High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT

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Botany - Section A
4. In cymose type of inflorescence:

1. In the given cross-section diagram of a tree A, the main axis terminates in a flower and
1.
B C and D respectively represent: flowers are borne in basipetal order
the main axis continues to grow and the
2. flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal
order
the main axis terminates in a flower and
3.
flowers are borne in an acropetal order
the main axis continues to grow and the
4.
flowers are borne laterally in basipetal order

A B C D
1. Periderm Bark Secondary Secondary 5. The number of correct statements regarding
phloem xylem anatomy of dicot stems is:
2. Periderm Bark Secondary Secondary Hypodermis consists of a few
xylem phloem Statement I:
layers of collenchymatous cells.
3. Bark Periderm Secondary Secondary
The cells of the endodermis are
phloem xylem Statement II:
rich in protein granules.
4. Bark Periderm Secondary Secondary
Statement Pericycle is in the form of semi-
xylem phloem
III: lunar patches of sclerenchyma.
The ‘ring’ arrangement of
2. Identify the incorrectly matched pair: Statement IV: vascular bundles is a
1. Pericarp Wall of the fruit characteristic of dicot stem.
2. Perisperm Residual, persistent nucellus 1. 1
3. Perigynous A flower with superior ovary 2. 2
3. 3
4. Perianth Floral structure comprised of
4. 4
calyx and corolla especially
when the two whorls are fused
6. The electrons excited to higher energy levels
during photosynthesis belong to:
3. The relationship between incident light and 1. Water 2. RuBP
carbon dioxide fixation by photosynthetic 3. glucose 4. chlorophyll
plants, at low light intensities, is a:
Straight line Hyperbola
1. 2.
relationship relationship
3. Parabola relationship 4. Ellipse relationship

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7. Consider the given two statements: 10. Consider the given statements:
In-situ conservation is I: Prop roots are seen in Banyan tree
preferred if the organism, II: Stilt roots are seen in maize and sugarcane
Assertion (A): needed to be protected, is III: Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora
facing a high threat of
extinction.
1. Only I and II are correct
In-situ conservation is an on-
2. Only I and III are correct
site conservation where we
Reason (R): 3. Only II and III are correct
conserve and protect the whole
ecosystem. 4. I, II and III are correct

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1. 11. Consider the following statements about the
correct explanation of the (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the different classes of algae:
2. The members of Chlorophyceae have a
correct explanation of the (A)
I: rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
cellulose and an outer layer of pectose
4. (A) is False but (R) is True
The members of Rhodophyceae do not have
II:
a flagellum
8. Consider the given statements: Members of Phaeophyceae store food as
III: floridean starch which is very similar to
Griffith discovered the process of bacterial
I: amylopectin and glycogen in structure
transformation.
Hershey and Chase unequivocally proved
II: 1. Only I and III are correct
that DNA is the genetic material.
2. Only I and II are correct
Meselson and Stahl showed that DNA
III: 3. Only II and III are correct
replicated semi-conservatively.
4. All I, II and III are correct
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
12. The expression for arithmetic growth rate
3. Only II and III are correct
in plants can be
4. I, II and III are correct 1. Lt = L0 + rt
2. Wt = W0 . ert
3. Lt = L0 × rt
9. The endomembrane system is composed of r
4. Lt = L0 + t
the different membranes that are suspended in
the cytoplasm within a eukaryotic cell. These
membranes divide the cell into functional and 13. Consider the given two statements:
structural compartments, or organelles. The Assertion UV radiations can cause mutations
system includes all the following except: (A): in organisms – it is a mutagen.
1. ER 2. Golgi apparatus UV radiations are ionising
Reason (R):
3. Chloroplasts 4. Vacuoles radiations.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
2.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
3.
correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

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14. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food 18. While carrying out a dihybrid cross [a
mainly in: mating of two organisms heterozygous for two
1. Endosperm traits], a phenotype ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the
2. Cotyledons offspring is expected when:
3. Hypocotyl the genes are linked [located on the same
4. Perisperm 1.
chromosome
2. each gene contains two mutations
15. What stage of prophase I of meiosis I:
the gene pairs assort independently during
a. is characterized by the visibility of chiasmata 3.
meiosis
b. can last for months and years in some
vertebrate oocytes the alleles of both genes show either co-
4.
1. Zygotene dominance or incomplete dominance
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Diakinesis 19. Identify the correct combination of A, B and
C involved in lactic acid fermentation
16. Normally, microinjection and biolistics C6 H12 O6 → A + B → Lactic acid + C

[gene gun] are used, respectively, to transform: A B C

1. plant cells and animal cells 1. 2NADH + H+ 2NAD+ Pyruvic acid
2. animal cells and plant cells +
2. 2NADH + H Pyruvic acid 2NAD+
3. animal cells and bacterial cells
4. plant cells and bacterial cells 3. Pyruvic acid 2NADH + H+ 2NAD+
4. Pyruvic acid 2NAD+ 2NADH + H+
17.
In the respiratory pathway,
Assertion different substrates would enter if 20. Consider the given two statements:
(A): they were to be respired and used Cryopreservation or
to derive energy. cryoconservation is a process
Fatty acids would be broken down Statement where biological material - cells,
Reason
to acetyl CoA before entering the I: tissues, or organs - are frozen to
(R):
respiratory pathway. preserve the material for an
Choices for Assertions and reasons: extended period of time.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the It is not possible to store pollen
1. Statement
correct explanation of (A). grains of angiosperms by
II:
Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the cryopreservation.
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True, but (R) is False. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
4. (A) is False, but (R) is True. correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

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21. Consider the given two statements: 24. Which component of the endomembrane
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of system of a eukaryotic cell is frequently
I: observed in cells involved in protein synthesis
number, of energy and biomass are upright.
Energy at a lower trophic level is always and secretion?
II: 1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
more than at a higher level.
1. Only I is correct 2. Golgi complex
2. Only II is correct 3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Chloroplasts
4. Both I and II are incorrect
25. What is the number of correct statements
22. Consider the given two statements: from those given below?
Pyramid of energy is always I: Primary xylem is endarch in roots
Assertion (A): Phloem parenchyma is present in most of
upright, can never be inverted. II:
When energy flows from a the monocots.
particular trophic level to the Phloem fibers are generally absent in the
III:
Reason (R): next trophic level, some energy primary phloem.
is always lost as heat at each IV: Companion cells are collenchymatous cells.
step. V: Angiosperms lack vessels in their xylem.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 1. 0

1. 2. 1
explains the (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False 3. 2
4. 3
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
4.
correctly explain the (A).
26. Identify the incorrect statement:
In vegetative reproduction, the offsprings
23. Match each item in Column I with the one in 1. are produced from the somatic cells
Column II and select the correct match from the There are usually two germ pores in the
codes given: 2.
pollen wall of dicots
COLUMN I COLUMN II In over 60 percent of angiosperms, the pollen
[Family] [Floral character] 3.
grains are shed at 2 celled stage
A Brassicaceae P Tetradynamous stamen No enzyme that can degrade sporopollenin is
B Fabaceae Q Obliquely placed ovary 4.
so far known
C Solanaceae R Epitepalous stamen
D Liliaceae S Vexillary aestivation
Codes: 27. To promote stem elongation, gibberellins
A B C D act in concert with:
1. S R Q P 1. Auxins 2. Cytokinins
2. R Q S P 3. Ethylene 4. ABA
3. P Q S R
4. P S Q R

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28. DNA fragments created by the action of 30. Given below are two statements : one is
restriction enzymes can be separated by agar labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
gel electrophoresis where: labelled as Reason (R).
larger the fragment size, the farther it Light is the main variable
I:
moves in the gel Assertion (A): limiting primary production in
the DNA fragments are forced to move the oceans.
II:
towards anode under an electric field Solar radiation does not drive
Reason (R):
photosynthesis in oceans.
1. Only I is correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
2. Only II is correct most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
3. Both I and II are correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
4. Both I and II are incorrect 1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
29. Consider the given two statements:
That humans derive countless 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
direct economic benefits from 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Statement
nature is the broadly utilitarian
I:
argument for the need to conserve
biodiversity. 31. Viruses:
That biodiversity plays a major role 1. contain both DNA and RNA as genetic
in many ecosystem services that material
Statement 2. are facultative parasites
nature provides is the narrowly
II: 3. cannot be crystallized
utilitarian argument for the need
to conserve biodiversity. 4. are nucleoproteins

32. Which of the following secondary

Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1. metabolites is an alkaloid and is clinically used
correct
as a very potent analgesic?
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2. 1. Morphine 2. Abrin
incorrect
3. Lectin 4. Taxol
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 33. Identify the option where the names of
4.
correct scientists given in Column I are not correctly
matched with their contribution to the science
of genetics:
COLUMN I COLUMN II
1. De Vries, Disproved Mendel’s law
Correns, of Independent
Tschermak Assortment
2. Sutton and Gave the chromosomal
Boveri theory of inheritance
3. Alfred Developed the first
Sturtevant genetic map
4. T. H. Morgan Discovery of the white-
eyed mutation in the fruit
fly

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34. GEAC stands for: 38. The mode of replication of B-DNA can best
1. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee be described as:
2. Green Environment Action Committee 1. Semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous
2. Semi-conservative and discontinuous
3. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Council
3. Conservative and semi-discontinuous
4. Genetic Ethics Approval Committee 4. Conservative and discontinuous

39. Identify the incorrect statement:

35. In transcription:
Transcription and translation can be coupled
RNA complement formed includes the 1.
in prokaryotes
nucleotide uracil (U) in all instances where
1. 2. DNA is a better genetic material than RNA
thymine (T) would have occurred in a DNA
complement. It is the presence of structural gene in a
3. transcription unit that defines the template
The template strand of DNA is called the
2. and coding strands
coding strand.
RNA polymerase III is responsible for
RNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to 4.
3. transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNAs
the 5' end of the growing mRNA chain.
The error rate is much lower than that in
4.
DNA replication. 40. In the DNA double helix:
I: At each step of ascent, the strand turns 34º.
II: The rise per base pair would be 0.36 nm.
Botany - Section B
36. Which of the following is not an invasive 1. Only I is correct
alien species in the Indian context? 2. Only II is correct
1. Lantana 2. Cynodon 3. Both I and II are correct
3. Parthenium 4. Eichhornia 4. Both I and II are incorrect

37. Given below are two statements: one is 41. After cytokinesis in a plant cell, which of the
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is following is formed first?
labelled as Reason (R): 1. The primary cell wall
The maximum concentration of 2. The middle lamella
alcohol in beverages that are 3. The secondary cell wall
Assertion (A): 4. There is no particular chronology
naturally fermented with yeast
is about 13%.
In alcohol fermentation, yeast
Reason (R): converts pyruvic acid to ethanol
and carbon dioxide.
In the light of the above statements choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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42. A plasmid contains two genes for resistance 45. The terms that can be applied to all
to separate antibiotics. One of the two is gymnosperms include:
insertionally inactivated due to insertion of Naked seeds, Homosporous, Dominant
alien DNA. 1.
independent sporophyte
The gene that was not inactivated helps in Seeds enclosed in ovary wall, Heterosporous,
I: 2.
selecting the transformants. Dominant independent sporophyte
The gene that was insertionally inactivated Naked seeds, Heterosporous, Dominant
II: 3.
helps in selection of recombinants. independent sporophyte
Naked seeds, Heterosporous, Dominant
1. Only I is correct 4.
independent gametophyte
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. I, II and III are correct 46. The term ' systematics' refers to:
1. Identification and classification of plants and
animals
43. Consider the two statements: 2. Nomenclature and identification of plants
and animals
In the photorespiratory pathway,
Statement 3. Diversity of kinds of organism and their
there is synthesis of sugars, but not
I: relationship
of ATP.
4. Different kinds of organism and their
Photorespiratory pathway results classification
Statement
in the release of CO2 with the
II:
utilization of ATP. 47. In the formula for exponential growth
(dN/dt = rN), what does ‘r’ stand for?
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 1. the carrying capacity of the environment
1.
correct 2. the change in time
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 3. the number of individuals in the population
2. 4. the intrinsic rate of natural increase of the
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is population
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

44. The substrate has to go through a higher

energy state or transition state during its
conversion to a product in:
I: Exothermic spontaneous reactions
II: Endothermic reactions
III: Enzyme catalyzed reactions
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II, and III

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48. Given below is the photograph of a Judean 50. Match each item in Column I with one item
date palm [Phoenix dactylifera] nicknamed in Column II regarding C4 plants and chose
Methuselah at Ketura, Israel. The primary your answer from the codes given below:
reason for the fame of this plant is that: Column I Column II
I. Calvin cycle 1. Bundle sheath cells
II. Initial carboxylation 2. Mesophyll cells
III. Primary CO2 acceptor 3. RuBP
IV. Primary CO 2 fixation 4. PEP product
5. PGA
6. OAA

Codes:

I II III IV
It is the first plant whose entire genome has A. 1 2 3 5
1.
been sequenced. B. 2 1 4 6
It is the only type of date palm capable of C. 2 1 3 5
2.
growing outside the Middle East. D. 1 2 4 6
This plant is the oldest verified human-
3.
assisted germination of a seed.

4.
It is a genetically modified plant enriched
with Vitamin A. Zoology - Section A
51. A functional mammary gland is a
characteristic feature of:
49. Consider the given two statements: 1. all mammals
In competitive enzyme inhibition, the 2. all female mammals
I: substrate and inhibitor cannot bind to the 3. only primate female mammals
enzyme at the same time. 4. all female vertebrates
The inhibitor always has a much higher
II: affinity for the active site than the normal 52. Mycoplasma:
substrate. I: completely lack a cell wall
II: are the smallest living cells known
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I III: can survive without oxygen
Both I and II are correct but II does not
2.
explain I 1. Only I and II are true
3. I is correct but II is incorrect 2. Only I and III are true
4. I is incorrect but II is correct 3. Only II and III are true
4. All I, II and III are true

53. For the organisation of the typical female

gametophyte or embryo sac how many of the
nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and
organised into cells:
1. 6 2. 7
3. 8 4. 4

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54. An endoparasite in the human alimentary 58. Which of the following can permanently
canal is expected to possess: cure ADA deficiency?
I: Well-developed locomotion
A means to protect itself against the 1. Bone marrow transplant
II:
digestive juices of humans 2. Enzyme replacement therapy
III: A high reproductive capacity Introduction of the gene isolated from
1. Only II 2. Only I and II 3. marrow cells producing ADA at early
3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III embryonic stages.
Introduction of a functional ADA cDNA
4. (using a retroviral vector) into peripheral
55. Saheli is: lymphocytes.

1. a copper releasing intra-uterine device

59. The mRNA codons GAG and GUG
2. combination oral contraceptive pill
respectively code for:
non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill 1. Valine and Glutamic acid
3.
developed by CDRI 2. Glutamic acid and Valine
is an assisted reproductive technology centre 3. Tryptophan and Methionine
4.
located in New Delhi 4. Methionine and Tryptophan

60. Which of the following hormones is most

56. Typhoid is important for supporting pregnancy in a
Caused by bacterium which infects only human female?
1. small intestine by means of food and water 1. LH
that is contaminated 2. FSH
Caused by protozoan which infects small 3. Progesterone
intestine by means of contaminated water 4. Estrogen
2.
and food and then migrates to other organs
through blood 61. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Caused by bacterium which infects small 1. Echinodermata Water vascular system
intestine by means of contaminated water 2. Hemichordata Stomochord
3.
and food and then migrates to other organs 3. Cyclostomata Cartilaginous jaw
through blood Notochord persistent
4. Cephalochordata
Caused by protozoan which infects only throughout life
4. small intestine by means of food and water
that is contaminated
62. At the end of the S-phase during the cell
cycle in a typical eukaryotic animal cell [having
2N chromosome number and 2C DNA content
57. Identify the incorrect statement: at the G1 phase]:

1. Morphine is a potent painkiller The chromosome number and DNA content

Excessive dose of cocaine can cause 1.
2. remain 2N and 2C respectively
hallucinations The chromosome number and DNA content
Nicotine stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete 2.
3. are 4N and 2C respectively
mineralocorticoids The chromosome number and DNA content
4. Marijuana is derived from Cannabis sativa 3.
are 2N and 4C respectively
The chromosome number and DNA content
4.
are 4N and 4C respectively

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63. In bacteria: 66. Regarding the regulation of respiration by

brain:
translation can begin before the mRNA is The rhythm center is located in the medulla
1. I:
fully transcribed oblongata.
removal of introns from hnRNA is carried Pneumotaxic center is located in the mid
2. II:
out by ribozymes brain
there are at least three different RNA
3. polymerases to transcribe different RNA Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
molecules correct
the transcription of mRNA takes place in a Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. 2.
template independent manner correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
64. Match each item in Column I with one in Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
Column II and choose the correct option from 4.
incorrect
the codes given below:
Column I Column II
A. Porifera P Metagenesis 67. Consider the given two statements:
B. Cnidaria Q Flame cells ABO grouping is based on the
C. Ctenophora R Comb Plates Statement presence or absence of three
D. Platyhelminthes S Choanocyte I: surface antigens on the RBCs
namely A, B and O.
A B C D Rh grouping is based on the
Statement
presence or absence of the type of
1. R Q S P II:
antibody present in the plasma.
2. S P R Q
3. P S Q R Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4. Q R P S 1.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
65. Taq polymerase is:
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
is a ribozyme involved in RNA splicing in 3.
1. correct
eukaryotes
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
is a thermostable DNA polymerase used in 4.
2. incorrect
PCR
3. is a key reagent in ELISA
an enzyme isolated from Thermus aquaticus, 68. Identify the pair of white blood cells that
4.
a fungus found in damp soils are most effective phagocytes:
1. Neutrophils and Eosinophils
2. Basophils and Monocytes
3. Neutrophils and Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes and Eosinophils

69. For megasporogenesis ovules generally

differentiate a single megaspore mother cell,
(MMC) in:
1. the chalazal region of the nucellus.
2. the micropylar region of the nucellus.
3. the micropylar region of the embryo sac.
4. the chalazal region of the embryo sac.

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70. Consider the given two statements: 74. All the following are examples of synovial
The fore limbs in frogs end in five joints except:
Statement digits and they are larger and 1. joint between carpal bones
I: muscular than hind limbs that end 2. joint between adjacent thoracic vertebrae
in four digits. 3. joint between atlas and axis vertebra
Statement Feet in frogs have webbed digits 4. joint between the humerus and pectoral
II: that help in swimming. girdle
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
correct 75. Work of which of the following scientists
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is was the basis upon which the discipline of
incorrect biotechnology was founded?
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 1. Cohen and Boyer
correct 2. Watson and Crick
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 3. Hershey and Chase
incorrect 4. Avery, Macleod and McCarty

71. HIV infection can cause life-threatening

opportunistic infections in humans as it attacks 76. Cells in the human body that secrete
and destroys: products like lipids and steroids are likely to
1. Helper T cells have an abundance of:
2. Cytotoxic T cells 1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3. Suppressor T cells 2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
4. B cells 3. Lysosomes
4. Mitochondria
72. Which of the following is not a salient
feature of the human genome? 77. The peak secretion of which of the following
hormones does not coincide with the day, in the
Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for menstrual cycle, of the peak secretion of other
1.
proteins three hormones?
Chromosome 1 has most genes [2969] and 1. Oestrogen
2.
the Y has the fewest [231] 2. Progesterone
The function of almost all the discovered 3. LH
3. 4. FSH
genes is known
Repeated sequences make up a very large
4. 78. Approximately, what percent of all insects
portion of human genome
are phytophagous?
1. 1
73. Which of the following statements 2. 10
regarding epithelium is not correct? 3. 25
4. 90
Blood capillaries and alveoli are lined with
1. 79. When two genes in a dihybrid cross are
simple sqamous epithelium
situated on the same chromosome close to each
Fallopian tubes are lined with ciliated other, the proportion of parental gene
2.
epithelium combinations is:
Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron 1. much higher than the non-parental type
3.
is lined with compound cuboidal epithelium
2. much lower than the non-parental type
Columnar brush bordered epithelium [with
3. equal to the non-parental type
4. microvilli] is found in the lining of small
intestine 4. not seen at all

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80. The ‘H-zone’ in a sarcomere: 84. Consider the following statements:

Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant
I:
is the central part of thick filaments not tertian malaria.
1.
overlapped by thin filaments Release of hemosiderin from burst RBCs is
is the peripheral part of thick filaments not II: responsible for paroxysms of malarial
2.
overlapped by thin filaments attacks.
is the central part of thick filaments Sporozoites are the infectious forms of
3. III:
overlapped by thin filaments Plasmodium.
is the peripheral part of thick filaments
4. Which of the above statements are true?
overlapped by thin filaments

1. I and II only 2. I and III only

81. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane 3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
is
1. Nearly impermeable to potassium ions (K+)
2. Impermeable to positively charged proteins 85. An increase in the ventricular pressure
present in the axoplasm during ventricular systole leads first to:
1. closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
3. Comparatively more permeable to K+
2. opening of aortic and pulmonic semilunar
4. Completely permeable to sodium ions
valves
3. opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
82. Listed below are four respiratory capacities
4. Closure of aortic and pulmonic semilunar
(1-4) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a
valves
normal human adult.
Respiratory
Respiratory capacities
volume Zoology - Section B
(a) Residual volume 2500 mL 86. Select the right match of the endocrine
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL gland and their hormones among the options
Inspiratory reserve given below:
(c) 1200 mL
volume Column I Column II
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL A. Pineal 1. Epinephrine
B. Thyroid 2. Melatonin
C. Ovary 3. Estrogen
Which one of the following is the correct D. Adrenal medulla 4. Tetraiodothyronine
matching of two capacities and volumes?
1. (a) 2500 mL, (d) 4500 mL Codes
2. (c) 1200 mL, (a) 2500 mL
3. (b) 4500 mL, (c) 2500 mL Options: A B C D
4. (d) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL 1. 4 2 1 3
2. 2 4 1 3
3. 3 2 1 4
83. In human embryonic development, the first 4. 2 4 3 1
movements of the foetus and the appearance of
hair on the head are usually observed:
1. By the end of the second month
2. During the third month
3. By the end of the fourth month
4. During the fifth month

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

87. Sickle cell anaemia is inherited as an 91. Transgenic animals that produce useful
autosomal recessive condition. What biological products can be created to treat all
proportion of progeny will be normal as a the following except:
result of mating between two individuals who 1. emphysema.
are carriers for the trait but are themselves not 2. phenylketonuria (PKU).
affected? 3. Down’s syndrome.
1. 25% 4. cystic fibrosis.
2. 100%
3. 50% 92. Consider the given two statements:
4. 75% The type of antigen present on the RBCs of a
I:
person with blood group type A is A
88. In a healthy adult human being, on an The type of antibodies present in the plasma
average: II:
of a person with blood group type A is anti-A

about 25 – 30 mg of urea is excreted out per 1. Only I is correct

1.
day
2. Only II is correct
2. 125 ml per minute urine is produced
3. Both I and II are correct
about 200 L carbon dioxide is removed by
3. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
the lungs per minute
1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the
4.
kidneys per minute
93. A process in which the fitness of one species
(measured in terms of its ‘r’, the intrinsic rate of
increase) is significantly lower in the presence
89. Given below are two statements: of another species best describes:
Some infections with gram- 1. competition
Assertion (A): negative bacteria can lead to 2. commensalism
life-threatening septic shock. 3. predation
Lipopolysaccharide layer in 4. amensalism
gram-negative bacteria can
Reason (R):
trigger an innate immune 94. Match the following column I with column
response. II and select the correct option
Column I Column II
A. Ladybird (i) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Bacillus
1. B. (ii) Mosquito
correct explanation of (A). thuringiensis
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the C. Baculoviruses (iii) Aphids
2.
correct explanation of (A).
D. Dragonflies (iv) Butterfly caterpillar
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. A B C D
1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
90. Which of the following organic acids is 3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
produced by a fungus 4. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
1. Acetic acid 2. Butyric acid
3. Lactic acid 4. Citric acid

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

95. What restores the resting potential of the 100. Which of the following Intrauterine
axonal membrane at the site of excitation after devices are most likely to make the uterus
depolarisation? unsuitable for implantation and the cervix
1. Influx of sodium ions hostile to the sperms?
2. Influx of potassium ions 1. Lippes loop
3. Efflux of sodium ions 2. Multiload 375
4. Efflux of potassium ions 3. Progestasert
4. Cu T
96. Luteinizing hormone:
I:
acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates
synthesis and secretion of androgens. Chemistry - Section
acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates
II: secretion of some factors which help in the A
process of spermiogenesis. 101. Consider the following reaction

1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct

Both I and II are Both I and II are
3. 4.
correct incorrect
The product A is-
97. Cr-Jacob disease (CJD) in humans is caused
by:
1. 2.
An agent which consists of abnormally
1. folded protein and is smaller in size to
viruses
2. An agent having DNA
An agent which consists of abnormally 3. 4. None of the above
3. folded protein and is similar in size to
viruses
The same agent which causes potato spindle
4.
tuber disease
102. The most paramagnetic species is
1. N i2+ (Z = 28)
98. Adrenaline, Angiotensin II and ADH can all:
2. F e2+ (Z = 26)
cross target cell membrane and influence 3. M n2+ (Z = 25)
1.
gene activity 4. V 3+ (Z = 23)
2. cause vasoconstriction
be secreted by postganglionic sympathetic 103. The correct order of the stability of ions is:
3. 1. Ge2+ < Ge4+ 2. Sn2+ < Sn4+
neurons
4. increase blood glucose levels 3. P b2+ > Pb
4+
4. All of the above

99. What would be the number of intercostal

spaces in the human thoracic cage?
1. 11 2. 12
3. 6 4. 3

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

104. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are 110. The correct name of the given
respectively 24 and 26 which of the following is compound is:
paramagnetic with the spin of electron?
1. [Cr(CO)6]
2. [Fe(CO)5]
3. [Fe(CN)6]4-
4. [Cr(NH3)6]3+
1. 2-Hydroxycyclopentanal
105. In the preparation of H2 O2 , when 50% 2. 2-Formyl-1-hydroxycyclopentane
H2 SO4 the solution is electrolysed, the ion 3. 2-Hydroxycyclopentanecarbaldehyde
discharged at the anode is 4. Cyclopentane-2-ol-1-al
2−
1. SO 2. OH
−
4

−
111. The correct order of reactivity of the
3. H SO
4
4. Cl
−
following compounds towards electrophilic
substitution reaction will be

106. The IUPAC name of one super heavy

element is ununquadium. The position of this
(I) (II)
element in periodic table is:
1. 12th group and 7th period
2. 16th group and 7th period
3. 14th group anf 7th period
4. 14th group and 6th period

107. ∧om for NaCl, HCl and CH3 COON a are (III) (IV)
126.4, 425.9, and 91.05 S cm2 mol-1 respectively.
If the conductivity of 0.001028 mol L-1 acetic
−5
acid solution is 4.95 × 10 S cm−1 , the degree
of dissociation of the acetic acid solution is-
1. 0.01233 2. 1.00 (V)
3. 0.1233 4. 1.233

108. Which one of the elements has highest 1. I > II > III > IV > V
ionisation energy? 2. I > II > IV > V > III
1. [Ne] 3s2 3p1 3. I > IV > II > V > III
2
2. [Ne] 3s 3p 2 4. I > II > IV > III > V
2
3. [Ne] 3s 3p 3

4. [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p2

109. The correct order of C-O bond length

2−
among CO, CO3 , CO2 is:
2−
1. CO2<CO3 <CO
2−
2. CO<CO3 <CO2
2−
3. CO3 <CO2<CO
2−
4. CO<CO2<CO3

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

112. Match the following reactions in Column-I 116. The correct order of boiling point of the
to the correct enthalpy associated with them hydrides of 15th group is :
given in Column-II: 1.
Column-I Column-II
N H3 > BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > P H3

A. I. 2.
15
BiH∘ > N H3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > P H3
C6 H6 (l) + O2 → 6CO2 (g) + 3H2 O(l) Δlattice H 3
2
3. BiH3 > SbH3 > N H3 > AsH3 > P H3
II.
B. N aCl(s) → Na
+
(g) + Cl
−
(g) 4.∘
Δhyd H
BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > N H3 > P H3
C. AB(s) → A
+
(aq) + B
−
(aq) III. Δc H ∘
IV. 117. Given the following reaction:
D. A+ (g) + B− (g) → A
+
(aq) + B
−
(aq) ∘
Δsol H

Choose the correct option from the following:

1. A - (III); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (II) +H N O2 ⟶ A(major),
2. A - (III); B - (I); C - (II); D - (IV) The compound ′
A
′
in the above reaction is
3. A - (II); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (III)
4. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV)

113. Given below are pair of species. Which 1. 2.

pair has the largest difference in sizes?
1. Na and K 2. K and K+
3. Cl and Cl- 4. Cl and Br
3. 4.

114. The correct order among the following is:

1. I
−
(Radii)
> I > I
+

2. I
−
> I > I (Ionisation energy)
+
118. The most stable carbanion among the
Li (aqueous) < N a (aqueous) < K
+ + + following is-
3.
(aqueous) (Radii)
4. F > Cl > Br > I (Electron Affinity)
1. 2.

115. Which pair of compounds are anomers to

each other?
1. Glucose & Mannose
2. Glucose & Galactose
3. α-D Glucose & β-D Glucose 3. 4.
4. Glucose & Fructose

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

119. If an optically active alkyl halide is reacted

123. Case Study:
with nucleophile through SN1 mechanism then A buffer solution is defined as a solution whose
which of the following statement is correct ?pH remains practically constant even when
1. 100% racemisation takes place small amounts of an acid or a base are added to
2. Maximum racemisation with partial it.
inversion takes place Types of buffer solutions :
3. Maximum inversion with (i) Acidic buffer: It is a solution of a mixture of a
partial
racemisation takes place weak acid and a salt of this weak acid with a
4. 100% inversion takes place strong base (e.g. CH3COOH + CH3COONa)
(ii) Basic buffer: It is the solution of a mixture of
120. For an endothermic reaction, where ΔH a weak base and a salt of this weak base with a
represents the enthalpy of the reaction in strong acid (e.g. NH4OH + NH4Cl)
kJ/mole, the minimum value for the energy of Henderson's equation is used to determine pH
activation will be of buffer mixtures of differ types:
1. Less than ΔH for acidic buffer Henderson's equation is
2. Zero [Salt]
pH= pKa + log (ka = ionisation constant
3. More than ΔH [Acid]

4. Equal to ΔH of weak acid )

for basic buffer Henderson's equation is :
121. Consider the following complexes: [Salt]
POH = Pkb + log [Base] (kb = ionisation
1. K2[PtCl6]
2. PtCl4.2NH3 constant of weak base )
3. PtCl4.3NH3 How many moles of HCl are required with 0.01
mole NaCN to prepare a buffer solution of pH
4. PtCl4.5NH3
=9?
Their electrical conductances in aqueous −10
(ka of HCN = 1 × 10 )
solution respectively are:
1. 0.009
1. 256, 0, 97, 404 2. 404, 0, 97, 256
2. 0.09
3. 256, 97, 0, 404 4. 404, 97, 256, 0 3. 0.9
4. Buffer solution cannot formed

122. Given below are two statements: 124. Two electrolytic cells are connected in
Ionisation enthalpies of early series containing CuSO4 solution and molten
Assertion (A): actinoids are lower than for AlCl3 . If in electrolysis 0.4 moles of Cu are
′ ′

early lanthanoids. deposited on cathode of first cell, the number of

Electrons are entering 5f moles of ′ Al′ deposited on cathode of the
orbitals in actinoids which second cell is
Reason (R):
experience greater shielding 1. 0.6 moles
from nuclear charge. 2. 0.27 moles
3. 0.18 moles
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 4. 0.4 moles
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 125. Which, of the following, laws of chemical
2. combination is followed by N2 O , N O and
correct explanation of (A).
N2 O 3 ?
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
1. Law of conservation of mass
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. Law of multiple proportions
3. Law of constant proportions
4. Gay Lussac's law of constant volume

Page: 17
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

126. Two sets of quantum numbers with the 131. Select the correct option for the shape
same number of radial nodes are - acquired by the following ions
1. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0 and n = 2, l = 0, ml = 0 −
BH ; CO
2− −
; ClO ; ClO
−
respectively:
4 3 3 4

2. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0 and n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0
3. n = 3, l = 1, ml = -1 and n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0 1. Tetrahedral; Planar; Pyramidal; Tetrahedral
4. n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1 and n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0 2. Tetrahedral; Planar; Tetrahedral; Tetrahedral
3. Pyramidal; Planar; Tetrahedral; Tetrahedral
127. KH values for Ar( g), CO2(g) , H CH O(g) 4. Tetrahedral; Planar; Pyramidal; Pyramidal
and CH4(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10 and
−5

0.413 respectively. Arrange these gases in the

order of their increasing solubility. 132. Which of the following acts as a lewis
1. H CH O < CH4 < CO2 < Ar acid?
2. H CH O < CO2 < CH4 < Ar 1. N H3
3. Ar < CO2 < CH4 < H CH O 2. SnCl4
4. Ar < CH4 < CO2 < H CH O 3. CCl4
4. None of these
128. When KM nO4 is reacted with oxalic acid
in presence of dilute H2 SO4 then 133. At 300 K, when a solute is added to a
decolourisation of KM nO4 takes place. In this solvent, its vapour pressure over the mercury
reduces from 50 mm to 45 mm. The value of the
reaction, the autocatalyst is
mole fraction of the solute will be:
1. M n2+
1. 0.005 2. 0.010
2. SO4
2−

3. 0.100 4. 0.900
3. CO2
4. K +
134. Which compound does not give Lassaigne's
129. Carbonyl compounds reacts with ammonia
test for nitrogen?
derivatives through substitution reaction. In
1. Urea
these reactions, what pH value needs to be
2. H2 N OH
maintained?
1. 2 to 3 3. C6 H5− N O2
2. 4 to 5 4. C6 H5− N H2
3. 6 to 7
4. 9 to 10 135. In which of the following neutralisation
reactions, rise in temperature of the solution
130. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture will be the highest?
of water and ethanol is less than that of water 1. 100 ml 0.1 M HCl + 150 ml 0.1 M NaOH
and ethanol. The mixture shows 2. 50 ml 0.1 M HCl + 50 ml 0.1 M NaOH
1. Negative deviation from Raoult’s law 3. 300 ml 0.1 M HCl + 400 ml 0.1 M NaOH
2. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law 4. 75 ml 0.1 M HCl + 50 ml 0.1 M NaOH
3. No deviation from Raoult’s law
Deviation which cannot be predicted from
4.
the given information

Page: 18
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry - Section
141. Given the equation
1% H gSO4

CH3 − C ≡ CH + H2 O −−−−−−−→ A

B The product 'A' is:

20% H2 SO4

136. The molarity of N aN O3 solution 1. CH3 − CH2 − CH O

(molecular weight of N aN O3 = 85) is 1M. The 2. CH3 − CO − CH3
density of the solution is 1.25 gm/ml. The 3. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − OH
molality of the solution, approximately, will be 4. CH3 − CH (OH ) − CH3
1. 0.80
2. 0.86
142. The hybridisation of Xe & shape of XeO2F2,
3. 0.96
4. 1 respectively, are
1. sp3d & see saw
137. Match List I with List II: 2. sp3d & T-shape
List I List II 3. sp3d2 & square planar
A. Ionic I. NH3.BF3
4. sp3d & Linear
B. Covalent II. HCl
C. Hydrogen bond III. LiF
D. Coordinate bond IV. HF 143.
o
Half-Reaction E (V )
Choose the correct answer from the options
→ Zn(s) -0.76
2+ −
Zn (aq) + 2e
given below:
→ Cr(s) -0.744
3+ −
1. A - (II); B - (III); C - (IV); D - (I) Cr (aq) + 3e

2. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV) Fe

2+
(aq) + 2e
−
→ F e(s) -0.409
3. A - (III); B - (II); C - (IV); D - (I) Use the E° values in the table above to
4. A - (II); B - (III); C - (I); D - (IV) determine which of the following reactions will
give the highest potential in a voltaic cell.
138. Which of the ions among the following is 1.
the largest in size? 2+ 3+
3Zn (aq) + 2Cr(s) → 3Zn(s) + 2Cr (aq)
+
1. Li (aqueous)
2.
2. Cs+ (aqueous) 3+ 2+
3Zn(s) + 2Cr (aq) → 3Zn (aq) + 2Cr(s)
3. Li+ (g) 2+ 2+
3. Zn (aq) + Fe(s) → Zn(s) + Fe (aq)
4. Cs+ (g) 2+ 2+
4. Zn(s) + Fe (s) → Zn (aq) + Fe(s)
139. For the spontaneity of freezing of water,
which condition must be imposed?
1. ΔH > T ΔS
2. ΔH < T ΔS
3. ΔH = T ΔS
4. Freezing of water is always non-spontaneous

140. Which of the following is not an

ambidentate ligand?
1. CN −
2. N H3
3. SCN −
4. N O−
2

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

144. Consider the following reaction and 149. Which, of the following carbonyl oxygen,
identify the product (P). forms a stronger bond with H2 O molecule?

1. 2.

1. 2.

3. 4.
3. 4.

150. Which, of the following, compounds is

145. For a metal ion, μ = 4.9 B. M . The most reactive towards electrophilic substitution
number of unpaired electrons present in the reaction?
metal ion is- 1. Phenol
1. 3 2. Toluene
2. 4 3. Aniline
3. 2 4. Methoxy benzene
4. 1

146. For a reaction, A + B → products, the rate is Physics - Section A

double when the concentration of B is halved 151. An ideal gas forms the working substance
(keeping [A] constant), while the rate is halved of a Carnot engine, and is taken around the
when the concentration of A is halved (keeping dQ
Carnot cycle. We form the integral: I = ∫ ,
[B] constant). The overall order of the reaction T

is: where dQ is the heat supplied to the gas and T

is the temperature of the gas. The integral is
1. 1 2. 0.5 evaluated over the entire cycle. The value of the
integral I is:
3. 0 4. 2
1. zero
2. negative
147. Given A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ 4C(g) and initial 3. positive
concentration of A is equal to that of B. The 4. non-negative(positive or zero)
equilibrium concentration of A and C are equal.
The value of KC is
1. 0.08
2. 0.8
3. 8
4. 80

148. Compounds with molecular formula

C5 H12 O cannot show :
1. Tautomerism 2. Position isomerism
3. Metamerism 4. Functional isomerism

Page: 20
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

152. The gravitational potential energy of a 155. Consider the circuit shown in the figure
particle of mass m increases by mgh, when it is given below. The input voltage is Vi , the
raised through a height h in a uniform current through the diode is Iz , and the current
gravitational field "g". If a particle of mass m is through the load is IL .
raised through a height h in the earth's
gravitational field (g: the field on the earth's
surface) and the increase in gravitational
potential energy is U , then:

1. U > mgh

2. U < mgh

3. U = mgh
1. if Vi = 15 V and RL = 40 Ω, and Iz = 0.375 A

any of the above may be true depending on 2. if Vi = 10 V and RL = 5 Ω, and IL = 1 A

4. the value of h, considered relative to the 3. if Vi = 20 V and RL = 20 Ω, and Iz = 0.25 A
radius of the earth.
4. if Vi = 20 V and RL = 10 Ω, and Iz = 0.5 A

153. The speed of electromagnetic waves is:

156. A horizontal force F is applied to a
1. higher in vacuum compared to other media.
uniform solid sphere at rest, so that its line of
2. lower in vacuum compared to other media. action passes through the mid-point (P ) of the
3. independent of the medium. vertical radius OA; O being the centre of the
lower in some media than in vacuum, and sphere (mass : m). The acceleration of the
4.
higher in others. uppermost point A is

154. Given below are two statements:

The centre of mass of a system of
particles lying on a straight line
Statement I:
must lie between the two
extreme particles.
The centre of mass of a system of
1. equal to
F
bodies moving with different .
Statement II: m

velocities, cannot be moving

2. greater than
F
.
with constant velocity. m

3. less than
F
.
m

Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is unpredictable, and depends on the radius of

1. 4.
correct. the sphere.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
incorrect.
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4.
incorrect.

Page: 21
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

157. Two circuits: (1) an L − R circuit and (2) 161. A uniformly charged metallic sphere holds
an R − C circuit are driven by the same a total charge Q0 and has a potential V0 . The
alternating current. The phase difference total potential energy stored is:
between the current and the voltage is twice in 1. Q0 V0
the 1st case with respect to the 2nd case and 2.
Q 0 V0

∘ 2
both the angles add up to 90 . The resistances Q 0 V0

are equal in both cases. The ratio of their 3. 4

reactances (first: second) is: 4. −Q0 V0

1. √3 : 1
2. 1 : √3
162. A charged particle of charge q, mass m
3. 3 : 1
moves in a circular path under the action of a
4. 2 : 1
uniform magnetic field, whose flux through this
path is Φ. The magnetic moment due to the
158. Two cars A & B, each 5 m long, are particle's motion is:
2
q Φ
travelling along parallel lanes with speeds of 1.
2m
36 km/h and 72 km/h. Car B is just behind q Φ
2

car A, but is beginning to overtake. What will 2. 2πm

be the distance covered by car B by the time it 3. q Φ
2

is just ahead of car A? m

q Φ
2

4. πm

163. Given below are two statements:

If an ideal gas expands without
any heat being supplied to it,
Statement I:
then its temperature does not
change.
1. 10 m 2. 15 m
If an ideal gas expands freely
3. 20 m 4. 25 m
without any heat being supplied
Statement II:
to it, then its internal energy
remains unchanged.
159. The dc time constant of an L-R circuit is
the same as that of an R-C circuit where the Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
inductor in the first circuit was replaced by a 1.
correct.
capacitor. The value of the resistance R equals
Both Statement I and Statement II are
1 L 2.
1. 2π
√
C
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2. √
L
3.
C incorrect.
L Statement I is correct and Statement II is
3. 2π√ 4.
C incorrect.
L
4. 2√
C

160. A 20 V-cell delivers the same power to a

2 Ω resistor as it does to an 8 Ω resistor. The

internal resistance of the cell is

1. 2 Ω
2. 4 Ω
3. 6 Ω
4. 1.6 Ω

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

164. Consider an electric field of the form: 166. Consider a square carrom board ABCD
→
^ ^
of size 3 ft × 3 ft. A piece moves 'from' pocket
E = K(y i + x j)
A (close from a pocket), strikes side BC and
where K is a constant, and x, y are the then side AD, and reaches pocket C . If the
coordinates. piece is reflected perfectly from each side, then
If a charged particle is taken the ratio of the x, y components of velocity is
Statement I: along the x-axis, no work will be given by v = x

done by the electric field. v y

This electric field is conservative

in nature i.e. it can be derived
Statement II:
from a potential:
V (x, y) = C − Kxy

Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is

1.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
incorrect.
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4.
incorrect. 1. 2
1
2. 2
165. The breaking stress in two wires of 3. 31
different materials A, B are in 4. 3
SA 1
the ratio: =
2
, while their radii are in the
SB
rA 1
ratio: rB
=
2
. The tensions under which they
TA
break are TA and TB . Then =
TB

1. 2
1
2. 4
1
3. 8
1
4.
2 √2

Page: 23
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

167. A straight wire AB of length L rotates 168. A horizontal force F acts on a 2 kg block
about A, with an angular speed ω. A constant placed on a smooth horizontal plane. It varies
magnetic field B acts into the plane, as shown. with time t as shown in the figure. The block is
initially at rest.

The average induced electric

Assertion (A): field within the wire has a
1
magnitude of 2 BωL.
The induced electric field is the
motional EMF per unit length, The work done by the force until
Reason (R): and the motional EMF is t = 2 s, equals:
1

2
2
BωL . 1. 6.25 J
2. 4.5 J
3. 2.25 J
1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. 1.5 J
2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 169. A small sphere of density ρ is completely
3.
correct explanation of (A). submerged in a liquid of density 3ρ and
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the released. The magnitude of its acceleration just
4.
correct explanation of (A). after release equals:
1. g
g
2. 3

3. 2g
4. 3g

170. If two convex lenses of powers P1 , P2 be

placed close together, co-axially, the
combination behaves as a lens of power
1. P1 + P2
2. |P1 − P2 |
2
P
1
3.
P2
2
P
2
4.
P1

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 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

171. Given below are two statements: 173. Two identical right-angled prisms are
The average velocity of the placed back to back as shown. A ray of light,
molecules of an ideal gas incident on the first prism, making an angle θ
Assertion (A): with its surface – passes through the system
increases when the
temperature rises. and emerges parallel to itself. The refractive
The internal energy of an ideal index of the material of the prism is:
gas increases with temperature,
Reason (R): and this internal energy is the
random kinetic energy of
molecular motion.

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4.
correct explanation of (A). 1. sin θ
2. cos θ
3. tan θ
172. A rod of mass M and length L is 4. cot θ
suspended vertically at its highest point. The
rod is held so that it is horizontal and free to 174. The work done by a force
rotate about A and then released. There is no F = 2x
2
(newton) in a displacement from
friction anywhere. x = 0 (origin) to x = 3 m is:

1. 54 J
2. 27 J
3. 18 J
4. 9 J

175. Light of wavelength 4000 A ˚

is incident on
a metal whose work function is 2.0 eV. The
fastest photo-electrons emitted have an energy
The force exerted by the hinge at A, when the
of:
rod is at its lowest position is:
(Take hc = 12400 eV-A ˚)
1. 2 Mg 2. 3 Mg
1. 0.5 eV
3. 4 Mg 4. 2.5 Kg 2. 3.1 eV
3. 1.1 eV
4. 2 eV

Page: 25
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

176. A block of mass m is placed atop another 179. A source of sound of frequency 160 Hz,
block of mass M , and the combination is at rest when moving with a speed v towards a fixed
on a smooth horizontal table. A force F1 is identical vibrating source, produces a beat
applied to m and another force F2 is applied to frequency of 10 Hz in the ground frame. The
M , the two acting horizontally and in opposite speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. The speed v
directions. Consider the following statements equals:
about the acceleration (acm ) of the centre of 1. 20 m/s 2.
68
m/s
3
mass of the system).
85
(Take right as positive) 3. m/s 4. 25 m/s
4

180. A particle moves in the x-y plane according

to the equation
2
F1 −F2 x = Acos ωt
acm = , if there is no friction acting
A. m+M
and y = Asin2 ωt
between m and M
Then, the particle undergoes:
F1 −F2
acm = , if there is static friction 1. uniform motion along the line x + y = A
B. m+M

between m and M uniform circular motion along

F1 −F2
2. 2 2 2
C. acm = , in all situations x + y = A
m+M
3. SHM along the line x + y = A

Choose the most appropriate option: 4. SHM along the circle x 2

+ y
2
= A
2

1. only (A) is true.

2. only (B) is true. 181. Equal and opposite charges are placed at
3. (C) is true. the two vertices of an equilateral triangle,
giving a dipole moment p. A small dipole p′ is
4. (A), (B) are true but (C) is false.
placed at the third vertex, parallel to the
previous dipole. If the electric fields due to both
dipoles p, p′ , at the mid-point of the dipole p,
177. Two particles move with the same uniform p
′

angular speed around two different circles of are equal, then p

equals:
radii r, 2r. Their accelerations are in the ratio: 1. 3 √3
1. 1 : 2 3 √3

2. 1 : 4 2. 2

3. 2 : 1 3. √3
4. 4 : 1 √3
4. 2

178. A small permanent magnet is placed

'antiparallel' to a uniform magnetic field B. A 182. Light having the wavelength equal to the
null point is found at a distance r, on the axis of first line of the Lyman series is incident on a
the magnet. Then, r is proportional to (nearly): metal having a work function of 6 eV. The
1. B−3 energy of the fastest photo-electron emitted is:
2. B−2 1. 7.6 eV
3. B−1/2 2. 4.2 eV
4. B−1/3 3. 2.1 eV
4. 0.8 eV

Page: 26
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section B
183. By writing down the truth table or
otherwise, determine the output X of the circuit
given below. 186. Light having a frequency, which is half the
threshold frequency for photoelectric effect, is
incident on a metal: however, it is emitted from
a sodium lamp. If laser light is used, with the
same frequency, then it:
1. A 2. B 1. will likely cause photoemission of electrons
3. A or B 4. NOT (A) 2. will not cause photoemission of electrons
may or may not cause photoemission
3.
depending on the photon density
184. Match the units of some physical
will cause photoemission only if its intensity
quantities in List-I with their corresponding 4.
is above a threshold
dimensions in List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Ohm (i) [M L2 T −2 A−1 ] 187. The moment of inertia of a uniform right-
(b) Farad (ii) [M L 2
T
−2
A
−2
] angled triangular lamina (mass: m) ΔABC
about an axis passing through C,
(c) Henry (iii) [M −1
L
−2
T
4
A ]
2

perpendicular to its plane is

(d) Weber (iv) [M L2 T −3 A−2 ]

1. a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iv), d - (iii)

2. a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (ii)
3. a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
4. a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
2 2
a +b
1. m
3
185. In a nuclear reaction (involving atomic 2
a +b
2

2. m
nuclei only), the sum of kinetic energies of the 6
2 2

product nuclei was found to be greater than 3. m

a +b

12
that of the reactants. This means that: 2
a +b
2

1. some nucleons are created 4. m

2

2. some nucleons are destroyed

3. energy is converted into mass 188. A ball thrown vertically upward rises to a
maximum height of 8 m, then falls down and
4. mass is converted into energy
rebounds to a height of 2 m. After the next
rebound, it will rise to
1. 1 m
2. 0.5 m
3. 0.25 m
4. 0.125 m

Page: 27
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

189. Two concentric metallic spheres, surface 192. If the temperature (in ∘ C) of a blackbody is
areas A1 , A2 and separation d, have a increased 2-fold, then the rate of radiation from
capacitance C0 . If a parallel plate capacitor is the body will become:
built with the same separation d, and has the 1. 16-fold
same capacitance C0 then its plate area will be 2. 4-fold
A +A
1.
1 2
3. less than 16-fold
2

2. √A A 4. more than 16-fold

1 2

2A1 A2
3. A1 +A2

A A
2 2
193. A simple pendulum is taken into an
4.
1 2

A +A
1 2 elevator that is moving up with an acceleration
equal to g. If its time period was T before, the
190. An ammeter having a resistance of 0.1 Ω new time period will be
can measure a maximum current of 2 A. To 1. 2T
convert it into a voltmeter that can measure 2. √2T
upto 50 V, one must add: T
3. 2
4.
T
1. a resistance of 25 Ω in series √2
1
2. a resistance of 25
Ω in series
3. a resistance of 25 Ω in parallel 194. A parallel beam of light of wavelength λ is
1
incident normally on a single slit of width d,
4. a resistance of 25 Ω in parallel and a pattern of maxima and minima are
observed on a screen placed far behind the slit.
The first minimum (nearest to the central
191. Take the breakdown voltage of the zener maximum) is formed at an angle θ, where
diode used in the given circuit as 6 V. For the sinθ =
input voltage shown in figure below, the time 1. λ
variation of the output voltage is: (Graphs d
λ

drawn are schematic and not to scale) 2. 2d

2λ
3.
d
λ
4. 4d

195. When sound waves produced under water

emerge into the air, then:
1. 2.
the frequency increases, and wavelength
1.
decreases.
the frequency remains constant, but the
2.
wavelength decreases.
3. 4.
the frequency decreases, wavelength
3.
remains constant.
the frequency remains constant but the
4.
wavelength increases.

Page: 28
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

196. The voltage drop across a silicon diode (D) 199. Two smooth balls A, B of radius 10 cm
which is in forward bias and conducting a each are placed in a cylinder of diameter
small current is approximately 0.7 V. Which, of 30 cm, as shown. The upper ball (A) has a mass
the following sources, will deliver a voltage of of 2 kg, while the lower ball (B) has a mass of
3 V? 4 kg. The system is at rest. Let the force exerted

on the ball A by the cylinder be F1 along the

horizontal (as shown) and that on the ball B,
along the horizontal be F2 (as shown). Then
1. 2.

3. 4.

1. F1 < F2

2. F1 = F2

3. F1 > F2
197. Water flows from a small hole at the
bottom of a rectangular tank at 10 m/s after it the relationship between F1 and F2 depends
4.
had been filled for 20 min. For how much time on the mass of the cylinder
should the empty tank be filled at the same rate
so that the speed of efflux is doubled? (i.e. it
becomes 20 m/s) 200. Two convex lenses (L1 , L2 ) of focal
1. 40 min lengths, 20 cm (L1 ) and 40 cm (L2 ), are placed
2. 80 min co-axially at a separation of 60 cm. If a parallel
3. 160 min beam of light is incident on L1 , the emerging
4. 320 min beam from L2
1. is parallel but wider.
198. The circuit shown in the figure has ideal 2. is parallel but narrower.
batteries wired up along with the resistances.
3. is convergent.
4. is divergent.

The power dissipated in the resistances in the

circuit is:
1. 12 J/s
2. 9 J/s
3. 8 J/s
4. 5.5 J/s

Page: 29
 High Yield Test #18 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

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