Rajasthan PT Test -4

Ques 1:- A’ lodged an F.I.R against Ques 2:- Which of the following
‘B’ for an offence punishable with case/s are related to Anticipatory
punishment up to life imprisonment. Bail?
Investigation was commenced and
a. Sushila Aggarwal vs State of NCT
accused ‘B’ was arrested on
of Delhi, 2020
01.01.2024. Accused ‘B’ applied for
b. Gurbaksh Singh SIbia Vs State of
default bail on 04.04.2024 as the
Punjab
charge sheet was not filed within 90
c. State of Uttar Pradesh vs.
days. Defence counsel moved an
Deoman Upadhyay
application under section 439(2) of
d. All of the above
the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
instead of section 167(2), Criminal Correct answer: All of the above all
Procedure Code, 1973. cases mentioned in option (a),(b) and
(c) are related to Anticipatory bail
a. Default bail shall be denied to the
accused since he has moved an Ques 3:- An application under
application under wrong provision. order VI rule 17 of the CPC to amend
b. Default bail cannot be denied to the admissions:
accused just because he filed
application under section 439 a. Can be entertained even after the
instead of Section 167(2) judgment is reserved under Order
c. Default bail shall be denied to the XII rule 6 of the CPC
accused since his right to default b. Cannot be entertained even after
bail did not arise the judgment is reserved under
d. . Court may grant default bail even Order XII rule 6 of the CPC
under section 439(2) of the c. shall be entertained even after the
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. judgment is reserved under Order
XII rule 6 of the CPC
Correct answer: Default bail cannot d. none of the above
be denied to accused just because
he filed application under section 439 Correct answer: Can be entertained
instead of Section 167(2) even after the judgment is reserved
under Order XII rule 6 of the CPC
Refer Subhash Bhadur vs. NCT
of Delhi, 2020, SC Default bail Refer- M/s BDR Developers Pvt.
cannot be denied to accused just Ltd.Vs.NarsinghShah, 2021
because he filed application under Ques 4:- Union, State and
section 439 instead of Section Concurrent lists are mentioned in
167(2)
a. IV Schedule

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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

b. V Schedule for compensation for the breach

c. VI Schedule of such
d. VII Schedule contract or part and does not
bar his right to sue for any other
Correct answer: VII Schedule relief to which plaintiff may be
Union, State and Concurrent lists entitled
are mentioned in VII Schedule.: Ques 7:- No separate suit in
respect of any relief which may
Ques 5:- Which Article of the be claimed under section 28 of
constitution of India is referred to as the Specific Relief Act, 1963 ,
Shall lie at the instance of a
“the Jewel of the Constitution”?
vendor, purchaser, lessor or
a. Art. 32 lessee as the case may be
b. Art. 21 provided in which clause of
section 28_______
c. Art. 14
d. Art. 19 a. Clause 2 of section 28
b. Clause 3 of section 28
Correct answer: Art. 32 Article 32 of c. Clause 4 of section 28
the constitution of India is referred to d. Clause 5 of section 28
as “the Jewel of the Constitution”.
Correct answer: Clause 4 of section
Ques 6:- According to section 24 28 Refer section 28 of Specific
the dismissal of a suit for specific Relief Act
performance of a contract or part
thereof shall – Ques 8:- Mark the incorrect
statement :
a. Bar the plaintiff right to sue for
compensation for the breach of a. Section 6 of Limitation Act does
such contract or part not prevent running of limitation
b. Does not bar the plaintiff right period but only extends the period
to sue for compensation for the of limitation.
breach of such contract or part b. Section 6, 7 and 8 of the Act are
c. Not bar his right to sue for any mutually exclusive
other relief to which plaintiff c. Section 6, 7 and 8 of the Act are
may be entitled mutually complementary
d. Both (a ) and (c) d. None of the above
Correct answer: Both (a ) and (c)
Correct answer: Section 6, 7 and 8 of
Refer section 24of Specific the Act are mutually exclusive Refer
Relief Act. According to section Section 6, 7 and 8 are not mutually
24 the dismissal of a suit for exclusive. They are complementary to
specific performance of a each other
contract or part thereof
shallBarthe plaintiff right to sue
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

Ques 9:- In case of trespass Property of every description,

involving the occupation of except land and things attached to
immovable property, the the earth or permanently fastened to
commencement of the limitation anything which is attached to the
period shall be governed by : earth.
a. Section 21 Limitation Act
b. Section 22 Limitation Act Ques 11:- The term for which the
c. Section 16 Civil Procedure Code Court directs the offender to be
d. Section 3 Limitation Act imprisoned in default of payment of
fine shall not exceed
Correct answer: Section 22 Limitation
Act a. ½ of the term of imprisonment
which is the maximum fixed for
Refer Section 22 of the Limitation the offence, if the offence be
Act. Trespass is a continuing wrong. punishable with imprisonment
as well as fine
Ques 10:- Movable property, under b. 1/3 of the term of imprisonment
Section 22, IPC includes: which is the minimum fixed for
a. Corporeal property of every the offence, if the offence be
description, except land and things punishable with imprisonment
attached to the earth or as well as fine
permanently fastened to anything c. ¼ of the term of imprisonment
which is attached to the earth which is the maximum fixed for
b. Incorporeal property of every the offence, if the offence be
description, except land and things punishable with imprisonment
attached to the earth or as well as fine
permanently fastened to anything d. ¼ of the term of imprisonment
which is attached to the earth which is the minimum fixed for
c. Both corporeal and incorporeal the offence, if the offence be
property of every description, punishable with imprisonment
except land and things attached to as well as fine
the earth or permanently fastened
to anything which is attached to : Correct answer:
the earth
d. Both corporeal and incorporeal ¼ of the term of imprisonment
property of every description, which is the maximum fixed for the
except land and things attached to offence, if the offence be punishable
the earth with imprisonment as well as fine

Correct answer: Corporeal property of

every description, except land and According to Section 65, the term
things attached to the earth or for which the Court directs the
permanently fastened to anything which offender to be imprisoned in default
is attached to the earth of payment of a fine shall not exceed
one-fourth of the term of
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

imprisonment which is the maximum result of such proceeding, is said “to

fixed for the offence, if the offence be fabricate false evidence”.
punishable with imprisonment as well
as fine. Ques 13:- Mark the correct option:

Ques 12:- A makes a false entry in a. Under Indian Evidence Act

his shop-book for the purpose of express provisions have been
using it as corroborative evidence in given with respect to the reliability
a Court of Justice A thereby has of evidence
committed: b. Under Indian Evidence Act no
express provisions have been
a. The offence of Cheating given with respect to the reliability
b. The offence of Fabricating False of evidence
Evidence c. Reliability of evidence is a matter
c. Forgery of Judicial Prudence
d. No offence as merely making false d. Both (b) and (c)
entry without using it as evidence
in Court of Justice amounts only to Correct answer: Both (b) and (c)
preparation of the offence and
hence not punishable Reliability of matter is a matter of
judicial prudence. There is no
Correct answer: The offence of express provision in the evidence act
Fabricating False Evidence regarding reliability of evidence.

A has fabricated false evidence as Ques 14:- Mark the correct

defined under Section 192 of the statement.
Code. According to the Section, a. Court may grant leave under order
whoever causes any circumstance to XI rule 5 to file new documents not
exist or makes any false entry in any filed with the plaint.
book or record, or electronic record b. Court cannot grant leave under
or makes any document or electronic order XI rule 5 to file new
record containing a false statement, documents not filed with the plaint.
intending that such circumstance, c. Court shall grant leave under
false entry or false statement may order XI rule 5 to file new
appear in evidence in a judicial documents not filed with the plaint.
proceeding, or in a proceeding taken d. None of the above
by law before a public servant as
such, or before an arbitrator, and that Correct answer: Court may grant
such circumstance, false entry or leave under order XI rule 5 to file new
false statement, so appearing in documents not filed with the plaint.
evidence, may cause any person who
in such proceeding is to form an ValoAutomotive Pvt. Ltd.Vs. Sprint
opinion upon the evidence, to Cars Ltd., 2021
entertain an erroneous opinion
touching any point material to the
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

Correct answer: (i), (ii), and

Ques 15:- If any provision of law (iv) Promissory estoppel differs from
related to Civil Procedure disentitled the concept of estoppel relates to the
a person to prove any fact which he representation of existing fact, on the
is entitled to prove under Indian other hand, the doctrine of
Evidence Act, 1872. In such a case: promissory estoppel relates to the
a. Indian Evidence Act shall prevail representation of future intentions.
b. Such law related to civil Procedure Estoppel is a rule of evidence and is a
shall prevail part of adjective law
c. The Court has to decide whether
to allow the person to prove fact Ques 18:- Cost for causing delay
d. He shall be allowed to prove the under Section 35B of CPC shall not
fact as Indian Evidence Act is be more than
special law in that matter
a. Rs . 3000
Correct answer: Such law related to b. Rs . 5000
civil Procedure shall prevail c. Rs . 1000
d. Whatever reasonably sufficient in
Refer explanation to section 5 of the opinion of the Court
Indian Evidence Act section 5 does
not enable any person to give Correct answer: Whatever reasonably
evidence of a fact which he is sufficient in the opinion of the Court
disentitle to prove by any provision of Refer Section 35 B of the Civil
the law for the time being in force Procedure Code, 1908
relating to civil procedure.
Ques 19:- The provisions of Part II
Ques 17:- Chose the correct of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is
statement applicable to :
(i) Where matter does not comes
under Section 115, recourse may be a. Execution of orders
taken of promissory estoppel b. Execution of decree
(ii) Rule of estoppel is a part of c. Execution of decree as well as
adjective law orders
(iii) Rule of estoppel is a part of d. None of the above
substantive law and it is rule of
evidence Correct answer: Execution of decree
(iv) Doctrine of estoppel is a rule as well as orders Part II of the Civil
of evidence and it is based upon Procedure Code, 1908.
equity, justice & good conscience
Ques 20:- Which provision/s of
a. ( i ), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Civil Procedure Code, 1908. dealt with
b. (i), (ii), and (iv) “Friendly suit”?
c. ( ii ) and (iv)
a. Order 25 of CPC
d. ( i ) and (iii)
b. Order 35 of CPC
c. Order 26 of CPC
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

d. Order 36 of CPC Ques 23:- ‘ A’ is 17 years old. A

person-‘B’, who is competent to
Correct answer: Order 36 of CPC contract on behalf of ‘ A’ is willing to
Order 36 of the Civil Procedure Code, compound the offence on behalf of
1908 ‘A’. in this situation.

Ques 21:- Under Order X Rule 2 of a. ‘A’ may compound the offence.
CPC with a view of elucidating the b. ‘A’ cannot be allowed to
matter in controversy in the suit: compound the offence.
c. ‘A’ may compound the offence
a. Court may examine Any person in with the permission of the State
writing who is able to answer the Government and the Court.
material Question d. ‘B’ may compound the offence
b. Court may examine parties to the with the permission of the
suit in writing Court.
c. Court may examine orally any
person able to answer the material Correct answer: ‘B’ may compound
Question the offence with the permission of the
d. any of the above Court. Section 320(4)(a),Cr.P.C,
provides that in such a situation, the
Correct answer: Court may examine person who is competent to contract
orally any person able to answer the on behalf of such person, may
material Question Refer Order X rule 2 compound the offence with the
of the CPC with a view of elucidating permission of the Court.
the matter in controversy in the suit
Court may examineOrallyany person Ques 24:- Mark the correct option.
able to answer the material Question
a. The Magistrate cannot dismiss the
Ques 22:- An application under complaint as the process fee was
Section 156(3) Cr.P.C seeking not paid by the complainant.
registration of FIR: b. The Magistrate may dismiss the
complaint under section 203 of the
a. can be dismissed merely on Code for default in process fee.
ground of delay c. The Magistrate may dismiss the
b. shall be dismissed merely on complaint under section 204 of the
ground of delay Code for default in process fee.
c. cannot be dismissed merely on d. The Magistrate shall dismiss the
ground of delay complaint as the process fee was
d. none of the above not paid by the complainant.
Correct answer: cannot be dismissed Correct answer: The Magistrate may
merely on ground of delay dismiss the complaint under section 204
of the Code for default in process fee.
An application Section 156(3)Cr.P.C,
seeking registration of FIR cannot be The dismissal of a complaint for non-
dismissed merely on ground of delay. payment of process fee or
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

otherfees,may be done under section b. Clauses (2) to (6)

204(4) of the Code. c. Clauses (2) to (5)
d. Clause (2) to (4)
Ques 25:- mark the correct
statement. Correct answer: Clauses (2) to
(6) Article 19(1)dealswith the
a. A FIR may be registered for provision of protection of certain
proceedings under section 107 rights regarding freedom of speech,
and 145 of the C r .P.C . etc. There freedoms are not absolute.
b. A FIR cannot be registered for The restrictions on these freedoms
proceedings under section 107 are provided under clauses (2)
and 145 of the C r .P.C
c. Section 107 and 145 does not Ques 28:- The distinction between
relate to any commission of criminal intimidation and extortion
offence under any provision of relates to:to (6) of Article 19.
Indian Penal code
d. both (b) and (c) a. Intensity of threat
b. Delivery of property
Correct answer: both (b) and (c) A c. Threat of injury
FIR cannot be registered for d. All of the above
proceedings under section 107 and
145 of theCr.P.C. as Section 107 and Correct answer: Delivery of property
145 does not relate to any The distinction between criminal
commission of offence under any intimidation and extortion relates to
provision of Indian Penal code Delivery of property.

Ques 26:- Which of the following

cases is/are related to Doctrine of Ques 29:- Mark the incorrect
Restitution? statement :

a. Leslie V. sheill a. Where the plaintiff was in I.C.U.

b. Stocks V. Wilson for two year during his period of
c. Khan Gul V. Lakha Singh limitation, the period of limitation to
d. All of the above file a suit may be condoned under
Section 5 of Limitation Act
Correct answer: All of the above All b. The Court cannot condone the
cases are related to Doctrine of delay in exercise of its inherent
restitution. Ques 27:- Article 19(1) power.
deal with the provision of protection
of certain rights regarding freedom of c. Doctrine of laches has its origin in
speech, etc. There freedoms are not doctrine of equity
absolute. The restrictions on these d. Both (b) and (c)
freedoms are provided under which
clause(s) of Article 19? Correct answer: Where the plaintiff
was in I.C.U. for two year during his
a. Clause (2) period of limitation, the period of
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

limitation to file a suit may be condoned Refer Section 357C of the Code of
under Section 5 of Limitation Act : Criminal Procedure, 1973

Refer section 5 of the Limitation Ques 32:- Mark the incorrect

Act. Section 5 is applicable upon statement
appeals and applications. Delay in
filing of a suit cannot be condoned a. When a property has been
under section 5 of the Act. mortgaged by one person to
another and the mortgagee, has
Ques 30:- A, knowing the general been put into possession in
character of Z’s handwriting, states pursuance of the mortgage, the
that he believes in good faith, certain parties will be estopped to deny
signature to be the handwriting of Z. the right of each other under
However, in fact, the signature is not the mortgage.
the handwriting of Z. What offence b. The rule of estoppel between
has A committed? the mortgagor and mortgagee
applies only to cases where the
a. Giving false evidence suit is brought on the basis of
b. Fabricating false evidence basis of mortgage.
c. Forgery c. Where the suit based upon the
repudiation of the mortgage the
Correct answer: No offence principle of estoppel does not
apply.
A has not committed any offence as d. None of the above
A’s statement is merely as to his
belief and therefore although the Correct answer: None of the above
signature may not be the hardwiring It should be borne in mind that the
of Z, still A has not given false rule of estoppel between the
evidence as per the provision of mortgagor and mortgagee applies
Section 191 of the Code. only to case where the suit is brought
on the basis of mortgage, where the
Ques 31:- A person who suit is not based on the mortgage but
contravenes the provisions of is one the repudiation ofmortgage,the
Section 357C of the Code of Criminal principle of estoppel does not apply
Procedure, 1973 shall be punishable
under which provision of the Indian Ques 33:- Any distinct subsequent
Penal Code? oral agreement to rescind or modify
any such contract, grant or
a. Section 166 disposition of property may be
b. Section 166 A proved where :
c. Section 166 B a. Such contract, grant or disposition
d. Section 167 of property required by law to be in
writing.
Correct answer: Section 166 B

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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

b. Such contract, grant or disposition c. Confession is a proceeding in

of property not required by law to itself.
be in writing. d. Plea of guilt is a piece of evidence.
c. Such contract, grant or disposition
of property has been registered Correct answer: Confession is an
d. All of the above acceptance of guilt.

Correct answer: Such contract, grant Confession is an acceptance of guilt

or disposition of property not required by whereas plea of guilt is an
law to be in writing. acceptance of charge and therefore,
Refer proviso 4 to section 92 of is done after charge-framing.
Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The Confession is a piece of evidence
existence of any distinct subsequent whereas the plea of guilt is a
or agreement to rescind or modify proceeding in itself
any such contract, grant or
disposition of property may be Ques 36:- Which of the following
proved except in cases in which such provisions provides for territorial
contract, grant or disposition of jurisdiction of the offences
property is required to be in writing committed outside India by Indian
or has been registered according to citizens and non-citizens?
the law in force for the time being as
to the registration of documents a. Section 183
b. Section 184
Ques 34:- Executing Court cannot c. Section 187
determine the Question related to d. Section 188
a. Discharge of the decree
b. Satisfactionof the decree
Correct answer: Section 188
c. Execution of the decree
Ques 37:- Who among the
d. Legality of the decree
following may make an order to
compel restoration of abducted
Correct answer: Legality of the
females under section 98 of the
decree
Code?
Refer Section 47 of the Civil a. District Magistrate
Procedure Code, 1908. Executing b. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
Court cannot go beyond the decree c. Magistrate of the First Class
passed by a competent court. d. Any of the above may make an
order.
Ques 35:- Which of the following
statements is true? Correct answer: Any of the above
a. Confession is an acceptance of may make an order.
guilt.
b. Plea of guilt is an acceptance of Ques 38:- Mark the correct
guilt. statement:

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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

a. It is in the competence of the c. A person as the court may direct

Court to wave or by pass the d. Either a, b, or c
effect of statute of limitation
b. It is in the competence of the Correct answer: The party committing
parties to wave or by pass the the breach
effect of statute of limitation
c. If the counsel of a party waves the Ques 41:- Under which provision the
objection with regard to limitation, term 'Proposer' & 'acceptor' is
the party is not estopped from defined:-
raising the objection, as there is
no estoppel and the counsel’s a. Sec 2(a), ICA
admission on a point of law is not b. Sec 2(b), ICA
binding on a party. c. Sec 2(c), ICA
d. Both (a) and (c) d. None of the above

Correct answer: If the counsel of a Correct answer: None of the above

party waves the objection with regard to
limitation, the party is not estopped from Ques 42:- X dies in possession of
raising the objection, as there is no furniture and money. His servant A,
estoppel and the counsel’s admission on before the money comes into the
a point of law is not binding on a party. possession of any person entitled to
such possession, dishonesty
Ques 39:- Specific Relief Act misappropriates it. Thus, A has
(Amendment) Act, 2018 has: committed the offence under:

a. Made specific performance a. Section 403 of IPC, 1860

available as a remedy by choice b. Section 404 of IPC, 1860
b. Provided a new remedy of c. Section 405 of IPC, 1860
substituted performance of d. None of the above
contract
c. Restricted power of Courts to Correct answer: Section 404 of IPC,
grant injunction that will stop 1860
progress of infrastructure project.
Ques 43:- A man who commits
d. All of the above
sexual intercourse with his own wife,
Correct answer: All of the above who is living separately under a
decree of separation, commits
Ques 40:- Under Section 20 of the offence under section-
Specific Relief Act, 1963 the obtaining
substituted performance is entitled to a. 376
recover expenses and cost from b. 376A
c. 376B
a. The third part by whom the d. 376C
subsisted performance has been
done. Correct answer: 376B
b. The party committing the breach
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

Ques 44:- The evidentiary value of Ques 47:- Which of the following
the previously recorded statement, in forms is/are related to bail?
the course of examination, is
restricted by Section 162 of Cr.P.C . a. Chapter XXXIII and Form no. 03,
So, in order to discover the proper Schedule II, CrPC
proof of relevant facts, can the Court b. Chapter XXXII and Form no. 26,
ask any question on the basis of such Schedule II, CrPC
previous statements? c. Chapter XXXIII and Form no. 44,
Schedule II, CrPC
a. No, as it is expressly restricted by d. Chapter XXXII and Form no. 27,
Section 162 Cr.P.C . Schedule II, CrPC
b. No, as it will result into misuse of
Court’s power Correct answer: Chapter XXXIII and
c. Yes Form no. 03, Schedule II, CrPC
d. Both (a) and (b)
Ques 48:- By which of the following
Correct answer: Yes Acts, section 437A was inserted?

Ques 45:- The principle of a. The Code of Criminal Procedure

‘proximity of crime’ under the (Amendment) Act, 2001
criminal law is irrelevant while b. The Code of Criminal Procedure
deciding the liability for the offence of (Amendment) Act, 2005
– c. The Code of Criminal Procedure
(Amendment) Act, 2009
a. Murder and Culpable Homicide d. The Code of Criminal Procedure
b. Kidnapping and Abduction (Amendment) Act, 2013
c. Theft and Dacoity
d. Abetment and Criminal Correct answer: The Code of
Conspiracy Criminal Procedure (Amendment)
Act, 2009
Correct answer: Abetment and
Criminal Conspiracy Ques 49:- Where in a case, there
was difference of opinion amongst
Ques 46:- Any person who does an two handwriting experts. In such a
act which causes any common injury, Case:-
danger or annoyance to the people in
general who dwell or occupy property a. The Court shall reject the
in the vicinity, commits the offence handwritten document as
of: evidence
b. The Court shall rely upon the
a. Thug evidence of the handwriting expert
b. Criminal trespass who examined the document first
c. Lurking house trespass c. The Court shall rely upon the
d. Public nuisance evidence of the handwriting expert
who examined the document last

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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

d. The Court itself can compare the 167(2) of the Criminal procedure
disputed handwriting with the Code, 1973.
admitted hand writing. b. Court cannot impose condition of
deposit of money while granting
Correct answer: The Court itself can default statutory bail under section
compare the disputed handwriting with 167(2) of the Criminal procedure
the admitted hand writing. Code, 1973.
c. Court can impose condition of
Ques 50:- Congnizance of an deposit of money while granting
offence under section 138 of the default statutory bail under section
Negotiable Instruments Act, may be 167(2) of the Criminal procedure
taken by the Court upon: Code, 1973.
d. Court shall impose condition of
a. A Complaint in writing made by deposit of money while granting
the Payee default statutory bail under section
b. A FIR in writing made by the 167(2) of the Criminal procedure
Payee Code, 1973.
c. An information received by the
Court Correct answer: Court cannot impose
d. Any of the Above condition of deposit of money while
granting default statutory bail under
Correct answer: A Complaint in section 167(2) of the Criminal procedure
writing made by the Payee Code, 1973.
Ques 51:- Which of the following Ques 53:- Mark the correct
court has the jurisdiction to try an Statement in reference to Section 167
offence under section 138 of the of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881:
a. Court is not duty bound to inform
a. Judicial Magistrate IInd class accused about their right to default
b. Judicial magistrate Ist class bail once it accrues.
c. Court of Small Causes b. Court should not inform the
d. Judicial Magistrate or Metropolitan accused about their right to default
Magistrate of Ist Class bail once it accrues.
c. Court should inform accused
Correct answer: Judicial Magistrate or about their right to default bail
Metropolitan Magistrate of Ist Class once it accrues.
d. None of the above
Ques 52:- Mark the correct
Statement in reference to Section 167 Correct answer: Court should inform
of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. accused about their right to default bail
once it accrues.
a. Court may impose condition of
deposit of money while granting Ques 54:- In a case where
default statutory bail under section cognizance is taken under section

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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

190(1)(a) of Cr.pc, when does plea (Prevention, Prohibition and

bargaining takes place? Redressal ) Act, 2003 if the inquiry
has turned into a complaint, and a
a. At the time of issuing the case is registered under section 509
process. of Indian Penal Code, the court on
b. At the time when the conviction of respondent may-
information is received by the
Magistrate. a. Hold him liable under Section 509
c. At the time of issuing Indian Penal Code
investigation under section b. Order payment of such sums as it
202 may consider appropriate
d. It can take place at any time. c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

Correct answer: At the time of issuing Correct answer: Both (a) and (b)
the process.
Ques 57:- What are the factor(s)
Ques 55:- Mark the incorrect which are not relevant for
statement. determination of compensation under
Section 15 of the Sexual Harassment
a. An accused who was released of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
on default-bail cannot be Prohibition and Redressal ) Act,
rearrested on filling of charge 2003?
sheet
b. Filling of charge sheet is not a a. Mental trauma, pain suffering and
cogent ground for cancellation emotional distress caused to
of bail respondent
c. An accused who was released b. Loss in the career opportunity due
on regular-bail cannot be re- to incident of sexual harassment
arrested cannot be rearrested c. Gain in career opportunity due to
on filling of charge sheet the publicity of incident of sexual
d. Filling of charge sheet is a harassment
ground for c ancellation of bail d. None of the above
therefore , an accused who was
released on default-bail can be Correct answer: Gain in career
re-arrested on filling of charge opportunity due to the publicity of
sheet incident of sexual harassment

Correct answer: Filling of charge Ques 58:- Where the employer fails
sheet is a ground for c ancellation of to constitute an internal complaints
bail therefore , an accused who was committee under Section 54 (1 ) , he
released on default-bail can be re- shall be punishable with
arrested on filling of charge sheet
a. Imprisonment of 2 years and
Ques 56:- Under the Sexual 50,000 Fine
Harassment of Women at Workplace
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

b. Imprisonment of 3 years and b. Section 4 of Probation of

50,000 Fine Offenders Act ,1958 empowers
c. Imprisonment of 1 years and the court to release offenders after
50,000 Fine admonition.
d. Fine which may extend to 50,000 c. If a person has been admonished
once, then in a subsequent
Correct answer: Fine which may proceeding such admonition shall
extend to 50,000 be considered as a previous
conviction.
Ques 59:- Which provision under d. None of the above
The Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015 Correct answer: If a person has been
provides for the procedure to be admonished once, then in a subsequent
followed by a magistrate who has not proceeding such admonition shall be
been empowered under the Juvenile considered as a previous conviction.
Justice Act?
a. Inform a police officer
a. Section 6 b. Inform chief judicial magistrate
b. Section 9 c. Inform the nearest magistrate
c. Section 12 d. None of the above
d. Section 15
Correct answer: Inform the nearest
Correct answer: Section 9 magistrate

Ques 60:- Under JJ Act, any person Ques 63:- The maxim “ Generalia
who commits an offence of non- specialibus non derogant ” means-
reporting shall be liable to-
a. The king can do no wrong.
a. Imprisonment upto 3 months or b. General things do not derogate
fine of Rs . 5000, or both from special things.
b. Imprisonment upto 6 months or c. The land passes with its burdens.
fine of Rs . 10,000, or both d. An accessory follows the principal.
c. Imprisonment upto 12 months or
fine of Rs . 20,000, or both Correct answer: General things do not
d. Imprisonment upto 24 months or derogate from special things.
fine of Rs . 50,000, or both
Ques 64:- The maxim “ Utres valet
Correct answer: Imprisonment upto 6 potior quam pareat ” means
months or fine of Rs . 10,000, or both
a. It may rather become operative
Ques 61:- Which among the than null.
following statements is correct in b. A matter adjudged is taken for
respect of ‘Admonition’? truth.
c. An accessory follows the
a. There is no provision related to principal.
admonition under CrPC . d. The land passes with its burdens.
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

Correct answer: It may rather become premises under section 10 of

operative than null. Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, he
shall be prohibited from letting out
Ques 65:- Which section under the same to any other person within a
Domestic Violence Act provides that period of-
magistrate may take assistance of
welfare expert for purpose of a. Six months
assisting him in discharge of b. One year
functions c. Three years
d. None of the above
a. Section 14
b. Section 15 Correct answer: Three years
c. Section 16
d. Section 17 Ques 69:- When did POCSO come
into force?
Correct answer: Section 15
a. 19/06/2012
Ques 66:- Who among the b. 25/12/2012
following may present an application c. 14/11/2012
to Magistrate under Section 12 to d. 20/05/2013
seek relief under Domestic Violence
Act? Correct answer: 14/11/2012

a. Aggrieved Ques 70:- Which section under

b. Protection officer POCSO corresponds exactly similar
c. Any other person on behalf of to Section 107 of the IPC?
aggrieved person
d. All of the above a. Section 16
b. Section 17
Correct answer: All of the above c. Section 18
d. Section 19
Ques 67:- Under Rajasthan Rent
Control Act, 2001 which section Correct answer: Section 16
expressly declares that the
expression ‘landlord’ shall mean the Ques 71:- Fill in the blanks with
owner of residential premises? suitable determiners.
I must go to the bank because I do
a. Section 9 not have........... money .
b. Section 10
c. Section 11 a. Some
d. Section 24 b. Any
c. many
Correct answer: Section 10 d. none

Ques 68:- Once the landlord has Correct answer: any

recovered possession of the
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

Ques 72:- Fill in the blanks to d. Students were will be worn winter
complete the sentence. dress.
We spent.......... day in the Public
library. Correct answer: Winter dress will be
worn by students.
a. a few
b. either Ques 76:- Choose the correct
c. all option.
d. much She said to the driver, “I cannot
help you in this matter”.
Correct answer: all
a. She told the driver that she
Ques 73:- Choose the appropriate couldnot help you in this matter.
article to complete the sentence. b. She told the driver that she could
We enjoyed our picnic......... not help him in that matter.
biosphere reserve was very nice. c. She told the driver that she could
not help him in this matter.
a. a d. She told the driver that she cannot
b. an help him in that matter.
c. the
d. None Correct answer: She told the driver
that she could not help him in that
Correct answer: the matter.

Ques 74:- Use the correct form of Ques 77:- Fill in the blanks
the verb. She was found guilty........... she
According to the statement of the was sentenced.
minister they ........... the price of
cooking gas. a. for
b. because
a. will reduce c. therefore
b. reduced d. and
c. have reduced
d. will be reduced Correct answer: therefore

Correct answer: will reduce Ques 78:- Fill in the blanks

You can climb up the tree........ you
Ques 75:- Choose the correct must be careful.
option.
Students will wear winter dress. a. since
b. for
a. Dress will be worn in winter by c. but
students. d. when
b. Winter dress is worn by students.
c. Winter dress will be worn by Correct answer: but
students.
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

Ques 79:- Fill the blank with the Correct answer: that
appropriate modals.
Reference books......... be taken Ques 83:- In spite of cold wave she
away from the reading room. did not put......... her coat.

a. must not a. off

b. should not b. in
c. will not c. on
d. might not d. out

Correct answer: must not Correct answer: on

Ques 80:- Choose the appropriate

alternative which best expresses the Ques 84:- Pick up the correct
meaning of underline idiom/phrase. synonym for the word.
His parents cut him off without a Intution
shilling.
a. Induction
a. snubbed him b. Experience
b. give him only a shilling c. Learning
c. disinherited him d. Insight
d. sent him away with a shilling
Correct answer: Insight
Correct answer: disinherited him
Ques 85:- Pick out the word with
Ques 81:- Fill in the blanks with opposite meaning.
appropriate option. Abominable
I have not read............ about cold war
a. Despicable
a. much inforamtions b. Transferable
b. much information c. Abhorrent
c. many informations d. Inactive
d. many information
Correct answer: Transferable
Correct answer: many information
Ques 86:- िन िल खत िवक म से
Ques 82:- Fill in the blanks with समानाथ श का चयन कीिजए-
appropriate option. व
Who has moved the paper ......... I
left on my desk. a. प र क्त
a. who b. अनुिचत
b. whom c. ितशोध
c. That d. िनिषद् ध
d. None
Correct answer: िनिषद् ध
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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

Ques 87:- िन िल खत श का Correct answer: आिव ार

पयायवाची बताईये-
धनुष Ques 91:- िन िल खत म कौन सा श
शु है ?
a. शर
b. भृ त्य a. उ ो वा
c. कामुक b. उ वा
d. िविहप c. उ ः ु वा
d. उ ै वा
Correct answer: कामुक
Correct answer: उ ै वा
Ques 88:- िन िल खत श का
िवपरीताथक बताईये Ques 92:- िन िल खत लोको का
अ ो आशय बताईये-
‘‘ आगे नाथ न पीछे पगहा ’’
a. उपयुक्त
b. िन ां िकत a. िनय ण मुक्त
c. उ ान b. अनाथ
d. पूणाक c. लावा रस
d. ऋण मुक्त
Correct answer: उपयुक्त
Correct answer: िनय ण मुक्त
Ques 89:- िन िल खत वा के िलए
उपयु एक श का चयन कीिजए- Ques 93:- िन िल खत मुहावरे का अथ
िजसकी आशा , इ ा या अपे ा , पहले से बताईये
नही ं की गयी हो- ‘‘ ऑंख की िकरिकरी होना ’’

a. अनपेि त a. क कारक होना

b. ािशत b. ऑंखों म दद होना
c. अ ािशत c. दु न बन जाना
d. अनुमािनत d. अि य लगना

Correct answer: अ ािशत Correct answer: अि य लगना

Ques 90:- र थान भा रये- Ques 94:- अ या आ क साथ ए या ऐ के

रे िडयो का ........... िकसने िकया ? िमलने पर ऐ तथा अ या आ के साथ औ के
िमलने पर औ बनता है तो वह संिघ कहलाती
a. अनु संधान है-
b. खोज
c. अ ेषण a. यण संिध
d. आिव ार b. वृ संिध

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 Rajasthan PT Test -4

c. गु ण संिध c. राजनीितक
d. अयािद संिध d. राजिनतीक

Correct answer: वृ संिध Correct answer: राजनीितक

Ques 95:- पण श का सही संिध Ques 99:- िन म से कौन सा श

िव े द बताईये ां सीसी उ ि का है ?

a. + अपण a. कूपन
b. ित + अपण b. अ ानास
c. ित + यपण c. र ा
d. उपयु म से कोई नही ं d. तु प

Correct answer: ित + अपण Correct answer: कूपन

Ques 96:- िजस समास के सम पदों म Ques 100:- िन म से कौन सा वा

से दोनों पद धान होते ह , उसे कहा जाता है- शु है ?

a. ब ीही समास a. सच सु नते ही उसका चेहरा उतर गया।

b. समास b. जबरद ी आप जो चाह कर।
c. ि गु समास c. सोरठा िह ी का एक छं द है ।
d. कमधारय समास d. मैने एक साल तक आपकी ती ा दे खी।

Correct answer: समास Correct answer: सच सुनते ही उसका

चेहरा उतर गया।
Ques 97:- िन म से िकस श म ‘ कु ’
उपसग का योग नही ं िकया गया है

a. कुपु त्र
b. कुशल
c. कुल ण
d. कुमित

Correct answer: कुशल

Ques 98:- राजनीित श म ‘ इक ’

य लगाने पर िन म से कौन सा श
िनिमत होगा ?

a. राजनै ितक
b. राजनै तीक

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