16/07/2023 Code-B

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Current Electricity
Chemistry : Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
Botany : Principles of Inheritance & Variation
Zoology : Reproductive Health

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. In the figure shown below, a conductor of 2. For a cell, the graph between the potential
non-uniform cross-section is shown. A difference (V) across the terminals of the cell
steady current I flows in it. If JA and JB are and the current (I) drawn from the cell is
the respective current densities at cross- shown in the figure. The emf and the internal
sections A and B then resistance of the cell are

(1) JA > JB
(2) JA = JB (1) 2V, 0.5Ω
(3) JA < JB (2) 2V, 0.4Ω
(3) > 2V, 0.5Ω
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) > 2V, 0.4Ω

1
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

3. A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is 7. Consider the following circuit as shown in
bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 figure. The power consumed by the variable
cm. The resistance between its two resistance will be maximum if (r is the
diametrically opposite points, A and B as internal resistance of cell)
shown in the figure, is

(1) 6 Ω
(2) 3 Ω
(3) 6 πΩ
(4) 0.6 πΩ
(1) R = R0 + r
4. The current flowing through a wire depends (2) R0 r

on time as I = 2t2 + t + 3. The charge flowing R =

R0 +r

through the cross-section of the wire in the (3) R0 +r

time from t = 0 to t = 1 s is (where I is in mA R =

2

and t is in s) (4) R = r
(1) 5 mC
(2) 3 mC 8. The ratio of currents in 4 Ω resistor and 15 Ω
4
resistor in the following circuit is
(3) 5
mC
6

(4) 25
mC
6

5. A : Potential difference across the terminals

of a battery is always less than the e.m.f of
the battery.
R : Current through the battery is always
from lower to higher potential.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(1) 4 : 3
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (2) 1 : 1
explanation of the assertion (3) 9 : 1
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) 3 : 1
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 9. The current in branch AC of the given circuit
statements is

6. The potential difference across the points B

and D in the given electrical circuit is

(1) 5V (1) 1A
(2) 10 V (2) 2A
(3) 6V (3) 3A
(4) 8V (4) 4A

2
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

10. In the given figure a circuit is shown. In this 14. The current in the primary circuit of a
figure galvanometer G will have zero potentiometer is 0.1 A. The specific
deflection only when resistance and area of cross section of the
potentiometer wire are 2 × 10–6 ohm meter
and 4 × 10–6 m2 respectively. The potential
gradient is
(1) 0.1 V/m
(2) 0.5 V/m
(3) 0.01 V/m
(4) 0.05 V/m
(1) PQ = RS
(2) PR = QS
15. In a meter bridge circuit as shown, when one
(3) PS = QR
more resistance of 100 Ω is connected in
(4) For any relation between resistance parallel with unknown resistance x, then
ℓ1
ratio becomes '3' (l1 is balance length) AB
ℓ2
11. The four colours on a resistor are; brown,
is a uniform wire. Then the value of x is
yellow, green and gold as read from left to
right. The resistance of the resistor is
(1) (7 × 105 ± 5%)Ω
(2) (4 × 105 ± 10%)Ω
(3) (14 × 105 ± 5%)Ω
(4) (14 × 105 ± 10%)Ω
(1) 25 Ω
12. A : If a wire is stretched to double of its (2) 50 Ω
length, then its resistance becomes double. (3) 75 Ω
R : While we stretch a wire, then resistance
(4) 100 Ω
of the conductor varies directly with length.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 16. Current flowing through the switch ‘S’ after
explanation of the assertion closing it in the circuit shown in the figure is
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(4) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false

13. A conductor of sides a each and thickness b

as shown in the diagram. The resistance of
(1) 1.77 A
conductor is [Resistivity is ρ]
(2) 3.23 A
(3) 5.3 A
(4) Zero

17. If the ammeter X gives the value of current, I

= 3 A, then the readings of ammeter Y and Z
would be

(1) ρa
(2) ρb
ρ
(3)
a
ρ
(4)
b (1) 2.4 A, 5.4 A
(2) 12.4 A, 10.4 A
(3) 8.4 A, 5.4 A
(4) 3.0 A, 6.0 A

3
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

18. Resistance of a conductor is doubled 23. A light bulb has rating 200 W, 220 V. Then
keeping the potential difference across it resistance of bulb is
constant. The rate of generation of heat will (1) 242 Ω
(1) Becomes one fourth (2) 121 Ω
(2) Becomes half (3) 400 Ω
(3) Becomes doubled (4) 120 Ω
(4) Becomes four times
24. The current in the arm PQ having resistance
19. The current flowing through the ideal 4 Ω is
ammeter in the circuit shown is

(1) 0.5 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 0.75 A
(4) 0.25 A
(1) 2 A
(2) 2.5 A 25. In the given figure if potential at Q is –10 V
(3) 1 A then potential at P will be
(4) 1.25 A

20. The potential difference between A and B as

shown in the figure, is

(1) VA – VB = E + Ir
(2) VA – VB = E – Ir (1) 60 V
(3) VA – VB = E (2) 900 V
(4) VA – VB = Ir (3) 100 V
(4) 120 V

21. A copper wire of resistance R is cut into x

x
parts of equal length. Then 2 parts are 26.
x
joined in series and remaining 2 parts are
joined parallel. The ratio of the effective
resistance of the series and parallel
combination is
(1) 4 : x2
(2) x2 : 4
(3) x : 2 Find out equivalent resistance between A
(4) 2 : x and B.
(1) 11 Ω
22. A potential difference V is applied to a (2) 12 Ω
conducting wire at constant temperature. (3) 6 Ω
The graph between logV and log I is (I is
(4) 4 Ω
current through the wire)
(1) Straight line
(2) Parabola
(3) Hyperbola
(4) Circle

4
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

27. If resistance between A and D is given 9 Ω, 31. In a potentiometer, a uniform potential

then what is the resistance between B and gradient of 0.4 V/m is maintained across its 5
D? Given all sides of hexagon are equal and m length. The potential difference across two
of same uniform wire points located at 0.5 m and 4.5 m is
(1) 1.6 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 0.4 V
(4) 2.8 V

(1) 6 Ω 32. The equivalent resistance across the points

(2) 8 Ω A and B in the figure shown is
(3) 4 Ω
(4) 3 Ω

28. For the following circuit the reading of ideal

voltmeter is

(1) 2R
(2) 4R
(3) R
(4) 5R

33. Mark out the correct statement(s).

(1) Ammeter should have high resistance
(2) Voltmeter should have low resistance
(1) 10 V (3) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across
(2) 50 V the resistance in a circuit, to measure
voltage across it
(3) 100 V
(4) All of these
(4) Zero

34. Specific resistance of a conductor increases

29. In the circuit I1 and I2 are current value with:
through 10 Ω resistance and 20 Ω resistance
I1
(1) Decrease in temperature
respectively, then I2
is (2) Increase in temperature
(3) Decreases in cross-sectional area
(4) Both (2) & (3)

35. A wire of resistance 12 Ω is cut into three

equal pieces which are joined to form a
triangle. The equivalent resistance between
any two corners of the triangle is
(1) 4 Ω
3

(2) 8
Ω
(1) 1 3

(2) 2 (3) 3 Ω
(3) 1 (4) 6 Ω
2

(4) 1

30. Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on the law

of conservation of
(1) Charge
(2) Linear momentum
(3) Angular momentum
(4) Energy

5
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

SECTION-B

36. The equivalent resistance between point A 39. Determine the ratio of current in branches
and B is AB and CD for the following circuit

(1) 5.33 Ω
(2) 6.33 Ω
(3) 3.33 Ω
(4) 4.33 Ω

37. Two electrical bulbs B1 (200 V, 100 W) and

B2 (200 V, 50 W) are connected in series
across 350 volt DC supply. If switch is
closed, then (1) 1 : 3
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 1 : 1

40. Find potential difference across terminals of

the battery as shown in the figure.

(1) Both B1 and B2 will get fused

simultaneously
(2) Only B1 will get fused
(3) Only B2 will get fused
(4) None of the bulbs will get fused (1) 25 V
(2) 50 V
38. In the circuit given below the potential 7

difference between the points Q and P (3) 500

V
7
( VQ − VP ) is
(4) 25
V
6

41. The value of current (i) as shown in the

figure is

(1) −
20
V
3 (1) 19 A
(2) 20
V (2) 16 A
3
(3) 20 A
(3) 40
V
3 (4) 14 A
(4) −
40
V
3

6
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

42. The voltage(V) and current (I) characteristics 45. In the given circuit current in the branch CD
for a metallic conductor at three different is
temperatures, T1 , T2 and T3 are as shown in
the figure. The relation between T1 , T2 and
T3 is

(1) T1 >T2 > T3 (1) 2 A

(2) T1 <T2 < T3 (2) 1 A
(3) T1 =T2 = T3 (3) 3 A
(4) T1 =T3 > T2 (4) 0.5 A

43. Arrange the order of power dissipated in the 46. Find equivalent resistance between A and B
given circuits, if the same current is passing
through all circuits [each resistor is r]

(1) 44 Ω
(2) 4 Ω
(3) 12 Ω
(4) 18 Ω

47. In the given circuit, the value of resistance of

resistor R is

(1) PII > PIII > PIV > PI

(2) PIII > PII > PIV > PI
(1) 18 Ω
(3) PIV > PIII > PII > PI
(2) 6Ω
(4) PI > PII > PIII > PIV (3) 12 Ω
(4) 24 Ω
44. The equivalent resistance between points A
and B as shown in the figure is
48. The reading of ideal ammeter in the
following circuit is

(1) 2R
(1) 1A
(2) 3R
(2) 4A
(3) 2R
3 (3) 2.5 A
(4) 3R
(4) 2A
2

7
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

49. The length of potentiometer wire is 1 m and

its resistance is 4 Ω. A current of 5 mA is
flowing in it. An unknown source of emf is
balanced on 40 cm length of this wire. The
emf of the source is
(1) 5 mV
(2) 6 mV
(3) 12 mV
(4) 8 mV

50. If a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.4%

longer, then its resistance is
(1) Decreased by 0.4%
(2) Increased by 0.4%
(3) Increased by 0.8%
(4) Decreased by 0.8%

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. During the electrolysis of conc. H2 SO4 , the 54. The standard reduction potentials E° for the
product formed at the anode is following half reactions are given below :
(1) H2 Zn2+ + 2e– ⟶ Zn; E° = –0.76 V
(2) H2 S Fe2+ + 2e– ⟶ Fe; E° = –0.41 V
The standard reduction potential for the cell
(3) SO2 reaction will be
(4) S2 O
2−
Fe2+ + Zn ⟶ Zn2+ + Fe
8
(1) –1.17 V
(2) +1.17 V
52. During discharging of lead storage battery
(3) +0.35 V
(1) SO2 is consumed
(4) –0.35 V
(2) PbSO4 is formed
(3) H2 SO4 is formed
55. If conductivity of 0.1 mol/dm3 solution of KCl
(4) Pb is formed
is 1.3 × 10–2 S cm–1 at 298 K then its molar
conductivity will be
53. Charge required for the reduction of one (1) 130 S cm2 /mol
mole of Cr2 O7 2– to Cr3+ is (F = Faraday
(2) 250 S cm2 /mol
constant)
(1) 6 F (3) 75 S cm2 /mol
(2) 3 F (4) 182 S cm2 /mol
(3) 2 F
(4) 4 F

8
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

56. For the given cell, 61. When aq. CuSO4 is electrolysed using Pt
Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.2 M) || Al3+ (10–3 M)|Al(s) electrodes, the resultant solution has
If E
0
2+
= −2.36 V , (1) pH > 7
Mg |M g

E
0
= −1.86 V
(2) pH = 7
3+
∣Al
Al ∣
(3) pH < 7
E.M.F. of the cell is (4) pH = 14
(1) 0.46 V
(2) 0.69 V
62. Which of the following is a primary cell?
(3) 0.21 V
(1) Dry cell
(4) 1.1 V
(2) Lead storage battery
(3) Nickel-cadmium cell
57. Given below are two statements. One is (4) H2 – O2 cell
labelled as Assertion (A) and other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mercury cell gives a 63. The unit of conductivity of the solution is
constant cell potential of 1.35 V.
(1) ohm
Reason (R) : Electrolyte used in mercury
cell is paste of HgO and KOH. (2) ohm–1
In light of the above statements, choose the (3) ohm–1 cm–1
correct answer from the options given below.
(4) ohm–1 eq–1
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion 64. Equilibrium constant (K) of the cell,
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Ni(s) + 2 Ag+(aq.) → Ni2+(aq.) + 2 Ag(s),
the reason is not the correct
having Eocell = 1 .05 V is equal to
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) 1035.53
is false (2) 1074.12
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) 1010.43
statements
(4) 1051.22

58. If a current of 0.5 ampere when passed

through AgNO3 solution for 193 s, then 65. If conductivity of 0.2 M solution of KCl at 300
weight of Ag deposited will be K is 0.015 S cm–1 then its molar conductivity
(1) 0.108 g (in S cm2 mol–1 ) is
(2) 54 g (1) 75
(3) 10.8 g (2) 50
(4) 1.08 g (3) 7.5
(4) 5
59. During electrolysis of aq. AgNO3 using inert
electrodes the product obtained at the 66. For electrolyte CaCl2 the molar conductance
cathode is is given by
(1) H2 gas (1) λ∘m = 2λ° Ca2+ + λ° Cl−
(2) Ag(s)
(2) ∘
λm = λ°Ca
2+
+
1 −
λ°Cl
(3) O2 (g) 2

(3) ∘
λm = λ° Ca
2+
+ λ° Cl
−
(4) NO2 (g)
(4) ∘
λm = λ° Ca
2+
+ 2λ° Cl
−

60. The equivalent conductance at infinite

dilution of the ions, Al3+ and Cl– are x and y 67. Half life period of a first order reaction is 30
(S cm2 eq–1 ) respectively. The equivalent min. The rate constant of the reaction is
conductance of AlCl3 at infinite dilution is (1) 6.29 × 10–4 min–1
given as (2) 1.25 × 10–3 min–1
(1) x + 3y
(3) 2.31 × 10–2 min–1
(2) x + y
(4) 6.93 × 10–3 min–1
(3) x+y
3

x
(4) +y
3

9
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

68. Rate constant for the given decomposition 71. Rate constant of a reaction does not depend
reaction A → B + C is 2.5 × 10–3 s–1 . If the on
rate of the reaction is 7.5 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 , (1) Temperature
then the concentration of A in mol L–1 will be (2) Activation energy
(1) 2.5 (3) ΔH of reaction
(2) 3 (4) Frequency of collisions
(3) 4.5
(4) 0.5 72. If rate of reaction at 20°C is x and
temperature coefficient of the reaction is 2
then the rate of reaction at 50°C will be
69. For a chemical reaction, R → P
(1) 2 x
if ΔH = –75 kJ mol–1 and activation energy
(2) 4 x
for the forward reaction is 50 kJ mol–1 then
activation energy for the backward reaction (3) 8 x
will be (4) 16 x
(1) 125 kJ mol–1
(2) 25 kJ mol–1 73. Unit of rate constant of second order
reaction is
(3) 100 kJ mol–1
(1) mol–1 L s–1
(4) 150 kJ mol–1
(2) mol L–1 s–1
(3) mol–1 L–1 s
70. Which is correct plot of ln k vs 1/T for
Arrhenius equation? (4) mol–1 L–1 s–1
(1)
74. The specific reaction rate for a first order
reaction is 0.1 min–1 . Time taken to reduce
50 g of the reactant to 5 g is
(1) 0.23 min
(2) 23.03 min
(3) 2.303 min
(4) 4.606 min
(2)

75. Which of the following reaction is an

example of zero order reaction?
(1) H
+

CH3 COOC 2 H5 + H2 O → CH3 COOH

+ C2 H5 OH

(2) 1130 K

2 NH3 (g) −−−−−−→ N2 (g)

(3) Pt catalyst

+ 3H2 (g)

(3) H
+

Cane sugar + H2 O ⟶ Glucose + fructose

(4)
C2 H4 (g) + H2 (g) → C2 H6 (g)

(4)
76. Incorrect statement about catalyst is
(1) It provides the alternate pathway of low
activation energy to speed up the
reaction
(2) It lowers the potential energy barrier
(3) It does not alter the Gibbs energy
(4) It catalyses spontaneous as well as
non-spontaneous reactions

10
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

77. Rate of reaction is independent of 82. The overall order of reaction which has rate
concentration of reactant in expression, rate = k[A]3/2 [B]–1 is
(1) Zero order reaction (1) 1.5
(2) First order reaction (2) –1
(3) Second order reaction (3) 0.5
(4) Third order reaction (4) 2.5

78. For a reaction 83. Which among the following is an incorrect

1 1
2A2 (g) +
2
B2 (g) →
2
C2 (g) + D2 (g) statement?
The rate of reaction is given by (1) Order of a reaction is an experimental
(1) 2Δ[A ] 2
quantity
−
Δt (2) Order can be zero but cannot be
(2) Δ[D2 ] fractional
−
Δt
(3) Order is applicable to elementary as
(3) 2Δ[B2 ]
well as complex reactions
Δt
(4) For complex reaction, order is given by
(4) 2Δ[ C2 ]
the slowest step of the reaction
Δt

84. For the reaction xA + yB → C, on doubling

79. What amount of a radioactive substance will the concentration of both A and B rate
reduce to 5 g in four half lives? becomes 8 times while on doubling the
(1) 20 g concentration of A only rate becomes 4
(2) 40 g times. The overall order of reaction is
(3) 80 g (1) 0
(4) 100 g (2) 1
(3) 2
80. Molecularity of a reaction cannot be (4) 3
(1) 1
(2) 2 85. For the first order reaction
C2 H4 O(g) → CH4 (g) + CO(g)
(3) 0.5
If the initial pressure of C2 H4 O(g) is 80 mm
(4) 3
and the total pressure at the end of 20
minutes is 120 mm, then the half life is
81. For a first order reaction, the time required (1) 40 minutes
for 99.9% completion is (2) 120 minutes
(1) 2.303×3
k
(3) 20 minutes
(2) 2.303 (4) 80 minutes
k

(3) 2.303×2

(4) 2.303×4

SECTION-B

86. The electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl 87. The electrolyte used in hydrogen-oxygen
is carried out using mercury as cathode. fuel cell is
Which of the following ions is discharged at (1) Aqueous KCl
cathode?
(2) HCl
(1) H+
(3) Conc. aqueous NaOH
(2) Na+ (4) Aqueous Na2 SO4
(3) Cl–
(4) OH–

11
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

88. Which of the following expression correctly 94. The graph shown correctly for a first order
represents the equivalent conductance of [R0 ]
reaction between log versus time (t) is
Al2 (SO4 )3 at infinite dilution? (Given that [R]

λ
o
and λo
3+
are the molar conductance
2− (1)
Al SO
4

at infinite dilution of the respective ions)

(1) 3λo + 2λ3+
o
2−
Al SO
4

(2) 1
λ
o
3+
+
1
λ
o
2−
6 Al 6 SO
4

(3) 1
λ
o
+
1
λ
o (2)
3+ 2−
3 Al 2 SO
4

(4) λ
o
3+
+λ
o
2−
Al SO
4

89. Molar conductance at infinite dilution of

Mg(NO3 )2 , H2 SO4 and HNO3 solution in (3)
water are x, y and z respectively. Molar
conductance of MgSO4 solution is
(1) x – y + z
(2) x + 2y + z
(3) x + y – 2z
(4) x – y + 2z (4)

90. The mass of Cl2 produced when 5A of

current is passed through NaCl solution for
10 minutes is,
(1) 1.1 g
(2) 2.2 g 95. On passing one faraday of electricity through
(3) 6.5 g a dilute solution of an acid, the volume of
(4) 0.86 g hydrogen obtained at NTP is
(1) 22400 ml
91. The mass ratio of Al and Ag deposited using (2) 1120 ml
the same quantity of current is (3) 2240 ml
(1) 1:12 (4) 11200 ml
(2) 1:6
(3) 1 : 4 96. Metal used to provide a sacrificial electrode
(4) 3:8 to another metal is
(1) Hg
92. Zn can not displace following ions from their (2) Zn
salt solution: (3) Pt
(1) Ag+ (4) Au
(2) Na+
(3) Fe2+ 97. In the reaction,
− − +
BrO (aq) + 5Br (aq) + 6H (aq) If
(4) Cu2+ 3

⟶ 3Br 2 (I) + 3H2 O(l)

93. The products obtained by electrolysis of rate of disappearance of Br– ion is 4. 5 × 10–
3 mol L –1 s–1 , then rate of appearance of Br
aqueous CuSO4 solution between inert 2
electrodes are is
(1) Copper & O2 (1) 9.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(2) O2 & H2 (2) 1.35 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1
(3) Copper & H2 (3) 2.7 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(4) Copper & H2 O2 (4) 1.5 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

12
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

98. A first order reaction (t1/2 = 1 day) completes 100. The rate constant for a chemical reaction
x% after 4 half lives. Value of x is takes place at 500 K is expressed as k = Ae–
(1) 87.5 1000 . The activation energy of the reaction is:

(2) 75 (1) 100 cal mol–1

(3) 93.75 (2) 1000 k cal mol–1
(4) 50 (3) 104 k cal mol–1
(4) 106 k cal mol–1
99. Modified Arrhenius equation is
(1) k = P ZAB e−E /RT a

(2) k = Pe
−Ea /RT

(3) k = ZAB e
−Ea /RT

(4) k = P ZAB e
−RT /Ea

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Myotonic dystrophy which also follows 105. All of the following were the reasons for use
Mendelian pattern of inheritance is of Drosophila as ideal material for genetic
(1) Autosomal recessive trait studies, except
(2) Holandric trait (1) It can be grown in simple synthetic
medium
(3) X-linked recessive trait
(2) Male is larger than female
(4) Autosomal dominant trait
(3) Easily observable hereditary variations
were present
102. The chromosome constitution 2n – 2 of an (4) Single mating produces large number
organism represents of progenies
(1) Triploidy
(2) Trisomy
106. The below pedigree can best explain
(3) Monosomy
(4) Nullisomy

103. About turner’s syndrome all of the following

are correct, except
(1) A chromosomal disorder
(2) Results due to fusion of egg (22 + 0) (1) Haemophilia
with sperm (22 + X) (2) Turner’s syndrome
(3) Rudimentary ovaries (3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Normal secondary sexual characters (4) Hypertrichosis

104. Offspring with blood group ‘O’ can not be 107. In case of complete linkage, dihybrid test
produced in cross cross ratio in F2 generation will be
(1) A × A (1) 1:1
(2) A × AB (2) 1:1:1:1
(3) B × B (3) 3:1
(4) A × B (4) 9:3:3:1

13
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

108. In honey bee 115. Given below are contrasting traits studied by
(1) The females are haploid Mendel in Pea, the correct match is
(2) The females have 16 chromosomes Recessive Dominant
Character
(3) Males produce sperms by mitosis traits traits
(4) Males have diploid father Flower
(1) Axial Terminal
position
109. Which of the following chromosome (2) Pod shape Constricted Inflated
complements is correct for Klinefelter’s
Syndrome? Seed
(3) Yellow Green
(1) 47, XXXX colour
(2) 45, XO Flower
(4) Violet White
(3) 47, XXY colour
(4) 46, XYY (1) (1)
(2) (2)
110. If 50% of the sons of a couple are (3) (3)
haemophilic and 50% of the daughters are (4) (4)
neither haemophilic nor carrier, then which
of the following statements would be correct
regarding their parents? 116. Gametes with unequal number of
(1) Father of these children is haemophilic chromosomes are formed by
(2) Both mother and father of these (1) Humans
children are haemophilic (2) Birds
(3) Mother of these children is haemophilic (3) Drosophila
(4) Mother of these children is carrier (4) Grasshopper

111. A recessive autosomal genetic defect in 117. The chromosomal disorder that results
which there is a synthesis of incorrectly sicklecell anaemia, defect is caused by the
functioning globin is substitution of
(1) α-thalassemia (1) Glutamic acid by Lysine at the sixth
(2) Sickle cell anaemia position of α-chain of haemoglobin
(3) β-thalassemia (2) Valine by Lysine at the fourth position
of β-chain of haemoglobin
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Glutamic acid by Valine at the sixth
position of β-chain of haemoglobin
112. Female sex in butterflies is determined by (4) Glutamine by Glutamic acid at the
(1) Sperm without Z-chromosome fourth position of α-chain of
(2) Egg with autosome only haemoglobin
(3) Egg with autosome and Z-chromosome
(4) Egg with Z-chromosome and sperm 118. How many of the following features are
without Z-chromosome found in a person affected with Down’s
syndrome?
(a) Furrowed tongue
113. Parent with male child affected with disease (b) Partially open mouth
is represented by (c) Palm crease
(1) (d) Mental retardation
(e) Gynaecomastia
(2)
(1) 3
(3) (2) 4
(3) 5
(4) (4) 2

119. Which of the given traits express itself in only

homozygous condition?
114. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was (1) Dwarf stem
proposed by (2) Round seed
(1) Mendel (3) Yellow seed
(2) Sutton and Boveri (4) Violet flower
(3) T.H. Morgan
(4) Altmann

14
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

120. Skin colour in humans is an example of 128. Select the odd one w.r.t colour blindness
(1) Polygenic inheritance (1) Failure to discriminate between red
(2) Co-dominance and green colour
(3) Incomplete dominance (2) X-linked recessive
(4) Qualitative inheritance (3) It occurs in about 8 percent of males
(4) It occurs in about 4% in female
121. How many types of gametes will be formed
by a plant whose genotype is RrYytt? 129. Select incorrect statement.
(1) 4 (1) Genetics deals with study of
(2) 8 inheritance and variation
(3) 2 (2) Inheritance is the process by which
characters are passed from progeny to
(4) 3 parents
(3) Inheritance forms the basis of heredity
122. Mendel’s law of segregation is applicable to (4) Variation is the degree by which
(1) Monohybrid cross only progeny differ from their parents
(2) Dihybrid cross only
(3) Both monohybrid and dihybrid crosses 130. Select the option with correct set of
(4) Trihybrid cross only statements for Punnett square.
(a) Developed by a British geneticist.
(b) Used to calculate the probability of
123. In a dissimilar pair of factors one member genotypes of offsprings.
dominates the other, it is explained by (c) Useful for monohybrid crosses only.
(1) Law of dominance (d) It is a mathematical formula which helps
(2) Law of segregation to calculate the types of gametes.
(3) Law of independent assortment
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Law of incomplete dominance
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b) and (d)
124. Genotype of dominant trait, which may be
either homozygous or heterozygous, can be (4) Only (a) and (b)
determined by
(1) Out cross 131. How many genotype(s) w.r.t. blood group O
(2) Test cross can be seen in a human population?
(3) Reciprocal cross (1) Three
(4) Pedigree analysis (2) Four
(3) One
125. What is the ratio of round green and wrinked (4) Two
yellow seeds in F2 generation of Mendelian
dihybrid cross? 132. Genes responsible for eye and body colour
(1) 9 : 1 in Drosophila are present on
(2) 1 : 1 (1) Two different autosomes
(3) 3 : 1 (2) The same chromosome
(4) 1 : 3 (3) An autosome and X-chromosome
respectively
(4) Both X and Y-chromosomes
126. Henking’s X body is a/an
(1) X-chromosome found in male only
(2) Chromosome which was later named 133. Which of the following chromosome
X-chromosome complement represents trisomy of
autosomes in male human?
(3) Autosomal chromosome of a female
(1) 45 + XO
(4) Y-chromosome of a male
(2) 44 + XO
(3) 44 + XXY
127. A colour blind girl will always have a colour
(4) 45 + XY
blind
(1) Mother
(2) Brother
(3) Sister
(4) Father

15
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

134. In which among the following organisms

female does not determine the sex of the
offspring?
(1) Birds
(2) Butterfly
(3) Grasshopper
(4) Moth

135. A person with a recessive X–linked disease

married a normal woman. The progeny will
be
(1) Few sons can have disease
(2) All sons are normal
(3) All daughters having disease
(4) 50% daughters are diseased.

SECTION-B

136. Choose the statement which is true for 140. The genes present on a chromosome
organisms showing heterogametic condition (a) Are always tightly linked to each other
in females. (b) Form one linkage group
(1) Sex of progeny is decided by male (c) Can show high recombination frequency
parent or low recombination frequency.
Choose the correct one(s).
(2) Found in moth, butterfly and
grasshopper (1) b & c
(3) In birds genotype of females is AA + (2) a & b
ZW (3) a & c
(4) Sex chromosomes are homomorphic (4) c only

137. In haemophilia 141. Organisms having homomorphic sex

(1) No proteins involved in clotting of blood chromosomes produce
is affected (1) No gametes
(2) Structure of haemoglobin is altered (2) Two types of gametes
(3) Males are unviable at later stage of life (3) Only one type of gamete
(4) Possibility of female becoming (4) Only non-functional gametes
diseased is very frequent
142. Select the incorrect statement from the
138. In which of the following pair of genetic following
disorders number of autosomes remains (1) Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of
unchanged? metabolism
(1) Turner & Down’s syndrome (2) Test cross involves crossing between
(2) Klinefelter & Down’s syndrome an organism with dominant phenotype
(3) Down’s syndrome & Thalassemia with organisms with recessive
genotype
(4) Turner syndrome & Klinefelter’s
syndrome (3) Genetic variation in a population arises
due to mutation only
(4) Phenotype of an organism is the result
139. Who was the first amongst these to of genotype and environment
demonstrate the scientific basis of interaction.
inheritance and variation by conducting
hybridisation experiment?
(1) Hugo de vries
(2) Gregor Johann Mendel
(3) Morgan
(4) Punnet

16
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

143. What proportion of double heterozygotes 147. In a typical Mendelian monohybrid test
and double homozygotes respectively are cross, phenotypic ratio in F2 generation is
produced in F2 generation of Mendelian (1) 1 : 2 : 1
dihybrid cross?
(2) 3 : 1
(1) 1 and 1
8 4 (3) 1 : 1
(2) 1
and
1
(4) 2 : 1
8 8

(3) 1
and
1

2 4 148. Gregor Mendel worked on Pisum sativum for

(4) 1
and
1
period
4 4
(1) 1856-1865
(2) 1863-1869
144. Which of the following genotypic ratios was
found by Mendel in F2 generation of a (3) 1856-1863
dihybrid cross? (4) 1857-1865
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 3 : 1 149. A : Multiple alleles can be detected only in a
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 population.
R : A diploid individual can have only two
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 alleles.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
145. In transversion gene mutation the reason is the correct explanation of
(1) One or more bases are removed from the assertion
nucleotide chain (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(2) Purine base is substituted by another the reason is not the correct
purine base explanation of the assertion
(3) Pyrimidine base is substituted by (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
another pyrimidine base is false
(4) Purine base is substituted by a (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
pyrimidine base or vice versa statements

146. Chronic myelogenous leukemia disease is 150. A pleiotropic gene

due to (1) Affects expression of only one
(1) Deletion of chromosome piece character
(2) Translocation (2) Can be exemplified by gene coding for
enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase
(3) Substitution gene mutation
(3) Shows quantitative inheritance
(4) Inversion
(4) Always has more than two alleles

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. If a male of 26 years old have coitus with 152. Which of the following can be used as a
multiple partners and forgets to use condom method of contraception?
sometimes then he is least susceptible to (1) IUI
(1) Genital herpes (2) AI
(2) HIV infection (3) IUD
(3) Cancer (4) IUT
(4) Chlamydiasis

17
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

153. The contraceptive devices inserted by the 158. The technique which involves pre-natal
doctors or expert nurses in the uterus analysis of fetal cells and dissolved
through vagina are substances to test for presence of certain
(1) Implants genetic disorders is called
(2) IUDs (1) Ultrasonography (USG)
(3) Cervical caps (2) Amniocentesis
(4) Diaphragms (3) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(4) X-rays
154. A : Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams
used alongwith barrier methods increases 159. Natural method of contraception does not
their contraceptive efficiency. include
R : Cervical caps and vaults are barriers (1) Sterilisation
inserted into female reproductive tract to
(2) Periodic abstinence
prevent conception by blocking deposition of
sperms into the cervix. (3) Coitus interruptus
In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Lactational amenorrhea
correct answer.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
160. Improved reproductive health of the society
the reason is the correct explanation of
can be indicated by all of the following
the assertion
except
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) Better awareness about sex related
the reason is not the correct matters
explanation of the assertion
(2) Increased number of medically
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason assisted deliveries and better post-
is false natal care
(4) both Assertion and Reason are false (3) Decreased number of couples with
statements
small families
(4) Better detection of STDs and overall
155. Intrauterine transfer technique in ART increase in medical facilities
involves transfer of
(1) Sperms into uterus
161. Read following statements A and B and
(2) Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres choose the correct option.
into uterus A: Oral pills are small doses of either
(3) Zygote into uterus progestogens or progestogen-estrogen
(4) Zygote into ovary combinations.
B: Pills have to be taken daily for 21 days
starting preferably within the first 5-days of
156. Choose the incorrect match: menstrual cycle.
Column I Column II (1) Both A and B are incorrect
(Disease) (Caused (2) Both A and B are correct
by)
(3) Only A is correct
(1) Chlamydiasis – Bacterium
(4) Only B is correct
(2) Gonorrhoea – Bacterium
(3) Trichomoniasis – Fungus
162. Which one of the following groups include
(4) AIDS – Virus all sexually transmitted diseases?
(1) (1) (1) AIDS, Syphilis, Cholera
(2) (2) (2) HIV, Malaria, Trichomoniasis
(3) (3) (3) Gonorrhoea, AIDS, Chlamydiasis
(4) (4) (4) Hepatitis, Haemophilia, AIDS

157. A non bacterial STD is 163. Family planning programmes to attain

(1) Syphilis reproductive health were first initiated in
(2) Gonorrhea India in the year
(3) Genital herpes (1) 2001
(4) Chlamydiasis (2) 1951
(3) 1971
(4) 2011

18
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

164. Select the mismatch among the following 169. Read the following statements about
(1) Natural method of contraception – steroidal contraceptive pills and select the
Lactational amenorrhea incorrect statement.
(2) Surgical method of contraception – (1) Used in the form of pills which could be
Tubectomy either progestogens or progestogen
– estrogen combination.
(3) Copper releasing IUD – Progestasert
(2) Pills have to be taken daily for a period
(4) Non-medicated IUD – Lippes loop
of 21 days.
(3) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to
165. All of the following are incorrect about ZIFT retard/inhibit entry of sperms
except (4) Most of the pills inhibit implantation but
(1) Zygote is transferred into uterus do not inhibit ovulation.
(2) Zygote or early embryo (upto 8
blastomeres) is transferred into
170. Match column I and column II w.r.t.
fallopian tube
contraceptives and their mode of action.
(3) Early embryo (up to 16 blastomers) is Choose the correct answer.
transferred into fallopian tube
Column I Column II
(4) Gametes are transferred to fallopian
tube, where fertilisation takes place Transport of ova
a. Tubectomy (i) through fallopian tube
is blocked
166. Complete the analogy w.r.t. contraceptives b. Condoms (ii) Prevents fertilisation
methods.
Barrier method : Condom : : Surgical method Increases phagocytosis
: ____________ of sperms, suppresses
(1) Coitus interruptus c. Copper-T (iii) sperm motility and
fertilizing capacity of
(2) Lactational amenorrhea sperms
(3) Periodic abstinence
Prevents/retards entry
(4) Tubectomy Hormonal of sperms, prevents
d. (iv)
IUD ovulation and
implantation
167. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. MTP.
(1) If the pregnancy has lasted more than (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
one registered medical practitioner (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
must be of the opinion, formed in good
faith, that the required ground exist (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) MTP is to get rid of unwanted
pregnancies 171. Embryo with upto 8 blastomeres, formed
(3) MTPs are also essential in certain after in vitro fertilization, is transferred into
cases where continuation of the (1) Cervix
pregnancy could be harmful or even (2) Fimbriae
fatal
(3) Oviduct
(4) MTPs are considered relatively safe
(4) Uterus
during the first trimester

172. Which of the following cannot be included

168. Read the following statements carefully.
as a barrier method of contraception?
a. The world population which was around 2
billion in 1900 rocketed to about 4 billion by (1) Condoms
2000 and 6 billion in 2011. (2) Diaphragm
b. According to WHO, reproductive health (3) Cervical cap
means a total well-being in all aspects of
reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, (4) Lippes loop
behavioural and social.
c. An ideal contraceptive should be user- 173. A pregnancy may be lawfully terminated in
friendly, easily available, no or least side India on the opinion of one registered
effects and reversible. practitioner within the first _____ weeks of
d. Contraceptives interfere with the sexual pregnancy.
drive, desire of sexual act of user. Choose the option which fills the blank
Identify the true statements and choose the correctly.
correct option.
(1) 12
(1) Only a, b and c
(2) 24
(2) Only a and c
(3) 36
(3) Only b, c and d
(4) 48
(4) Only b and c

19
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

174. Terminal methods of contraception 180. Amniocentesis involves analysis of

(1) Lower sex hormone secretion and (1) Fluid from umbilical cord
ejaculate volume (2) Chorionic villi cells
(2) Involve cauterization of oviducts (3) Foetal cells present in amniotic fluid
blocking transport of ova
(4) Cells of chorion membrane
(3) Lead to decreased libido and reduced
spermatogenesis
(4) Are called sterilisation procedures as 181. Sterilisation procedure for contraception
tubectomy results in increased fertility used by females is
(1) Tubectomy
(2) Hysterectomy
175. Mark the correct option after reading the
given statements (3) Oophorectomy
Statement A: IUDs are widely accepted (4) Vasectomy
methods of conception in India.
Statement B: They are user friendly, easily
available, cost effective and can be self 182. Match column I and column II.
inserted by the user. Column I Column II
(1) Statement A is correct and A is Genital
a. Non-medicated IUDs (i)
explained by statement B warts
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect b. Copper releasing IUDs (ii) LNG-20
(3) Both statements A and B are correct but Lippes
c. Hormone releasing IUDs (iii)
B does not explain A loop
(4) Statement B is correct Sexually transmitted Multiload
d. (iv)
infection 375
176. All of the following can be methods to Choose the correct option.
prevent the spread of HIV infection except (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Use of only disposable needles and (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
syringes in public and private hospitals (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
and clinics (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Free distribution of condoms
(3) Controlling drug abuse
183. What is the action of progestogens present
(4) Advocating unsafe sex in the oral contraceptive pills? Choose the
correct option.
177. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. (a) Inhibits implantation
contraceptive device. (b) Inhibits ovulation
(c) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to
(1) Combined pill does not inhibit retard the entry of sperm
ovulation
(1) (a) & (b) are incorrect
(2) Cu-T inhibits fertilization
(2) (a) & (c) are incorrect
(3) Morning after pill is effective within 72
(3) (b) and (c) are incorrect
hours of unprotected sex
(4) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams (4) (a), (b) and (c) all are correct
are seldom used alone due to high
failure rate 184. The assisted reproductive technique in
which the egg is fertilized outside the body
178. Choose the odd one w.r.t. methods of and the zygote is then inserted into the
fallopian tube is
contraception
(1) MESA
(1) Coitus interruptus
(2) IUI
(2) Lactational amenorrhoea
(3) Withdrawal method (3) ZIFT
(4) Condoms and diaphragms (4) GIFT

179. In a normal healthy woman, periodic 185. IUD is an effective and popular
abstinence as a method of contraception is contraceptive method. Select the one which
practised during _____ days of menstrual is an example of medicated IUD?
cycle. Choose the option that fills the blank (1) Cu7
correctly. (2) Lippe's loop
(1) 1 – 7 (3) Diaphragm
(2) 10 – 17 (4) Vaults
(3) 18 – 21
(4) 21 – 27

20
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

SECTION-B

186. Mark the event which is not associated with 192. Read the following statement (A) and
the intake of oral contraceptive pills to statement (B) carefully and choose the
prevent pregnancy in humans. correct option.
(1) They inhibit secretion of FSH and LH Statement (A) : Lippe’s loop is an effective
that prevent ovulation contraceptive device.
Statement (B) : Lippe’s loop is a barrier
(2) They prevent implantation
method which prevents the deposition of
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus sperms into the vagina of female.
which retards the entry of sperms
(1) Both the statements are correct
(4) They increase the thickness of
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
myometrium and prevent their
contraction (3) Statement A is correct
(4) Statement B is correct
187. Birth control method which cannot be used
as an emergency contraceptive method is 193. Choose the incorrect pair of STD with its
(1) Progestogens causative agent
(2) Progestogen-estrogen combination (1) Gonorrhoea – Neisseria
(3) Intrauterine devices (2) Genital warts – HPV
(4) Cervical caps (3) Syphilis – Treponema
(4) Chancroid – Streptococcus
188. Which of the following are possible ill effects
of using contraceptive devices? 194. Read the following statements and choose
a. Nausea the correct option.
b. Abdominal pain Statement A: A rapid decline in death rate,
c. Breakthrough bleeding MMR and IMR as well as an increase in
d. Regular menstrual bleeding number of people in reproducible age are
e. Breast cancer probable reason for population explosion.
(1) a, b and c only Statement B: Indian population was
approximately 350 million at the time of
(2) a and d
independence.
(3) a, b, c and e
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(4) a, b, c, d and e (2) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
189. Select odd one w.r.t. barrier method of (4) Both statements are incorrect
contraception.
(1) Condom
195. Read the following statements.
(2) Vault
a. Sterilisation procedure in males is called
(3) Diaphragm ‘vasectomy’.
(4) Combined pills b. Chlamydiasis is a bacterial disease.
c. Hepatitis B is an incurable disease.
d. Family planning programmes in India
190. Select the option which represents correct were initiated in 1951.
expansion of the abbreviation. How many of the above statements are
(1) ZIFT – Zygote Intra fallopian Transfer correct?
(2) ICSI – Inter cytoplasmic Semen (1) One
Injection (2) Three
(3) GIFT – Genome Intra fallopian transfer (3) Four
(4) IUT – Inter Uterine Technology (4) Two

191. Surgical method of sterilisation advised to 196. All of the following can be included under
males as a terminal method to prevent any natural methods of birth control except
more pregnancies is
(1) Lactational amenorrhea
(1) Tubectomy
(2) Coitus interruptus
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Vasectomy
(3) Tonsillectomy
(4) Periodic abstinence
(4) Splenectomy

21
Term Exam 2324_CF+OYM(P1)-TE03B

197. Match Column I and II w.r.t. action of 199. Progestasert and LNG -20 are
contraceptives. (1) Non-medicated IUDs
Column I Column II (2) Hormone releasing IUDs
a. Jellies (i) Prevents (3) Hormonal implants
implantation (4) Non-steroidal pills
b. Progestasert (ii) Spermicidal
c. Copper T (iii) Suppress 200. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t the
sperm method of contraception shown in the figure
motility below.
(iv) Prevent
deposition
of sperms
into vagina
Choose the correct option.
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii)

198. Choose the incorrect match. (1) Sperms are absent in epididymis
(1) Lactational amenorrhea – Natural (2) It is also called sterilisation
method of contraception (3) This technique is highly effective
(2) Vasectomy – Surgical method of (4) Reversibility of this procedure is very
contraception poor
(3) Progestasert – Oral pill
(4) Diaphragm – Barrier method of
contraception

22