Nda Polity
Nda Polity
INDIAN POLITY
The polity section has been given vital role to play in the NDA examination. Around 8-10 questions are
asked from this section. From the executive section questions are asked from the topics like President,
Prime Minister and Council of Minister.
The legislative portion of polity has been emphasised a lot. Questions have been asked from Parliament,
State Legislature, proceedings of Parliament etc. From the judiciary portion questions are asked from the
topics like Supreme Court, High Court, Lok Adalat etc. Apart from these, some of the important articles
of the Constitution, fundamental duties, important schedules have been asked.
• On 11th December, 1946 Dr Rajendra Prasad was • From USA (i) Written Constitution, (ii) Post of
elected as the permanent President of the Vice-President, (iii) Fundamental Rights, (iv) Supreme Court,
Constitutional Assembly. It took almost three (v) Head of the State known as President, (vi) Provision of
years (two years eleven months and eighteen days) States and (vii) Judicial Review.
to complete its historic task of drafting the • From France Republic and ideals of liberty, equality and
Constitution for Independent India. faternity.
• On 29th August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly • From Australia (i) Concurrent List, (ii) Centre-State
set-up a Drafting Committee under the Relationship and (iii) Joint sitting of two House of Parliament.
Chairmanship of Dr BR Ambedkar to prepare a • From USSR (i) Fundamental Duties and (ii) Ideals of justice
Draft Constitution for India. (Social, Economical and Political) in the preamble.
• From Germany Suspension of Fundamental Rights during
Enactment and Enforcement emergency.
• From Japan Procedure established by law.
of the Constitution • From Canada Federal system and Residuary power with
• The Constitution of India was adopted on strong centre and advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
26th November, 1949 and the honourable • From South Africa Procedure of Constitutional Amendment
members appended their signatures to it on that and election of member of Rajya Sabha.
day. In all, 284 members actually signed the • From Ireland Concept of Directive Principles of State Policy
Constitution. 26th November, 1949 is also (originally, it was borrowed from Spain). Mode of election of
mentioned in the Preamble as the date on which President and nomination of members to Rajya Sabha.
the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to
themselves the Constitution. Characteristics of Indian Constitution
• The Constitution came into force on 26th January,
The salient features of Indian Constitution are as follow
1950 was specifically chosen as the date of
i. The lengthiest Constitution in the world
commencement of the Constitution because on
this day in 1930, the Poorna Swaraj day was ii. Universal Adult Franchise
celebrated. iii. Blend of rigidity and flexibility
iv. Parliamentary Government
Constitution Committees and their Chairmen v. Independent judiciary
S.Nos. Major Committees Chairmen vi. Federal system with unitary features
1. Drafting Committee Dr BR Ambedkar vii. Secular state
viii. Single citizenship
2. Union Power Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
ix. Single Constitution
3. Union Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
x. Division of power between Centre and States
4. Provincial Constitution Sardar Patel xi. Emergency provisions
Committee
xii. Single judiciary
5. Advisory Committee on Sardar Patel
Fundamental Rights and xiii. Power of Parliament to Amend Constitution
Minorities, tribal affairs xiv. Independent bodies like- CAG election commission.
6. Rules of Procedure Committee Dr Rajendra Prasad
Difference between Unitary and Federal Constitution
7. States Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
Unitary Constitution Federal Constitution
8. Steering Committee Dr Rajendra Prasad
1. Single citizenship 1. Dual citizenship
9. Special Committee to examine Sir Alladi Krishna
2. Single Constitution 2. Dual Constitution
the Draft Constitution Swamy lyer
3. Power of union to override on the 3. Division of power between Centre
state matters and States
Borrowed Features 4. Change in the names and boundaries 4. Change in the names and
of the State by the Parliament boundaries of the state by the
• From UK (England) (i) Parliamentary System, Conference of the state.
(ii) Lower House more powerful, (iii) Prime 5. Integrated judiciary 5. Dual judiciary
Minister, (iv) Cabinet System of Ministers, 6. No units have rights to succeed from 6. Units have the right to separate
(v) Single Citizenship, (vi) Bicameral Parliament, centre from centre
(vii) Provision of Speaker in Lok Sabha, (viii) 7. Dependence of state on the centre for 7. Residual power given to states
Council of Ministers responsible to Lower House, economic assistance and grants
(ix) Nominal Head—President. 8. Britain has unitary Constitution 8. US Constitution is a Federal
Constitution
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 989
Third Schedule Forms of Oaths and Affirmations. ✦ Part-X (Articles 244, 244A) Deals with Scheduled and Tribal Areas.
• Article 5 Citizenship at the commencement of the • The Act also introduces a new provision which allows
Constitution. the Central Government to register a person as an
• Article 6 Rights of Citizenship of certain persons who overseas citizen of India cardholder even, if she does not
have migrated to India from Pakistan. satisfy any of the listed qualifications, if special case
exists.
• Article 7 Rights of Citizenship of certain migrants to
• The Act provides for merger of overseas citizen of India
Pakistan.
and persons of Indian origin scheme. Thus, the Central
• Article 8 Rights of Citizenship of certain persons of Government may notify that persons of Indian origin
Indian origin residing outside India. cardholders shall be considered to be overseas citizen of
• Article 9 Persons voluntarily acquiring Citizenship of a India cardholders from a specified date.
Foreign State not to be citizens. • The Act also allows Central Government to cancel the
• Article 10 Continuance of the Rights of Citizenship. overseas citizenship of India card where it is obtained by
• Article 11 Parliament to regulate the Right of the spouse of an Indian citizen or overseas citizen of
Citizenship by Law. India cardholder if
– marriage is dissolved by a court or
– the spouse enters into another marriage even while the
Acquisition and Termination of first marriage has not been dissolved.
Citizenship
• Rules regarding acquisition and termination of Indian Overseas Citizen of India
citizenship have been laid down in the Citizenship Act Government of India recognises those person and provide
of 1955. A person can acquire citizenship of India in five them overseas citizen of India card
ways;
i. who have following credentials are now citizen of
– (BRAND) B-by birth, R-by registration, A-by
another country but was citizen of India at time of or
acquisition of territory, N-by naturalisation and D-by at any time after commencement of Constitution,
descent. ii. who were citizen of other country but were eligible to
Termination of citizenship can be terminated in three ways become citizen of India at time of commencement of
i. It can be voluntarily renounced by a citizen. Constitution,
ii. It can be terminated, if a person acquires citizenship iii. who is citizen of another country but belonged to a
of some other country. territory that became part of India and
iii. The Central Government can deprive a naturalised iv. child/grand child/great grand child of the above such
citizen, if it is satisfied that the citizenship was citizens. Person of Pakistan and Bangladesh can’t get
acquired by fraud, false representation or concealment an OCI. Recently, government has merged people of
Indian origin card with overseas citizen card.
of material facts or if the person shows disloyalty
towards the Indian Constitution or indulges in trade
with enemy countries or if the person has been
Non-Resident Indian
sentenced to imprisonment for a period of 2 years or A citizen of India, having Indian passport and staying
more within 5 years of his registration or if he has temporarily in another country for purpose of
been continuously residing out of India for more than employment, education for more than 6 months.
7 years.
• Article 11 Under this Article, Parliament has the power Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas
to enact laws regarding citizenship. It has the power to • It is celebrated on 9th January every year to recognise
regulate the right of citizenship in India. contribution of overseas Indian community in the
development of India. 9th January is selected because on
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, this date, Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South
Africa.
2015 • This celebration provide opportunity to overseas citizen
to interact with government and people of their
The Act seeks to amend Citizenship Act, 1955. The major homeland. Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas (PBD) started from
provisions of the Act are as follow year 2003.
• In case of citizenship by naturalisation, the Act allows • The 14th Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas was held on 9th
the Central Government to relax the requirement of 12 January, 2016 in New Delhi. The event was attended by
months stay or in service of government, if special Priti Patel, MOS for Employment, United Kingdom. It
circumstances exist. Relaxation upto 30 days may be was the first limited edition of the PBD. It was
permitted. organised for the first time by the Ministry of External
• The Act provides certain additional grounds for Affairs (MEA) after the government’s decision to merge
registering an overseas citizen of India card. Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs (MOIA) with it.
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Right to Information
• Right to information has been granted to every citizen
Gandhian Principles
of Indian under RTI Act, 2005 which came into force on • Article 40 The establishment of Village Panchayats and
12th October, 2005. make them powerful enough to function as a units of
• It is not a Fundamental Right, it entails a clause for self-government.
penalty in case of delay in giving information to the • Article 43 To promote cottage industries.
applicant. • Article 43 B The promotion of co-operative societies.
• Information Commission has been set-up at central and
• Article 46 The promotion of educational and economic
state levels to oversee the implementation of the act. interest of weaker sections.
• Article 47 The prohibition of intoxicating drugs and
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF drinks.
• Article 48 Prevention of the slaughter of cows and
STATE POLICY other milk cattle.
• Dr BR Ambedkar described the DPSPs as ‘novel feature of
the Constitution’. DPSPs are constitutional instructions or Liberal Principles
guidelines to state in the legislative, executive and • Article 44 A Uniform civil code.
administrative affairs. It provides the social and economic
base of a genuine democracy.
• Article 45 Provision for free and compulsory education
for children.
• The Constitution does not contain any classification of
directive principles. However, on the basis of their • Article 48 Organisation of agriculture and animal
content and direction, they can be classified into three husbandry.
broad categories; socialistic, Gandhian and liberal. • Article 48 A Protection and improvement of
environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
Socio-Economic or Socialist • Article 49 Protection of monuments and places and
objects of national importance.
Principles • Article 50 Separation of judiciary from executive.
• Article 38 To secure a social order which stands for the • Article 51 Promotion of International Peace and
welfare of the people.
Security.
• Article 39 The state shall direct its policy towards
securing equal access Difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive
– to provide adequate means of livelihood.
Principles of State Policy
– to prevent concentration in wealth and means of Directive Principles of State
Fundamental Rights
wealth and material resources. Policy
– to secure equal pay for equal work for both men and The democratic political system The economic welfare of the state
women. has been established by providing is established by the
the FRs. implementation of the DPSPs.
– to provide necessary opportunities and facilities to
children and youth to prevent their exploitation. FRs are subject to court of law at While DPSPs are not enforceable
any point of time if anybody feels by the court of law.
• Article 41 To make efforts to secure the right to work, that his FR are being violated.
education and public assistance in case of FRs can be suspended except the DPSP can never be suspended
unemployment, sickness, old age etc. right mentioned in Articles 20 and under any condition.
22 during emergency.
• Article 42 Provision for just and humane condition of
work and maternity relief. FRS are assumed negatively. DPSP are always affirmative
Sometimes, because of their because they direct the states for
• Article 43 To ensure a decent standard of living, and restrictive attitudes towards the definite activity.
social and cultural opportunities for all workers. states.
• Article 43 A Securing the participation of workers in the The Fundamental Rights are a bit While, the scope of Directive
management of industries. limited in its scope. Principle of State policy is endless.
In DPSP, the political administrative,
• Article 47 Duty of the State to raise the level of economic and subjects like
nutrition and the standard of living and to improve international peace are also
public health. included.
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xi. for every citizen who is a parent or guardian, to provide – Only Supreme Court enquires all disputes
opportunities for education to his child or as the case may be, regarding presidential election.
ward between the age of 6 and 14 years. – President takes oath in presence of Chief
• The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by 86th Constitution Justice of India and in his absence, the
Amendment in 2002. seniormost judge of Supreme Court
administers oath to the President.
Term of Office and Vacancy (Article 62) • Laying down some reports at the
floor of the Parliament.
Emolument • In the case of vacant seat due to any
reason e.g. death, resignation or removal • Prior consent on some bills. (e.g.,
• Tenure 5 years (Article 56) then the Vice-President acts as the Money Bill)
• Article 57 There is no limit, as President, if he is not available then • Any bill becomes law only after
to how many times a person Chief Justice of India, if not then the assent of President.
can become President. seniormost Judge of Supreme Court.
• He can give his resignation to • The election is to be held within 6 Ordinance Making Power
the Vice-President before the months for the vacancy. of President
full term completes.
Article 123 of the Constitution
• The President may be removed Powers and Functions empower the President to
from office before the expiry fromulgate ordinances during the
of his tenure through a special
(Article 77)
recess of Parliament. These
procedure called impeachment. • The President has a very important role. ordinance have the same force and
He has vast powers to be exercised effect as and act of Parliament but
Qualifications during normal time as well as in are in the nature of temporary laws.
• Article 58 deals with the emergency period.
qualification of a person to be • These powers however are actually Veto Power
the President of India. exercised by the Prime Minister and the President have three types of veto
Council of Ministers.
• Must be a citizen of India. power (Article-111)
• Should have completed the age Executive Powers of President i. Absolute veto
of 35 years. • He appoints Prime Minister who enjoys ii. Suspensive veto
• Should not hold any office of the support of the majority in the Lok iii. Pocket veto
profit under the government. Sabha, appoints the members for the President can also veto bills of State
He should be qualified to Council of Ministers and distributes
• Legislature which are sent for his
become a member of the portfolios among them on the advice of
the Prime Minister. approval. President cannot return
Lok Sabha. Money Bill and constitutional
• He appoints Chief Justice and judges of
amendments cannot be vetoed.
Impeachment Supreme Court and High Court,
Chairman and Members of UPSC, CAG,
• Article 61 The President can Attorney General, Chief Election Financial Powers
be impeached only on the Commissioner and other members of All Money Bills can originate in
ground of violation of the Election Commission, Governors,
Constitution. Parliament only on the
members of Finance Commission, recommendation of the President.
• The process may start from Ambassadors etc.
Appointment of Finance
any house of the Parliament. • He can seek any information relating to
Commissioner every 5th year.
• The charges are contained in a the administration of affairs of the Union
notice which has to be signed and the proposal for legislation from the
Prime Minister.
Diplomatic Powers
by at least one-fourth of the
All kinds of international treaties
total members of that houses
Legislative Powers and agreements concluded on his
14 days notice is sent to the behalf.
President. The President of India is an integral part of
• He represents country on the
• A resolution to impeach the the Parliament. Though legislation is the
international forum.
President has to be passed by a primary responsibility of Parliament, the
President has the right to influence the • He sends ambassadors and
two-third majority of the total
members of that house. It is legislative process in following ways receives diplomats.
then sent to the other house • The dissolution and prorogation of
which investigates this charges. Military Powers
Parliament.
The President has the right to • He is the Supreme Commander of
• Right of President to address and send
defend himself through an armed forces.
authorised council. If the messages to both the houses.
• He appoints the chiefs of army,
second house also approves the • Nomination of the Members of
navy and airforce staff.
charges by a two-third Parliament (12 members to Rajya Sabha
• He declares wars and conclude
majority, the President is and 2 members from Anglo-Indian
peace.
removed from the office. Community in Lok Sabha).
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Salary
THE JUDICIARY • Salary is given from consolidated fund which is not
• We have an integrated judicial set-up (taken from 1953 deducted (except during financial emergency).
Government of India Act) in our country. The • Chief Justice’s salary ` 1 lakh.
Constitution of India is the supreme legal document.
• It’s Part V and Part VI dealing with Union and State Independence of Judges
Governments respectively. • Decisions and actions of judges cannot be criticised.
• Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial • Any type of conduct of judges cannot be discussed in
system with the Supreme Court at the top. Parliament except in the case of removal.
• Judiciary is independent of other two organs of the state • Chief Justice of India is appointed on seniority basis.
i.e., executive and legislature.
• Judiciary is a part of the democratic structure of the Jurisdiction
country. It is therefore, democratic traditions and to the
people of the country. The functions and responsibilities of the Supreme Court
are defined by the Constitution.
The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be categorised as
SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
• It is the highest court of justice in India. Having one
Original Jurisdiction
• Disputes between the Government of India and one or
Chief Justice + Not more than 30 other judges (after
Amendment, earlier 25). more states.
• The judges hold the office upto the age of 65 years. • Dispute between the Government of India and one or
more states on one side and one or more state on the
Qualifications other side.
• A citizen of India. • Disputes between two or more states (e . g., Kaveri water
dispute between Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and
• Any person who has been a judge of a High Court for 5
Puducherry).
years or an eminent jurist or has been a practising
advocate in High Court for 10 years. Public Interest Litigation
Functions SP Gupta vs Union of India Case, 1982, Supreme Court
held that any member of the public can approach the
• It has important power of judicial review.
courts for violation of Fundamental Rights of others, (who
• It hears certain appeals of civil and criminal cases from may not have sufficient resources to reach the courts), even
the High Court. through a post card, PN Bhagwati and VR Krishna Ayer
• It hears disputes between the Union Government and were the prominent justices to have laid down the
the states and between states. conditions for such appeals, popularly called PIL. But PILs
• It can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the must work for public interest alone.
Fundamental Rights conferred by the Constitution.
• It has advisory jurisdiction and it also functions as court
WRIT JURISDICTION
of record. For the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights
Habeas Corpus It implies that a person imprisoned or
Removal of a Judge detained by the law can enquire from the court of law, under
what authority he has been imprisoned or detained.
• A Judge of Supreme Court can only be removed from
Mandamus Literally means a ‘command’ issued by the
office by an order of the President after an address by court commanding a person or a public authority to do or
each House of Parliament supported by a majority of forbade to do something in the nature of public duty.
the total membership of the house and by a majority of Quo Warranto An order issued by the court to prevent a
not less than 2/3rd of the members present and voting person from holding office to which he is not entitled and to
on the ground on (i) proved misbehaviour and oust him from that office.
(ii) incapacity. Certiorari It is a writ, which orders the removal of a suit
• The Constitution of India has ensured that from an inferior court to superior court or to squash the
– they can be removed by Parliament (by complex
order of lower court.
Prohibition By a higher court to stop proceedings in a
procedure).
lower court on the ground of overstepping of jurisdiction or
– after retirement, they cannot practice in any Indian isolation of the rules of natural justice.
Court.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1003
Advisory Jurisdiction
(Article 143)
STATE GOVERNMENT
As the highest court in the country, the It deals with the government at state level, duties and functions of
Supreme Court can be consulted by the Chief Minister and his ministers, Governor, High Court Advocate
President on certain issues, if the President feels General of the State.
that an important legal question or fact of
public interest has come to him he can ask the The State Executive
Supreme Court for its advice. The Supreme The Governor and the Council of Ministers headed by the
Court in such cases would consider it and give Chief-Minister constitute the State Executive.
its opinion to the President, but such an
opinion is not binding on the President.
GOVERNOR
Appellate Jurisdiction Appointed by the President, on the advice of the Council of Ministers
Three types of appeal can be made to the headed by the Prime Minister. Same person can be appointed
Supreme Court, which are as follow Governor for more than one state.
(i) There can be an appeal against any decision
or order of a High Court, if the High Qualification
Court gives a certificate that it involves • Under Article 158, the Constitution lays down the following
some question of interpretation of the conditions for the Governors office
Constitution.
i. He must be citizen of India.
(ii) There can be an appeal against civil cases
decided by a High Court, if the High ii. He should be more than 35 years of age.
Court gives a certificate that the case iii. He should not be a member of either House of Parliament
involves a substantial question of law. and the State Legislature.
(iii) In respect of criminal cases too there can iv. He must not hold any government office of profit.
be an appeal to the Supreme Court. If a
High Court has on appeal reversed an Tenure
order of acquittal of an accused person and Constitution prescribes a 5 year term but it is subject to the pleasure
sentenced him to death or if by
of the President.
withdrawing a case from the lower court
to itself it has sentenced a person to death,
one can go for an appeal to Supreme
Power
Court. • Executive Powers Appoints the Council of Ministers (on the
advice of CM).
Revisory Jurisdiction (Article 137) • Appoints the Advocate General, the Chairman and members of the
The Supreme Court can review any judgement State Public Service Commission.
given by itself. The Supreme Court is also given • Acts as the representative of the President.
the power under our Constitution to transfer a
case that is being decided in any court and Legislative Powers
bring it to itself. If it feels that an important • He summons and prorogues the session of the State Legislative.
question of law is involved, Parliament can • He can dissolve the State Assembly before the expiry of its full
confer on the Supreme Court more powers by term.
passing a law. • He addresses the first session of the legislature after every election
and first session every year.
Election Jurisdiction • He can issue ordinances, appoints 1/6th members of Legislative
The Supreme Court has obligation to decide on Council on the advice of Chief Minister.
the disputes regarding the election of the • Nominates one member from the Anglo-Indian community (if not
President and the Vice-President. proper representative).
• Gives assent to the bills to make it a law.
Court of Record (Article 129)
All the decisions and proceedings of the The Governor has three alternative, which are as follow
Supreme Court are kept as records and are i. He can give his assent to the Bill.
quoted as precedents in the court. The court ii. He can return it (other than a Money Bill) for reconsideration,
can punish for its own contempt, if any one suggestion, alterations. But such bills when passed again, have to
does not abide by its decision. So, the Supreme be given assent.
Court is called a ‘Court of Record’. iii. He may reserve the Bill for the assent of the President.
1004 NDA/NA Pathfinder
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. The Constitution of India 9. Finance Commission is appointed 18. Who is the highest law officer of
borrowed the concept of the under Article the state?
Directive Principle of State (a) 270 (b) 280 (a) Attorney General
Policy from the Constitution of (c) 281 (d) 282 (b) Solicitor General
(a) USA (b) Ireland 10. Who presided as the temporary (c) Advocate General
(c) Canada (d) UK (d) Secretary General, Law Department
President of Constituent Assembly?
2. The Constitution of India was (a) Sachidanand Sinha 19. As a Vice-President how much
enacted by Constituent (b) Dr Rajendra Prasad salary is drawn by the
Assembly set-up (c) Dr BR Ambedkar Vice-President?
(a) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, (d) None of the above (a) ` 25000 (b) ` 40000
1946 11. Who followed Mr Sachidanand Sinha (c) ` 30000 (d) Nothing
(b) promulgation of the Rowlatt Act, on 11th December, 1946 to become the
1919 20. Which article of Indian
President of Constituent Assembly? Constitution prescribes Hindi in
(c) the Indian Council Act, 1892
(a) Mr Sachidanand Sinha Devnagari script as the official
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 (b) Dr Rajendra Prasad language of the union?
3. The High Court at Bombay, (c) Dr BR Ambedkar (a) Article 341 (b) Article 342
Calcutta and Madras were (d) None of the above (c) Article 343 (d) Article 344
established under the 12. Who was the first Speaker of Lok
(a) Indian High Court Act, 1861 21. Under which of the following
Sabha? circumstance, can the President
(b) Indian High Court Act, 1865
(a) P Upendra (b) Hukum Singh declare an emergency?
(c) Indian High Court Act, 1911
(c) GV Mavalankar (d) None of these
(d) None of the above 1. External aggression
13. Members of Council of Ministers 2. Internal disturbances
4. Which of the following is the
(Union) are collectively responsible to 3. Failure of the constitutional
source of ‘Satyameva Jayate’? (a) Lok Sabha
(a) Mundak Upanishad machinery in states
(b) Rajya Sabha 4. Financial crisis
(b) Rigved
(c) Election Commission
(c) Katho Upanishad Select the correct answer using the
(d) President
(d) None of the above codes given below.
14. Secularism means (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
5. The 10th Schedule of (a) suppression of all religions (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Constitution deals with the (b) freedom of worship in minorities
(a) Anti-defection Law (c) separation of religion from state
22. Which of the following emergencies
(b) related with 52nd Amendment (d) None of the above can be declared by the President
(c) All of the above on his own?
(d) None of the above 15. India is a Democratic Republic 1. Emergency on account of armed
because rebellion
6. Which one of the following
(a) there is independence of judiciary 2. Financial Emergency
articles of the directive
(b) the head of the state is elected by the 3. President’s Rule in a State
principles of state policy deals
people
with the promotion of Select the correct answer using the
(c) there is parliamentary supremacy
International peace and codes given below.
(d) there is distribution of power between
security? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3
centre and state
(a) 51 (b) 48 (A) (c) All of these (d) None of these
(c) 43 (A) (d) 41 16. In accordance with the provision of our
Constitution, All India Services can be 23. Consider the following statements
7. Who is called the father of regarding the President’s
Indian Constitution? created only by
(a) process of Amendment to the Ordinance making power
(a) Dr BR Ambedkar
Constitution 1. It can abridge the Fundamental
(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(b) Union Government in Constitution with Rights.
(c) Pt Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) None of the above the UPSC 2. Ordinance could be challenged
(c) Parliament on the ground of violating
8. Who was the first Chairman of (d) None of the above substantive provisions.
the Planning Commission? 3. The President is competent to
(a) Gulzari Lal Nanda 17. Which of the following states does not issue an ordinance amending
(b) JL Nehru have a Bicameral Legislative? the tax laws.
(c) CD Deshmukh (a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh
4. It is a parallel law making
(d) KC Niyogy (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
power with executive.
1010 NDA/NA Pathfinder
Select the correct answer using 2. Article 74 says that Prime 2. The Committee on Public Accounts
the codes given below. Minister shall be appointed by comprises Members of Lok Sabha,
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 the President. Members of Rajya Sabha and a
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these 3. The term of Prime Minister is few eminent persons of industry
not fixed and he holds office and trade.
24. It denotes awarding a lesser during the pleasure of the Which of the statement(s) given above
sentence in place of one originally President. is/are correct?
awarded due to some special fact. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Which of the statement(s) given
This is known as (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
above is/are correct?
(a) Pardon (b) Commutation
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 32. Which of the following are the
(c) Remission (d) Respite
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
provisions of Article 75 of the
25. Who among the following 29. Which one of the following Constitution?
President(s) was/were
statements are incorrect? 1. Ministers shall be appointed by
Vice-President of India?
1. The Prime Minister is the President on the advice of
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah appointed by the President, the Prime Minister.
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed other Minister is appointed by 2. The Council of Ministers shall be
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy the president. collectively responsible to the
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma 2. The Ministers of State are House of People.
Select the correct answer using members of the Cabinet and 3. The question whether any, and if
the codes given below. attend the meeting of the so what, advice was tendered by
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Cabinet of their own. ministers to the President shall be
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 3. Under our Constitution, there inquired into in any court.
is no bar to appointment of a 4. The salaries and allowances of
26. Which of the following is the
person from outside the ministers shall be determined by
required qualification for
Legislature as Minister. Parliament.
becoming Vice-President of India?
4. The salaries and allowance of Select the correct answer using the
1. Be a citizen of India
Ministers shall be such as codes given below.
2. Have completed 30 years of President may from time to (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
age time by law determine. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
3. Should not hold any office of
Select the correct answer using
profit 33. Consider the following statement(s)
the codes given below.
Which of the statements given with reference to the Union
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
above are correct? Government
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. The Constitution of India provides
(c) All of these (d) 1 and 3 30. Which one of the following that all cabinet ministers shall
statements are correct? compulsorily the sitting member of
27. Which of the following statements 1. The Prime Minister can Lok Sabha only.
about the Vice-President of India appoint any persons as
are not correct? 2. Union Cabinet Secretariat operates
ministers. under the direction of the Ministry
1. In order to be Vice-President a 2. The Prime Minister allocates of Parliamentary affairs.
person must be qualified for and reshuffles various
election as a member of the Which of the statement(s) given above
portfolios among the ministers.
House of the People. is/are correct?
3. The Prime Minister presides (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. A member of the State over the meeting of council of
Legislative Assembly can seek (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ministers and influences its
election to that office. decisions. 34. Identify the correct statement(s)
3. The term of the office of the 4. The Prime Minister can bring 1. Kitchen cabinet is an informal
Vice-President is the same as about the collapse of the body consisting of the Prime
that of the President. Council of Ministers by Minister and few of his influential
4. He can be removed through a resigning from office. colleagues.
formal impeachment. Select the correct answer using 2. Kitchen cabinet is composed of not
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. only cabinet ministers but also
the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 outsiders like friends and family
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 members of the Prime Minister.
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
31. Consider the following Which of the statement(s) given above
28. Consider the following statement(s) is/are correct?
statement(s) 1. The Chairman of the (a) Only 1
1. The Constitution contains Committee on Public Accounts (b) Only 2
specific procedure for the is appointed by the Speaker of (c) Both 1 and 2
selection and appointment of the Lok Sabha. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Prime Minister.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1011
35. A bill referred to a joint sitting of 3. After completing five years in 2. When the Speaker of a Legislative
the two houses of the Parliament office, the Governor cannot Assembly resigns, he addresses
is to be passed by continue to hold the office his letter to the Deputy-
(a) absolute majority of total membership even when his successor has Chairman of the Assembly.
(b) 3/4th majority not entered upon his office. Which of the statement(s) given
(c) 2/3rd majority 4. The executive power of the above is/are correct?
(d) a simple majority state is vested in the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
36. The Oath of office to the Governor Governor. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is administered by the Which of the statements given 47. The number of writs that can be
(a) Chief Justice of India above are correct? prayed for and issued by the
(b) President (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Supreme Court and a High Court is
(c) Chief Justice of High Court (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly 42. As regards Tax proceeds, the
48. India is a secular state, it is clearly
37. Consider the followng statements Constitution has
proclaimed in
1. The highest criminal court of (a) left the distribution to Finance
(a) Fundamental Right
the district-is the Court of Commission
(b) Preamble of the Constitution
District and Sesson Judge. (b) made a distribution favourable to
(c) Directive Principle of State Policy
2. The District Judges are the centre
(d) 9th Schedule of the Constitution
appointed by the Governor in (c) made a distribution favourable for
consultation with the High the state 49. Who holds the power of judicial
Courts. (d) made an equitable distribution review in India?
3. A person to be eligible for between centre and state (a) The Parliament
appointment as a District (b) The Minister of Law
Judge should be an advocate 43. The Legislative Council of a state
(c) The Supreme Court and the High
or a pleader of seven year’ 1. is subject to dissolution.
Court
standing or more, or an officer 2. can be abolished by the State
(d) Only Supreme Court
in judicial service of the Union Legislative Assembly.
or the State. Which of the statement(s) given 50. Consider the following statement(s)
4. When the Sessions Judge above is/are correct? with reference to states in India.
awards death sentence, it must (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Six months shall not intervene
be confirmed by the High (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 between the last sitting of the
Court before it is carried out. State Legislature and the first
Which of the statements given 44. Consider the following sitting of next session.
above are correct? statement(s) regarding Indian 2. After every general election to the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Polity State Assembly the Governor has
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these 1. In India, a State cannot have to address the State Assembly on
more than 525 members in its the very first sitting and so also
38. Who decides the number of judges Legislative Assembly.
in a High Court? the first session of every year.
2. To be a member of State
(a) State Government Which of the statement(s) given
Legislative Assembly, a citizen
(b) President above is/are correct?
must not be less than 25 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Parliament
years of age. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Chief Justice of India
Which of the statement(s) given
39. Which one of the following offices above is/are correct? 51. Who finally approves the draft of
is held during the pleasure of the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Five Year Plans?
President of India? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Parliament
(a) Vice-President (b) Planning Commission
(b) Chief Justice of India
45. A person who is arrested and (c) National Development Council
detained in police custody has to (d) All of the above
(c) Governor of a State
be produced before the nearest
(d) Chairman of UPSC 52. Identify the correct statements
magistrate
40. Which amendment bill proposed (a) immediately after arrest regarding Quo-Warranto
to grant statehood to Delhi? (b) within 12 hours 1. It is issued by the court to
(a) 71st (b) 72nd (c) 70th (d) 69th (c) within 24 hours enquire into the legality of claim
(d) within 48 hours of a person to a public office.
41. Consider the following statements
regarding the Governor of a State 46. Consider the following 2. It prevents illegal usurpation of
public office by a person.
in India statement(s)
3. It cannot be issued in case of
1. To be appointed as Governor, 1. If the Legislative Assembly of ministerial office or private office.
one should have completed the a State in India is dissolved
age of 45 years. in mid-term, the Speaker Which of the statements given above
2. The Governor holds the office continues in office till the are correct?
during the pleasure of the process of formation of next (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
President. Legislative Assembly. (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
1012 NDA/NA Pathfinder
53. Mandamus can be issued 57. Generally the President 62. The President can declare emergency
against appoint a person as Prime (a) by his own decision
1. the official administrative Minister who is the leader of (b) on the advice of Prime Minister (Council of
officials. (a) majority party in Parliament Ministers)
2. the private individuals. (b) majority party in Rajya Sabha (c) on the advice of Chief Minister
3. the foreigners. (c) majority party in Lok Sabha (d) None of the above
Which of the statement(s) given (d) all elected members of 63. Why is political power sharing through
above is/are correct? Parliament different levels of government desirable
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 58. The constituents of Indian in a democracy?
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 Parliament as mentioned in 1. It helps to reduce the possibility of
the Constitution are the conflict between various social groups.
54. To appoint the Judges of High
Court (except Chief Justice of (a) President, Lok Sabha and the 2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary
Council of Ministers decision-making.
the High Court) the President
consults with (b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 3. It prompts people’s participation at
(c) President, Vice-President and different levels of government.
1. Chief Justice of India
the two Houses of Parliament Select the correct answer using the codes
2. The Chief Justice of the
concerned High Court (d) President, Lok Sabha and given below.
Rajya Sabha (a) Only 3 (b) Only 2
3. Governor of the state
59. Who among the following (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
concerned
4. Chief Minister of the state became the Prime Minister of 64. Which of the following is correct about
concerned India without being earlier the the Fundamental Duties?
Which of the statement(s) given Chief Minister of a State? 1. They are not enforceable.
above is/are correct? 1. Morarji Desai 2. They are primarily moral duties.
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 2. Charan Singh 3. They are not related to any legal
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 3. VP Singh rights.
55. Consider the following 4. Chandrashekhar Select the correct answer using the codes
statement(s) 5. PV Narsimha Rao given below.
1. There is an explicit Select the correct answer (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Constitutional provision which (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
using the codes given below.
allows parliamentary (a) 1, 2 and 4 65. A proclamation of emergency issued under
legislation for the (b) 2, 3 and 5 Article 356 must be approved by the
implementation of (c) Only 2 Parliament within
international treaties. (d) Only 4 (a) 1 month (b) 6 months
2. The words socialist and (c) 2 months (d) 3 months
60. By whom are the committees
secular were added to the
Preamble by the 44th of Parliament appointed? 66. How many times was the financial
(a) President emergency imposed?
Constitutional Amendment
(b) Prime Minister (a) Once (b) Twice
Act, 1978.
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha/ (c) Many times (d) Not a single time
Which of the statement(s) given Speaker of Lok Sabha
above is/are correct? (d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 67. The only Union Territory which has a
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 court of its own is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 61. Which of these are (a) Andaman and Nicobar
qualifications for appointment (b) Delhi
56. Consider the following as a Judge of a High Court? (c) Lakshadweep
statement(s) regarding financial (d) Daman and Diu
1. He must be a citizen of
relations between Union and
India. 68. Which of the following states became
States
2. Must have held judicial 28th State of India?
1. Stamp duties on bills of
exchange are levied by the office in the Territory of (a) Uttarakhand (b) Chhattisgarh
union but collected and India for at atleast five (c) Jharkhand (d) Delhi
appropriated by the states. years.
69. Which of the following statement(s) about
2. Income tax and excise tax are 3. Must have been an advocate Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
taxes levied and collected by of a High Court or two or is incorrect?
the Union and distributed more such courts in (a) He is appointed by the President
between the Union and the succession for atleast 10 (b) He is removed from his office in the same
States. years. manner as that of a Supreme Court Judge
Select the correct answer using Which of the statements given (c) He may hold an office under the Union or
the codes given below. above are correct? a State Government apart from the office of
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 CAG
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (d) His salary is determined by the Parliament
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1013
70. Who is the ex-officio chairman of 77. The Constitution provides that 83. Which of the following states has the
Rajya Sabha? Hindi shall be largest representation in the Lok
(a) Chief Minister (b) President (a) the national language of India Sabha?
(c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President (b) the language of communication (a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh
between the State Government (c) Odisha (d) Madhya Pradesh
71. Match the following
(c) the official language of the Union
84. Eligibility for a regional party to be
List I List II of India
recognised as a national party is
A. Chief Election 1. Elected by Rajya (d) the communication language
(a) to be recognised in atleast
Commissioner Sabha between Union and State
3 states
B. Deputy Chairman 2. Elected by Lok 78. The Indian Parliament can (b) to be recognised in atleast
of Rajya Sabha Sabha
invade a State List, if 4 states
C. Chairman of the 3. Appointed by (c) to get 1/10th of the seats of
PAC Speaker
1. a subject in the State List
assumes of national Lok Sabha
D. Chairman of the 4. Appointed by the
Lok Sabha President importance. (d) to get 1/10th seats of Parliament
2. a proclamation of emergency 85. The Constitution of India does not
Codes has been issued by the
A B C D A B C D
mention the post of
President of India. (a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 2 1 3. the Supreme Court authorises (b) The Deputy Prime Minister
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 the Parliament to do so. (c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
72. The President gives his Which of the statement(s) given (d) Deputy Speaker of State Legislature
resignation to the above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 86. The first woman Governor of a state
(a) Vice-President of free India was
(b) Prime Minister (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Chief Justice 79. What is zero hour? (b) Sucheta Kriplani
(d) Chairman of Lok Sabha (a) When matter of utmost importance (c) Indira Gandhi
73. Match the following are raised without prior notice (d) Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
(b) When a Money Bill is introduced in
List I List II Lok Sabha 87. Under the Constitution, the
(c) When session became zero residuary power vests with
A. Uttarakhand 1. 25th State
(d) At 12’o clock (a) President
B. Chhattisgarh 2. 26th State
(b) Supreme Court
C. Jharkhand 3. 27th State 80. Who among the following has the (c) Union Government
D. Goa 4. 28th State final power to maintain order (d) State Government
Codes with in the House of People?
(a) Speaker
88. The President of India is elected by
A B C D A B C D an electoral college having
(b) Chief of security staff
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (a) elected members of both Houses of
(c) Prime Minister
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 3 2 4 1 (d) President Parliament and State Assemblies
(b) elected Members of Parliament
74. Which of the following was 81. Who presides over the Lok Sabha (c) elected Members of State Assemblies
adopted from the Mauryan if neither Speaker nor the Deputy (d) None of the above
dynasty in the emblem of Speaker is available
Government of India? (a) the seniormost member of Rajya
89. The Panchayati Raj Institution
(a) Four Lions Sabha depends for funds mainly on
(b) Chariot Wheel (b) the seniormost member of Lok (a) local taxes
(c) Horse Sabha (b) property tax
(d) Words Satyameva Jayate (c) the Prime Minister (c) government finances
(d) special taxes
75. Which of the following rights was (d) None of the above
described by Dr BR Ambedkar as, 82. Which is not correct regarding a 90. Which of the following is a source of
‘The heart and soul of the Money Bill? income of the Gram Panchayat?
Constitution’? (a) Income tax (b) Sales tax
(a) It requires the prior approval of the
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion (c) Professional tax (d) Levy duties
President
(b) Right to Property (b) It is deemed to have been passed 91. Balwant Rai Mehta suggested the
(c) Right to Equality by both the houses if it is not structure of Panchayati Raj should
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies returned by the Rajya Sabha within consist of
76. When did the first linguistic State 14 days (a) the village, block and the district level
of Andhra come into existence? (c) It can be passed by the Lok (b) the mandal and the district level
(a) 2nd October, 1953 Sabha even if the Rajya Sabha
(c) the village, the district and the state
(b) 1st October, 1953 rejects it
level
(c) 1st April, 1953 (d) It can be introduced in either
(d) the village, the mandal, the district and
(d) 5th January, 1953 House of Parliament
the state level
1014 NDA/NA Pathfinder
92. Match the following (c) The President of India on the advice of 103. Who among the following was
the Prime Minister the President of the Constituent
List I List II (d) The Chief Election Commissioner
Assembly which drafted the
A. Mandamus 1. Direction to an
official for the
97. Match the following Constitution of the Indian
performance of duty List I List II Republic?
B. Habeas 2. Release of an illegal (a) Dr BR Ambedkar
Corpus detained person A. Andhra Pradesh 1. 1953 (b) Liaqat Ali Khan
C. Certiorari 3. Tansfering of a case B. Gujarat 2. 1960 (c) Dr Radhakrishnan
from an inferior court C. Haryana 3. 1963 (d) Dr Rajendra Prasad
to a court of higher D. Nagaland 4. 1966
jurisdiction 104. Who wrote the objectives
D. Quo Warranto 4. Calling upon one to Codes resolution, that later became
show by what A B C D A B C D the Preamble to our
authority he holds or
claims a franchise or (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 Constitution?
office (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 2 4 3 (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(b) Pt Jawahar Lal Nehru
Codes 98. Which one of the following is not a
(c) Dr BR Ambedkar
A B C D A B C D type of relationship specified by the
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 Indian Constitution between the
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 Centre and the States? 105. Which of the following is a
(a) Legislative discretionary function available
93. Match the following (b) Financial only to the Governor of a State?
List I List II (c) Judicial (a) Appointing a new Chief Minister
(d) Administrative when no single party or leader
A. Form of oath 1. Ist Schedule
affirmation 99. Which one of the following is not commands majority support
B. Provision for 2. 3rd Schedule within the duties of the Planning (b) Dissolution of the assembly
Scheduled Tribes Commission? when advised by Chief Minister
and Areas on losing majority
(a) To define the stages of growth and
C. List of States and 3. 4th Schedule suggest allocation of resources (c) Advising the President of the
Union Territories failure of the constitutional
(b) To make an assessment of the
D. Allocation of seats 4. 5th Schedule machinery and to impose
in Rajya Sabha
material, capital and human resources
of the country President’s rule
Codes (c) To determine the nature of machinery (d) All of the above
A B C D A B C D required for implementation of plan
106. Who among the following do not
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 proposal
(d) to prepare the annual central budget
participate in the elections to
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
the President?
94. Consider the following 100. The maximum strength of Lok (a) Elected members of Lok Sabha
1. Planning Commission Sabha envisaged by the and Rajya Sabha
2. National Development Constitution is now (b) Elected members of Legislative
Council (a) 552 (b) 548 (c) 545 (d) 542 Assemblies of States
3. Indian Parliament 101. The Finance Commission derives its (c) Elected members of Legislative
4. Finance Commission authority from the Assemblies of Puducherry and
Those associated with the (a) Parliament (b) President Delhi
planning process in India include (c) Constitution (d) Supreme Court (d) Nominated members of Rajya
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Sabha
102. Which one of the following
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
statement(s) is correct, with 107. 9th Schedule to the
95. Expert legal advice to the reference to the passage of Money Constitution was added by ……
Government of India is tendered Bill in Indian Parliament? Amendment.
by the (a) The decision of the Union Finance (a) 36th
(a) Attorney General of India Minister is final on the question (b) 82nd
(b) Chief Justice of India whether a bill is Money Bill or not (c) 42nd
(c) Chairman, Law Commission (b) A Money Bill can be introduced only (d) 1st
(d) Minister for Law Justice and in the Lok Sabha
Company Affairs in the Union (c) After a Money Bill is passed by Lok
108. Joint Parliamentary sessions in
Cabinet Sabha and transmitted to Rajya India are chaired by the
Sabha, it should be returned within (a) President of India
96. Who is empowered by the one month (b) Vice-President of India, who is
Constitution to dissolve the Lok the Chairman of the Rajya
(d) When Rajya Sabha returns the
Sabha before the expiry of its Sabha
Money Bill with its recommendations,
term? the Lok Sabha has to accept such (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) The Prime Minister recommendations (d) Prime Minister of India
(b) The President
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1015
109. Which among the following 113. Right to Information in India 120. Who can initiate impeachment
statement(s) with respect to the is a proceedings against the President of
Comptroller and Auditor General (a) Fundamental Right India?
of India is/are correct? (b) Legal Right (a) Only Lok Sabha
1. The procedure and grounds (c) All of the above (b) Only Rajya Sabha
for his removal from the (d) None of the above (c) Either House of the Parliament
office are the same as of a 114. Which one of the following (d) Any Legislative Assembly
Judge of Supreme Court. pairs is not correctly matched? 121. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can
2. He prescribes the form in (a) Power of : Creating a new resign his office by addressing his
which accounts of the Union Parliament state
and the States are to be resignation to
(b) Power of State : Altering the
kept. Legislature name of a state (a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using (c) Equality before : Both Indian and
the codes given below. the law non-Indian (c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok
citizens Sabha
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Equality of : Indian citizen (d) the Chief Justice of India
opportunity
110. In which among the following 122. Which among the following is an
cases the joint session of both the 115. The Government Bill means a extra constitutional growth in
Houses of Parliament can be bill introduced by a Indian democracy?
summoned? (a) Member of the treasury bench (a) Attorney General of India
in the Lok Sabha (b) Autonomous districts
1. To amend the Constitution.
(b) Member of the Parliament who (c) Political parties
2. When a bill has been is not a Minister
pending with one house for (d) Deputy Chairman of the Council of
(c) Minister in the Lok Sabha States
more than six months after
(d) Minister in any House of the
it was passed by the other. 123. Consider the following statement(s)
Parliament
3. When both the houses 1. Report of the Administrative
disagree on the amendments 116. The Legislative Council in a
Reforms Commission headed by
to be made in a bill. state in India can be created or late Morarji Desai,
4. When a bill is passed by abolished by the recommended the establishment
one house and is rejected by (a) Parliament on the of Lokpal and Lokayukta
the other. recommendation of a Governor institutions.
Select the correct answer using of the State
(b) Parliament alone
2. Lokpal is the highest institution
the codes given below. in India to investigate
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Parliament after the State
Assembly passes the resolution
corruption at higher places in
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 government.
to that effect
111. When an Ordinary Bill is (d) Governor of the State on the Which of the statement(s) given
referred to a joint sitting of both recommendation of the Council above is/are correct?
the Houses of Indian Parliament, of Ministers (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
it has to be passed by a 117. Areawise, which one of the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) simple majority of the total
following is the largest Lok 124. Which one of the following theories
number of members of both the
houses present and voting Sabha constituency? of communism is not a doctrine of
(a) Kutch (b) Kangra Karl Marx?
(b) two-third majority of the total
number of members of both the (c) Ladakh (d) Patna Sahib (a) Dialetical materialism
houses (b) Historical materialism
118. Freedom of the press in India
(c) simple majority of the total (c) Class struggle
is (d) Theory of new democracy
number of members of both the (a) available to the people under
houses the law of the Parliament 125. Which among the following is the
(d) two-third majority of the houses (b) specifically provided in the exclusive jurisdiction of the State
present and voting Constitution Government?
112. Which one among the following (c) implied in the Right of (a) Customs duty (b) Corporation tax
features of the Constitution of Freedom of Expression (c) Sales tax (d) Income tax
India is indicative of the fact that (d) available to the people of India 126. The idea of including the suspension
the real executive power is vested under executive order of Fundamental Rights during
in the Council of Ministers 119. The highest body that approves emergency in the Constitution of
headed by the Prime Minister? Five Year Plans in India was India has been borrowed from the
(a) Federalism (a) Planning Commission (a) Constitution of Canada
(b) Representative Legislature (b) National Development Council (b) Weimar Constitution of Germany
(c) Universal Adult Franchise (c) Interstate Council (c) Constitution of Ireland
(d) Parliamentary Democracy (d) Union Cabinet (d) Constitution of the USA
1016 NDA/NA Pathfinder
127. Who among the following was 133. Which of the following is not a 139. The Preamble of our
the advisor of the Drafting Fundamental Right? Constitution reads: India is a
Committee of the Constituent (a) Right to constitutional remedies (a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular,
Assembly? Democratic Republic
(b) Right to education from age 6 to 14
(a) B Shiva Rao years (b) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist,
(b) Dr BR Ambedkar Secular Republic
(c) Right of information
(c) Sachidanand Sinha (c) Socialist, Democratic, Secular
(d) Right of minorities to establish and Republic
(d) BN Rao administer educational institutions
(d) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular,
128. The instrument of instructions 134. Who among the following were the Socialist Republic
on the Government of India Act,
members of the drafting committee 140. Indian citizenship is lost when
1935 has been incorporated in
of the Constitution? (a) A person acquires a foreign
the Constitution of India in the
1. KM Munshi citizenship
year 1950 as
2. Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) The person renounces the
(a) Fundamental Rights
citizenship
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar (c) The government deprives a
(c) Fundamental Duties 4. Sardar Patel person of citizenship for some
(d) Emergency Provisions Select the correct answer using the cause
129. The entry ‘Public Health and codes given below. (d) In all the above cases
Sanitation’ is included in the (a) 1, 3 and 4 141. The Preventive Detention Act
Constitution of India in (b) 1 and 4 has a restraining effect on
(a) Union List (c) 1 and 3 (a) Right to Equality
(b) State List (d) 2, 3 and 4 (b) Right to Freedom
(c) Concurrent List 135. In which of the following points is (c) Right to Religion
(d) None of the above (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
the Indian Constitution similar to
130. Who was the first Chief that of USA? 142. Fundamental Rights guaranteed
Election Commissioner (CEC) of (a) Rule of law in the Indian Constitution can
India? (b) Fundamental Rights be suspended only by
(a) Sukumar Sen (c) DPSP (a) a proclamation of national
(b) BO Jatti (d) Rigid Constitution emergency
(c) KVK Sundaram (b) an act passed by Parliament
(d) T Swaminathan
136. Regarding India’s Constitution, we
may say it is (c) an amendment of the
131. Part XVI of Indian Constitution (a) more rigid than flexible Constitution
deals with (b) very rigid (d) the judicial decisions of the
(a) the official languages and (c) more flexible than rigid 143. The Fundamental Duties of a
promotion of Hindi as well as (d) blend of rigidity and flexibility citizen include
mother tongues atleast in
primary education 137. The Constituent Assembly met for 1. Respect for the Constitution,
the first time on the National Flag and the
(b) exemption of criminal
proceeding for their official acts (a) 9th December, 1946 National Anthem.
of President and Governors (b) 9th December, 1947 2. To develop the scientific
(c) the provision for quota of seats (c) 9th December, 1948 temper.
in Parliament for SCs, STs (d) 9th December, 1949 3. Respect for the government.
representatives 4. To protect wildlife.
138. A National Emergency remains in
(d) constitutional amendment
operations, with the approval of the Which of the statements given
132. Article 267 of the Constitution Parliament for above are correct?
of India deals with (a) a maximum period of three years (a) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Contingency Fund of India (b) a maximum period of one year (b) 1 and 4
(b) Consolidated Fund of India (c) a maximum period of six months (c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Public Account (d) an indefinite period (d) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Finance Commission
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity
QUESTIONS FROM
NDA/NA EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) President of International Court 3. the principles that will determine
of Justice. grant-in-aid to the Panchayats.
1. Which of the statement(s) given
2. Justice Bhandari was a senior Which of the statement(s) given
below is/are correct?
judge of the Supreme Court of above is/are correct?
1. The Speaker immediately
India. (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
vacates his/her office whenever
the State Legislative Assembly Which of the statement(s) given (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
is dissolved. above is/are correct? 8. Which of the following statement(s)
2. No member of a State (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
regarding the Preamble of the
Legislative Assembly shall be (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution of India is/are correct?
liable to any proceeding in 6. Suppose, the naxalites have
any court in respect of 1. The Preamble is an integral part
kidnapped a Deputy Commissioner of the Constitution.
anything said or any vote
given by him/her in the from Baster region in Chhattisgarh 2. The words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’
legislature. and taken him to the Abujmad have been a part of the Preamble
area. In return for his release, the since its inception.
Select the correct answer using Naxals demand that all naxal
the codes given below. Select the correct answer using the
prisoners must be released from codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 jails across India. In such a
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
situation, which among the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. During the discussion on the following may be the best conflict
demands for grants, motions can resolution mechanism? 9. Normally, the Parliament can
be moved to reduce the amount 1. The paramilitary and local legislate on the subjects enumerated
of a demand. Such a motion is police attack the naxalites and in the
called a ‘cut-motion’. Which of attempt to release the (a) Union List
the following categories is/are kidnapped. (b) Concurrent List
classified as ‘cut-motion? 2. The state forces offer huge (c) State List
1. Disapproval of policy cut sums of money to the naxals (d) Union as well as Concurrent List
as ransom and release all
2. Economy cut 3. Token cut 10. Who among the following has a right
naxal prisoners.
Select the correct answer using to speak and otherwise take part in
3. The state forces engaged the
the codes given below. naxals in a dialogue while proceedings of either House of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 simultaneously sending in a Parliament and to be a member of
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these commando force to release the any Parliamentary Committee, but is
prisoners. not entitled to vote?
(a) Chairman, Finance Commission
2012 (II) 4. The state forces utilise local
mediators to engage with the (b) Attorney General
3. The first Prime Minister of India naxals to workout a resolution (c) Comptroller and Auditor General
in 1947 was appointed by process for release of the (d) The Chief Election Commissioner
(a) the Governor-General kidnapped. 11. Vice-President of India is elected by
(b) the President of India Select the correct answer using the an electoral college consisting of
(c) Mahatma Gandhi codes given below. (a) members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) a committee headed by (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (b) members of Rajya Sabha
Dr Rajendra Prasad (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4 (c) elected members of both Houses of
4. Which one among the following 7. Consider the following Parliament
statement(s) is correct? The statement(s) (d) elected members of Lok Sabha
press in democracy must The State Government shall
(a) be free and impartial
appoint a Finance Commission to 2013 (I)
(b) be committed to the policies of
review the financial position of the 12. Which one among the following is not
the government
Panchayats and to make a function of the Comptroller and
(c) highlight the achievement of the
government without criticising its recommendations as to Auditor General of India?
policies 1. the distribution between the (a) Auditing the transactions of Central
(d) criticise the policies of the State and Panchayats of the and State Governments relating to
government net proceeds of taxes, tolls and contingency funds and public accounts
fees leviable by the states. (b) Compiling the accounts of defence
5. Consider the following 2. the determination of the taxes, (c) Auditing the accounts of institutions
statement(s) duties, tolls and fees which financed by the government
1. Justice Dalveer Bhandari was may be assigned to the (d) Compiling the accounts of states
recently elected as the Panchayats.
1018 NDA/NA Pathfinder
13. Joint Parliamentary sessions in 1. The Right is available to 21. Under which of the following Acts is
India are chaired by the citizens as well as aliens. the National Population Register
(a) President of India 2. It covers protection against being created?
(b) Vice-President of India, who is the arbitrary executive and (a) The Citizenship Act of India, 1995 as
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha legislative action. amended in 2004
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 3. It includes the right to live (b) The Census Act, 1948
(d) Prime Minister of India with human dignity. (c) The UID Act, 2010
14. Which of the following 4. It can be taken away (d) None of the above
statement(s) is/are correct? according to the procedure 22. The Financial Sector Legislative
Under Article 200 of the established by law. Reforms Commission Report submitted
Constitution of India, the Select the correct answer using recently, among others, contained
Governor of a State may the codes given below. which of the following proposals?
1. withhold his assent to a bill (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1. All regulators will have an
passed by the State Legislature. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 empowered board, the role of each
2. reserve the bill passed by the of the members has been defined.
18. Which one among the following
State Legislature for 2. The Commission envisages an
is not a characteristic of a
reconsideration of the President. important process of judicial review
federal system? of the regulations.
3. return the bill, other than a
Money Bill for reconsideration (a) There are two distinct levels of 3. The draft code does not mention
of the legislature. government about executive powers.
(b) The responsibilities and powers of
Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using the
each level of government are
the codes given below. codes given below.
clearly defined in a written
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
Constitution
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) There is no separation of powers
15. Point out the difference between between the legislative and
the Local Government in India executive branches of government 2014 (II)
before and after the (d) A Supreme Court is entrusted
Constitutional Amendments in with the responsibility of 23. Which of the following statement(s) is
1992. interpreting these provisions and correct?
arbitrating in matters of dispute (a) The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha
1. It has become mandatory to
is elected every year.
hold regular elections to the 19. The Constitution of India (b) The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha
local government bodies. guarantees the Fundamental is elected for a term of 5 years.
2. 1/3rd positions are reserved Right of Freedom of Religion to (c) The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha
for women. all its citizens. Which among the is elected for a term of 6 years.
3. Elected officials exercise following is incorrect of this (d) The Vice-President of India is the
supreme power in the Right? ex-officio presiding officer of the Rajya
government. Sabha.
(a) It gives freedom of conscience
Select the correct answer using and freedom to profess, practise 24. Who among the following was not a
the codes given below. and propagate any religion member of the Drafting Committee of
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (b) It gives freedom to establish and
(c) All of these (d) 2 and 3
the Constitution of India?
maintain institution for religious (a) BR Ambedkar (b) KM Munshi
16. The President of India is elected and charitable purposes (c) Krishnaswamy lyer (d) MK Gandhi
by proportional representative (c) The Right is subject to public
system by a single transferable order, morality and health 25. Which of the following is/are not
vote. This implies that (d) The state cannot make any law related to Fundamental Duties?
(a) elected MPs and MLAs of states which abrogates this Right for 1. To cherish and follow the noble
have different number of votes citizens ideals which inspired our national
struggle for freedom.
(b) all MPs and MLAs of states have 20. The Scheduled Castes and
one vote each 2. To value and preserve the rich
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of heritage of our composite culture.
(c) all MPs and MLAs of states have Atrocities) Act, 1989 may be
equal number of votes 3. To promote the educational and
seen as giving effect to which of economic interests of the weaker
(d) MPs of the Lok Sabha have equal the following Fundamental sections of the people, especially
number of votes Rights? the Scheduled Castes and
1. Equality before the Law Scheduled Tribes.
2014 (I) 2.
3.
Right against Discrimination
Abolition of Untouchability
4. To protect all monuments of
historic interest and national
17. Which of the following statements 4. Right to Freedom of Religion importance.
are true for the Fundamental Select the correct answer using
Right to Life and Personal Select the correct answer using the
the codes given below. codes given below.
Liberty as guaranteed under (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 ,
Article 21 of the Constitution of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
India?
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1019
26. Joint sittings of the two Houses of 32. Which one among the following 37. The 4th Schedule to the Constitution of
Indian Parliament are held to is not a Fundamental Duty? India deals with
(a) elect the President of India (a) To abide by the Constitution of (a) provisions related to the administration of
(b) elect the Vice-President of India India and respect the National tribal areas
(c) adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill Flag and National Anthem (b) allocation of seats in the Council of
(b) To safeguard public property States
(d) consider and pass a bill on which
(c) To protect the sovereignty, unity (c) the Union List, the State List and the
the two houses disagree
Concurrent List
and integrity of India
27. The President of India can issue (d) To render compulsory military
(d) recognised languages of the Union of India
proclamation of emergency service 38. The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ was
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister enunciated by the Supreme Court
(b) on the advice of the Council of 33. Which of the following are the
basic features of 73rd during the
Ministers (a) Golak Nath case
(c) in his own discretion Amendment Act of the
(b) Maneka Gandhi case
(d) when the decision of the Union Constitution?
(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
Cabinet for the issue of such 1. Provides for a three-tier (d) SR Bommai case
proclamation has been structure of Panchayats in
communicated to him in writing the village, intermediary 39. The Panchayati Raj system under
and district levels. Part-IX of the Constitution of India
2. Reservation of seats for does not apply to the states of
2015 (I) Scheduled Castes and (a) Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland
28. Which of the following is/are not Scheduled Tribes and (b) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura
women in all the tiers of (c) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram
Fundamental Right(s) under the
Panchayats. (d) Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya
Constitution of India?
3. Election to Panchayats
1. Right to Education under the supervision of the
2. Right to Work State Election Commissions. 2016 (I)
3. Right to Form Associations 4. Introduction of the 11th 40. Which of the following statement(s)
4. Right to Practise any Profession Schedule to the Constitution. relating to the Comptroller and
Select the correct answer using the Select the correct answer using Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are
codes given below. the codes given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 1. The CAG can attend the sittings of
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 (c) All of these (d) 2 and 4 the Committee on Public Accounts.
2. The CAG can attend the sittings of
29. The 7th Schedule of the
Constitution of India contains 2015 (II) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is
(a) provisions regarding the 34. The word ‘Secular’ was co-extensive with powers of the
administration of tribal areas inserted into the Constitution Union Government.
(b) the Union List, the State List and of India by
the Concurrent List
Select the correct answer using the
(a) 44th Amendment Act codes given below.
(c) a list of recognised languages (b) 52nd Amendment Act (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(d) provisions about the disqualification (c) 42nd Amendment Act
of Members of Legislatures on (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(d) 34th Amendment Act
grounds of defection 41. Which one of the following is not a
35. The two provisions of the feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis
30. Article 368 of the Constitution of Constitution of India that most
India deals with model of development strategy?
clearly express the power of
(a) the powers of the Parliament of (a) Development of capital goods industries
judicial review are
India to amend the Constitution (b) Major involvement of the state in the
(a) Article 21 and Article 446
(b) financial emergency economy
(b) Article 32 and Article 226
(c) reservation of seats for Scheduled (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment
(c) Article 44 and Article 152
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the in the public sector
(d) Article 17 and Article 143
Lok Sabha (d) Enhancing the scope and importance of
(d) official language of the Union of 36. An emergency under Article the public sector
India 352 of the Constitution of 42. Consider the following statement(s)
31. Which among the following is not India can be declared only
1. The amendment procedure has been
a basic feature of the Constitution during provided in Article 368 of the
(a) war, external aggression or Constitution of India.
of India?
internal disturbance
(a) Fundamental Rights 2. The consent of the states is
(b) war, external aggression or
(b) Independence of Judiciary mandatory for all amendments to
armed rebellion
(c) Federalism the Constitution of India.
(c) failure of constitutional machinery
(d) The unquestioned right of the in the State Which of the statement(s) given above
Parliament to amend any part of the (d) financial instability in the is/are correct?
Constitution country (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1020 NDA/NA Pathfinder
43. Which of the following 2. Jammu and Kashmir has (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose
statement(s) relating to election as been given special status property
under Article 370 of the (c) Right to practice any profession
the President of India is/are Constitution of India. (d) 5Right to form cooperative societies
correct?
Which of the statement(s) given 47. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may
1. A person above the age of 35 above is/are correct?
years is eligible for election as resign his office by writing, addressed
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 to the
the President of India. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The President of India is (a) President of India
eligible for re-election for more 45. Which one of the following pairs (b) Prime Minister of India
than one term. of the Schedule in the (c) Vice-President of India
3. A person is not eligible for Constitution of India and its (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
election as the President of content is not correctly matched? 48. The Election Commission recognises
India if the person holds an Schedule Content a political party as a national party if
office of profit. (a) Eighth ScheduleLanguages 1. it secures atleast 6% of the total
Select the correct answer using (b) Second The forms of oaths valid votes polled in four or more
the codes given below. Schedule and affirmations states in a general election to the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) Fourth ScheduleAllocation of seats in Lok Sabha or to the State
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 3 the Council of States Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Tenth Schedule Provisions as to 2. it wins atleast four seats in a
44. Consider the following disqualification of the general election to the Lok Sabha
statement(s) ground of defection from any State or States.
1. The Constitution of India
46. The citizens of India do not have Select the correct answer using the
empowers the Parliament to
form new states and to alter which of the following codes given below.
the areas, boundaries or names Fundamental Rights? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
of existing states by passing a (a) Right to reside and settle in any (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
resolution in simple majority. part of India
ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 b 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 c 6 a 7 a 8 b 9 b 10 a
11 b 12 c 13 a 14 c 15 b 16 c 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 c
21 b 22 d 23 b 24 d 25 a 26 d 27 c 28 a 29 d 30 b
31 a 32 b 33 d 34 c 35 d 36 c 37 d 38 b 39 c 40 d
41 d 42 a 43 d 44 b 45 c 46 c 47 c 48 b 49 c 50 c
51 a 52 d 53 a 54 b 55 a 56 c 57 c 58 d 59 d 60 c
61 c 62 b 63 d 64 d 65 c 66 d 67 b 68 c 69 c 70 d
71 a 72 a 73 d 74 a 75 d 76 b 77 c 78 b 79 a 80 a
81 d 82 d 83 b 84 b 85 b 86 a 87 c 88 a 89 c 90 d
91 a 92 a 93 a 94 b 95 a 96 c 97 d 98 c 99 d 100 a
101 a 102 b 103 d 104 b 105 d 106 d 107 d 108 c 109 c 110 b
111 c 112 d 113 b 114 b 115 d 116 c 117 c 118 c 119 b 120 c
121 c 122 d 123 c 124 d 125 c 126 b 127 d 128 b 129 b 130 a
131 c 132 a 133 c 134 c 135 b 136 d 137 a 138 c 139 a 140 d
141 b 142 a 143 d