT?
a) 1 only
63. Consider the following Statements- b) 2 only
1) The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme c) Both 1 and 2
Court includes criminal cases only and needs d) Neither 1 and 2
the approval from the high court.
2) The Original Jurisdiction of SC covers 65. Consider the following Statements regarding
disputes between particularly Union and Justice –
States that is federal. 1. Equal Treatment of Equals is considered as
3) The Constitution explicitly states and one of the crucial aspects of Justice.
enforces the Judicial review power on to the 2. Political Justice includes just distribution of
Judiciary by the Article 13. goods and services and recognition of special
Which of the Statements given above is/are needs of certain groups in society, while doing it.
INCORRECT? 3. A Just society is one in which there are no
a) 1 only inequalities between certain sections and
b) 2 and 3 absolutely no differences between rich and poor.
c) 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
d) 1 and 3 correct?
a) 1 only
64. Consider the following – b) 2 and 3
1) Public Interest Litigation is when an c) 1 and 3
aggrieved person moves the court in regard to d) 2 only

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66. Consider the following Statements regarding 68. Consider the Following statements –
different rights – 1) India employs the Proportional Representation
1) Political Rights of a citizen can include right to system on a limited scale for indirect elections
vote, right to contest elections. and direct elections
2) While Economic rights include right to 2) PR system is employed for the elections of
adequate wage and reasonable conditions of President and Rajya Sabha and Legislative
work, Cultural rights include right against Councils
discrimiNation, untouchability etc. Select the correct answer based on the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are below-
correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
69. Which of the Statements is INCORRECT?
67. Consider the following Statements- 1) Election Commission is a Constitutional body,
1) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles established under Article 324, for
of State Policy, work as limits on the power of the superintendence and control of the electoral roll
Government, according to the Constitution. and conduct of elections.
2) The power to legislate for the union list solely 2) The State election commission work in tandem
rests with the Parliament, as prescribed in the with EC, conducting the State Legislative
Constitution. assembly elections with them.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3) The Commission was either be a single
correct? member body or a multi-member one.
a) 1 only Select the answer using the code given below
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
d) Neither 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only

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70. Consider the following statements 72. In the context of InterNational Affairs, which
1) India is the largest cultivator of bamboo. of the following countries are associated with
2) One of the Objectives of National Bamboo the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF)
Mission is to increase the area under bamboo treaty.
plantation in non forest Government and private a) US and China
lands. b) India and Russia
Which of the above statements is/are correct? c) North-Korea and US
a) 1 only d) US and Russia
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 73. Consider the following Statements about the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 article 35-A of the Indian Constitution.
1) Article 35A was inserted in the Constitution by
71. Consider the following statements about the Parliament through a “Special Majority”.
PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And 2) The article empowered the Jammu and
Timely Implementation) Scheme. Kashmir state's legislature to define the
1) It is a multi-purpose and multi-modal platform "permanent residents" of the state.
that is aimed at addressing the common man’s Which of the statements is/are INCORRECT?
grievances, and simultaneously monitoring and a) 1 only
reviewing important programmes directly by the b) 2 only
Prime Minister. c) Both 1 and 2
2) It is a three-tier system comprising of the Prime d) Neither 1 nor 2
Minister office, Chief Secretaries of the States
and the Local Government Officials. 74. In the context of the Consumer Protection Act
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2019, consider the following statements
a) 1 only 1) The new act provides flexibility to the
b) 2 only consumers to file complaints from anywhere
c) Both 1 and 2 in the country.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2) The Central Consumer Protection Authority
created under the act can impose a penalty on

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manufacturers as well as endorsers for false c) 2 and 4 only
or misleading advertisement. d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
3) The act does not include a person as a
consumer who obtains a good for resale or for 77. Which of the following statements best
commercial purposes. describes equalization levy introduced in 2016.
Which of the statements is/are INCORRECT? a) Tax levied on non-resident digital advertising
a) 1 only companies
b) 1 and 2 only b) Tax levied on high net worth individuals
c) 3 only (HNIs)
d) None of the above c) Tax levied on the profit realized on the sale
of a non-inventory asset
75. The terms “Ethereum”, “Ripple”, “Libra” , d) Tax levied on an unlisted firm when their
“Stellar (XLM)” sometimes mentioned in share price is above the fair market value
news are associated with
a) Cyber Attacks 78. Consider the following statements about
b) Exoplanets CITES
c) Mini Satellites 1. Its aim is to ensure interNational trade in
d) Cryptocurrencies specimens of all animals and plants without
threatening their survival.
76. “Wearable Electronics” has applications in 2. India is a party to CITES.
which of the following? Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
1. HealthCare Sector a) 1 only
2. Entertainment Sector b) 2 only
3. Fashion/Textile Sector c) Both 1 and 2
4. Fitness management d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1 and 2 only

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79. Recently, Intelights was seen in news which in 81. Consider the following statements about the
association with which of the following? Great Indian Bustard
(a) It is a wireless system for Intelligent Traffic 1) Great Indian Bustard is the state bird of
Timer Control. Gujarat.
(b) NASA’s Space Exploration Mission to 2) The great Indian bustard inhabits dry
observe the Solar Corona grasslands and scrublands in the Indian
(c) Diffused cosmic light observed from the subcontinent.
Arctic region Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) A special antenna in the Aditya Space a) 1 only
Mission to observe low frequency UV rays. b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
80. With reference to the National Investment and d) Neither 1 nor 2
Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), consider the
following statements. 82. Consider the following statements about
1. It is an Indian-Government backed entity Institutions of Eminence
established to provide long-term capital to 1) Under, Institutions of Eminence, both public
the country’s infrastructure sector and private institutions are identified to
2. It a 100% Government-owned entity emerge as world-class Teaching and
3. It is registered as a Category II Alternative Research Institutions.
Investment Fund 2) University Grants Commission (UGC)
Which of the above statements is/are correct? inspection shall not apply to Institutions of
a) 1 only Eminence.
b) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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83. Samagra Shiksha Jal Suraksha drive is related c) Both 1 and 2
to? d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Promoting water conservation activities for
School Students 86. Beresheet, recently seen in news refers to
(b) To audit the safety of the dams all over India a) Genetically modified crop variety developed
(c) To remove inequality in rural and urban by IRRI
schooling b) Melting of permafrost layer in the Arctic
(d) School education portal aiming to integrate region
educational websites. c) Private mission to the Moon by an Israeli
non-profit organisation
84. Strait of Hormuz connects which of the d) A disease caused by a deficiency of vitamin
following? C
a) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
b) Andaman Sea and South China Sea 87. Which among the following statements is/are
c) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden correct regarding biodegradable plastics?
d) Black Sea and the Sea of Marmara 1) Biodegradable plastics consume less energy
during the manufacturing cycle.
85. Consider the following statements about Bharat 2) Biodegradable plastics emit less carbon during
Stage Emission Standard norms manufacturing when compared to traditional
1) BS-VI fuel will bring down the sulphur plastics.
emitted, significantly from the current BS-IV Select the correct answer using the codes given
levels. below
2) Bharat Stage VI is the most advanced a) 1 only
emission standard for automobiles and is b) 2 only
equivalent to Euro-VI norms c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are d) Neither 1 nor 2
INCORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only

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88. With reference to ‘G20’, consider the 90. Hiroshima Declaration which is sometimes
following statements. seen in news is associated with:
1. G20 is a forum for economic, financial and a) G7
political cooperation. b) European Union
2. All the G7 members are the members of G20. c) G20
3. This is the first time Japan has assumed the d) G4
G20 Presidency.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct? 91. Consider the following statements about a
a. 1 only National Park in India:
b. 1 and 3 only 1. Out of 1500 species of butterflies found in
c. 2 only India a whopping 170 species are found in this
d. 1, 2 and 3 National Park.
2. This is one of the few National Parks found
89. Which of the following countries is/ are within the urban limits.
members of G7? Which one of the following protected area is
1. U.S described in the above statements?
2. Japan (a) Manas
3. Russia (b) Sanjay Gandhi
4. Canada (c) Bandhipur
Select the correct answer using the given code (d) Nandha Devi
below.
a) 1,3 and 4 only 92. Consider the following statements regarding
b) 1 ,2 and 3 only Neora Valley National Park
c) 1,2 and 4 only 1. It is located in the state of West Bengal
d) 1,2,3 , 4 2. ‘Red panda’ an endangered species can be
seen in this park.
3. It borders with Bhutan.
Which of the statements given above is/are
INCORRECT?

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(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above

93. Consider the following statements regarding Gir 95. Consider the following pairs
National Park Wetland Location
1. China and Gir National Park in India are the (A) Ropar Haryana
only places where Asiatic lion is still found (B) Rudrasagar Tripura
in its natural habitat. (C) Pong Dam Himachal Pradesh
2. Indian leopard is also one of the important Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
predators in the ecosystem. matched?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
INCORRECT? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) None of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 96. Which of the following statements best describes
the Sahel region in Africa:
94. Consider the following statements regarding (a). It is a geo-climatic zone of transition between
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve. the Sahara desert in the north to Savannah in the
1. It is located in the Vindhyan range. south
2. Dhupgarh is the highest peak in the reserve. (b). It is a free trade region in the African
3. Though included in World Network of continent.
Biosphere Reserves, tribes like Gond and (c). It is a temperate grassland located in South
Korkus are still collecting honey from the Africa.
reserve for commercial use. (d). It is one of the littoral countries of Lake
Which of the statements given above is/are Victoria.
correct?

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97. Atlas mountain range is located in which of the 6. The Democratic Republic of Congo
following regions. Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a). North West Africa below:
(b). Horn of Africa (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c). Madagascar (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d). North Eastern Africa (c) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(d) All of the above
98. Consider the following statements about the
African continent 100. Consider the following statements about the great
1. It is the largest continent of the world. lakes of Africa.
2. All three important latitudes, Tropic of 1. Unlike the Great Lakes of North America
Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator which are saline, the African lakes are fresh in
passes through the continent. nature
3. Sahara Desert in the continent is the largest 2. They are a series of lakes found in and around
desert in the world. East African Rift valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Together they constitute around 71% of the
correct? planet’s unfrozen surface fresh water.
(a) 1 only Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
99. Through which of the following countries does
the 0-degree latitude pass through?
1. Uganda
2. Kenya
3. Somalia
4. Republic of Congo
5. Gabon

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