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Electric Charges and Fields MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers
Question: In figure two positive charges q2 and q3 fixed along the y-axis, exert a net electric force in the + x-
direction on a charge q1 fixed along the x-axis. If a positive charge Q is added at (x, 0), the force on q1

(a) shall increase along the positive x-axis

(b) shall decrease along the positive x-axis
(c) shall point along the negative x-axis
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of the intersection of Q with q2 and q3
Answer= A

Question: A point positive charge is brought near an isolated conducting sphere (figure). The electric field is
best given by

Answer= A

Question: The electric flux through the surface

(a) in Fig. (iv) is the largest

(b) in Fig. (iii) is the least
(c) in Fig. (ii) is same as Fig. (iii) but is smaller than Fig. (iv)
(d) is the same for all the figures
Answer= D

Question: Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole P is placed as shown. Which of the
following statements is correct?

(a) The dipole will not experience any force

(b) The dipole will experience a force towards right
(c) The dipole will experience a force towards left
(d) The dipole will experience a force upwards
Answer= C

Question: A point charge + q is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting plane. The field at a point
P on the other side of the plane is
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the plane
(c) directed radially away from the point charge
(d) directed radially towards the point charge
Answer= A

Question: A hemisphere is uniformely charged positively. The electric field at a point on a diameter away
from the centre is directed
(a) perpendicular to the diameter
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(b) parallel to the diameter

(c) at an angle tilted towards the diameter
(d) at an angle tilted away from the diameter
Answer= A

Question:

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 7

Answer= C

Question:

(a) reduces by 70.7% (b) reduces by 29.3%

(c) reduces by 9.7% (d) reduces by 14.6%
Answer= A

Question: Assertion : The positive charge particle is placed in front of a spherical uncharged conductor.
The number of lines of forces terminating on the sphere will be more than those emerging from it.
Reason : The surface charge density at a point on the sphere nearest to the point charge will be negative and
maximum in magnitude compared to other points on the sphere.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Answer= D

Question: An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A
proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron,
in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(a) smaller
(b) 5 times greater
(c) equal
(d) 10 times greater
Answer=A

Question: Charge is the property associated with matter due to which it produces and experiences
(a) electric effects only
(b) magnetic effects only
(c) both electric and magnetic effects
(d) None of these

Question: Charge is
(a) transferable
(b) associated with mass
(c) conserved
(d) All of these

Question: A body is positively charged, it implies that

(a) there is only positive charge in the body.
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(b) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body but the positive charge is more than negative
charge
(c) there is equal positive and negative charge in the body but the positive charge lies in the outer regions
(d) negative charge is displaced from its position

Question: On rubbing, when one body gets positively charged and other negatively charged, the electrons
transferred from positively charged body to negatively charged body are
(a) valence electrons only
(b) electrons of inner shells
(c) both valence electrons and electrons of inner shell
(d) yet to be established

Question: Which of the following is the best insulator?

(a) Carbon
(b) Paper
(c) Graphite
(d) Ebonite

Question: If a body is negatively charged, then it has

(a) excess of electrons (b) excess of protons
(c) deficiency of electrons (d) deficiency of neutrons

Question: When a body is charged by induction, then the body

(a) becomes neutral
(b) does not lose any charge
(c) loses whole of the charge on it
(d) loses part of the charge on it

Question: On charging by conduction, mass of a body may

(a) increase
(b) decreases
(c) increase or decrease
(d) None of these

Question: Quantisation of charge implies

(a) charge cannot be destroyed
(b) charge exists on particles
(c) there is a minimum permissible charge on a particle
(d) charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible.

Question: If an object possesses an electric charge, it is said to be electrified or ... A ... When it has no
charge, it is said to be ... B ... Here, A and B refer to
(a) charged, neutral
(b) neutral, charged
(c) discharged, charged
(d) active, reactive

Question: A positively charged rod is brought near an uncharged conductor. If the rod is then suddenly
withdrawn, the charge left on the conductor will be
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) cannot say
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Question: Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal positive and negative charges
respectively. Their masses after charging
(a) remains unaffected
(b) mass of A > mass of B
(c) mass of A < mass of B
(d) Nothing can be said

Question: When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper. This is because the
(a) comb polarizes the piece of paper
(b) comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the direction of field
(c) electric field due to the comb is uniform
(d) comb induces a net dipole moment perpendicular to the direction of field

Question: When some charge is transferred to ...A... it readily gets distributed over the entire surface of ...
A... If some charge is put on ... B..., it stays at the same place.
Here, A and B refer to
(a) insulator, conductor
(b) conductor, insulator
(c) insulator, insulator
(d) conductor, conductor

Question: Quantisation of charge was experimentally demonstrated by

(a) Einstein’s photoelectric effect
(b) Frank-Hertz experiment
(c) Davisson and Germer experiment
(d) Millikan’s oil drop experiment

Question: In annihilation process, in which an electron and a positron transform into two gamma rays,
which property of electric charge is displayed?
(a) Additivity of charge
(b) Quantisation of charge
(c) Conservation of charge
(d) Attraction and repulsion

Question: The law, governing the force between electric charges is known as
(a) Ampere's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law
(d) Coulomb's law

Question: The value of electric permittivity of free space is

(a) 9 × 109 NC2/m2
(b) 8.85 × 10–12Nm2/C2 sec
(c) 8.85 × 10–12 C2/Nm2
(d) 9 × 109C2/Nm2

Question: Coulomb’s law is true for

(a) atomic distances (= 10–11 m)
(b) nuclear distances (= 10–15 m)
(c) charged as well as uncharged particles
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(d) all the distances

Question: What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?

(a) Its radius decreases
(b) Its radius increases
(c) The bubble collapses
(d) None of these

Question: Two point charges + Q and + q are separated by a certain distance. If + Q > + q then in between
the charges the electric field is zero at a point
(a) closer to + Q
(b) closer to + q
(c) exactly at the mid-point of line segment joining + Q and + q.
(d) no where on the line segment joining + Q and + q.

Question: An electric field can deflect

(a) neutrons
(b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) α-particles

Question: The unit of electric field is not equivalent to

(a) N / C
(b) J / C
(c) V / m
(d) J / Cm

Question: If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction different from that of an electric field, the path
of the electron is
(a) a straight line (b) a circle
(c) an ellipse
(d) a parabola

Question: A charged particle is free to move in an electric field. It will travel

(a) always along a line of force
(b) along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
(c) along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in the
direction of an acute angle with the line of force
(d) none of the above

Question: If a linear isotropic dielectric is placed in an electric field of strength E, then the polarization P is
(a) independent of E
(b) inversely proportional to E
(c) directly proportional to E
(d) directly proportional to E

Question: A point charge is kept at the centre of metallic insulated spherical shell. Then
(a) electric field out side the sphere is zero
(b) electric field inside the sphere is zero
(c) net induced charge on the sphere is zero
(d) electric potential inside the sphere is zero
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Question: If one penetrates a uniformly charged spherical cloud, electric field strength
(a) decreases directly as the distance from the centre
(b) increases directly as the distance from the centre
(c) remains constant
(d) None of these

Question: Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are

(a) circular anticlockwise
(b) circular clockwise
(c) radial, inwards
(d) radial, outwards

Question: Electric lines of force

(a) exist everywhere
(b) exist only in the immediate vicinity of electric charges
(c) exist only when both positive and negative charges are near one another
(d) are imaginary

Question: Positive electric flux indicates that electric lines of force are directed
(a) outwards (b) inwards
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) None of these

Question: The S.I. unit of electric flux is

(a) weber
(b) newton per coulomb
(c) volt × metre
(d) joule per coulomb

Question: If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero, then
(a) the electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(b) the electric field may not be zero everywhere on the surface
(c) the charge inside the surface must be zero
(d) the charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero

Question: Electric flux over a surface in an electric field may be

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) All of the above

Question: The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is
(a) zero
(b) constant different from zero
(c) proportional to the distance from the curve
(d) None of the above

Question: For distance far away from centre of dipole the change in magnitude of electric field with change
in distance from the centre of dipole is
(a) zero.
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(b) same in equatorial plane as well as axis of dipole.

(c) more in case of equatorial plane of dipole as compared to axis of dipole.
(d) more in case of axis of dipole as compared to equatorial plane

Question: A region surrounding a stationary electric dipoles has

(a) magnetic field only
(b) electric field only
(c) both electric and magnetic fields
(d) no electric and magnetic fields

Question: The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a dipole and direction of the dipole moment
(a) will be parallel
(b) will be in opposite direction
(c) will be perpendicular
(d) are not related

Question: Debye is the unit of

(a) electric flux
(b) electric dipole moment
(c) electric potential
(d) electric field intensity

Question: An electric dipole will experience a net force when it is placed in

(a) a uniform electric field
(b) a non-uniform electric field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Question: An electric dipole is kept in a non-uniform electric field. It experiences

(a) a force and a torque
(b) a force but not a torque
(c) a torque but no force
(d) neither a force nor a torque

Question: The formation of a dipole is due to two equal and dissimilar point charges placed at a
(a) short distance
(b) long distance
(c) above each other
(d) none of these

Question: A hollow sphere of charge does not have electric field at

(a) outer point
(b) interior point
(c) beyond 2 m
(d) beyond 100 m

Question: Charge motion within the Gaussian surface gives changing physical quantity
(a) electric field
(b) electric flux
(c) charge
(d) gaussian surface area
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Question: Gauss’s law is true only if force due to a charge varies as

(a) r–1
(b) r–2
(c) r–3
(d) r–4

Question: An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will
experience
(a) a translational force only in the direction of the field
(b) a translational force only in the direction normal to the direction of the field
(c) a torque as well as a translational force
(d) a torque only

Question: An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere then

(a) the flux of the electric field through the sphere is not zero.
(b) the electric field is zero at every point of the sphere.
(c) the electric field is not zero anywhere on the sphere.
(d) the electric field is zero on a circle on the sphere.

Question: Gauss's law is valid for

(a) any closed surface
(b) only regular close surfaces
(c) any open surface
(d) only irregular open surfaces

Question: An electric dipole has a pair of equal and opposite point charges q and –q separated by a distance
2x. The axis of the dipole is
(a) from positive charge to negative charge
(b) from negative charge to positive charge
(c) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges rawn at the centre and pointing upward direction
(d) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges drawn at the centre and pointing downward direction

Question: The Gaussian surface

(a) can pass through a continuous charge distribution.
(b) cannot pass through a continuous charge distribution.
(c) can pass through any system of discrete charges.
(d) can pass through a continuous charge distribution as well as any system of discrete charges.

Question: Assertion : On moving a distance two times the initial distance away from an infinitely long
straight uniformly charged wire the electric field reduces to one third of the initial value.
Reason : The electric field is inversely proportional to the distance from an infinitely long straight
uniformly charged wire.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=A

Q.1. Charge is the property associated with matter due to which it produces and experiences
(a) electric effects only
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(b) magnetic effects only

(c) both electric and magnetic effects
(d) None of these
AnswerAnswer: c
Q.2. Charge is
(a) transferable (b) associated with mass
(c) conserved (d) All of these
AnswerAnswer: d
Q.3. A body is positively charged, it implies that
(a) there is only positive charge in the body.
(b) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body but the positive charge is more than negative charge
(c) there is equal positive and negative charge in the body but the positive charge lies in the outer regions
(d) negative charge is displaced from its position
AnswerAnswer: (b) When we say that a body is charged, we always mean that the body is having excess of
electrons (negatively charged) or is of deficient of electrons (positively charged).
Q.4. On rubbing, when one body gets positively charged and other negatively charged, the electrons
transferred from positively charged body to negatively charged body are
(a) valence electrons only
(b) electrons of inner shells
(c) both valence electrons and electrons of inner shell
(d) yet to be established
AnswerAnswer: (a) Valence electrons are outermost electrons these can get transferred on rubbing.
Q.5. Which of the following is the best insulator?
(a) Carbon (b) Paper
(c) Graphite (d) Ebonite
AnswerAnswer: d

Q.6. If a body is negatively charged, then it has

(a) excess of electrons (b) excess of protons
(c) deficiency of electrons (d) deficiency of neutrons
AnswerAnswer: a
Q.7. When a body is charged by induction, then the body
(a) becomes neutral
(b) does not lose any charge
(c) loses whole of the charge on it
(d) loses part of the charge on it
AnswerAnswer: b
Q.8. On charging by conduction, mass of a body may
(a) increase (b) decreases
(c) increase or decrease (d) None of these
AnswerAnswer: c
Q.9. Quantisation of charge implies
(a) charge cannot be destroyed
(b) charge exists on particles
(c) there is a minimum permissible charge on a particle
(d) charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible.
AnswerAnswer: d
Q.10. If an object possesses an electric charge, it is said to be electrified or … A … When it has no charge, it
is said to be … B … Here, A and B refer to
(a) charged, neutral (b) neutral, charged
(c) discharged, charged (d) active, reactive
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AnswerAnswer: a
Q.11. A positively charged rod is brought near an uncharged conductor. If the rod is then suddenly
withdrawn, the charge left on the conductor will be
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) cannot say
AnswerAnswer: c
Q.12. Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal positive and negative charges respectively.
Their masses after charging
(a) remains unaffected (b) mass of A > mass of B
(c) mass of A < mass of B (d) Nothing can be said
AnswerAnswer: c

Q.13. When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper. This is because the
(a) comb polarizes the piece of paper
(b) comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the direction of field
(c) electric field due to the comb is uniform
(d) comb induces a net dipole moment perpendicular to the direction of field
AnswerAnswer: (a) Comb induces charge on paper due to which paper is attracted towards the comb.
Q.14. When some charge is transferred to …A… it readily gets distributed over the entire surface of … A…
If some charge is put on … B…, it stays at the same place. Here, A and B refer to
(a) insulator, conductor (b) conductor, insulator
(c) insulator, insulator (d) conductor, conductor
AnswerAnswer: (b) When some charge is given to conductor it spreads on its surface. When some charge is given
to insulator, it remains there, it do not spread, Free charges in conductor interact with added charge, so added
charge spreads on surface to be in equilibrium.
Q.15. Quantisation of charge was experimentally demonstrated by
(a) Einstein’s photoelectric effect
(b) Frank-Hertz experiment
(c) Davisson and Germer experiment
(d) Millikan’s oil drop experiment
AnswerAnswer: d
Q.16. In annihilation process, in which an electron and a positron transform into two gamma rays, which
property of electric charge is displayed?
(a) Additivity of charge
(b) Quantisation of charge
(c) Conservation of charge
(d) Attraction and repulsion
AnswerAnswer: c
Q.17. The law, governing the force between electric charges is known as
(a) Ampere’s law (b) Ohm’s law
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Coulomb’s law
AnswerAnswer: d
Q.18. The value of electric permittivity of free space is
(a) 9 × 109 NC2/m2 (b) 8.85 × 10–12 Nm2/C2 sec
(c)8.85 × 10–12 C2/Nm2 (d) 9 × 109 C2/Nm2
AnswerAnswer: c
Q.19. Coulomb’s law is true for
(a) atomic distances (= 10–11 m)
(b) nuclear distances (= 10–15 m)
(c) charged as well as uncharged particles
(d) all the distances
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AnswerAnswer: d
Q.20. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?
(a) Its radius decreases (b) Its radius increases
(c) The bubble collapses (d) None of these
AnswerAnswer: b
Q.21. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it
(a) gains electrons from silk.
(b) gives electrons to silk.
(c) gains protons from silk.
(d) gives protons to silk.
AnswerAnswer: c
Explanation: (b) On rubbing a glass rod with silk, excess electrons are transferred from glass to silk. So glass rod
becomes positive and silk becomes negative.

Q.22. In general, metallic ropes are suspended on the carriers taking inflammable materials. The reason is
(a) to control the speed of the carrier.
(b) to keep the centre of gravity of the carrier nearer to the earth.
(c) to keep the body of the carrier in contact with the earth.
(d) none of these.
AnswerAnswer: c
Explanation: (c) For providing a path to the charge induced on the surface of the carriers.

Q.23. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed in vacuum at a distance d and the force acting between them is F. If
a medium of dielectric constant 4 is introduced around them, the force now will be (a) F (b) F/2 (c) F/4 (d) 4F
AnswerAnswer: c
Explanation: F/4 In the presence of medium, force becomes 1/K times.

Q.24. When 1014 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere, the charge on the sphere becomes
______ .
AnswerAnswer: c
Explanation: 16 µC, Q = ne = 1014 x 1.6 × 10-19 or Q = 1.6 × 10-5 C = 16 µC As electrons are removed, so charge
will be positive.

Q.25. Two similar spheres having +Q and -Q charges are kept at a certain distance. F force acts between the
two. If at the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having +Q charge is kept, then it experiences a
force in magnitude and direction as
(a) zero having no direction.
(b) 8F towards +Q charge.
(c) 8F towards -Q charge.
(d) 4F towards +Q charge.
AnswerAnswer: c
Explanation: Initially, force between A and C,

When a similar sphere B having charge +Q is kept at the mid-point of line joining A and C, then net force on B is
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The direction is shown in figure.

Q.26. A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q – q. If the coulomb repulsion between them when they
are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of Q/q should be
(a) 2:1
(b) 1/2
(c) 4:1
(d) 1/4
AnswerAnswer: a
Explanation: (a) Let separation between two parts be r, then F = k.q(Q – q)/r² , For F to be maximum dF/dq = 0
then Q/q = 2/1 = 2 : 1

Q.27. Four equal charges q are placed at the four comers A, B, C, D of a square of length a. The magnitude
of the force on the charge at B will be

AnswerAnswer: c
Explanation:
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Q.28. Dielectric constant for metal ______ .

AnswerAnswer: Infinity Infinite

Q.29. Two charges of equal magnitudes kept at a distance r exert a force F on each other. If the charges are
halved and distance between them is doubled, then the new force acting on each charge is

Answer

Q.30. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is
(a) zero.
(b) constant, less than zero.
(c) directly proportional to the distance from the centre.
(d) none of the these
AnswerAnswer: a
Explanation: All charges reside on the outer surface of the shell so according to Gauss’s law, electric field inside
the shell is zero.

Q.31. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis.
The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
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Answer

Q.32. Electric field at a point varies as r° for

(a) an electric dipole
(b) a point charge
(c) a plane infinite sheet of charge
(d) a line charge of infinite length
AnswerAnswer: c

Q.33. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a cube of side a. The electric flux on one of its faces will
be

AnswerAnswer: a
Explanation: Using Gauss’s theorem

Q.34. Total electric flux coming out of a unit positive charge kept in air is

AnswerAnswer: b
Explanation: Total flux coming out from the unit charge is

Q.35. The electric field intensity due to an infinite cylinder of radius R and having charge q per unit length
at a distance air r (r > R) from its axis is
(a) directly proportional to r².
(b) directly proportional to r3.
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(c) inversely proportional to r.

(d) inversely proportional to r².
AnswerAnswer: c
Explanation:

Q.36. A point charge q is placed at a distance a/2 directly above the centre of a square of side a. The electric
flux through the square is

AnswerAnswer: d
Explanation: An imaginary cube can be made by considering charge q at the centre and given square is one of its
face. So flux through the given square (i.e. one face)
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Q.37. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field E due to a hollow spherical
conductor of radius R as a function of distance from the centre of the sphere?

AnswerAnswer: a
Explanation: (a) Electric field due to a hollow spherical conductor is governed by equations E = 0, for r < R …(i)

and for r ≥ R ….(ii)

i.e. inside the conductor, electric field will be zero and outside the conductor it will vary according to E oc 1/r².

Q.38. The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, an electron placed in it would experience an
electrical force equal to its weight is given by
(a) mge
(b) mg/e
(c) e/mg
(d) e²g/m²
AnswerAnswer: b
Explanation: According to the question, eE = mg or E = mg/e

Q.39. In Fig. (i) two positive charges q2 and q3 fixed along the y-axis, exert a net electric force in the +x
direction on a charge q1 fixed along the x-axis. If a positive charge Q is added at (x, 0) in figure (ii), the force
on q1 is [NCERT Exemplar]
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(a) shall increase along the positive x-axis.

(b) shall decrease along the positive x-axis.
(c) shall point along the negative x-axis.
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of the intersection of Q with q2 and qy
AnswerAnswer: a
The net electrostatic force on the charge q1 by the charges q2 and q3 is along the positive x-direction. Hence the
nature of force between qu q2 and qx, q3 should be attractive. It means qx should be negative.

Q.40. Which of the following statement is correct? The electric field at a point is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) always continuous.
(b) continuous if there is a charge at that point.
(c) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point.
(d) discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.
AnswerAnswer: d
The electric field due to any charge will be continuous, if there is no other charge in the medium. It will be
discontinuous if there is a charge at the point under consideration.

Q.41. A point charge +q is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting plane. The field at a point P
on the other side of the plane is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane.
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the plane.
(c) directed radially away from the point charge.
(d) directed radially towards the point charge.
AnswerAnswer: a
The electric field lines are away from positive charge and perpendicular to the surface. Hence the field at a point P
on the other side of the plane is directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane.

Q.42. Gauss’s law will be invalid if

(a) there is magnetic monopole.
(b) the inverse square law is not exactly true.
(c) the velocity of light is not a universal constant.
(d) none of these.
AnswerAnswer: b
The electric field lines are away from positive charge and perpendicular to the surface. Hence the field at a point P
on the other side of the plane is directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane.

Q.43. SI unit of permittivity of free space is

(a) Farad
(b) Weber
(c) C2N-1 m-2
(d) C2N-1 m-2
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AnswerAnswer: c

Q.44. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two point charges +q and +q as shown in the
figure. The ratio of charges Q and q is

(a) 4
(b) 1/4
(c) -4
(d) -1/4
AnswerAnswer: d

Q.45. The force per unit charge is known as

(a) electric flux
(b) electric field
(c) electric potential
(d) electric current
AnswerAnswer: b

Q.46. Electric field lines provide information about

(a) field strength
(b) direction
(c) nature of charge
(d) all of these
AnswerAnswer: d

Q.47. Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a single negative charge?

AnswerAnswer: b

Q.48. The SI unit of electric flux is

(a) N C-1 m-2
(b) N C m-2
(c) N C-2 m2
(d) N C-1 m2
AnswerAnswer: d
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Q.49. The unit of electric dipole moment is

(a) newton
(b) coulomb
(c) farad
(d) debye
AnswerAnswer: d

Q.50. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the total charge is zero. At
points outside the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely proportional to r3, for large r (distance from origin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the region will not be zero.
AnswerAnswer: c

Q.51. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called

(a) Closed surface
(b) Spherical surface
(c) Gaussian surface
(d) Plane surface
AnswerAnswer: c

Q.52. The total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge q is placed at corner A of
the cube is

AnswerAnswer: a

Q.53. Which of the following statements is not true about Gauss’s law?
(a) Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.
(b) The term q on the right side side of Gauss’s law includes the sum of all charges enclosed by the surface.
(c) Gauss’s law is not much useful in calculating electrostatic field when the system has some symmetry.
(d) Gauss’s law is based on the inverse square dependence on distance contained in the coulomb’s law
AnswerAnswer: c

Q.54. Four charges are arranged at the comers of a square ABCD, as shown. The force on the charge kept
at the centre O is
 P a g e | 20

(a) zero
(b) along the diagonal AC
(c) along the diagonal BD
(d) perpendicular to side AB
AnswerAnswer: c
Place a unit positive charge at O. Resultant force due to the charges placed at A and C is zero and resultant charge
due to B and D is towards D along the diagonal BD.

Q.55. Calculate the flux through the cuboid shown in the figure for E = E0 y j :-

(a) E0abc
(b) E0abd
(c) E0abcd
(d) Zero
AnswerAnswer: a

Q.56. An electron is rotating around an infinite positive linear charge in a circle of radius 0.1 m, if the linear
charge density is 1 μC/m, then the velocity of electron in m/s will be
(a) 0.562 × 107
(b) 0.562 x 106
(c) 562 x 107
(d) 0.0562 x 107
AnswerAnswer: a

Q.57. The force between two small charged spheres having charges of 1 × 10–7 C and 2 ×10–7 C placed 20 cm
apart in air is
(a) 4.5 × 10–2 N
(b) 4.5 × 10–3 N
(c) 5.4 × 10–2 N
(d) 5.4 × 10–3 N
AnswerAnswer: b
 P a g e | 21

Q.58. Two insulated charged metallic sphere P and Q have their centres separated by a distance of 60 cm.
The radii of P and Q are negligible compared to the distance of separation. The mutual force of electrostatic
repulsion if the charge on each is 3.2 × 10–7 C is
(a) 5.2 × 10–4 N
(b) 2.5 × 10–3 N
(c) 1.5 × 10–3N
(d) 3.5 × 10–4 N
AnswerAnswer: b

Q.59. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1, It
experiences a torque of 4 Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm.
(a) 8 mC
(b) 4 mC
(c) 8 μC
(d) 2 mC
AnswerAnswer: d

Q.60. If the dipole of moment 2.57 × 10–17 cm is placed into an electric field of magnitude 3.0 × 104 N/C such
that the fields lines are aligned at 30° with the line joining P to the dipole, what torque acts on the dipole?
(a) 7.7 × 10–13 Nm
(b) 3.855 × 10–13 Nm
(c) 3.855 × 10–15 Nm
(d) 7.7 × 10–15 Nm
AnswerAnswer: b

Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers
Question: A positively charged particle is released from rest in an uniform electric field. The electric
potential energy of the charge
(a) remains a constant because the electric field is uniform
(b) increases because the charge moves along the electric field
(c) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field
(d) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field
Answer=C

Question: The electrostatic potential on the surface of a charged conducting sphere is 100V. Two statements
are made in this regard S1 at any point inside the sphere, electric intensity is zero. S2 at any point inside the
sphere, the electrostatic potential is 100V. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) S1 is true but S2 is false
(b) Both S1 and S2 are false
(c) S1 is true, S2 is also true and S1 is the cause of S2
(d) S1 is true, S2 is also true but the statements are independant
Answer=C
 P a g e | 22

Question: Consider the following statements and select the correct statement(s).
I. Electric field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surface.
II. No two equipotential surfaces can intersect each other.
III. Electric field lines are in the direction of tangent to an equipotential surface.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Answer=A

Question: Equipotentials at a great distance from a collection of charges whose total sum is not zero are
approximately
(a) spheres
(b) planes
(c) paraboloids
(d) ellipsoids
Answer=A

Question: In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and
x, y, z are in metres. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is :

Answer=D

Question: A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged
capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system
(a) decreases by a factor of 2
(b) remains the same
(c) increases by a factor of 2
(d) increases by a factor of 4
Answer=A

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : Electric potential and electric potential energy are different quantities.
Reason : For a system of positive test charge and point charge electric potential energy = electric potential.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=C

Question: A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting
cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral
(a) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the inner cylinder.
(b) A potential difference appears between two cylinders when a charge density is given to the outer cylinder.
(c) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept along the axis of
the cylinders.
(d) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when same charge density is given to both the
cylinders.
Answer=A
 P a g e | 23

Question: The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
charge Q and area A, is
(a) independent of the distance between the plates
(b) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
(c) inversely proportional to the distance between theplates
(d) proportional to the square root of the distance betweenthe plates
Answer=A

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with net charge is zero, the electric field at any
point on axis of the ring is zero.
Reason : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with net charge zero, the electric potential at each
point on axis of the ring is zero.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=D

Question: The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials

(a) In all the four cases the work done is the same
(b) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (i)
(c) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (ii)
(d) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (iii)
Answer: In all the four cases the work done is the same

Question: In a region of constant potential

(a) the electric field is uniform
(b) the electric field is zero
(c) the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region
(d) None of these

Question: The electric potential inside a conducting sphere

(a) increases from centre to surface
(b) decreases from centre to surface
(c) remains constant from centre to surface
(d) is zero at every point inside

Question: It becomes possible to define potential at a point in an electric field because electric field
(a) is a conservative field
(b) is a non-conservative field
(c) is a vector field
(d) obeys principle of superposition

Question: Which of the following about potential at a point due to a given point charge is true ?
The potential at a point P due to a given point charge
 P a g e | 24

(a) is a function of distance from the point charge.

(b) varies inversely as the square of distance from the point charge.
(c) is a vector quantity
(d) is directly proportional to the square of distance from the point charge.

Question: Which of the following quantities do not depend on the choice of zero potential or zero potential
energy?
(a) Potential at a point
(b) Potential difference between two points
(c) Potential energy of a two-charge system
(d) None of these

Question: A cube of a metal is given a positive charge Question: For this system, which of the following
statements is true?
(a) Electric potential at the surface of the cube is zero
(b) Electric potential within the cube is zero
(c) Electric field is normal to the surface of the cube
(d) Electric field varies within the cube

Question: A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a point A to point B, then
(a) VA – VB = + ve
(b) VA – VB = 0
(c) VA – VB = – ve
(d) it is stationary

Question: An equipotential surface is that surface

(a) on which each and every point has the same potential
(b) which has negative potential
(c) which has positive potential
(d) which has zero potential

Question: To obtain 3 μF capacity from three capacitors of 2 μF each, they will be arranged.
(a) all the three in series
(b) all the three in parallel
(c) two capacitors in series and the third in parallel with the combinatioin of first two
(d) two capacitors in parallel and the third in series with the combinatioin of first two

Question: There are two metallic spheres of same radii but one is solid and the other is hollow, then
(a) solid sphere can be given more charge
(b) hollow sphere can be given more charge
(c) they can be charged equally (maximum)
(d) None of the above

Question: If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface, then
 P a g e | 25

(a) work is done on the charge

(b) work is done by the charge
(c) work done is constant
(d) no work is done

Question: On moving a charge of Q coulomb by X cm, W J of work is done, then the potential difference
between the points is
(a) W/Q *V
(b) QW V
(c) Q/W V
(d) Q2 /W V

Question: The positive terminal of 12 V battery is connected to the ground. Then the negative terminal will
be at
(a) – 6 V
(b) + 12 V
(c) zero
(d) – 12 V

Question: The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can withstand without break-down is called
its
(a) permittivity
(b) dielectric constant
(c) electric susceptibility
(d) dielectric strength

Question: The potential energy of a system of two charges is negative when

(a) both the charges are positive
(b) both the charges are negative
(c) one charge is positive and other is negative
(d) both the charges are separated by infinite distance

Question: The electric potential at a point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole is
(a) directly proportional to distance
(b) inversely proportional to distance
(c) inversely proportional to square of the distance
(d) None of these

Question: An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform elecric field. it experiences

(a) a force and a torque
(b) a force but not a torque
(c) a torque but not a force
(d) Neither a force nor a torque
 P a g e | 26

Question: Consider the followoing statements regarding series grouping of capacitors and select the correct
statements.
I. Charge on each capacitor remains same and equals to the main charge supplied by the battery.
II. Potential difference and energy distributes in the reverse ratio of capacitance.
III. Effective capacitance is even les than the least of teh individual capacitances.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III

Question: A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The
potential at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere is
(a) zero
(b) 10 V
(c) 4 V
(d) 10/3 V

Question: A charge is brought from a point on the equatorial plane of a dipole to its mid-point. Which of
the following quantities remains constant ?
(a) Electric field
(b) Force on the charge brought.
(c) Torque exerted by the charge on dipole.
(d) Electric potential

Question: On decreasing the distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, its capacitance
(a) remains unaffected
(b) decreases
(c) first increases then decreases.
(d) increases

Question: Energy is stored in a capacitor in the form of

(a) electrostatic energy
(b) magnetic energy
(c) light energy
(d) heat energy

Question: A capacitor works in

(a) A. C. circuits
(b) D. C. circuits
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Question: In a charged capacitor, the energy is stored in

(a) the negative charges
(b) the positive charges
 P a g e | 27

(c) the field between the plates

(d) both (a) and (b)

Question: A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduced between the plates of a capacitor.
The capacitance of the capacitor
(a) decreases
(b) remains unchanged
(c) becomes infinite
(d) increases

Question: The potential gradient at which the dielectric of a condenser just gets punctured is called
(a) dielectric constant
(b) dielectric strength
(c) dielectric resistance
(d) dielectric number

Question: When air in a capacitor is replaced by a medium of dielectric constant K, the capacity
(a) decreases K times
(b) increases K times
(c) increases K2 times
(d) remains constant

Question: A parallel plate condenser is immersed in an oil of dielectric constant 2. The field between the
plates is
(a) increased, proportional to 2
(b) decreased, proportional to 1/2
(c) increased, proportional to – 2
(d) decreased, proportional to -1/2

Question: A conductor carries a certain charge. When it is connected to another uncharged conductor of
finite capacity, then the energy of the combined system is
(a) more than that of the first conductor
(b) less than that of the first conductor
(c) equal to that of the first conductor
(d) uncertain

Question: Capacitiors are used in electrical circuits where appliances need more
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) resistance
(d) power

Question: The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10–18 coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100 micro-
farad is
(a) 3.1 × 10–26 joule
(b) 4 × 10–10 joule
(c) 32 × 10–32 joule
 P a g e | 28

(d) 16 × 10–232 joule

Question: An arrangement which consists of two conductors separated by a dielectric medium is called
(a) resistor
(b) inductor
(c) rectifier
(d) capacitor

Question: Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by

(a) increasing the distance between the plates
(b) increasing the thickness of the plates
(c) decreasing the thickness of the plates
(d) decreasing the distance between the plates

Question: In a charged capacitor, the energy resides

(a) in the positive charges.
(b) in both the positive and negative charges.
(c) in the field between the plates.
(d) around the edges of the capacitor plates.

Question: ...X... is a machine that can build up high voltages of the order of a few million volts. Here, A
refers to
(a) Dynamo
(b) Van De Graaff generator
(c) DC generator
(d) AC generator

Question: In case of a Van de Graaff generator, the breakdown field of air is

(a) 2 × 108 V m–1
(b) 3 × 106 V m–1
(c) 2 × 108 V m–1
(d) 3 × 104 V m–1

Question: Van de Graaff generator is used to

(a) store electrical energy
(b) build up high voltage of few million volts
(c) decelerate charged particle like electrons
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question: Which of the following is / are true about the principle of Van de Graaff generator?
(a) The action of sharp points.
(b) The charge given to a hollow conductor is tranferred to outer surface and is distributed uniformly over it.
(c) It is used for accelerating uncharged particle.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
 P a g e | 29

Question: Which of the following about potential difference between any two points is true?
I. It depends only on the initial and final position.
II. It is the work done per unit positive charge in moving from one point to other.
III. It is more for a positive charge of two units as compared to a positive charge of one unit.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III

Question: Consider the following statements and select the correct option
I. In an external electric field, the positive and negative charges of a non–polar molecule are displaced in opposite
directions.
II. In non –polar molecules displacement stops when the external force on the constituent charges of the molecule
is balanced by the restoring force.
III. The non–polar molecule develops an induced dipole moment.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III

Question: Consider the following statements and select the correct statement(s).
I. Electric field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surface.
II. No two equipotential surfaces can intersect each other.
III. Electric field lines are in the direction of tangent to an equipotential surface.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III

Question: When a metal plate is introduced between the two plates of a charged capacitor and insulated
from them, then which of following statement(s) is/are correct ?
I. The metal plate divides the capacitor into two capacitors connected in parallel to each other
II. The metal plate divides the capacitors into two capacitors connected in series with each other
III. The metal plate is equivalent to a dielectric of zero dielectric constant
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III

Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct for equipotential surface ?
I. The potential at all the points on an equipotential surface is same.
II. Equipotential surfaces never intersect each other.
III. Work done in moving a charge from one point to other on an equipotential surface is zero.
(a) I only
(b) II only
 P a g e | 30

(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III

Question: The electric potential inside a conducting sphere

(a) increases from centre to surface
(b) decreases from centre to surface
(c) remains constant from centre to surface
(d) is zero at every point inside
Answer=C

Question: It becomes possible to define potential at a point in an electric field because electric field
(a) is a conservative field
(b) is a non-conservative field
(c) is a vector field
(d) obeys principle of superposition
Answer=A

Question: Which of the following about potential at a point due to a given point charge is true ?
The potential at a point P due to a given point charge
(a) is a function of distance from the point charge.
(b) varies inversely as the square of distance from the point charge.
(c) is a vector quantity.
(d) is directly proportional to the square of distance from the point charge.
Answer=A

Question: Which of the following quantities do not depend on the choice of zero potential or zero potential
energy?
(a) Potential at a point
(b) Potential difference between two points
(c) Potential energy of a two-charge system
(d) None of these
Answer=B

Question: A cube of a metal is given a positive charge Question: For this system, which of the following
statements is true?
(a) Electric potential at the surface of the cube is zero
(b) Electric potential within the cube is zero
(c) Electric field is normal to the surface of the cube
(d) Electric field varies within the cube
Answer=D

Question: The electric potential at a point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole is
(a) directly proportional to distance
(b) inversely proportional to distance
(c) inversely proportional to square of the distance
(d) None of these
Answer=D

Question: A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The
potential at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere is
(a) zero
 P a g e | 31

(b) 10 V
(c) 4 V
(d) 10/3 V
Answer=B

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : Electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a spherical charged shell.
Reason : Electric potential is continuous across the surface of a spherical charged shell
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=B

Question: From a point charge, there is a fixed point A. At A, there is an electric field of 500 V/m and
potential difference of 3000 V. Distance between point charge and A will be
(a) 6 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 24 m
Answer=A

Question: Two metal pieces having a potential difference of 800 V are 0.02 m apart horizontally. A particle
of mass 1.96 × 10–15 kg is suspended in equilibrium between the plates. If e is the elementary charge, then
charge on the particle is
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 0.1
(d) 3
Answer=D

Current Electricity MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question: The cold junction of a thermocouple is maintained at 10ºC. No thermo e.m.f. is developed when
the hot junction is maintained at 530ºC. The neutral temperature is
(a) 260ºC
(b) 265ºC
(c) 270ºC
(d) 520ºC
Answer= C

Question: Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the shape of a circle

(a) source of emf
(b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire
(c) the charges just behind a given segment of wire which push them just the right way by repulsion
(d) the charges ahead
Answer=B

Question: Two cells of emfs approximately 5 V and 10 V are to be accurately compared using a
potentiometer of length 400 cm.
(a) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have voltage of 8V.
 P a g e | 32

(b) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of 15 V and R adjusted so that the potential drop across the
wire slightly exceeds 10 V.
(c) The first portion of 50 cm of wire itself should have a potential drop of 10 V.
(d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistances and not voltages.
Answer=B

Question: Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current in a conductor?
(a) Drift velocity alone
(b) Thermal velocity alone
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity
(d) Neither drift nor thermal velocity
Answer=A

Question: The cold junction of a thermocouple is maintained at 10ºC. No thermo e.m.f. is developed when
the hot junction is maintained at 530ºC. The neutral temperature is
(a) 260ºC
(b) 265ºC
(c) 270ºC
(d) 520ºC
Answer=C

Question: In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of
1 kW. The voltage of electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be:
(a) 8 A
(b) 10 A
(c) 12 A
(d) 14 A
Answer=C

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : When current through a bulb decreases by 0.5%, the glow of bulb decreases by 1%.
Reason : Glow (Power) which is directly proportional to square of current
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Answer=A

Question: A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is
developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if
(a) both the length and the radius of the wire are halved.
(b) both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled.
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled.
(d) the length of the wire is doubled.
Answer=B

Question: A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it.
Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance
points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's
is :
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 3 : 2
 P a g e | 33

Answer=D

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : Bending a wire does not effect electrical resistance.
Reason : Resistance of wire is proportional ot resistivity of material.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reasonis the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reasonis not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Answer=A

Question: In a current carrying conductor the net charge is

(a) 1.6 x 10–19 coulomb (b) 6.25 x 10–18 coulomb
(c) zero (d) infinite

Question: The current which is assumed to be flowing in a circuit from positive terminal to negative, is
called
(a) direct current (b) pulsating current
(c) conventional current (d) alternating current

Question: When no current is passed through a conductor,

(a) the free electrons do not move
(b) the average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is not zero
(c) the average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(d) the average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is non zero

Question: A current passes through a wire of nonuniform crosssection.

Which of the following quantities are independent of the cross-section?
(a) The charge crossing (b) Drift velocity
(c) Current density (d) Free-electron density

Question: In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the electric field, Then B is
(a) resistivity (b) conductivity
(c) potential difference (d) resistance

Question: Drift velocity of electrons is due to

(a) motion of conduction electrons due to random collisions.
(b) motion of conduction electrons due to electric field . →E
(c) repulsion to the conduction electrons due to inner electrons of ions.
(d) collision of conduction electrons with each other.

Question: The speed at which the current travels, in conductor, is nearly equal to
(a) 3 × 104 m/s
(b) 3 × 105 m/s
 P a g e | 34

(c) 4 × 106 m/s

(d) 3 × 108 m/s

Question: In the absence of an electric field, the mean velocity of free electrons in a conductor at absolute
temperature (T) is
(a) zero
(b) independent of T
(c) proportional to T
(d) proportional to T2

Question: When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor at a temperature T, the drift velocity
of electrons is proportional to
(a) V
(b) V
(c) T
(d) T

Question: The current density (number of free electrons per m3) in metallic conductor is of the order of
(a) 1022
(b) 1024
(c) 1026
(d) 1028

Question: A current passes through a resistor. If K1 and K2 represent the average kinetic energy of the
conduction electrons and the metal ions respectively then
(a) K1 < K2
(b) K1 = K2
(c) K1 > K2
(d) any of these three may occur

Question: A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of the metal
wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it
(a) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(b) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(c) increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(d) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases

Question: The electric field intensity E, current density J and specific resistance k are related to each other
through the relation
(a) E = J/k (b) E = J k

(c) E = k/J (d) k = J E

Question: The relaxation time in conductors

(a) increases with the increases of temperature
(b) decreases with the increases of temperature
(c) it does not depends on temperature
(d) all of sudden changes at 400 K

Question: We are able to obtain fairly large currents in a conductor because

(a) the electron drift speed is usually very large
 P a g e | 35

(b) the number density of free electrons is very high and this can compensate for the low values of
the electron drift speed and the very small magnitude of the electron charge
(c) the number density of free electrons as well as the electron drift speeds are very large and these compensate for
the very small magnitude of the electron charge
(d) the very small magnitude of the electron charge has to be divided by the still smaller product of the number
density and drift speed to get the electric current

Question:. In conductor when electrons move between two collisions, their paths are ... A... when external
fields are absent and ... B...when external filed is present. Here, A and B refer to
(a) straight lines, straight lines
(b) straight lines, curved lines
(c) curved lines, straight lines
(d) curved lines, curved lines

Question: Potentiometer measures potential more accurately because

(a) it measures potential in open circuit
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null deflection
(c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire
(d) it measures potential in closed circuit

Question: The unit of specific resistance is

(a) Ωm-1
(b) Ω-1m-1
(c) Ω1
(d) 2.5-m2

Question: The example of non-ohmic resistance is

(a) diode
(b) copper wire
(c) filament lamp
(d) carbon resistor

Question: Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance, because it has
(a) high melting point
(b) low specific resistance
(c) high specific resistance
(d) negligible temperature coefficient of resistance

Question: At temperature 0K, the germanium behaves as a / an

(a) conductor
(b) insulator
(c) super-conductor
(d) ferromagnetic

Question: Which of the following is used for the formation of thermistor?

(a) Copper oxide
(b) Nickel oxide
(c) Iron oxide
(d) All of the above

Question: What is the suitable material for electric fuse?

 P a g e | 36

(a) Cu
(b) Constantan
(c) Tin-lead alloy
(d) Nichrome

Question: A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
(a) each of these increases
(b) each of these decreases
(c) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(d) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases

Question: The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled,
then
(a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
(d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled

Question: Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound standard resistors because of their
(a) temperature independent resistivity
(b) very weak temperature dependent resistivity.
(c) strong dependence of resistivity with temperature.
(d) mechanical strength.

Question: With increase in temperature the conductivity of

(a) metals increases and of semiconductor decreases.
(b) semeconductors increases and metals decreases.
(c) in both metals and semiconductors increases.
(d) in both metal and semiconductor decreases.

Question: The resistance of a metal increases with increasing temperature because

(a) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the electrons increase
(b) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the lattice consisting of the ions of the metal increase
(c) the number of conduction electrons decreases
(d) the number of conduction electrons increases

Question: To minimise the power loss in the transmission cables connecting the power stations to homes and
factories, the transmission cables carry current
(a) at a very low voltage.
(b) at a very high voltage
(c) at 220 volt
(d) neither at a very high voltage nor at a very low voltage.

Question: Appliances based on heating effect of current work on

(a) only a.c.
(b) only d.c.
(c) both a.c. and d.c.
(d) None of these

Question: In the series combination of two or more than two resistances

 P a g e | 37

(a) the current through each resistance is same

(b) the voltage through each resistance is same
(c) neither current nor voltage through each resistance is same
(d) both current and voltage through each resistance are same.

Question: Two or more resistors are said to be in ...A... if one end of all resistors is joined together and
similarly the other ends joined together, Here, A refers to
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

Question: Emf of a cell is

(a) the maximum potential difference between the terminals of a cell when no current is drawn from the
cell.
(b) the force required to push the electrons in the circuit.
(c) the potential difference between the positive and negative terminal of a cell in a closed circuit.
(d) less than terminal potential difference of the cell.

Question: When potential difference is applied across an electrolyte, then Ohm’s law is obeyed at
(a) zero potential '
(b) very low potential
(c) negative potential
(d) high potential

Question: To draw a maximum current from a combination of cells, how should the cells be grouped?
(a) Parallel
(b) Series
(c) Mixed grouping
(d) Depends upon the relative values of internal and external resistances.

Question: Under what condition will the strength of current in a wire of resistance R be the same for
connection is series and in parallel of n identical cells each of the internal resistance r?
When
(a) R = n r (b) R = r/n
(c) R = r (d) R → ∞, r →0

Question: A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The current will be
maximum in R, if
(a) R = r (b) R < r
(c) R > r (d) R = r/2

Question: An energy source will supply a constant current into the load if its internal resistance is
(a) very large as compared to the load resistance
(b) equal to the resistance of the load
(c) non-zero but less than the resistance of the load
(d) zero

Question: Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by

(a) increasing the e.m.f of the cell
(b) increasing the length of the potentiometer
 P a g e | 38

(c) decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire

(d) None of these

Question: In potentiometer a balance point is obtained, when

(a) the e.m.f. of the battery becomes equal to the e.m.f of the experimental cell
(b) the p.d. of the wire between the +ve end of battery to jockey becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the
experimental cell
(c) the p.d. of the wire between +ve point of cell and jockey becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the battery
(d) the p.d. across the potentiometer wire becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the battery

Question: In the experiment of potentiometer, at balance point, there is no current in the

(a) main circuit
(b) galvanometer circuit
(c) potentiometer circuit
(d) both main and galvanometer circuits

Question: The internal resistance of dry cell is ...A..., than the internal resistance of common electrolytic
cell. Here, A refers to
(a) much lower
(b) much higher
(c) slightly lower
(d) slightly higher

Question: Kirchoff’s first law, i.e., S i = 0 at a junction, deals with the conservation of
(a) charge (b) energy
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum

Question: The Kirchhoff's second law (ΣiR = ΣE), where the symbols have their usual meanings, is based on
(a) conservation of momentum
(b) conservation of charge
(c) conservation of potential
(d) conservation of energy

Question: Why is the Wheatstone bridge better than the other methods of measuring resistances?
(a) It does not involve Ohm’s law
(b) It is based on Kirchoff’s law
(c) It has four resistor arms
(d) It is a null method

Question: If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the positions of cells and galvanometer are
interchanged, then balance point will
(a) change
(b) remain unchanged
(c) depend on the internal resistance of cell and resistance of galvanometer
(d) None of these

Question: In a wheatstone bridge in the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then the deflection in
galvanometer will
(a) change in previous direction
(b) not change
(c) change in opposite direction
 P a g e | 39

(d) none of these.

Question: In meter bridge or Wheatstone bridge for measurement of resistance, the known and the
unknown resistance are interchanged. The error so removed is
(a) end correction
(b) index error
(c) due to temperature effect
(d) random error

Question: For measuring voltage of any circuit, potentiometer is preferred to voltmeter because
(a) the potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle.
(b) calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong .
(c) the potentiometer almost draws no current during measurement.
(d) range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the potentiometer.

Question: A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F.
because the method involves
(a) Potential gradients
(b) A condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
(c) A combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
(d) Cells
Answer=B

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : Kirchoff¢s junction rule follows fromconservation of charge.
Reason : Kirchoff¢s loop rule follows from conservation of momentum
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Answer=C

Question: Which of the following statements is false ?

(a) A rheostat can be used as a potential divider
(b) Kirchhoff's second law represents energy conservation
(c) Wheatstone bridge is the most sensitive when all the four resistances are of the same order of magnitude
(d) In a balanced wheatstone bridge if the cell and the galvanometer are exchanged, the null point is disturbed.
Answer=D

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : A current flows in a conductor only when there is an electric field within the conductor.
Reason : The drift velocity of electron in presence of electric field decreases.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=C

Question: Ten identical cells connected in series are needed to heat a wire of length one meter and radius ‘r’
by 10ºC in time ‘t’. How many cells will be required to heat the wire of length two meter of the same radius
by the same temperature in time ‘t’?
 P a g e | 40

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
Answer=B

Question: An electric heating element in vacuum is surrounded by a cavity at constant temperature of

227ºC; it consumes 60W of power to maintain a temperature of 727ºC. What is the power consumed by the
element to maintain a temperature of 1227º C?
(a) 101 W
(b) 304 W
(c) 90 W
(d) 320 W
Answer=D

Question: An electrical cable of copper has just one wire of radius 9 mm. Its resistance is 5 ohm. This single
copper wire of the cable is replaced by 6 different well insulated copper wires each of radius 3 mm. The
total resistance of the cable will now be equal to
(a) 7.5 ohm
(b) 45 ohm
(c) 90 ohm
(d) 270 ohm
Answer=A

Question: A hank of uninsulated wire consisting of seven and a half turns is stretched between two nails
hammered into a board to which the ends of the wire are fixed. The resistance of the circuit between the
nails is determined with the help of electrical measuring instruments. Determine the proportion in which
the resistance will change if the wire is unwound so that the ends remain to be fixed to the nails.
(a) 225
(b) 15
(c) 240
(d) 250
Answer=A

Question: To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 ohms, one can use n rows of m cells (connected in
series) connected in parallel. If the total number of cells is 24 and the internal resistance of a cell is 0.5 ohms
then
(a) m = 12, n = 2
(b) m = 8, n = 3
(c) m = 2, n = 12
(d) m = 6, n = 4
Answer=A

Question: An Aluminium (Al) rod with area of cross-section 4 × 10–6 m2 has a current of 5 ampere. Flowing
through it. Find the drift velocity of electron in the rod. Density of Al = 2.7 × 10 3 kg/m3 and Atomic wt. = 27.
Assume that each Al atom provides one electron
(a) 8.6 × 10–4 m/s
(b) 1.29 × 10–4 m/s
(c) 2.8 × 10–2 m/s
(d) 3.8 × 10–3 m/s
Answer=B
 P a g e | 41

Moving Charges and Magnetism MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers
Question: Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic field B such
that
(a) B is perpendicular of
(b) B is parallel to v
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of observationt
Answer=A

Question: A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x-y plane with centre at the origin.
Half of the loop with x > 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane.
(a) The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes
(b) The magnetic moment does not change
(c) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z > R increases
(d) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z >> R is unchanged
Answer=A

Question: An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long solenoid.
Which of the following is true?
(a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis
(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis
(c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical path
(d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid
Answer=D

Question: In a cyclotron, a charged particle

(a) undergoes acceleration all the time
(b) speeds up between the dees because of the magnetic field
(c) speeds up in a dees
(d) slows down within a dee and speeds up between dees
Answer=A

Question: If we double the radius of a coil keeping the current through it unchanged, then the magnetic
field at any point at a large distance from the centre becomes approximately
(a) double
(b) three times
(c) four times
(d) one-fourth
Answer=C

Question: A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving at right
angles to field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy
acquired by proton is 1 MeV the energy acquired by the alpha particle will be:
(a) 0.5 MeV
(b) 1.5 MeV
(c) 1 MeV
(d) 4 MeV
Answer=C
 P a g e | 42

Question: A charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field and losses 4% of its kinetic energy. The
radius of curvature of its path changes by
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%
Answer=C

Question: Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same potential
difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii R 1 and R2,
respectively. The ratio of masses of X
(a) (R1/R2)1/2
(b) (R2/R1)
(c) (R1/R2)2
(d) (R1/R2)
Answer=C

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : Free electrons always keep on moving in a conductor even then no magnetic force act on them in
magnetic field unless a current is passed through it.
Reason : The average velocity of free electron is zero.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=B

Question: A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of
radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with the same B is
(a) 25 keV (b) 50 keV
(c) 200 keV (d) 100 keV
Answer=D

Question: According to oersted, around a current carrying conductor, magnetic field exists
(a) as long as there is current in the wire
(b) even after removing the current in the wire
(c) only few seconds after removing the current
(d) None of these

Question: Similarities of Biot–Savart’s law and Coulomb’s law for the electrostatics are
I. both are long range and inversely proportional to the square of distance from the source to the point of interest.
II. both are linear in source.
III. both are produced by scalar sources.
IV. both follow principle of superposition.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV

Question: Ampere’s circuital law states that

 P a g e | 43

(a) the surface integral of magnetic field over the open surface is equal to μ0 times the total current passing
through the surface.
(b) the surface integral of magnetic field over the open surface is equal to μ0 times the total current passing near
the surface.
(c) the line integral of magnetic field along the boundary of the open surface is equal to μ0 times the total current
passing near the surface.
(d) the line integral of magnetic field along the boundary of the open surface is equal to μ0 times the total
current passing through the surface.

Question: Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons velocity

(V) produce a magnetic field B such that
(a) B ∥ V
(b) B ⊥ V
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
(d) it is along the line joining electron and point of observation

Question: Ampere’s circuital law is equivalent to

(a) Biot-Savart law (b) Coulomb’s law
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Kirchhoff’s law

Question: The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as

(a) the current flowing through the galvanometer when a unit voltage is applied across its terminals.
(b) current per unit deflection.
(c) deflection per unit current.
(d) dflection per unit current when a unit voltage is applied across its terminals

Question: The magnetic field around a long straight current carrying wire is
(a) spherical symmetry (b) cylindrical symmetry
(c) cubical symmetry (d) unsymmetrical

Question: If a copper rod carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the current will be
(a) only inside the rod
(b) only outside the rod
(c) both inside and outside the rod
(d) neither inside nor outside the rod

Question: Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, through which a current I flows is
(a) directly proportional to r
(b) inverseley proportional to I
(c) directly proportional to I
(d) directly proprotional to I2
 P a g e | 44

Question: Two parallel circular coils of equal radii having equal number of turns placed coaxially and
separated by a distance equal to the radii of the coils carrying equal currents in same direction are known
as
(a) Biot-savart’s coils (b) Ampere’s coils
(c) Helmholtz coils (d) Oersted’s coils.

Question: Magnetic field inside a solenoid is

(a) directly proportional to its length
(b) directly proportional to current
(c) inversely proportional to total number of turns
(d) inversely porportional to current

Question: A long solenoid has a radius a and number of turns per unit length n. If it carries a current i, then
the magnetic field on its axis is directly proportional to
(a) ani (b) ni
(c) ni /a (d) n2i

Question: If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will

(a) expand (b) compress
(c) remains same (d) None of these

Question: Lorentz force is

(a) electrostatic force acting on a charged particle.
(b) magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.
(c) the vector sum of electrostatic and magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.
(d) the vector sum of gravitational and magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.

Question: A moving coil galvanometer has N number of turns in a coil of effective area A, it carries a
current I. The magnetic field B is radial. The torque acting on the coil is
(a) NA2B2I (b) NABI2
(c) N2ABI (d) NABI

Question: Which of the following is true ?

(a) Parallel currents repel, and antiparallel currents attract.
(b) Parallel currents attract, and antiparallel currents repel.
(c) Both parallel and antiparallel currents attract.
(d) Both parallel and antiparallel currents repel.

Question: Which of the following is the correct definition of ampere?

(a) The ampere is the value of that steady current which when maintained in each of the two very long, straight,
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and placed one metre apart in vacuum, would produce on each of
these conductors a force equal to 2 × 107 N/m of length.
 P a g e | 45

(b) The ampere is the value of that steady current which when maintained in each of the two very long, straight,
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and placed one centimetre apart in vacuum, would produce on each
of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 N/m of length.
(c) The ampere is the value of that steady current which, when maintained in each of the two very long,
straight, parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and placed one metre apart in vacuum, would
produce on each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 N/m of length.
(d) The ampere is the value of that steady current which, when maintained in each of the two very long, straight,
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and placed ten metre apart in vacuum, would produce on each of
these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 N/m of length.

Question: An electron having a charge e moves with a velocity v in X-direction. An electric field acts on it in
Y-direction? The force on the electron acts in
(a) positive direction of Y-axis
(b) negative direction of Y-axis
(c) positive direction of Z-axis
(d) negative direction of Z-axis

Question: An electric charge in uniform motion produces

(a) an electric field only
(b) a magnetic field only
(c) both electric and magnetic fields
(d) no such field at all

Question: If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the
current will be
(a) only inside the pipe
(b) only outside the pipe
(c) neither inside nor outside the pipe
(d) both inside and outside the pipe

Question: Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of

(a) electric field (b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength (d) heat

Question: Two free parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite directions
(a) attract each other
(b) repel each other
(c) do not attract each other
(d) get rotated to be perpendicular to each other

Question: Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because of
(a) potential difference between them
(b) mutual inductance between them
(c) electric forces between them
(d) magnetic forces between them
 P a g e | 46

Question: A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a magnetic field and a current flows in the wire.
Then
(a) the wire will experience a force in the direction of the magnetic field
(b) the wire will not experience any force at all
(c) the wire will experience a force in a direction opposite to the field
(d) it experiences a force in a direction perpendicular to lines of force

Question: A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque acting on it does not
depend upon
(a) shape of the loop (b) area ot the loop
(c) value of the current (d) magnetic field

Question: A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(a) velocity remains unchanged
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged

Question: Consider a moving charged particle in a region of magnetic field. Which of the following
statements are correct ?
I. If v is parallel to B, then path of particle is spiral.
II. If v is perpendicular to B, then path of particle is a circle.
III. If v has a component along B, then path of particle is helical.
IV. If v is along B, then path of particle is a circle.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) IV and I

Question: Direction of force due to magnetic field on a moving charged particle is

I. perpendicular to direction of velocity of charged particle.
II. perpendicular to direction of magnetic field.
III. parallel to direction of velocity of charged particle.
IV. parallel to the direction of magnetic field.
Correct statements are
(a) I and IV (b) I and II
(c) I and III (d) III and IV

Question: In cyclotron the gyro radius is

(a) proportional to momentum
(b) proportional to energy
(c) inversely proportional to momentum
(d) inversely proportional to energy

Question: In cyclotron the resonance condition is

(a) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is equal to the frequency of A.C. voltage sources
(b) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is equal to the frequency of applied magnetic field
(c) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is equal to the frequency of rotation of earth
(d) the frequency of revolution of charged particle, frequency of A.C. source and frequency of magnetic field are
equal

Question: A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field B. Force on the charge due to
magnetic field is
 P a g e | 47

(a) q v B (b) q B/v

(c) zero (d) B v/q

Question: A particle of mass m and charge q enters a magnetic field B perpendicularly with a velocity v.
The radius of the circular path described by it will be
(a) Bq / mv (b) mq / Bv
(c) mB / qv (d) mv / Bq

Question: Cyclotron is used to accelerate

(a) electrons (b) neutrons
(c) positive ions (d) negative ions

Question: The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is independent of

(a) magnetic field in which it is lying
(b) number of turns
(c) area of the loop
(d) current in the loop

Question: Magnetic dipole moment of a rectangular loop is

(a) inversely proportional to current in loop
(b) inversely proportional to area of loop
(c) parallel to plane of loop and porportional to area of loop
(d) perpendicular to plane of loop and porportional to area of loop

Question: Consider the following statements and select the incorrect statement(s).
I. The presence of a large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil if the circuit is continuous
II. A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non– uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in it
III. A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field at an angle of 85° to the magnetic lines of force,
the path of the particle is a circle
IV. There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field although a magnetic force is
acting on it
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) II only (d) IV only

Question: The magnetic moment of a circular coil carrying current is

(a) directly proportional to the length of the wire in the coil
(b) inversely proportional to the length of the wire in the coil
(c) directly proportional to the square of the length of the wire in the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the square of the length of the wire in the coil

Question: To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer

(a) the number of turns in the coil is increased
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe
(c) poles are cylindrically cut
(d) coil is wounded on aluminium frame

Question: The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is

(a) directly proportional to the torsional constant
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current flowing
 P a g e | 48

Question: In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil

θ is related to the elecrical current i by the relation
(a) i ∝ tan θ (b) i ∝ θ
(c) i ∝ θ2 (d) i ∝ θ

Question: A coil of circular cross-section having 1000 turns and 4 cm2 face area is placed with its axis
parallel to a magnetic field which decreases by 10–2 Wb m–2 in 0.01 s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is:
(a) 400 mV
(b) 200 mV
(c) 4 mV
(d) 0.4 mV
Answer=A

Question: A charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to its direction. Then
(a) kinetic energy changes but the momentum is constant
(b) the momentum changes but the kinetic energy is constant
(c) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are not constant
(d) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are constant
Answer=B

Question: A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane
which makes an angle of 30°with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current
through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current
flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is
(a) 7.14 A
(b) 5.98 A
(c) 11.32 A
(d) 14.76 A
Answer=C

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion: The frequency of circular motion of a charged particle in cyclotron is independent of the mass of
the particle.
Reason: Greater the mass of the particle less will be the frequency of the particle
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=D

Question: A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field with a certain velocity. The power
delivered to the particle by the magnetic field depends on
(a) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity of the particle.
(b) angular speed w and radius r of the circular path.
(c) angular speed w and acceleration of the particle.
(d) None of these
Answer=D
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Question: The length of a solenoid is 0.4 m and the number turns in it is 500. A current of 3 amp, is flowing
in it. In a small coil of radius 0.01 m and number of turns 10, a current of 0.4 amp. is flowing. The torque
necessary to keep the axis of this coil perpendicular to the axis of solenoid will be
(a) 5.92 × 10–6 N-m
(b) 5.92 × 10–4 N-m
(c) 5.92 × 10–6 dyne-cm
(d) 5.92 × 10–4 dyne-cm
Answer=A

Question: The AC voltage across a resistance can be measured using a

(a) hot wire voltmeter
(b) moving coil galvanometer
(c) potential coil galvanometer
(d) moving magnet galvanometer
Answer=B

Question: The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is

(a) directly proportional to the torsional constant
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current flowing
Answer=B

Question: The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as

(a) the current flowing through the galvanometer when a unit voltage is applied across its terminals.
(b) current per unit deflection.
(c) deflection per unit current.
(d) dflection per unit current when a unit voltage is applied across its terminals
Answer=C

Question: A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range.
The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be
(a) 0.001
(b) 0.01
(c) 1
(d) 0.05
Answer=A

Magnetism and Matter MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question: The magnetic field of the earth can be modelled by that of a point dipole placed at the centre of
the earth. The dipole axis makes an angle of 11.3° with the axis of the earth. At Mumbai, declination is
nearly zero. Then,
(a) the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E
(b) the least declination is 0°
(c) the plane defined by dipole axis and the earth axis passes through Greenwich
(d) declination averaged over the earth must be always negative
Answer=A

Question: In a permanent magnet at room temperature.

(a) magnetic moment of each molecule is zero
(b) the individual molecules have non-zero magnetic moment which are all perfectly aligned
 P a g e | 50

(c) domains are partially aligned

(d) domains are all perfectly aligned
Answer=D

Question: Magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet do not intersect because
(a) a point always has a single net magnetic field
(b) the lines have similar charges and so repel each other
(c) the lines always diverge from a single force
(d) the lines need magnetic lenses to be made to interest
Answer=A

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do not obey Curie’s law.
Reason : At Curie point a ferromagnetic substance start behaving as a paramagnetic substance.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=C

Question: The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 × 103 Am–1. The
current required to be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the magnet
gets demagnetized when inside the solenoid, is
(a) 30 mA (b) 60 mA (c) 3 A (d) 6 A
Answer=C

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetic field) when
cooled.
Reason : The magnetisation does not depend on temperature
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=D

Question: The magnetic susceptibility is negative for

(a) diamagnetic material only
(b) paramagnetic material only
(c) ferromagnetic material only
(d) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
Answer=A

Question: Two points A and B are situated at a distance x and 2x respectively from the nearer pole of a
magnet 2 cm long. The ratio of magnetic field at A and B is
(a) 4 : 1 exactly (b) 4 : 1 approximately
(c) 8 : 1 approximately (d) 1 : 1 approximately
Answer=C

Question: Choose the correct option

 P a g e | 51

Assertion : Electromagnetic are made of soft iron.

Reason : Coercivity of soft iron is small.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=B

Question: A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7 × 10–2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5 × 10–6 kg m2 is
performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken for 10 complete
oscillations is :
(a) 6.98 s (b) 8.76 s (c) 6.65 s (d) 8. 89 s
Answer=C

Question: The magnetism of magnet is due to

(a) pressure of big magnet inside the earth
(b) earth
(c) cosmic rays
(d) the spin motion of electron

Question: The primary origin (s) of magnetism lies in

(a) atomic currents
(b) polar nature of molecules
(c) extrinsic spin of electron
(d) None of these

Question: Identify the mismatched pair

(a) Hard magnet - Alnico
(b) Soft magnet - Soft iron
(c) Bar magnet - Equivalent solenoid
(d) Permanent magnet - Loud speaker

Question: Demagnetisation of magnets can be done by

(a) rough handling
(b) heating
(c) magnetising in the opposite direction
(d) All of the above

Question: A bar magnet is cut into two equal halves by a plane parallel to the magnetic axis. Of the
following physical quantities the one which remains unchanged is
(a) pole strength
(b) magnetic moment
(c) intensity of magnetisation
(d) None of these

Question: Current I is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns is N, then magnetic moment of the
coil in M equal to
(a) NIA (b) NI/A
(c) NI/ A (d) N2 AI
 P a g e | 52

Question: Magnetic dipole moment is a vector quantity directed from

(a) south pole to north pole
(b) north pole to south pole
(c) east to west
(d) west to east

Question: When a current in a circular loop is equivalently replaced by a magnetic dipole

(a) the pole strength m of each pole is fixed
(b) the distance d between the poles is fixed
(c) the product md is fixed
(d) None of these

Question: Magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet do not intersect because
(a) a point always has a single net magnetic field
(b) the lines have similar charges and so repel each other
(c) the lines always diverge from a single force
(d) the lines need magnetic lenses to be made to interest

Question: The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet

(a) are from N-pole to S-pole of magnet
(b) do not exist
(c) depend upon the area of cross section of bar magnet
(d) are from S-pole of magnet

Question: A circular loop carrying a current is replaced by an equivalent magnetic dipole. A point on the
axis of the loop is in
(a) end-on position (b) broadside-on position
(c) both (d) None of these

Question: The ratio of magnetic fields due to a smaller bar magnet in the end on position to broad side on
position is
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
(c) 1 (d) 2

Question: A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves

(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) None of these

Question: Magnetic field intensity is defined as

(a) Magnetic moment per unit volume
(b) Magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic pole
(c) Number of lines of force crossing per unit area
(d) Number of lines of force crossing per unit volume

Question: On cutting a solenoid in half, the field lines remain ...A...,emerging from one face of the solenoid
and entering into the other face.
Here, A refers to
(a) irregular (b) discontinuous
 P a g e | 53

(c) continuous (d) alternate

Question: The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is thus ...A... to the magnetic moment of an equivalent
solenoid that produces the same magnetic field.
Here, A refers to
(a) unequal (b) different
(c) equal (d) same

Question: The lines of force due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field are
(a) parallel and straight (b) concentric circles
(c) elliptical (d) curved lines

Question: The earth’s magnetic field always has a vertical component except at the
(a) magnetic equator (b) magnetic poles
(c) geographic north pole (d) latitude 45º

Question: At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is

(a) 45º
(b) 30º
(c) zero
(d) 90º

Question: The strength of the earth’s magnetic field is

(a) constant everywhere
(b) zero everywhere
(c) having very high value
(d) vary from place to place on the earths surface

Question: At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value of the horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field and angle of dip are respectively
(a) zero, maximum
(b) maximum, minimum
(c) maximum, maximum
(d) minimum, minimum

Question: The magnetic compass is not useful for navigation near the magnetic poles, since
(a) R = 0
(b) V = 0
(c) H = 0
(d) θ = 0º

Question: A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole.
It will
(a) stay in north-south direction only
(b) stay in east-west direction only
(c) become rigid showing no movement
(d) stay in any position

Question: A dip circle is taken to geomagnetic equator. The needle is allowed to move in a vertical plane
perpendicular to the mangetic meridian. the needle will stay in
(a) horizontal direction only
 P a g e | 54

(b) vertical direction only

(c) any direction except vertical and horizontal
(d) any direction it is released

Question: Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s magnetic field?
(a) Convective currents in earth’s core.
(b) Diversive current in earth’s core.
(c) Rotational motion of earth.
(d) Translational motion of earth.

Question: One can define ...A... of a place as the vertical plane which passes through the imaginary line
joining the magnetic North and the South–poles.
Here, A refers to
(a) geographic meridian
(b) magnetic meridian
(c) magnetic declination
(d) magnetic inclination

Question: The ratio of intensity of magnetisation and magnetising field is called

(a) permeability
(b) magnetic intensity
(c) magnetic intensity
(d) magnetic susceptibility

Question: Susceptibility is positive and large for a

(a) paramagnetic substance
(b) ferromagnetic substance
(c) diamagnetic substance
(d) non magnetic substance

Question: When the temperature of a magnetic material decreases, the magnetization

(a) decreases in a diamagnetic material
(b) decreases in a paramagnetic material
(c) decreases in a ferromagnetic material
(d) remains the same in a diamagnetic material

Question: If μ0 is absolute permeability of vacuum and μr is relative magnetic permeability of another

medium, then permeability μ of the medium is
(a) μ μr
(b) μ/μr
(c) μr/μ
(d) 1/μ μr

Question: Which of the following is not correct about relative magnetic permeability (μ,)?
(a) It is a dimensionsless pure ratio.
(b) For vacuum medium its value is one.
(c) For ferromagnetic materials μ, > > 1
(d) For paramagnetic materials μ, > 1.

Question: Hysterisis is the phenomenon of lagging of

(a) I behind B
 P a g e | 55

(b) B behind I
(c) I and B behind H
(d) H behind I

Question: Metals getting magnetised by orientation of atomic magnetic moments in external magnetic field
are called
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) antimagnetic

Question: The magnetic susceptibility for diamagnetic materials is

(a) small and negative
(b) small and positive
(c) large and positive
(d) large and negative

Question: Which magnetic materials have negative susceptibility?

(a) diamagnetic materials
(b) paramagnetic materials
(c) ferromagnetic materials
(d) All the above

Question: If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is
(a) attracted by poles
(b) repelled by poles
(c) replaced by north pole and attracted by south pole
(d) attracted by north pole and repelled by south pole

Question: Among which of the following the magnetic susceptibility does not depend on the temperature?
(a) Dia-magnetism
(b) Para-magnetism
(c) Ferro-magnetism
(d) Ferrite

Question: The narrowest hysterisis loop is for

(a) cobalt steel
(b) alnico
(c) perm alloy
(d) stainless steel

Question: The hysterisis curve is studied generally for

(a) ferromagnetic materials
(b) paramagnetic materials
(c) diamagnetic materials
(d) all of the above

Question: Curie temperature is the temperature above which

(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagenetic
(b) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(c) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
 P a g e | 56

(d) a paramagnetic meterial becomes ferromagnetic

Question: A material is placed in a magnetic field and it is thrown out of it. Then the material is
(a) paramagnetic
(b) diamagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) non-magnetic

Question: A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves

(a) perpendicular to field
(b) from stronger to weaker parts of field
(c) from weaker to stronger parts of the field
(d) None of these

Question: A temporary magnet is made of

(a) cast iron
(b) steel
(c) soft iron
(d) stainless steel

Question: The hysteresis cycle for the material of permanent magnet is

(a) short and wide (b) tall and narrow
(c) tall and wide (d) short and narrow

Question: Materials suitable for permanent magnet, must have which of the following properties?
(a) High retentivity, low coercivity and high permeability.
(b) Low retentivity, low coercivity and low permeability.
(c) Low retentivity, high coercivity and low permeability.
(d) High retentivity, high coercivity and high permeability.

Question: Which of the following is the most suitable material for making permanent magnet ?
(a) Steel
(b) Soft iron
(c) Copper
(d) Nickel

Question: The materials suitable for making electromagnets should have

(a) high retentivity and low coercivity
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity

Question: Core of elctromagnets are made of ferromagnetic materials which have

(a) low permeability and low retentivity
(b) high permeability and high retentivity
(c) high permeability and high retentivity.
(d) low permeability and high retentivity.

Question: Permanent magnets are the substances having the property of

(a) ferromagnetism at room temperature for a long period of time.
(b) paramagnetism at room temperature for a long period of time.
 P a g e | 57

(c) anti ferromagnetism at room temperature for a long period of time.

(d) diamagnetism at room temperature for a long period of time.

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : The poles of magnet can not be separated by breaking into two pieces.
Reason : The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is broken into two equal pieces
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer=B

Question: A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal
magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from
(a) the current source
(b) the magnetic field
(c) the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field
(d) the lattice structure of the material of the rod
Answer=A

Question: The given figure represents a material which is

(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic

(c) ferromagnetic (d) none of these
Answer=B

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : The earth¢s magnetic field is due to iron present in its core.
Reason : At a high temperature magnet losses its magnetism
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
Answer=D

Question: A magnetic dipole is acted upon by two magnetic fields which are inclined to each other at an
angle of 75°. One of the fields has a magnitude of 15 mT. The dipole attains stable equilibrium at an angle of
30° with this field. The magntidue of the other field (in mT) is close to
(a) 1 (b) 11 (c) 36 (d) 1060
Answer=B

Question: A dip circle is so set that its needle moves freely in the magnetic meridian. In this position, the
angle of dip is 40º. Now the dip circle is rotated so that the plane in which the needle moves makes an angle
of 30º with the magnetic
meridian. In this position, the needle will dip by an angle
(a) 40º
(b) 30º
(c) more than 40º
(d) less than 40º
 P a g e | 58

Answer=B

Question: A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields The angle between the field
directions is 60° and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 × 10–2 T. If the dipole comes to stable
equilibrium at an angle of 15° with this field, what is the magnitude of other field ?
(a) 4.4 × 10–3 tesla
(b) 5.2 × 10–3 tesla
(c) 3.4 × 10–3 tesla
(d) 7.8 × 10–3 tesla
Answer=A

Question: A long straight horizontal cable carries a current of 2.5 A in the direction 10° south of west to 10°
north of east. The magnetic meridian of the place happens to be 10° west of the geographic meridian. The
earth’s magnetic field at the location is 0.33 Gauss, and the angle of dip is zero. Locate the line of neutral
points. (Ignore the thickness of the cable).
(a) 1.5 cm
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 3.5 cm
(d) 2.0 cm
Answer=A

Question: A very small magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian with its south pole pointing north. The
null point is obtained 20 cm away from the centre of the magnet. If the earth¢s magnetic field (horizontal
component) at this point be 0.3 gauss, the magnetic moment of the magnet is
(a) 8.0 × 102 e.m.u.
(b) 1.2 × 103 e.m.u.
(c) 2.4 × 103 e.m.u.
(d) 3.6 × 103 e.m.u.
Answer=B

Question: The time period of oscillation of a magnet in a vibration magnetometer is 1.5 sec. The time period
of oscillation of another magnet similar in size, shape and mass but having 1/4 magnetic moment than that
of the 1st magnet oscillating at the same place will be
(a) 0.75 sec
(b) 1.5 sec
(c) 3.0 sec
(d) 6.0 sec
Answer=C

Electromagnetic Induction MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question: Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit changes, an emf is induced in the
circuit. This is called
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) lenz’s law
(c) hysteresis loss
(d) kirchhoff’s laws
Answer= A

Question: According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction

(a) electric field is produced by time varying magnetic flux.
(b) magnetic field is produced by time varying electric flux.
 P a g e | 59

(c) magnetic field is associated with a moving charge.

(d) None of these
Answer= A

Question: Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) charge (b) mass
(c) energy (d) momentum
Answer= C

Question: A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then the induced e.m.f. is
(a) larger in case (i)
(b) smaller in case (i)
(c) equal in both the cases
(d) llarger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
Answer= A

Question: A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the diameter of a circular wire loop,
without touching it, the correct statement(s) is(are)
I. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is constant.
II. The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is constant.
III. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current decreases at a steady rate
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
Answer= A

Question: An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is plunged into a coil. The strength of the induced
e.m.f. is independent of
(a) the strength of the magnet
(b) number of turns of coil
(c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
(d) speed with which the magnet is moved
Answer= C

Question: When current i passes through an inductor of self inductance L, energy stored in it is 1/2. L i2.
This is stored in the
(a) current (b) voltage
(c) magnetic field (d) electric field
Answer= C

Question: A coil is wound on a frame of rectangular cross-section. If all the linear dimensions of the frame
are increased by a factor 2 and the number of turns per unit length of the coil remains the same, self-
inductance of the coil increases by a factor of
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
Answer= B

Question: The self inductance associated with a coil is independent of

(a) current (b) time
(c) induced voltage (d) resistance of coil
Answer= D
 P a g e | 60

Question: The plane in which eddy currents are produced in a conductor is inclined to the plane of the
magnetic field at an angle equal to
(a) 45° (b) 0° (c) 180° (d) 90°
Answer= D

Question: Eddy currents are produced when

(a) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field
(b) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field
(c) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
(d) Through a circular coil, current is passed
Answer= A

Question: Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit changes, an emf is induced in the
circuit. This is called
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) lenz’s law
(c) hysteresis loss
(d) kirchhoff’s laws

Question: An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is plunged into a coil. The strength of the induced
e.m.f. is independent of
(a) the strength of the magnet
(b) number of turns of coil
(c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
(d) speed with which the magnet is moved

Question: According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction

(a) electric field is produced by time varying magnetic flux.
(b) magnetic field is produced by time varying electric flux.
(c) magnetic field is associated with a moving charge.
(d) None of these

Question: A moving conductor coil produces an induced e.m.f. This is in accordance with
(a) Lenz’s law (b) Faraday’s law
(c) Coulomb’s law (d) Ampere’s law

Question: A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is taken to galvanometer, its pointer is
deflected, because
(a) the induced current is produced
(b) the coil acts like a magnet
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are changed
(d) None of these

Question: Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) charge (b) mass
(c) energy (d) momentum

Question: A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then the induced e.m.f. is
(a) larger in case (i)
(b) smaller in case (i)
(c) equal to both the cases
 P a g e | 61

(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil

Question: The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of a
(a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
(c) electric motor (d) generator

Question: Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each circulating in the same direction. If the
loops approach each other, you will observe that the current in
(a) each increases
(b) each decreases
(c) each remains the same
(d) one increases whereas that in the other decreases

Question: If a coil made of conducting wires is rotated between poles pieces of the permanent magnet. The
motion will generate a current and this device is called
(a) An electric motor (b) An electric generator
(c) An electromagnet (d) All of the above

Question: Magnetic flux is

(a) total charge per unit area.
(b) total current through a surface.
(c) total number of magnetic field lines passing normally through given area.
(d) total e.m.f. in closed circuit.

Question: In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge is independent of

(a) change of flux
(b) time.
(c) resistance of the coil
(d) None of these

Question: The induced e.m.f. in a rod of length l translating at a speed v making an angle θ with length l and
perpendicular to magnetic field B is
(a) Blv (b) Blv cos θ
(c) Blv sin θ (d) Blv tan θ

Question: Len’z law provides a relation between

(a) current and magnetic field.
(b) induced e.m.f. and the magnetic flux.
(c) force on a conductor in magnetic field.
(d) current and induced e.m.f.

Question: A conducting loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the field.
An e.m.f. is induced in the loop, if
(a) it is translated.
(b) it is rotated about its axis.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) it is rotated about its diameter.

Question: Eddy currents do not produce

(a) heat (b) a loss of energy
(c) spark (d) damping of motion
 P a g e | 62

Question: A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is connected to galvanometer, its pointer is
deflected, because
(a) induced current is set up
(b) no induced current is set up
(c) the coil behaves as a magnet
(d) the number of turns is changed

Question: A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. On rotating the magnet about its
axis, the coil will have induced in it
(a) a current (b) no current
(c) only an e.m.f. (d) both an e.m.f. and a current

Question: Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a magnetic field is found using
(a) Fleming’s left found rule
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule
(c) Ampere’s rule
(d) Right hand clasp rule

Question: A circular coil expands radially in a region of magnetic field and no electromotive force is
produced in the coil This is because
(a) the magnetic field is constant
(b) the magnetic field is in the same plane as the circular coil and it may or may not vary.
(c) the magnetic field has a perpendicular (to the plane of the coil) component whose magnitude is decreasing
suitably.
(d) both (b) and (c).

Question: Whenever, current is changed in a coil, an induced e.m.f. is produced in the same coil. This
property of the coil is due to
(a) mutual induction (b) self induction
(c) eddy currents (d) hysteresis

Question: When current i passes through an inductor of self inductance L, energy stored in it is 1/2. L i2.
This is stored in the
(a) current (b) voltage
(c) magnetic field (d) electric field

Question: An inductor may store energy in

(a) its electric field
(b) its coils
(c) its magnetic field
(d) both in electric and magnetic fields

Question: Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of nonmagnetic metallic material, when the coil
oscillates, ...A... generated in the core ...B... the motion and bring the coil to rest ...C...
Here, A, B and C refer to
(a) induced emf, support, long time
(b) induced current, support, long time
(c) mechanical energy, oppose, long time
(d) eddy currents, oppose, quickly
 P a g e | 63

Question: If in a galvanometer the coil is wound on a bad conductor, the eddy current will be
(a) zero (b) maximum
(c) minimum (d) 50% of the actual value

Question: The SI unit of inductance, the henry can be written as

(a) weber/ampere (b) volt second/ampere
(c) joule/ampere2 (d) all of the above

Question: The mutual inductance between two coils depends on

(a) medium between the coils
(b) separation between the two coils
(c) orientation of the two coils
(d) All of the above

Question: When the plane of the armature of an a.c. generator is parallel to the field. in which it is rotating
(a) both the flux linked and induced emf in the coil are zero.
(b) the flux linked with it is zero, while induced emf is maximum.
(c) flux linked is maximum while induced emf is zero.
(d) both the flux and emf have their respective maximum values.

Question: The emf is induced in a single, isolated coil due to ...A...of flux through the coil by means of
varying the current through the same coil. This phenomenon is called ...B...
Here, A and B refer to
(a) constancy, mutual induction
(b) change, self induction
(c) constancy, self induction
(d) changes, mutual induction

Question: Two coils, A and B, are lined such that emf ε is induced in B when the current in A is changing at
the rate I. If current i is now made to flow in B, the flux linked with A will be
(a) (ε /I)i (b) εi I
(c) (ε I)i (d) i I/ε

Question: The polarity of induced emf is given by

(a) Ampere's circuital law (b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Lenz’s law (d) Fleming's right hand rule

Question: The self inductance of a coil is a measure of

(a) electrical inertia (b) electrical friction
(c) induced e.m.f. (d) induced current

Question: The coils in resistance boxes are made from doubled insulated wire to nullify the effect of
(a) heating (b) magnetism
(c) pressure (d) self induced e.m.f.

Question: Two pure inductors each of self inductance L are connected in series, the net inductance is
(a) L (b) 2 L
(c) L/2 (d) L/4

Question: The self inductance associated with a coil is independent of

(a) current (b) induced voltage
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(c) time (d) resistance of a coil

Question: A dynamo converts

(a) mechanical energy into thermal energy
(b) electrical energy into thermal energy
(c) thermal energy into electrical energy
(d) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(e) electrical energy into mechanical energy

Question: Choke coil works on the principle of

(a) transient current (b) self-induction
(c) mutual induction (d) wattless current

Question: Production of induced e.m.f. in a coil due to the changes of current in the same coil is
(a) self induction (b) mutual induction
(c) dynamo (d) none of these

Question: Henry is the S.I. unit of

(a) resistance (b) capacity
(c) inductance (d) current

Question: Mutual induction is the production of induced e.m.f. in a coil due to the changes of current in the
(a) same coil (b) neighbouring coil
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

Question: The self inductance associated with a coil is independent of

(a) current (b) time
(c) induced voltage (d) resistance of coil

Question: Eddy currents are produced when

(a) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field
(b) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field
(c) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
(d) Through a circular coil, current is passed

Question: Which of the following does not use the application of eddy current ?
(a) Electric power meters (b) Induction furnace
(c) LED lights (d) Magnetic brakes in trains

Question: Induction furnace make use of

(a) self induction (b) mutual induction
(c) eddy current (d) None of these

Question: When strength of eddy currents is reduced, as dissipation of electrical energy into heat depends
on the ...A... of the strength of electrical energy into heat depends on the ...A... of the strength of electric
current heat loss is
substantially ...B ... .
Here, A and B refer to
(a) cube, increase (b) inverse, increased
(c) inverse, decreased (d) square, reduced
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Question: The plane in which eddy currents are produced in a conductor is inclined to the plane of the
magnetic field at an angle equal to
(a) 45° (b) 0°
(c) 180° (d) 90°

Question: Which of the following is not the application of eddy currents?

(a) Induction furnace (b) Dead beat galvanometer
(c) speedometer (d) X-ray crystallography

Question: Eddy currents do not cause

(a) damping (b) heating
(c) sparking (d) loss of energy

Question: For magnetic breaking in trains, strong electromagnets are situated above the rails in some
electrically powered trains. When the electromagnets are activated, the ...A... induced in the rails oppose the
motion of the train. As
there are no ... B... linkages, the ...C... effects is smooth.
Here, A, B and C refer to
(a) eddy currents, mechanical, breaking
(b) induced currents, thermal, accelerating
(c) induced emf, mechanical, accelerating
(d) eddy currents, thermal, flying

Question: The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer gives a steady deflection because

(a) eddy currents are produced in the conducting frame over which the coil is wound.
(b) its magnet is very strong.
(c) its pointer is very light.
(d) its frame is made of ebonite.

Question: When the plane of the armature of a generator is parallel to the field. in which it is rotating
(a) both the flux linked and induced emf in the coil are zero.
(b) the flux linked with it is zero, while induced emf is maximum.
(c) flux linked is maximum while induced emf is zero.
(d) both the flux and emf have their respective maximum values.
Answer=B

Question: When the current in a coil changes from 2 amp. to 4 amp. in 0.05 sec., an e.m.f. of 8 volt is
induced in the coil. The coefficient of self inductance of the coil is
(a) 0.1 henry (b) 0.2 henry
(c) 0.4 henry (d) 0.8 henry
Answer=B

Question: Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux
in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is
(a) 6 mH (b) 4 mH (c) 16 mH (d) 10 mH
Answer=B

Question: The mutual inductance of a pair of coils is 0.75 H. If current in the primary coil changes from 0.5
A to zero in 0.01 s, find average induced e.m.f. in secondary coil
(a) 25.5 V (b) 12.5 V (c) 22.5 V (d) 37.5 V
Answer=D
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Question: A wire of length 50 cm moves with a velocity of 300 m/min, perpendicular to a magnetic field. If
the e.m.f. induced in the wire is 2 V, the magnitude of the field in tesla is
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 0.8 (d) 2.5
Answer=C

Question: The coefficient of self inductance of a solenoid is 0.18 mH. If a core of soft iron of relative
permeability 900 is inserted, then the coefficient of self inductance will become nearly
(a) 5.4 mH (b) 162 mH
(c) 0.006 mH (d) 0.0002 mH
Answer=B

Question: Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have their lengths and number of turns in ratio of 1 :
2 both. The ratio of self-inductance of two solenoids is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
Answer=B

Question: A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal resistance of 4000 hm. Its terminals are
connected to a load of 4000 ohm. The voltage across the load is
(a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt (c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt
Answer=B

Question: The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the
inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
(a) 0.138 H (b) 138.88 H (c) 13.89 H (d) None of these
Answer=C

Question: The two rails of a railway track, insulated from each other and the ground, are connected to
millivoltmeter. What is the reading of the millivoltmeter when a train passes at a speed of 180 km/hr along
the track, given that the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 × 10 –4 wb/m2 and rails are
separated by 1 metre
(a) 10–2 volt (b) 10 mV (c) 1 volt (d) 1 mV
Answer=D

Alternating Current MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question: Alternating current cannot be measured by D.C. ammeter, because
(a) A. C. is virtual
(b) A. C. changes its direction
(c) A. C. cannot pass through D.C. ammeter
(d) average value of A. C for complete cycle is zero
Answer=D

Question: A.C. power is transmitted from a power house at a high voltage as

(a) the rate of transmission is faster at high voltages
(b) it is more economical due to less power loss
(c) power cannot be transmitted at low voltages
(d) a precaution against theft of transmission lines
Answer=B

Question: If the frequency of an A.C. is made 4 times of its initial value, the inductive reactance will
 P a g e | 67

(a) be 4 times (b) be 2 times

(c) be half (d) remain the same
Answer=A

Question: When an ac voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C, then

(a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.
(b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
(c) the charge on the plate is not in phase with the applied votage.
(d) power delivered to the capacitor per cycle is zero
Answer=D

Question: An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true?
(a) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
(b) Current lags behind voltage in phase
(c) Current and voltage are in same phase
(d) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance.
Answer=C

Question: With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive reactance

(a) decreases
(b) increases directly with frequency
(c) increases as square of frequency
(d) decreases inversely with frequency
Answer=B

Question: The capacitive reactance in an A.C. circuit is

(a) effective resistance due to capacity
(b) effective wattage
(c) effective voltage
(d) None of these
Answer=A

Question: In which of the following circuits the maximum power dissipation is observed?
(a) Pure capacitive circuit
(b) Pure inductive circuit
(c) Pure resistive circuit
(d) None of these
Answer=C

Question: In an L.C.R. series a.c. circuit, the current

(a) is always in phase with the voltage
(b) always lags the generator voltage
(c) always leads the generator voltage
(d) None of these
Answer=D

Question: If an LCR series circuit is connected to an ac source, then at resonance the voltage across
(a) R is zero
(b) R equals the applied voltage
(c) C is zero
(d) L equals the applied voltage
 P a g e | 68

Answer=B

Question: In general in an alternating current circuit

(a) the average value of current is zero

(b) the average value of square of the current is zero

(c) average power dissipation is zero

(d) the phase difference between voltage and current is zero

Question: The frequency of A.C. mains in India is

(a) 30 c/s

(b) 50 c/s

(c) 60 c/s

(d) 120 c/s

Question: A.C. power is transmitted from a power house at a high voltage as

(a) the rate of transmission is faster at high voltages

(b) it is more economical due to less power loss

(c) power cannot be transmitted at low voltages

(d) a precaution against theft of transmission lines

Question: The electric mains supply in our homes and offices is a voltage that varies like a sine function
with time such a voltage is called ... A... and the current driven by it in a circuit is called the ... B... Here, A
and B refer to

(a) DC voltage, AC current

(b) AC voltage, DC current

(c) AC voltage, DC voltage

(d) AC voltage, AC current

Question: Alternating currents can be produced by a

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(a) dynamo

(b) choke coil

(c) transformer

(d) electric motor

Question: The alternating current of equivalent value of I0√2 is

(a) peak current

(b) r.m.s. current

(c) D.C. current

(d) all of these

Question: The parallel combination of inductor and capacitor is called as

(a) rectifier circuit

(b) tank circuit

(c) acceptor circuit

(d) filter circuit

Question: The peak value of the a.c. current flowing throw a resistor is given by

(a) I = e/R

(b) I = e/R

(c) I = e

(d) I = R/e

Question: The alternating current can be measured with the help of

(a) hot wire ammeter

(b) hot wire voltmeter

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(c) moving magnet galvanometer

(d) suspended coil type galvanometer

Question: Alternating current can not be measured by D.C. ammeter, because

(a) A. C. is virtual

(b) A. C. changes its direction

(c) A. C. can not pass through D.C. ammeter

(d) average value of A. C for complete cycle is zero

Question: The core of transformer is laminated to reduce

(a) flux leakage

(b) hysteresis

(c) copper loss

(d) eddy current

Question: A transformer is based on the principle of

(a) mutual induction

(b) self induction

(c) Ampere’s law

(d) X-ray crystallography

Question: The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer is

(a) one

(b) greater than one

(c) less than one

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(d) the ratio greater or less than one depends on the other factor

Question: An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true?

(a) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase

(b) Current lags behind voltage in phase

(c) Current and voltage are in same phase

(d) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance.

Question: With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive reactance

(a) decreases

(b) increases directly with frequency

(c) increases as square of frequency

(d) decreases inversely with frequency

Question: The average power dissipated in a pure inductance is

(a) 1/2LI2

(b) LI2

(c) LI2 / 4

(d) zero

Question: In the case of an inductor

(a) voltage lags the current by Π/2

(b) voltage leads the current by Π/2

(c) voltage leads the current by Π/3

(d) voltage leads the current by Π/4

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Question: Eddy currents in the core of transformer can't be developed by

(a) increasing the number of turns in secondary coil

(b) taking laminated transformer

(c) making step down transformer

(d) using a weak a.c. at high potential

Question: Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is

(a) voltage

(b) current

(c) frequency

(d) None of these

Question: If the frequency of an A.C. is made 4 times of its initial value, the inductive reactance will

(a) be 4 times

(b) be 2 times

(c) be half

(d) remain the same

Question: An inductance L having a resistance R is connected to an alternating source of angular

frequency ω The Quality factor Q of inductance is

(a) R/ ωL

(b) (ωL/R)2

(c) (R /ωL)½

(d) ωL/R

Question: A capacitor acts as an infinite resistance for

(a) DC

(b) AC
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(c) DC as well as AC

(d) neither AC nor DC

Question: The capacitive reactance in an A.C. circuit is

(a) effective resistance due to capacity

(b) effective wattage

(c) effective voltage

(d) None of these

Question: Of the following about capacitive reactance which is correct?

(a) The reactance of the capacitor is directly proportional to its ability to store charge

(b) Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency of the current

(c) Capacitive reactance is measured in farad

(d) The reactance of a capacitor in an A.C. circuit is similar to the resistance of a capacitor in a D.C. circuit

Question: Phase difference between voltage and current in a capacitor in an ac circuit is

(a) π

(b) π/2

(c) 0

(d) π/3

Question: A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X, if capacitance and frequency become double,
then reactance will be

(a) 4X

(b) X/2

(c) X/4

(d) 2X
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Question: When an ac voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C, then

(a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.

(b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.

(c) the charge on the plate is not in phase with the applied votage.

(d) power delivered to the capacitor per cycle is zero.

Question: In LCR circuit if resistance increases quality factor

(a) increases finitely

(b) decreases finitely

(c) remains constant

(d) None of these

Question: An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined in series with an AC source. As the frequency
of the source is slightly increased from a very low value, the reactance of the

(a) inductor increases

(b) resistor increases

(c) capacitor increases

(d) circuit increases

Question: With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the impedance of an L-C-R series circuit

(a) remains constant

(b) increases

(c) decreases

(d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then increases.

Question: If an LCR series circuit is connected to an ac source, then at resonance the voltage across

(a) R is zero
 P a g e | 75

(b) R equals the applied voltage

(c) C is zero

(d) L equals the applied voltage

Question: The loss of energy in the form of heat in the iron core of a transformer is

(a) iron loss

(b) copper loss

(c) mechanical loss

(d) None of these

Question: In an L.C.R. series a.c. circuit, the current

(a) is always in phase with the voltage

(b) always lags the generator voltage

(c) always leads the generator voltage

(d) None of these

Question: An LCR series circuit, connected to a source E, is at resonance. Then the voltage across

(a) R is zero

(b) R equals applied voltage

(c) C is zero

(d) L equals applied voltage

Question: A transformer is employed to

(a) convert A.C. into D.C.

(b) convert D.C. into A.C.

(c) obtain a suitable A.C. voltage

(d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage

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Question: Transformers are used

(a) in DC circuit only

(b) in AC circuits only

(c) in both DC and AC circuits

(d) neither in DC nor in AC circuits

Question: Power factor of the A. C. circuit varies between

(a) 0 to 0.5

(b) 0.5 to 1

(c) 0 to 1

(d) 1 to 2

Question: The graph between inductive reactance and frequency is

(a) parabola

(b) straight line

(c) hyperbola

(d) an arc of a circle

Question: For minimum dissipation of energy in the circuit the power factor should be

(a) large

(b) small

(c) moderate

(d) can not say

Question: The transformer voltage induced in the secondary coil of a transformer is mainly due to

(a) a varying electric field

(b) a varying magnetic field

 P a g e | 77

(c) the vibrations of the primary coil

(d) the iron core of the transformer

Question: The power factor in a circuit connected to an A.C. The value of power factor is
(a) unity when the circuit contains an ideal inductance only
(b) unity when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only
(c) zero when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only
(d) unity when the circuit contains an ideal capacitance only
Answer=B

Question: In series combination of R, L and C with an A.C. source at resonance, if R = 20 ohm, then
impedence Z of the combination is
(a) 20 ohm
(b) zero
(c) 10 ohm
(d) 400 ohm
Answer=A

Question: In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the components, L, C and R is 50V. The
voltage across the LC combination will be
(a) 100 V
(b) 150 V
(c) 50 V
(d) 0 V
Answer=D

Question: Choose the correct option

Assertion : When the frequency of the AC source in an LCR circuit equals the resonant frequency, the
reactance of the circuit is zero, and so there is no current through the inductor or the capacitor.
Reason : The net current in the inductor and capacitor is zero.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
Answer=D

Question: A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the
combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is
(a) 20 seconds (b) 5 seconds
(c) 1/5 seconds (d) 40 seconds
Answer=B

Question: A current of 4A flows in a coil when connected to a 12V dc source. If the same coil is connected to
a 12V, 50 rad/s a.c. source, a current of 2.4A flows in the circuit. Determine the inductance of the coil.
(a) 0.08 H (b) 0.04 H (c) 0.02 H (d) 1 H
Answer=A

Question: An inductive circuit contains resistance of 10 ohms and an inductance of 2 henry. If an A.C.
voltage of 120 Volts and frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current would be nearly
 P a g e | 78

(a) 0.32 A (b) 0.16 A (c) 0.48 A (d) 0.80 A

Answer=B

Question: A transformer is employed to

(a) convert A.C. into D.C.
(b) convert D.C. into A.C.
(c) obtain a suitable A.C. voltage
(d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage
Answer=C

Question: The transformer voltage induced in the secondary coil of a transformer is mainly due to
(a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
(c) the vibrations of the primary coil
(d) the iron core of the transformer
Answer=B

Question: The loss of energy in the form of heat in the iron core of a transformer is
(a) iron loss (b) copper loss
(c) mechanical loss (d) None of these
Answer=A

Electromagnetic Waves MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question: The electromagnetic waves do not transport
(a) energy (b) charge
(c) momentum (d) information
Answer=B

Question: The polarisation of electromagnetic wave is in

(a) the directions of electric and magnetic field
(b) the directions of electric field
(c) the direction of magnetic field
(d) can not be polarized
Answer=B

Question: The current in the electric circuit which arises due to flow of electrons in the connecting wires of
the circuit in a defined closed path is called
(a) alternating current (b) direct current
(c) conduction current (d) displacement current
Answer=C

Question: If a variable frequency ac source connected to a capacitor then with decrease in frequency, the
displacement current will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) first decrease then increase
Answer=B

Question: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when the charge on
the capacitor
 P a g e | 79

(a) is changing with time (b) decreases

(c) does not change (d) decreases to zero
Answer=A

Question: An electron oscillating with a frequency of 3 × 106 Hz, would generate

(a) X-rays (b) ultraviolet rays
(c) radio waves (d) microwaves
Answer=C

Question: Select the wrong statement. EM waves

(a) are transverse in nature.
(b) travel in free space at a speed of light.
(c) are produced by accelerating charges.
(d) travel in all media with same speed.
Answer=D

Question: Which of the following has/have zero average value in a plane electromagnetic wave?
(a) Both magnetic and electric field
(b) Electric field only
(c) Magnetic energy
(d) Electric energy
Answer=A

Question: According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to

(a) an e.m.f
(b) electric displacement current
(c) magnetic field
(d) pressure gradient
Answer=C

Question: An electromagnetic wave propagating along north has its electric field vector upwards. Its
magnetic field vector point towards
(a) north (b) east
(c) west (d) downwards
Answer=B

Question: The current in the electric circuit which arises due to flow of electrons in the connecting wires of
the circuit in a defined closed path is called
(a) alternating current
(b) direct current
(c) conduction current
(d) displacement current

Question: The conduction current is same as displacement current when source is

(a) ac only
(b) dc only
(c) either ac or dc
(d) neither dc nor ac
 P a g e | 80

Question: If a variable frequency ac source connected to a capacitor then with decrease in frequency, the
displacement current will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) first decrease then increase

Question: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when the charge on
the capacitor
(a) is changing with time
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) decreases to zero

Question: The displacement current was first postulated by

(a) Maxwell
(b) Marconi
(c) Ampere
(d) Hertz

Question: Ampere’s circuital law holds good for

(a) conduction current
(b) displacement current
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Question: When radio waves passes through ionosphere, phase difference between space current and
capacitive displacement current is
(a) 0 rad
(b) (3π /2) rad
(c) (π/ 2) rad
(d) πrad

Question: Displacement current is

(a) continuous when electric field is changing in the circuit
(b) continuous when magnetic field is changing in the circuit
(c) continuous in both types of fields
(d) continuous through wires and resistance only

Question: The velocity of all radio waves in free space is 3 × 108 m/s. The frequency of a radio wave of
wavelength 150m is
(a) 20 kHz
(b) 2 kHz
(c) 2 MHz
(d) 1 MHz
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Question: Maxwell’s equation describe the fundamental law of

(a) electricity
(b) magnetism
(c) mechanics
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question: The polarisation of electromagnetic wave is in

(a) the directions of electric and magnetic field
(b) the directions of electric field
(c) the direction of magnetic field
(d) can not be polarized

Question: According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to

(a) an e.m.f
(b) electric displacement current
(c) magnetic field
(d) pressure gradient

Question: Electromagnetic wave consists of periodically oscillating electric and magnetic vectors
(a) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating with a phase difference of π
(b) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating with a phase difference of π/2
(c) in randomly oriented planes but vibrating in phase
(d) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating in phase

Question: An electromagnetic wave propagating along north has its electric field vector upwards. Its
magnetic field vector point towards
(a) north
(b) east
(c) west
(d) downwards

Question: The electromagnetic waves

(a) travel with the speed of sound
(b) travel with the same speed in all media
(c) travel in free space with the speed of light
(d) do not travel through a medium

Question: Which of the following type of radiations are radiated by an oscillating electric charge?
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Thermoelectric
(d) Electromagnetic
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Question: The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends upon

(a) their velocities
(b) their frequencies
(c) their distance from the transmitter
(d) None of these

Question: If the frequency of EM radiations is halved then the energy of EM radiation will become
(a) double
(b) remains unchanged
(c) becomes half
(d) becomes one fourth

Question: The electromagnetic waves do not transport

(a) energy
(b) charge
(c) momentum
(d) information

Question: The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields related to each other are
(a) E = B
(b) E = cB
(c) E = B/c
(d) E = c/B

Question: Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequency in the range of

(a) Micro hertz
(b) Giga hertz
(c) Mega hertz
(d) Hertz

Question: The speed of electromagnetic wave is same for

(a) odd frequencies
(b) even frequencies
(c) all frequencies
(d) all intensities

Question: A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. If the wave delivers momentum p
and energy E, then
(a) p = 0, E = 0
(b) p ≠ 0, E ≠ 0
(c) p ≠ 0, E = 0
(d) p = 0, E ≠ 0
 P a g e | 83

Question: We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is
true?
(a) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region.
(b) The radiation is emitted only during the day.
(c) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during winters.
(d) The radiation is emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible.

Question: The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared,microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is
(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(b) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(c) gama rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(d) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet

Question: X-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travelling in vacuum have

(a) same wavelength but different velocities
(b) same frequency but different velocities
(c) same velocity but different wavelength
(d) same velocity and same frequency

Question: Radio waves diffract around building, although light waves do not. The reason is that radio
waves
(a) travel with speed larger than c
(b) have much larger wavelength than light
(c) are not electromagnetic waves
(d) None of these

Question: Microwaves are detected by

(a) bolometer
(b) point contact diodes
(c) thermopiles
(d) the eye

Question: Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength?
(a) uv-rays
(b) Visible light
(b) Radio waves
(d) Microwaves

Question: Which of the following is of shortest wavelength?

(a) X-rays
(b) γ-rays
(c) Microwaves
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(d) Radio waves

Question: The range of wavelength of visible light is

(a) 10 Å to 100 Å
(b) 4000 Å to 8000 Å
(c) 8000 Å to 10,000 Å
(d) 10,000 Å to 15,000 Å

Question: Which of the following is not electromagnetic waves?

(a) Cosmic rays
(b) Gamma rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) X-rays

Question: Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the smallest wavelength?
(a) Ultraviolet waves
(b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) Microwaves

Question: Which of the following rays has minimum frequency?

(a) U.V. ways
(b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) Infra-red rays

Question: An accelerated electron would produce

(a) γ-rays
(b) β-rays
(c) α-rays
(d) e.m. waves

Question: Which of the following is the infrared wavelength?

(a) 10–4 cm
(b) 10–5 cm
(c) 10–6 cm
(d) 10–7 cm

Question: The wavelength of X-ray is of the order of

(a) 1 metre
(b) 1 cm
(c) 1 micron
(d) 1 angstrom
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Question: Radio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with

(a) rectifier
(b) filter
(c) F.E.T.
(d) oscillator

Question: Radio waves do not penetrate in the band of

(a) ionosphere
(b) mesosphere
(c) troposphere
(d) stratosphere

Question: What is the cause of “Green house effect”?

(a) Infrared rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) X-rays
(d) Radio waves

Question: If vs, vx and vm are the speed of soft gamma rays, X-rays and microwaves respectively in
vacuum, then
(a) vs > vx > vm
(b) vs < vx < vm
(c) vs > vx < vm
(d) vs = vx = vm

Question: The waves which are electromagnetic in nature are

(a) sound waves and light waves
(b) water waves and radio waves
(c) light waves and X-rays
(d) sound waves and water waves

Question: In electromagnetic spectrum, the frequencies y-rays, X-rays and ultraviolet rays are denoted by
n1, n2 and n3 respectively then
(a) n1 > n2 > n3
(b) n1 < n2 < n3
(c) n1 > n2 < n3
(d) n1 < n2 > n3

Question: Ultraviolet spectrum can be studied by using a

(a) flint glass prism
(b) direct vision prism
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(c) nicol prism

(d) quartz prism

Question: The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs

(a) only the radiowaves
(b) only the visible light
(c) only the γ-rays
(d) X-rays and ultraviolet rays

Question: Which one of the following has the maximum energy?

(a) Radio waves
(b) Infrared rays
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Micro waves

Question: Which one of the following has the shortest wavelength?

(a) Infrared rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) Microwaves
(d) Gamma rays

Question: When electromagnetic waves enter the ionised layer of ionosphere, then the relative permittivity
i.e. dielectric constant of the ionised layer
(a) does not change
(b) appears to increase
(c) appears to decrease
(d) sometimes appears to increase and sometimes to decrease

Question: Ultraviolet rays coming from sun are absorbed by

(a) troposphere
(b) ionosphere
(c) stratosphere
(d) mesosphere

Question: The EM waves when travel into different media gets

(a) refracted
(b) transmitted
(c) reflected
(d) emitted

Question : The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagnetic wave are oriented along
(a) the same direction but differ in phase by 90°
(b) the same direction and are in phase
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
(d) mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase by 90°
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Answer=C

Question : Displacement current is

(a) continuous when electric field is changing in the circuit
(b) continuous when magnetic field is changing in the circuit
(c) continuous in both types of fields
(d) continuous through wires and resistance only
Answer=A

Question : In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are 100 V m–1 and 0.265 A m–1. The
maximum energy flow is
(a) 26.5 W/m2
(b) 36.5 W/m2
(c) 46.7 W/m2
(d) 765 W/m2
Answer=A

Question : Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength?
(a) uv-rays
(b) Visible light
(c) Radio waves
(d) Microwaves
Answer=B

Question : The range of wavelength of visible light is

(a) 50 Å to 500 Å
(b) 4000 Å to 8000 Å
(c) 9000 Å to 25,000 Å
(d) 15,000 Å to 25,000 Å
Answer=B

Question : The wavelength of X-ray is of the order of

(a) 1 metre
(b) 1 cm
(c) 1 micron
(d) 1 angstrom
Answer=D

Question : Radio waves do not penetrate in the band of

(a) ionosphere
(b) mesosphere
(c) troposphere
(d) stratosphere
Answer=A

Question : What is the cause of “Green house effect”?

(a) Infrared rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) X-rays
(d) Radio waves
Answer=A
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Question : The waves used in telecommunication are

(a) IR
(b) UV
(c) Microwave
(d) Cosmic rays
Answer=C

Question : The electromagnetic radiation used in food processing sterilizing agent is

(a) microwaves
(b) UV rays
(c) gamma rays
(d) radio waves
Answer=B

Gravitation MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question: If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon,
(A) its mass will change (B) its weight will change but not mass
(C) both mass and weight will change (D) its mass and weight both will remain same
Answer : B

Question: A body is weighed at the poles and then at the equator. The weight
(A) at the equator will be greater than at the poles
(B) at the poles will be greater than at the equator
(C) at the poles will be equal to the weight at the equator
(D) depends upon the object
Answer : B

Question: Consider a satellite going round the earth in a circular orbit. Which of the following statements is
wrong ?
(A) It is a freely falling body.
(B) It is moving with constant speed.
(C) It is acted upon by a force directed away from the centre of the earth which counter-balances the gravitational
pull
(el) Its angular momentum remains constant
Answer : C

Question: A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and
potential energy is
(A) positive
(B) negative
(C) zero
(D) may be positive or negative depending upon its initial velocity
Answer : B

Question: SI unit of g is
(A) m2/s (C) s/m2 (B) m/s2 (D) m/s
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Answer : B

Question: SI unit of G is
(A) N2–m2/kg (B) N–m2/kg (C) N–m/kg (D) N -m2/kg2
Answer : D

Question: Choose the correct statement of the following:

(A) All bodies repel each other in this universe. (B) Our earth does not behave like a magnet.
(C) Acceleration due to gravity is 8.9 m/s2. (D) All bodies fall at the same rate in vacuum.
Answer : D

Question: Maximum weight of a body is

(A) at the centre of the earth (B) inside the earth
(C) on the surface of the earth (D) above the surface of earth
Answer : C

Question: If the distance between two masses be doubled, then the force between them will become
(A) 1/4 times (B) 4 times (C) 1/2 times (D) 2 times
Answer : A

Question: A body falls freely towards the earth with

(A) uniform speed (B) uniform velocity
(C) uniform acceleration (D) none of these
Answer : C

Question: If the mass of a body is M on the sufrace of the earth, then its mass on the surface of the moon
will be
(A) M/6 (B) M (C) M + 6 (D) zero
Answer : B

Question: Weight
(A) is a vector quantity (B) of a body in interplanetary space is maximum
(C) increases when the bodies go up (D) none of these
Answer : A

Question: The value of g near the earth's surface is

(A) 8.9 m/s2 (B) 8.9 m/s (C) 9.8 m/s2 (el) 9.8 m/s
Answer : C

Question: A geostationary satellite

(A) moves faster than the near earth satellite
(B) has a time period less that of a near earth satellite
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(C) revolves about the polar axis

(D) is stationary in space
Answer : C

Question: The force of gravitation between two bodies depend upon

(A) their separation (B) gravitational constant
(C) product of their masses (D) all of these
Answer : D

Question: When an object is thrown up, the force of gravity

(A) acts in the direction of the motion (B) acts in the opposite direction of the motion
(C) remains constant as the body moves up (D) increases as the body moves up
Answer : B

Question: The force of gravitation exists

(A) everywhere in the universe (B) at the surface of the earth only
(C) inside the earth only (D) at the surface of the moon only
Answer : A

Question: 1 kg wt is equal to
(A) 9.8 N (B) 980N (C) 98 N (D) none of these
Answer : A

Question: 1 kg wt is equal to
(A) 980 dynes (B) 9.80 dynes (C) 98 dynes (D) none of these
Answer : A

Question: The value of G does not depend on

(A) nature of the interacting bodies
(B) size of the interacting bodies
(C) mass of the interacting bodies
(D) all of these
Answer : D

Question 1.
The radius of the earth is 6400 km and g = 10 m/s². In order that a body of 5 kg weighs zero at the equator, the
angular speed of the earth is
(a) 1/80 rad /s
(b) 1/400 rad /s
(c) 1/800 rad /s
(d) 1/1600 rad /s
Answer
Answer: (c) 1/800 rad /s
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Question 2.
A body weighs 500 N on the surface of the earth. How much would it weight half way below the surface of the
earth?
(a) 1000 N
(b) 500 N
(c) 250 N
(d) 125 N
Answer
Answer: (c) 250 N

Question 3.
The time – period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased
to 4 times the previous value, the new time – period will become
(a) 10 hours
(b) 20 hours
(c) 40 hours
(d) 80 hours
Answer
Answer: (c) 40 hours

Question 4.
A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) may be positive or negative
Answer
Answer: (b) Negative

Question 5.
What would be the duration of the year if the distance between the earth and the sun gets doubled?
(a) 1032 days
(b) 129 days
(c) 365 days
(d) 730 days
Answer
Answer: (a) 1032 days

Question 6.
If a body of mass m is taken out from a point below the surface of earth equal to half the radius of earth, R, to a
height R above the earths surface, then work done on it will be
(a) (5/6) mgR
(b) (6/7) mgR
(c) (7/8) mgR
(d) (8/9) mgR
Answer
Answer: (c) (7/8) mgR
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Question 7.
A artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E0. Its
potential energy is
(a) 2E0
(b) E0
(c) 1.5 E0
(d) -E0
Answer
Answer: (a) 2E0

Question 8.
A body is projected vertically from the surface of the earth of radius R with velocity equal to half of the escape
velocity. The maximum height reached by the body is
(a) R
(b) R/2
(c) R/3
(d) R/4
Answer
Answer: (c) R/3

Question 9.
The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth is 11 km/s. If the body is
projected at an angle of 450 with the vertical, the escape velocity will be
(a) 11/√2 km/s
(b) 11√2 km/s
(c) 2 km/s
(d) 11 km/s
Answer
Answer: (d) 11 km/s

Question 10.
There is no atmosphere on the moon because
(a) it is closer to the earth
(b) it revolves round the earth
(c) it gets light from the sun
(d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean square velocity here
Answer
Answer: (d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean square velocity here

Question 11.
The value of g at a particular point is 9.8 m/sec² suppose the earth suddenly shrink uniformly to half its present
size without losing any mass. The value of g at the same point (assuming that the distance of the point from the
centre of the earth does not shrink) will become
(a) 9.8 m/sec²
(b) 4.9 m/sec²
(c) 19.6 m/sec²
(d) 2.45 m/sec²
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Answer
Answer: (a) 9.8 m/sec²

Question 12.
A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) may be positive or negative
Answer
Answer: (b) Negative

Question 13.
If the radius of the earth were to be raise by 1% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of the earth will
(a) increase by 1%
(b) decrease by 2%
(c) decrease by 1%
(d) increase by 2%
Answer
Answer: (d) increase by 2%

Question 14.
A body is projected vertically from the surface of the earth of radius R with velocity equal to half of the escape
velocity. The maximum height reached by the body is
(a) R
(b) R/2
(c) R/3
(d) R/4
Answer
Answer: (c) R/3

Question 15.
The escape velocity of projection from the earth is approximately (R = 6400 km)
(a) 7 km/sec
(b) 112 km/sec
(c) 12.2 km/sec
(d) 1.1 km/sec
Answer
Answer: (c) 12.2 km/sec

Question 16.
Who among the following first gave the experimental velocity of G?
(a) Cavendish
(b) Copernicus
(c) Brook Taylor
(d) none of these
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Answer
Answer: (a) Cavendish

Question 17.
A satellite S is move in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small compared to the
mass of the earth .
(a) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
(b) The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains
constant.
(c) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.
(d) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude.
Answer
Answer: (a) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.

Question 18.
The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is w and the acceleration due to gravity at
earths surface is g. The cube of the radius of the orbit of a geo-stationary satellite will be
(a) r²g / w
(b) R²w²/ g
(c) RG w²
(d) R²g / w²
Answer
Answer: (d) R²g / w²

Question 19.
If the distance between the earth and the sun were half its present value, the number of day in a year would have
been
(a) 64.5
(b) 129
(c) 182.5
(d) 730
Answer
Answer: (b) 129

Question 20.
The masses of two planets are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The acceleration due to gravity on
the planets are in the ratio.
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 3
Answer
Answer: (a) 1 : 2

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers
Question : The light reflected by a plane mirror may form a real image
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(a) if the rays incident on the mirror are diverging

(b) if the rays incident on the mirror are converging
(c) if the object is placed very close to the mirror
(d) under no circumstances
Answer=B

Question : In image formation from spherical mirrors, only paraxial rays are considered because they
(a) are easy to handle geometrically
(b) contain most of the intensity of the incident light
(c) form nearly a point image of a point source
(d) show minimum dispersion effect
Answer=C

Question : For reflection through spherical surfaces, the normal at the point of incidence is
(a) perpendicular to the principle axis and passes through the centre of curvature
(b) perpendicular to the focal plane and passes through the pole.
(c) perpendicular to the tangent plane at pole and passes through the focus.
(d) perpendicular to the tangent plane at the point of incidence and passes through the centre of curvature.
Answer=D

Question : A person is six feet tall. How tall must a plane mirror be if he is able to see his entire length?
(a) 3 ft (b) 4.5 ft (c) 7.5 ft (d) 6 ft
Answer=A

Question : An object is placed 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image formed is
(a) real, inverted and same in size
(b) real, inverted and smaller
(c) virtual, erect and larger
(d) virtual, erect and smaller
Answer=A

Question : Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(a) the magnification produced by a convex mirror is always less than one
(b) a virtual, erect, same-sized image can be obtained using a plane mirror
(c) a virtual, erect, magnifield image can be formed using a concave mirror
(d) a real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using a convex mirror.
Answer=D

Question : Total internal reflection can take place only if

(a) light goes from optically rarer medium (smaller refractive index) to optically denser medium
(b) light goes from optically denser medium to rarer medium
(c) the refractive indices of the two media are close to different
(d) the refractive indices of the two media are widely different
Answer=B

Question : When the angle of incidence of a light ray is greater than the critical angle it gets
(a) critically refracted (b) totally reflected
(c) total internally reflected (d) totally refracted
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Answer=C

Question : Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum for
(a) red colour (b) green colour
(c) yellow colour (d) violet colour
Answer=D

Question : A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same number of waves as 5 cm of water when both
are traversed by the same monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, what is that of glass?
(a) 5/3 (b) 5/4 (c) 16/15 (d) 1.5
Answer=A

Question : A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5.
The distance of the virtual image from the surface of the sphere is
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 12 cm
Answer=C

Question : A planoconvex lens of focal length 16 cm, is to be made of glass of refractive index 1.5. The
radius of curvature of the curved surface should be
(a) 8 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 24 cm
Answer=A

Question : Electromagnetic radiation belonging to _________ region of spectrum is called light.

(a) 100 nm to 400 nm
(b) 400 nm to 750 nm
(c) 750 nm to 10 nm
(d) 1000 nm to 1400 nm

Question : The turning back of light into the same medium after incident on a boundary separating two
media is called
(a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) interference of light

Question : A point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror. Then

(a) all the reflected rays meet at a point when produced backward
(b) only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a point when produced backward.
(c) only the reflected rays making a small angle with the mirror, meet at a point when produced backward.
(d) light of different colours make different images.

Question : The field of view is maximum for

(a) plane mirror
(b) concave mirror
(c) convex mirror
(d) cylindrical mirror

Question : A virtual image larger than the object can be obtained by

(a) concave mirror
(b) convex mirror
(c) plane mirror
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(d) concave lens

Question : An object is placed 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image formed is
(a) real, inverted and same in size
(b) real, inverted and smaller
(c) virtual, erect and larger
(d) virtual, erect and smaller

Question : All of the following statements are correct except

(a) the magnification produced by a convex mirror is always less than one
(b) a virtual, erect, same-sized image can be obtained using a plane mirror
(c) a virtual, erect, magnifield image can be formed using a concave mirror
(d) a real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using a convex mirror.

Question : A person is six feet tall. How tall must a plane mirror be if he is able to see his entire length?
(a) 3 ft
(b) 4.5 ft
(c) 7.5 ft
(d) 6 ft

Question : The image formed by a concave mirror is

(a) always real
(b) always virtual
(c) certainly real if the object is virtual
(d) certainly virtual if the object is real

Question : In image formation from spherical mirrors, only paraxial rays are considered because they
(a) are easy to handle geometrically
(b) contain most of the intensity of the incident light
(c) form nearly a point image of a point source
(d) show minimum dispersion effect

Question : For reflection through spherical surfaces, the normal at the point of incidence is
(a) perpendicular to the principle axis and passes through the centre of curvature
(b) perpendicular to the focal plane and passes through the pole.
(c) perpendicular to the tangent plane at pole and passes through the focus.
(d) perpendicular to the tangent plane at the point of incidence and passes through the centre of curvature.

Question : The equation n2/v - n1/v = n2 - n1/R holds true for

(a) only concave mirror
(b) only convex mirror
(c) both concave and convex mirror
(d) any type of reflecting surface

Question : Which of the following (referred to a spherical mirror) depends on whether the rays are paraxial
or not?
(a) Pole
(b) Focus
(c) Radius of curvature
(d) Principal axis
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Question : Which of the following is correct for the beam which enters the medium?
(a) Travel as a cylindrical beam
(b) Diverge
(c) Converge
(d) Diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery

Question : When light is refracted into a medium,

(a) its wavelength and frequency both increase
(b) its wavelength increases but frequency remains unchanged
(c) its wavelength decreases but frequency remains unchanged
(d) its wavelength and frequency both decrease

Question : When light is refracted, which of the following does not change ?
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Velocity
(d) Amplitude

Question : If the light moving in a straight line bends by a small but fixed angle, it may be a case of
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) diffraction
(d) both (a) & (b)

Question : Total internal reflection can take place only if

(a) light goes from optically rarer medium (smaller refractive index) to optically denser medium
(b) light goes from optically denser medium to rarer medium
(c) the refractive indices of the two media are close to different
(d) the refractive indices of the two media are widely different

Question : The difference between reflection and total internal reflection is that
(a) the laws of reflection hold true for reflection but not for total internal reflection.
(b) total internal reflection can take place only when light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium while
reflection can take place vice-versa also.
(c) reflection can take place when light travels from a rarer medium to denser medium and vice-versa
but total internal reflection can take place only when it travels from an optically denser to an optically
rarer medium.
(d) reflection is a natural phenomena while total internal reflection is man-made.

Question : When the angle of incidence of a light ray is greater than the critical angle it gets
(a) critically refracted
(b) totally reflected
(c) total internally reflected
(d) totally refracted

Question : Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibres ?

(a) Total internal reflection
(b) Scattering
(c) Diffraction
(d) Refraction
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Question : Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum for
(a) red colour
(b) green colour
(c) yellow colour
(d) violet colour

Question : Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?

(a) Working of optical fibre
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of pond
(c) Mirage on hot summer days
(d) Brilliance of diamond

Question : Identify the wrong sign convention

(a) The magnification for virtual image formed by a convex lens is positive
(b) The magnification for real image formed by a convex lens is negative
(c) The height measured normal to the principal axis upwards is positive
(d) The magnification for virtual image formed by a concave lens is negative

Question : The apparent flattening of the sun at sunset and sunrise is due to
(a) refraction
(b) diffraction
(c) total internal reflection
(d) interference

Question : The speed of light in an isotropic medium depends on

(a) the nature of the source
(b) its wavelength
(c) its direction of propagation
(d) its intensity

Question : A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel to its principal axis. As one
moves away from the lens on the other side on its principal axis, the intensity of light
(a) remains constant
(b) continuously increases
(c) continuously decreases
(d) first increases then decreases

Question : The rays of different colours fail to converge at a point after going through a converging lens.
This defect is called
(a) spherical aberration
(b) distortion
(c) coma
(d) chromatic aberration

Question : What causes chromatic aberration?

(a) Marginal rays
(b) Central rays
(c) Difference in radii of curvature of its surfaces
(d) Variation of focal length of lens with colour

Question : The focal length of a converging lens are fV and fR for violet and red light respectively. Then
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(a) fV > fR
(b) fV = fR
(c) fV < fR
(d) any of the three is possible depending on the value of the average refractive index m

Question : A narrow beam of white light goes through a slab having parallel faces
(a) the light never splits in different colours
(b) the emergent beam is white
(c) the light inside the slab is split into different colours
(d) the light inside the slab is white

Question : Chromatic aberration in a lens is caused by

(a) reflection
(b) interference
(c) diffraction
(d) dispersion

Question : An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to

(a) reduce spherical aberration
(b) have high resolution
(c) increases span of observation
(d) have low dispersion

Question : The angular dispersion produced by a prism

(a) increases if the average refractive index increases
(b) increases if the average refractive index decreases
(c) remains constant whether the average refractive index increases or decreases
(d) has no relation with average refractive index.

Question : If a glass prism is dipped in water, its dispersive power

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) may increase or decrease depending on whether the angle of the prism is less than or greater than 60º

Question :If D is the deviation of a normally falling light beam on a thin prism of angle A and δ is the
dispersive power of the same prism then
(a) D is independent of A.
(b) D is independent of refractive Index.
(c) δ is independent of refractive index.
(d) δ is independent of A.

Question : When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
(a) high density of prism material
(b) because μ is different for different wavelength
(c) diffraction of light
(d) velocity changes for different frequency

Question : Yellow light is refracted through a prism producing minimum deviation. If i1 and i2 denote the
angle of incidence and emergence for this prism, then
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(a) i1 = i2
(b) i1 > i2
(c) i1 < i2
(d) i1 + i2 = 90º

Question : By properly combining two prisms made of different materials, it is not possible to have
(a) dispersion without average deviation
(b) deviation without dispersion
(c) both dispersion and average deviation
(d) neither dispersion nor average deviation

Question : When the incidence angle is equal to the angle of emergence of light from the prism the refracted
ray inside the prism
(a) becomes parallel to the right face of prism
(b) becomes perpendicular to the base of prism
(c) becomes parallel to the base of prism
(d) becomes perpendicular to the left face of prism

Question : The dispersive power of a prism depends on its

(a) shape
(b) size
(c) angle of prism
(d) refractive index of the monitorial of the prism

Question : The angle of prism is 60° and angle of deviation is 30°.In the position of minimum deviation, the
values of angle of incidence and angle of emergence are:
(a) i = 45°; e = 50°
(b) i = 30°; e = 45°
(c) i = 45°; e = 45°
(d) i = 30°; e = 30°

Question : In primary rainbow what is the order of colours observed from earth ?
(a) Violet innermost, red outermost.
(b) Red innermost, violet outermost.
(c) Random.
(d) White and dark alternatively

Question : Which light rays undergoes two internal reflection inside a raindrop, which of the rainbow is
formed?
(a) Primary rainbow
(b) Secondary rainbow
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Can’t say

Question : In secondary rainbow what is the order of colours observed from earth?
(a) Violet innermost, red outermost.
(b) Red innermost, violet outer most.
(c) Random.
(d) White and dark alternatively.

Question : Identify the mismatch in the following

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(a) Myopia - Concave lens

(b) For rear view - Concave mirror
(c) Hypermetropia - Convex lens
(d) Astigmatism - Cylindrical lens

Question : Astigmatism is corrected using

(a) cylindrical lens
(b) plano-convex lens
(c) plano-concave lens
(d) convex lens

Question : The focal length of a normal eye-lens is about

(a) 1 mm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 1 m

Question : A normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm because
(a) the focal length of the eye is 25 cm
(b) the distance of the retina from the eye-lens is 25 cm
(c) the eye is not able to decrease the distance between the eye-lens and the retina beyond a limit
(d) the eye is not able to decrease the focal length beyond a limit

Question : The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is

(a) real and diminished
(b) real and enlarged
(c) virtual and enlarged
(d) virtual and diminished

Question: Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length
of one lens is 20 cm, then the power of the other lens will be
(a) 1.66 D (b) 4.00 D (c) – 100 D (d) – 3.75 D
Answer=D

Question: A plano-convex lens is made of material of refractive index 1.6. The radius of curvature of the
curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is
(a) 50 cm (b) 100 cm (c) 200 cm (d) 400 cm
Answer=B

Question: A lens made of glass whose index of refraction is 1.60 has a focal length of + 20 cm in air. Its focal
length in water, whose refractive index is 1.33, will be
(a) three times longer than in air
(b) two times longer than in air
(c) same as in air
(d) None of these
Answer=A

Question: A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The magnitude of the ratio of their powers is 2/3.
Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their individual focal lengths (in cm)?
(a) –15, 10 (b) –10, 15 (c) 75, 50 (d) –75, 50
Answer=A
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Question: A bi-convex lens made of glass (refractive index 1.5) is put in a liquid of refractive index 1.7. Its
focal length will
(a) decrease and change sign
(b) increase and change sign
(c) decrease and remain of the same sign
(d) increase and remain of the same sign
Answer=B

Question: The rays of different colours fail to converge at a point after going through a converging lens.
This defect is called
(a) spherical aberration (b) distortion
(c) coma (d) chromatic aberration
Answer=D

Question: What causes chromatic aberration?

(a) Marginal rays
(b) Central rays
(c) Difference in radii of curvature of its surfaces
(d) Variation of focal length of lens with colour
Answer=D

Question: The angular dispersion produced by a prism

(a) increases if the average refractive index increases
(b) increases if the average refractive index decreases
(c) remains constant whether the average refractive index increases or decreases
(d) has no relation with average refractive index.
Answer=A

Question: If a glass prism is dipped in water, its dispersive power

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) may increase or decrease depending on whether the
Answer=B

Question: The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is

(a) real and diminished
(b) real and enlarged
(c) virtual and enlarged
(d) virtual and diminished
Answer=B

Wave Optics MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question : Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with the same
(a) phase (b) amplitude
(c) frequency (d) period
Answer=A

Question : A plane wave passes through a convex lens. The geometrical shape of the wavefront that emerges
is
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(a) plane (b) diverging spherical

(c) converging spherical (d) None of these
Answer=C

Question : Huygen’s concept of secondary wave

(a) allows us to find the focal length of a thick lens
(b) is a geometrical method to find a wavefront
(c) is used to determine the velocity of light
(d) is used to explain polarisation
Answer=B

Question : The interfering fringes formed by a thin oil film on water are seen in yellow light of sodium
lamp. We find the fringes
(a) coloured
(b) black and white
(c) yellow and black
(d) coloured without yellow
Answer=A

Question : Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1 : 4 produce an interference pattern. The fringe
visibility will be
(a) 1 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.6
Answer=B

Question : The fringe width in a Young’s double slit experiment can be increased if we decrease
(a) width of slits
(b) separation of slits
(c) wavelength of light used
(d) distance between slits and screen
Answer=B

Question : If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water keeping the rest of the set-up same, the
fringes will
(a) increase in width (b) decrease in width
(c) remain unchanged (d) not be formed
Answer=B

Question : The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the
wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment is
(a) three (b) five (c) infinite (d) zero
Answer=B

Question : In the Young’s Double slit experiment, when we place a converging lens after the slits and place
the screen at the focus of the lens, it
(a) introduces an extra path difference in the parallel beam.
(b) introduces no path difference in the parallel beam.
(c) introduces an extra phase difference in the parallel beam.
(d) introduces an extra fringe in the diffraction pattern.
Answer=B
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Question : Distance between screen and source is decreased by 25%. Then the percentage change in fringe
width is
(a) 20% (b) 31% (c) 75% (d) 25%
Answer=D

Question : The locus of all particles in a medium, vibrating in the same phase is called
(a) wavelet
(b) fringe
(c) wave front
(d) None of these

Question : Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source?
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion for the distance squared.
(b) The wavefront is parabolic.
(c) The intensity at the wavelingth does depend of the distance.
(d) None of these.

Question : Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with the same
(a) phase
(b) amplitude
(c) frequency
(d) period

Question : The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wavefront

(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) origin of spectr

Question : Huygen’s concept of secondary wave

(a) allows us to find the focal length of a thick lens

(b) is a geometrical method to find a wavefront
(c) is used to determine the velocity of light
(d) is used to explain polarisation

Question : A plane wave passes through a convex lens. The geometrical shape of the wavefront that emerges
is
(a) plane
(b) diverging spherical
(c) converging spherical
(d) None of these

Question : Spherical wavefronts, emanating from a point source,strike a plane reflecting surface. What will
happen to these wave fronts, immediately after reflection?
(a) They will remain spherical with the same curvature,both in magnitude and sign.
(b) They will become plane wave fronts.
(c) They will remain spherical, with the same curvature, but sign of curvature reversed.
(d) They will remain spherical, but with different curvature, both in magnitude and sign.
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Question : When light suffers reflection at the interface between water and glass, the change of phase in the
reflected wave is
(a) zero
(b) π
(c) π/2
(d) 2π

Question : Two plane wavefronts of light, one incident on a thin convex lens and another on the refracting
face of a thin prism. After refraction at them, the emerging wavefronts respectively become
(a) plane wavefront and plane wavefront
(b) plane wavefront and spherical wavefront
(c) spherical wavefront and plane wavefront
(d) spherical wavefront and spherical wavefront
(e) elliptical wavefront and spherical wavefront

Question : When a film is illuminated by white light, its upper portion appears dark. Path difference
between two reflected beams at the spot must be
(a) zero
(b) λ/2
(c) 2 λ/2
(d) π

Question : From Brewster’s law of polarisation, it follows that the anlge of polarisaiton depends upon
(a) the wavelength of light
(b) plane of polarisation’s orientation
(c) plane of vibration’s orientation
(d) None of these

Question : If two sources are coherent, then the phase difference (Φ) between the waves produced by them
at any point
(a) will change with time and we will have stable positions of maxima and minima.
(b) will not change with time and we have unstable positions of maxima and minima.
(c) Positions of will not change with time and we will have stable positions of maxima and minima.
(d) will change with time and we will have unstable positions of maxima and minima.

Question : The device which produces highly coherent sources is

(a) Fresnel biprism
(b) Young’s double-slit
(c) Laser
(d) Lloyd’s mirror

Question : Which of the following, cannot produce two coherent sources?

(a) Lloyd’s mirror
(b) Fresnel biprism
(c) Young’s double slit
(d) Prism

Question : Coherence is a measure of

(a) capability of producing interference by wave
(b) waves being diffracted
(c) waves being reflected
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(d) waves being refracted

Question : Two sources of light are said to be coherent, when they give light waves of same
(a) amplitude and phase
(b) wavelength and constant phase difference
(c) intensity and wavelength
(d) phase and speed

Question : Intensity of light depends on

(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) velocity

Question : The colour of bright fringe nearest to central achromatic fringe in the interference pattern with
white light will be
(a) violet
(b) red
(c) green
(d) yellow

Question : When unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass plate at Brewster’s angle, then which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of polarization parallel to each other
(b) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of polarization perpendicular to each
other
(c) Reflected light is plane polarised but transmitted light is partially polarised
(d) Reflected light is partially polarised but refracted light is plane polarised

Question : Laser light is considered to be coherent because it consists of

(a) many wavelengths
(b) uncoordinated wavelengths
(c) coordinated waves of exactly the same wavelength
(d) divergent beam

Question : The interfering fringes formed by a thin oil film on water are seen in yellow light of sodium
lamp. We find the fringes
(a) coloured
(b) black and white
(c) yellow and black
(d) coloured without yellow

Question : In Young’s Double slit experiment, if the distance between the slit and screen (D) is comparable
with fringe width (B), the fringe pattern on screen will
(a) strictly be a parabola
(b) strictly be a hyperbola
(c) be a elliptical
(d) be a straight line

Question : If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water keeping the rest of the set-up same, the
fringes will
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(a) increase in width

(b) decrease in width
(c) remain unchanged
(d) not be formed

Question : In the Young’s Double slit experiment, when we place a converging lens after the slits and place
the screen at the focus of the lens, it
(a) introduces an extra path difference in the parallel beam.
(b) introduces no path difference in the parallel beam.
(c) introduces an extra phase difference in the parallel beam.
(d) introduces an extra fringe in the diffraction pattern.

Question : The fringe width for red colours as compared to that for violet colour is approximately
(a) 3 times
(b) 2 times
(c) 4 times
(d) 8 times

Question : In Young’s double slit experiment, the minimum amplitude is obtained when the phase
difference of super-imposing waves is (where n = 1, 2, 3, ...)
(a) zero
(b) (2 n – 1) π
(c) n π
(d) (n + 1) π

Question : The fringe width in a Young’s double slit experiment can be increased if we decrease
(a) width of slits
(b) separation of slits
(c) wavelength of light used
(d) distance between slits and screen

Question : In Young’s double slit experiment, one slit is covered with red filter and another slit is covered
by green filter, then interference pattern will be
(a) red
(b) green
(c) yellow
(d) invisible

Question : Instead of using two slits, if we use two separate identical sodium lamps in Young’s experiment,
which of the following will occur?
(a) General illumination
(b) Widely separate interference
(c) Very bright maxima
(d) Very dark minima

Question : Which of the following is not essential for two sources of light in Young’s double slit experiment
to produce a sustained interference?
(a) Equal wavelength
(b) Equal intensity
(c) Constant phase relationship
(d) Equal frequency
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Question : In Young's double slit experiment, the locus of the point P lying in a plane with a constant path
difference between the two interfering waves is
(a) a hyperbola
(b) a straight line
(c) an ellipse
(d) a parabola

Question : If the width of the slit in single slit diffrection experiment is doubled, then the central maximum
of diffraction pattern becomes
(a) broader and brighter
(b) sharper and brighter
(c) sharper and fainter
(d) broader adn fainter.

Question : A diffraction pattern is obtained by using beam of red. light what will happen, if red light is
replced by the blue light?
(a) Bands disappear.
(b) Bands become broader and farther apart.
(c) No change will take place.
(d) Diffraction bands become narrow and crowded together.

Question : When monochromatic light is replaced by white light in Fresnel’s biprism arrangement, the
central fringe is
(a) coloured
(b) white
(c) dark
(d) None of these

Question : The condition for observing Fraunhoffer diffraction from a single slit is that the light wavefront
incident on the slit should be
(a) spherical
(b) cylindrical
(c) plane
(d) elliptical

Question : The phenomenon of diffraction can be treated as interference phenomenon if the number of
coherent sources is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) zero
(d) infinity

Question : The diffraction effects in a microscopic specimen become important when the separation
between two points is
(a) much greater than the wavelength of light used.
(b) much less than the wavelength of light used.
(c) comparable to the wavelength of light used.
(d) independent of the wavelength of light used.
 P a g e | 110

Question : What is the Brewester angle for air to glass transition?( μag = 1.5)
(a) tan (1.5)
(b) sin (1.5)
(c) sin–1 (1.5)
(d) tan–1 (1.5)

Question : When ordinary light is made incident on a quarter wave plate, the emergent light is
(a) linearly polarised
(b) circulary polarised
(c) unpolarised
(d) elliptically polarised

Question : Transverse nature of light was confirmed by the phenomenon of

(a) refreaction of light
(b) diffraction of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) polarization of light

Question : In the case of linearly polarized light, the magnitude of the electric field vector
(a) is parallel to the direction of propagation
(b) does not changes with time
(c) increases linearly with time
(d) varies periodically with time

Question : Unpolarized light is incident on a plane glass surface The angle of incidence so that reflected and
refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, them
(a) tan iβ= μ/2
(b) tan iβ= μ
(c) sin iβ= μ (d) cos iβ= μ

Question : Light waves can be polarised because they

(a) have high frequencies
(b) have short wavelength
(c) are transverse
(d) can be reflected

Question : Light transmitted by nicol prism is

(a) unpolarised
(b) plane polarised
(c) circularly polarised
(d) elliptically polarised

Question : Optically active substances are those substances which

(a) produces polarised light
(b) produces double refraction
(c) rotate the plane of polarisation of polarised light
(d) converts a plane polarised light into circularly polarised light.

Question : Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because

(a) it reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarisation
(b) it is fashionable
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(c) it has good colour

(d) it is cheaper.

Question : In the propagation of light waves, the angle between theplane of vibration and plane of
polarisaiton is
(a) 0º
(b) 90º
(c) 45º
(d) 80º

Question : In the propagation of electromagnetic waves, the angle between the direction of propagation and
plane of polarisation is
(a) 0º
(b) 45º
(c) 90º
(d) 180º

Question : Light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7 m is made incident on two slits 1 mm apart. The distance between
third dark fringe and fifth bright fringe on a screen distant 1 m from the slits will be
(a) 0.325 mm (b) 0.65 mm
(c) 1.625 mm (d) 3.25 mm
Answer=C

Question : In Young’s double slit expt. the distance between two sources is 0.1 mm. The distance of the
screen from the source is 20 cm. Wavelength of light used is 5460 Å. The angular position of the first dark
fringe is
(a) 0.08° (b) 0.16º (c) 0.20º (d) 0.32º
Answer=B

Question : The separation between successive fringes in a double slit arrangement is x. If the whole
arrangement is dipped under water what will be the new fringe separation? [The wavelenght of light being
used is 5000 Å]
(a) 1.5 x (b) x (c) 0.75 x (d) 2 x
Answer=C

Question : If the width of the slit in single slit diffraction experiment is doubled, then the central maximum
of diffraction pattern becomes
(a) broader and brighter (b) sharper and brighter
(c) sharper and fainter (d) broader adn fainter.
Answer=B

Question : When monochromatic light is replaced by white light in Fresnel’s biprism arrangement, the
central fringe is
(a) coloured (b) white
(c) dark (d) None of these
Answer=B
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Question : Light transmitted by nicol prism is

(a) unpolarised (b) plane polarised
(c) circularly polarised (d) elliptically polarised
Answer=B

Question : Optically active substances are those substances which

(a) produces polarised light
(b) produces double refraction
(c) rotate the plane of polarisation of polarised light
(d) converts a plane polarised light into circularly polarised light.
Answer=C

Question : The condition for observing Fraunhoffer diffraction from a single slit is that the light wavefront
incident on the slit should be
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical
(c) plane (d) elliptical
Answer=C

Question : When ordinary light is made incident on a quarter wave plate, the emergent light is
(a) linearly polarised (b) circulary polarised
(c) unpolarised (d) elliptically polarised
Answer=D

Question : In the propagation of light waves, the angle between the plane of vibration and plane of
polarisaiton is
(a) 0º (b) 90º (c) 45º (d) 80º
Answer=B

Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers
Question : A strong argument for the particle nature of cathode rays is that they
(a) produce fluoroscence
(b) travel through vacuum
(c) get deflected by electric and magnetic fields
(d) cast shadow
Answer=C

Question : In an electron gun the control grid is given a negative potential relative to cathode in order to
(a) decelerate electrons
(b) repel electrons and thus to control the number of electrons passing through it
(c) to select electrons of same velocity and to converge them along the axis.
(d) to decrease the kinetic energy of electrons
Answer=B

Question : When the speed of electrons increase, then the value of its specific charge
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) ramains unchanged
(d) increases upto some velocity
Answer=B
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Question : Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which

(a) photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of electrons.
(b) photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the action of an electric field.
(c) electrons come out of a metal with a constant velocity
(d) which depends on the frequency and intensity of incident light wave.
Answer=D

Question : The photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface are such that their velocity
(a) is zero for all
(b) is same for all
(c) lies between zero and infinity
(d) lies between zero and a finite maximum
Answer=D

Question : In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
(a) Thermionic emission (b) X-rays emission
(c) Photoelectric emission (d) Secondary emission
Answer=B

Question : Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
(a) power (b) wavelength
(c) intensity (d) frequency
Answer=D

Question : When light is incident on a metal surface the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(a) vary with intensity of light
(b) vary with frequency of light
(c) vary with speed of light
(d) vary irregularly
Answer=B

Question : A photoelectric cell is a device which

(a) converts light into electricity
(b) converts electricity into light
(c) stores light
(d) stores electricity
Answer=A

Question : The maximum energy of electrons released in a photocell is independent of

(a) the frequency of the incident light
(b) the intensity of the incident light
(c) the nature of the cathode
(d) All of the above
Answer=C

Question : Cathode ray consists of

(a) photons (b) electrons
(c) protons (d) α-particles

Question : A discharge takes place between the two electrodes on applying the electric field to the gas in the
discharge tube. The cause of this fluorescence was attributed to
 P a g e | 114

(a) the radiations which appeared to be coming from the anode

(b) the radiation which appeared to be coming from the cathode
(c) the protons coming from the cathode
(d) the protons coming from the anode

Question : The presently accepted value of charge/mass (e/m)is

(a) 1.66 x 10–19 c/kg
(b) 9.1 x 1011 c/kg
(c) 1.76 x 1011 c/kg
(d) 9.1 x 1019 c/kg

Question : In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
(a) Thermionic emission
(b) X-rays emission
(c) Photoelectric emission
(d) Secondary emission

Question : Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
(a) power
(b) wavelength
(c) intensity
(d) frequency

Question : Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit photoelectrons ?
(a) UV radiations
(b) Infrared radiation
(c ) Radio waves
(d) Microwaves

Question : Particle like behavior of light arises from the fact that each quanta of light has definite ...X... and
a fixed value of ...Y.. just like a particle, Here, X and Y refer to
(a) frequency, energy
(b) shape, volume
(c) energy, frequency
(d) energy, momentum

Question : The wave nature of light was established by

(i) Maxwell’s equations (ii) Fraunhoffer’s lines
(iii) Hertz experiment (iv) Einstein’s theory
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only

Question : The work-function of a metal is

(a) the minimum current required to take out electron from the metal surface
(b) the maximum frequency required to take out electron from the metal surface
(c) the minimum amount of energy required to take out the electron from the metal surface
(d) None of these

Question : The work function of a metal is independent of

 P a g e | 115

(i) nature of the surface of the metal

(ii) dimensions of the metal
(iii) properties of the metal
(iv) abundance of the metal
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)

Question : The theory of quantisation of electric charge was given by

(a) William Crookes
(b) J. J. Thomson
(c) R.A. Millikan
(d) Wilhelm Hallwachs

Question : In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals,if the incident light has a certain
minimum
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) amplitude
(d) angle of incidence

Question : Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible light?

(a) Caesium
(b) Sodium
(c) Rubidium
(d) Cadmium

Question : A photosensitive substance emits _____when illuminated by light.

(a) only protons
(b) only neutrons
(c) electrons and protons
(d) only electrons

Question : The photoelectric current does not depend upon the

(i) frequency of incident light
(ii) work function of the metal
(iii) stopping potential
(iv) intensity of incident light
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only

Question : The stopping potential is directly related to

(a) the work function of the metal
(b) intensity of incident radiation
(c) the saturation current for the given frequency
(d) the kinetic energy gained by the photoelectrons

Question : The wave theory of light does not explain

(a) polarisation
(b) diffraction
(c) photocurrent
(d) interference
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Question : Photoelectric effect can be explained by

(a) wave theory of light
(b) Bohr’s theory
(c) quantum theory of light
(d) corpuscular theory of light

Question : In Einstein’s picture of Photoelectric emission, the photoelectric emission does not take place by
(a) continuous emission of energy from radiation
(b) continuous absorption of energy from radiation
(c) discrete absorption of energy from radiation
(d) discrete emission of energy from radiation

Question : The particle nature of light is not confirmed by

(a) photoelectric effect
(b) scattering of X-rays by electrons
(c) diffraction of electrons
(d) compton effect

Question : Photons are deflected by

(a) electric field only
(b) magnetic field only
(c) electromagnetic field
(d) None of these

Question : Electrically, photons are

(a) positively charged
(b) negatively charged
(c) neutral
(d) strongly charged, may be positive or negative

Question : In a photon-particle collision, the quantity that does not remain conserved is
(a) total energy
(b) total momentum
(c) number of photons
(d) None of these

Question : Of the following properties, the photon does not possess

(a) rest mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) frequency

Question : It is essential to consider light as a stream of photons to explain

(a) diffraction of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) photoelectric effect
(d) reflection of light

Question : Photoelectric effect was discovered by

(a) Hertz
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(b) Hallwachs
(c) Lenard
(d) Millikan

Question : The momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is

(a) hλ
(b) h/λ
(c) λ/h
(d) h/cλ

Question : The photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface are such that their velocity
(a) is zero for all
(b) is same for all
(c) lies between zero and infinity
(d) lies between zero and a finite maximum

Question : Photoelectric effect shows

(a) wave like behaviour of light
(b) paritcle like behaviour of light
(c) both wavelike and paticle like behaviour
(d) neither wave like nor particle like behaviour of light

Question : A photoelectric cell converts

(a) light energy into heat energy
(b) light energy to sound energy
(c) light energy into electric energy
(d) electric energy into light energy

Question : Light of a particular frequency υ is incident on a metal surface. When the intensity of incident
radiation is increased, the photoelectric current
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases

Question : The photoelectric effect is based on the law of conservationof

(a) momentum
(b) energy
(c) angular momentum
(d) mass

Question : The photoelectric effect can be understood on the basis of

(a) wave theroy of light only
(b) electromagnetic theory of light only
(c) quantum theory of light only
(d) None of these

Question : When light is incident on a metal surface the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(a) vary with intensity of light
(b) vary with frequency of light
(c) vary with speed of light
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(d) vary irregularly

Question : The maximum energy of electrons released in a photocell is independent of

(a) the frequency of the incident light
(b) the intensity of the incident light
(c) the nature of the cathode
(d) All of the above

Question : Einstein’s photoelectric equation states that hν = W + Ek. In this equatin, Ek refers to the
(a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
(b) mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(c) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons

Question : In the photoeletric effect, electrons are emitted

(a) at a rate that is proportional to the amplitude of the incident radiation
(b) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation
(c) at a rate that is independent of the emitter
(d) only if the frequency of the incident radiations is above a certain threshold value

Question : The minimum energy required to eject an electron, from the metal surface is called
(a) atomic energy
(b) mechanical energy
(c) electrical energy
(d) workfunction

Question : The work function for photoelectric effect

(a) is different for different metals
(b) is same for all metals
(c) depends upon the intensity of incident light
(d) depends upon the frequency of incident light

Question : Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which

(a) photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of electrons.
(b) photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the action of an electric field.
(c) electrons come out of a metal with a constant velocity
(d) which depends on the frequency and intensity of incident light wave.

Question : A photoelectric cell is a device which

(a) converts light into electricity
(b) converts electricity into light
(c) stores light
(d) stores electricity

Question : In Heinrich Hertz’s experiment on the production of electromagnetic waves by means of spark
discharge, it was observed that high voltage sparks across the detector loop were _____ when the emitter
plate was
illuminated by _____ light
(a) degraded, infra-red
(b) degraded, ultraviolet
(c) enhanced, ultraviolet
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(d) enhanced, infra-red.

Question : Which of the following shows particle nature of light?

(a) Refraction
(b) Interference
(c) Polarization
(d) Photoelectric effect

Question : Einstein’s photoelectric equation is Ek = hν - Φ . In this equation Ek refers to

(a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
(b) mean kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(c) maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(d) minimum kinetic energy of emitted electrons

Question : A photon will have less energy, if its

(a) amplitude is higher
(b) frequency is higher
(c) wavelength is longer
(d) wavelength is shorter

Question : The energy of photon of wavelength λ is

(a) cλ/h
(b) hλ/c
(c) hc/λ
(d) c/hλ

Question : A photo sensitive metal is not emitting photo-electrons when irradiated. It will do so when
threshold is crossed. To cross the threshold we need to increase
(a) intensity
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) None of these

Question : According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photo
electrons from a metal Vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives as straight the whose slope
(a) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(b) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(c) depends on the nature of the metal used
(d) is the same for the all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation

Question : ____ and _____ led to understanding of atomic structures.

(i) Fresnel diffraction
(ii) cathode rays
(iii) X-rays
(iv) electrons
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d)(iii) and (iv)

Question : Electron volt (ev) is the unit of

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(a) energy
(b) potential
(c) current
(d) charge

Question: Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of the
wavelengths is nearest to
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
Answer=C

Question: The work functions of Silver and Sodium are 4.6 and 2.3 eV, respectively. The ratio of the slope
of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Silver to that of Sodium is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) zero
Answer=A

Question: In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential for the incident light of wavelength 4000Å is
2 volt. If the wavelength be changed to 3000 Å, the stopping potential will be
(a) 2 V (b) zero
(c) less than 2 V (d) more than 2 V
Answer=D

Question: A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m away. When the same source of
light is placed 2 m away, the number of electrons emitted by photocathode are reduced by a factor of
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
Answer=D

Question: Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident on the cathode of a photoelectric cell, the work
function of the cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order to reduce the photocurrent to zero the voltage of the
anode relative to the cathode must be made
(a) – 4.2 V (b) – 9.4 V (c) – 17.8 V (d) + 9.4 V
Answer=B

Question: In Davison-Germer experiment, an electron beam is incident on a crystal. The reflected beam
consists of
(a) photons (b) protons
(c) x-rays (d) electrons
Answer=D

Question: In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun
can be increased by
(a) increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
(b) increasing the filament current
(c) decreasing the filament current
(d) decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Answer=A

Question: Radiations of two photon’s energy, twice and ten times the work function of metal are incident on
the metal surface successsively. The ratio of maximum velocities of photoelectrons emitted in two cases is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
Answer=B
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Question: When the minimum wavelength of X-rays is 2Å then the applied potential difference between
cathode and anticathode will be
(a) 6.2 kV (b) 2.48 kV (c) 24.8 kV (d) 62 kV
Answer=A

Question: When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the
metal is
(a) 0.65 eV (b) 1.0 eV (c) 1.3 eV (d) 1.5 eV
Answer=B

Atoms MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question : According to classical theory, the path of an electron in Rutherford atomic model is
(a) spiral (b) circular
(c) parabolic (d) straight line
Answer=A

Question : Rutherford’s a-particle experiment showed that the atoms have

(a) Proton (b) Nucleus
(c) Neutron (d) Electrons
Answer=B

Question : Rutherford’s atomic model was unstable because

(a) nuclei will break down
(b) electrons do not remain in orbit
(c) orbiting electrons radiate energy
(d) electrons are repelled by the nucleus
Answer=B

Question : According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom

(a) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised
Answer=D

Question : As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between consecutive energy levels
(a) remain the same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases.
Answer=C

Question : When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, it’s radius is
(a) four times, it ground state radius
(b) twice times, it ground state radius
(c) same times, it ground state radius
(d) half times, it ground state radius.
Answer=A
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Question : Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series
(c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
Answer=B

Question : The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed

(a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when an excited atom falls to the ground state
(b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due to transitions between excited states and the first excited
state
(c) in any transition in a H-atom
(d) None of these
Answer=B

Question : In a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic transitions would involve the maximum
energy change
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 1
(c) n = 4 to n = 2 (d) n = 3 to n = 2
Answer=B

Question : The Lyman transitions involve

(a) largest changes of energy
(b) smallest changes of energy
(c) largest changes of potential energy
(d) smallest changes of potential energy
Answer=A

Question : The first model of atom was proposed by

(a) Hans Geiger
(b) Ernst Rutherford
(c) J.J. Thomson
(b) N.H.D Bohr

Question : The empirical atom model was given by

(a) J. J. Thomson
(b) Rutherford
(c) Niels Bohr
(d) Sommerfeld

Question : Which of the following statements is correct in case of Thomson’s atomic model?
(a) It explains the phenomenon of thermionic emission, photoelectric emission and ionisation.
(b) It could not explain emission of line spectra by elements.
(c) It could not explain scattering of α-particles
(d) All of the above

Question : Which one did Rutherford consider to be supported by the results of experiments in which α-
particles were scattered by gold foil?
(a) The nucleus of an atom is held together by forces which are much stronger than electrical or gravitational
forces.
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(b) The force of repulsion between an atomic nucleus and an α-particle varies with distance according to
inverse square law.
(c) α-particles are nuclei of Helium atoms.
(d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete energy levels

Question : According to the Rutherford’s atomic model, the electrons inside the atom are
(a) stationary
(b) not stationary
(c) centralized
(d) None of these

Question : According to classical theory, the circular path of an electron in Rutherford atom model is
(a) spiral
(b) circular
(c) parabolic
(d) straight line

Question : Rutherford’s α-particle experiment showed that the atoms have

(a) Proton
(b) Nucleus
(c) Neutron
(d) Electrons

Question : Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by

(a) coulomb’s force
(b) nuclear force
(c) vander waal’s force
(d) gravitational force

Question : The Rutherford α-particle experiment shows that most of the α-particles pass through almost
unscattered while some are scattered through large angles. What information does it give about the
structure of the atom?
(a) Atom is hollow.
(b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small centre called nucleus
(c) Nucleus is positively charged
(d) All of the above

Question : In Rutherford's α -particle scattering experiment, what will be correct angle for α scattering for
an impact parameter b = 0 ?
(a) 90º
(b) 270º
(c) 0º
(d) 180º

Question : In the ground state in ...A... electrons are in stable equilibrium while in ...B... electrons always
experiences a net force. Here, A and B refer to
(a) Dalton’s theory, Rutherford model
(b) Rutherford’s model, Bohr’s model
(c) Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model
(d) Rutherford’s model, Thomson’s model
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Question : The significant result deduced from the Rutherford's scattering experiment is that
(a) whole of the positive charge is concentrated at the centre of atom
(b) there are neutrons inside the nucleus
(c) α-particles are helium nuclei
(d) electrons are embedded in the atom
(e) electrons are revolving around the nucleus

Question : Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by

(a) coulomb’s force
(b) nuclear force
(c) vander waal’s force
(d) gravitational force

Question : In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1approaches a
target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r. The energy of the projectile is
(a) directly proportional to Z1 Z2
(b) inversely proportional to Z1
(c) directly proportional to mass M1
(d) directly proportional to M1 × M2

Question : According to classical theory, Rutherford’s atomic model is

(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) meta stable
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question : Rutherford’s atomic model was unstable because

(a) nuclei will break down
(b) electrons do not remain in orbit
(c) orbiting electrons radiate energy
(d) electrons are repelled by the nucleus

Question : The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to lose energy because, they
(a) move randomly
(b) jump on nucleus
(c) radiate electromagnetic waves
(d) escape from the atom

Question : As one considers orbits with higher values of n in a hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy
of the atom
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains the same
(d) does not increase

Question : Which of the following parameters is the same for all hydrogen-like atoms and ions in their
ground states?
(a) Radius of the orbit
(b) Speed of the electron
(c) Energy of the atom
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(d) Orbital angular momentum of the electron

Question : The angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is
(a) directly proportional to n
(b) inversely proportional to n
(c) inversely proportional to n2
(d) inversely proportional to n3

Question : According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom

(a) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised.
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised.
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised.
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised.

Question : As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between consecutive energy levels
(a) remain the same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases.

Question : Which of the following in a hydrogen atom is independent of the principal quantum number n?
(The symbols have their usual meanings).
(a) νn
(b) Er
(c) En
(d) νr

Question : In terms of Bohr radius r0, the radius of the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is given by
(a) 4 r0
(b) 8 r0
(c) 2 r
(d) 2 r

Question : When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, it’s radius is
(a) four times, it ground state radius
(b) twice times, it ground state radius
(c) same times, it ground state radius
(d) half times, it ground state radius

Question : The angular momentum of the electron in hydrogen atom in the ground state is
(a) 2h
(b) h/2
(c) h/2π
(d) h/4π

Question : When an atomic gas or vapour is excited at low pressure, by passing an electric current through
it then
(a) emission spectrum is observed
(b) absorption spectrucm is observed
(c) band spectrum is observed
(d) both (b) and (c)
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Question : The first spectral series was disscovered by

(a) Balmer
(b) Lyman
(c) Paschen
(d) Pfund

Question : When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, one gets the
(a) second line of Paschen series
(b) second line of Balmer series
(c) first line of Pfund series
(d) second line of Lyman series

Question : The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed

(a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when an excited atom falls to the ground state
(b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due to transitions between excited states and the
first excited state
(c) in any transition in a H-atom
(d) None of these

Question : In Balmer series of emission spectrum of hydrogen, first four lines with different wavelength
Hα Hβ Hγ and Hδ are obtained. Which line has maximum frequency out of these?
(a) Hα
(b) Hβ
(c) Hγ
(d) Hδ

Question : In which of the following series, does the 121.5 nm line of the spectrum of the hydrogen atom lie
?
(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) Brackett series.

Question : Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Paschen series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Lyman series
(d) Brackett series

Question : The shortest wavelength in Balmer’s series for Hydrogen atom is ...A... and this is obtained by
substituting ...B ... in Balmer’s formula. Here, A and B refer to
(a) 656.3 nm, n = 3
(b) 486.1 nm, n = 4
(c) 410.2 nm, n = 5
(d) 364.6 nm, n =

Question : As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like
atom/ion
(a) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same
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(b) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
(c) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
(d) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease

Question : Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Paschen series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Lyman series
(d) Brackett series

Question : In a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic transitions would involve the maximum
energy change
(a) n = 2 to n = 1
(b) n = 3 to n = 1
(c) n = 4 to n = 2
(d) n = 3 to n = 2

Question : Hydrogen atom excites energy level from fundamental state to n = 3. Number of spectral lines
according to Bohr, is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2

Question : The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from
(a) 2 → 1
(b) 3 → 2
(c) 4 → 2
(d) 5 → 4

Question : For a given value of n, the number of electrons in an orbit is

(a) n
(b) n2
(c) 2n2
(d) 2n

Question : Bohr’s atom model is the modification of Rutherford’s atom model by the application of
(a) newton's theory
(b) huygen’s theory
(c) maxwell’s theory
(d) planck’s quantum theory

Question : In Bohr’s model electrons are revolving in a circular orbits around the nucleus called as
(a) stationary orbits
(b) non radiating orbits
(c) Bohr’s orbits
(d) all of these
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Question : According to Bohr’s theory of H atom, an electron can revolve around a proton indefinitely, if its
path is
(a) a perfect circle of any radius
(b) a circle of an allowed radius
(c) a circle of constantly decreasing radius
(d) an ellipse with fixed focus

Question : According to Bohr the difference between the energies of the electron in the two orbits is equal to
(a) hν
(b) hc/λ
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Question : The angular momentum of electrons in an atom produces

(a) magnetic moment
(b) ZEEMAN effect
(c) light
(d) nuclear fission

Question : According to Planck’s quantum theory any electromagnetic radiation is

(a) continuously emitted
(b) continuously absorbed
(c) emitted or absorbed in discrete units
(d) None of these

Question : In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let P.E. represents potential energy and T.E. represents the
total energy. In going to a higher level.
(a) P. E. decreases, T.E. increases
(b) P. E. increases, T.E. decreases
(c) P. E. decreases, T.E. decreases
(d) P. E. increases, T.E. increases

Question : Which of the following are in the ascending order of wavelength?

(a) Hα, Hβ and Hγ lines of Balmer series
(b) Lyman limit, Balmer limit
(c) Violet, blue, yellow, red colours in solar spectrum
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question : Rydberg’s constant is

(a) same for all elements
(b) different for different elements
(c) a universal constants
(d) is different for lighter elements but same for heavier elements

Question : In the hydrogen atom, an electron makes a transition from n = 2 to n = 1. The magnetic field
produced by the circulating electron at the nucleus
(a) decreases 16 times (b) increases 4 times
(c) decreases 4 times (d) increases 32 times
Answer=D
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Question : The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory, the energy
corresponding to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbit is
(a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV (c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV
Answer=D

Question : The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The
smallest wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest integer) is
(a) 802 nm (b) 823 nm (c) 1882 nm (d) 1648 nm
Answer=B

Question : Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen
atom according to Bohr’s atomic model?
(a) 1.9 eV (b) 11.1 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 0.65 eV
Answer=B

Question : If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an
electron from n = 2 is
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 0 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV.
Answer=C

Question : Energy required for the electron excitation in Li++ from the first to the third Bohr orbit is
(a) 36.3 eV (b) 108.8 eV (c) 122.4 eV (d) 12.1 eV
Answer=B

Question : The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is
(a) 1/4 (b) 4/9 (c) 9/4 (d) 4
Answer=C

Question : Excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion in its excitation state is 40.8 eV. Energy needed to
remove the electron from the ion in ground state is
(a) 54.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 40.8 eV (d) 27.2 eV
Answer=A

Question : Suppose potential energy between electron and proton at separation r is given by U = K ln (r),
where K is a constant. For such a hypothetical hydrogen atom, the ratio of energy difference between
energy levels (n = 1 and n = 2) and (n = 2 and n = 4) is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Answer=A

Question : An unknown hot gas emits radiation of wavelengths 46.0 nm, 82.8 nm and 103.5 nm only.
Assume that the atoms have only two excited states and the difference between consecutive energy levels
decreases as energy is increased. Taking the energy of the highest energy state to be zero, find the energies
of the ground state and the first excited state.
(a) –27 eV, – 12 eV (b) –6 eV, – 3 eV
(c) –11 eV, – 8 eV (d) –9 eV, – 3 eV
Answer=A

Nuclei MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question : The constituents of nucleus are
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(a) electrons and protons

(b) protons and neutrons
(c) neutrons and electrons
(d) electrons, protons and neutrons
Answer=B

Question : The radius of a nucleus is

(a) directly proportional to its mass number
(b) inversely proportional to its atomic weight
(c) directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number
(d) None of these
Answer=C

Question : A nuclei having same number of neutron but different number of protons / atomic number are
called
(a) isobars (b) isomers
(c) isotones (d) isotopes
Answer=C

Question : When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the binding energy per nucleon
(a) increases continuously with mass number
(b) decreases continuously with mass number
(c) remains constant with mass number
(d) first increases and then decreases with increase of mass number
Answer=D

Question : The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of its constituents. This mass
defect is converted into
(a) heat energy
(b) light energy
(c) electrical energy
(d) energy which binds nucleons together
Answer=D

Question : Nuclear forces are

(a) spin dependent and have no non-central part
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central part
(c) spin independent and have no non-central part
(d) spin independent and have a non-central part
Answer=D

Question : On an average, the number of neutrons and the energy of a neutron released per fission of a
uranium atom are respectively
(a) 2.5 and 2 keV (b) 3 and l keV
(c) 2.5 and 2 MeV (d) 2 and 2 keV
Answer=C

Question : A moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to

(a) slow down the speed of the nuetrons
(b) acceleerate the neutrons
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(c) increase the number of neutrons

(d) decrease the number of neutrons
Answer=C

Question : Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because

(a) atoms are ionised at high temperature
(b) molecules break up at high temperature
(c) nuclei break up at high temperature
(d) kinetic enrgy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei
Answer=D

Question : For a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are

(a) any nuclei
(b) heavy nuclei
(c) lighter nuclei
(d) nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table
Answer=C

Question : Chadwick was awarded the 1935 nobel prize in physics for his discovery of the
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) positron

Question : The element gold has

(a) 16 isotopes
(b) 32 isotopes
(c) 96 isotopes
(d) 173 isotopes

Question : The nuclear radius is of the order of

(a) 10–10 m
(b) 10–6 m
(c) 10–15 m
(d) 10–14 m

Question : Particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties
are called
(a) neutrons
(b) electrons
(c) protons
(d) alpha particles

Question : The radius of a nucleus is

(a) directly proportional to its mass number
(b) inversely proportional to its atomic weight
(c) directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number
(d) None of these
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Question : Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of

(a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(d) 11 protons and 13 electrons

Question : The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because

(a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is much less than the size of nucleus
(b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is much greater than the size of nucleus
(c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is equal to the size of nucleus
(d) negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus

Question : In ...X... water is circulated though the reactor vessel and transfers energy to steam generator in
the ...Y... Here, X and Y refer to
(a) primary loop, secondary loop
(b) reactor core, turbine
(c) secondary loop, primary loop
(d) turbine, reactor core

Question : A nuclei having same number of neutron but different number of protons / atomic number are
called
(a) isobars
(b) isomers
(c) isotones
(d) isotopes

Question : Which one of the following has the identical property for isotopes?
(a) Physical property
(b) Chemical property
(c) Nuclear property
(d) Thermal property

Question : The number of protons in an atom of atomic number Z and mass number A is
(a) zero
(b) Z
(c) A – Z
(d) A

Question : When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the binding energy per nucleon
(a) increases continuously with mass number
(b) decreases continuously with mass number
(c) remains constant with mass number
(d) first increases and then decreases with increase of mass number

Question : Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a neutron.

A given nucleus, of binding energy B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus
is given
by (c is the velocity of light)
(a) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
(b) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2
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(c) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2

(d) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2

Question : Mass energy equation was propounded by

(a) Newton
(b) Madam Curie
(c) C. V. Raman
(d) Einstein

Question : The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of its constituents. This mass
defect is converted into
(a) heat energy
(b) light energy
(c) electrical energy
(d) energy which binds nucleons together

Question : Which of the following statement is not true regarding Einsteins mass energy relation?
(a) Mass disappears to reappear as energy.
(b) Energy disappears to reappear as mass.
(c) Mass and energy are two different forms of the same entity.
(d) Mass and energy can never be related to each other.

Question : The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of atomic mass number has a sharp peak
for helium nucleus. This implies that helium
(a) can easily be broken up
(b) is very stable
(c) can be used as fissionable meterial
(d) is radioactive

Question : Nuclear forces are

(a) spin dependent and have no non-central part
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central part
(c) spin independent and have no non-central part
(d) spin independent and have a non-central part

Question : Nuclear forces exists between

(a) neutron - neutron
(b) proton - proton
(c) neutron - proton
(d) all of these

Question : The antiparticle of electron is

(a) positron
(b) α-particle
(c) proton
(d) β-particle
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Question : Neutron decay in free space is given as follows n1 → 1H1 + -1e +[] Then the parenthesis [ ]
represents a
(a) neutrino
(b) photon
(c) antineutrino
(d) graviton

Question : Radioactivity is
(a) irreversible process
(b) self disintegration process
(c) spontaneous
(d) all of the above

Question : γ-rays are deflected by

(a) an electric field but not by a magnetic field
(b) a magnetic field but not by an electric field
(c) both electric and magnetic field
(d) neither by electric field nor by magnetic field

Question : Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are

(a) electromagnetic radiations
(b) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
(c) charged particles emitted by nucleus
(d) neutral particles

Question : Which of the following is not a mode of radioactive decay ?

(a) Positron emission
(b) Electron capture
(c) Fusion
(d) Alpha decay

Question : The half-life period and the mean life period of a radioactive element are denoted respectively by
Th and Tm. Then
(a) Th = Tm
(b) Th > T m
(c) Th < Tm
(d) Th ≥ Tm

Question : In γ ray emission from a nucleus

(a) only the proton number changes
(b) both the neutron number and the proton number change
(c) there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number
(d) only the neutron number changes

Question : Artificial radioactivity was discovered by

(a) Klaproth
(b) Rontgen
(c) Irene Curie and Joliot
(d) P. Curie and M. Curie

Question : Radioactive samples are stored in lead boxes because it is

 P a g e | 135

(a) heavy
(b) strong
(c) good absorber
(d) bad conductor

Question : The process of radioactive radiations remains unaffected due to

(a) physical changes
(b) chemical changes
(c) electric or magnetic fields
(d) all of the above

Question : A radioactive material undergoes decay by ejecting electrons. The electron ejected in this process
is
(a) the electron from the decay of a neutron
(b) the electron present in the nucleus
(c) the resulting from the conversion of γ photon
(d) an orbital electron

Question : The same radioactive nucleus may emit

(a) all the three α, β and γ one after another
(b) all the three α, β and γ radiations simultaneously
(c) only α and β simultaneously
(d) only one α, β and γ at a time

Question : Which of the following of a radioactive material is a measure of its instability?

(a) Full life
(b) Mean life
(c) Half life
(d) None of these

Question : The rate of disintegration at a given instant, is directly proportional to the number of atoms
present at that instant. This is the statement of
(a) law of radioactive decay
(b) half life
(c) law of radioactive transformation
(d) group displacement law

Question : Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because

(a) atoms are ionised at high temperature
(b) molecules break up at high temperature
(c) nuclei break up at high temperature
(d) kinetic enrgy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei

Question : Three specimens A, B, C of same radioactive element has activities 1 microcurie, 1 rutherford
and 1 becquerel respectively. Which specimen has maximum mass?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) all have equal masses
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Question : Charge on an α-particle is

(a) 1.6 × 10–19 C
(b) 3.2 × 10–19 C
(c) 1.6 × 10–20 C
(d) 4.8 × 10–19 C

Question : If a radioactive element is placed in an evacuated chamber, then the rate of radioactive decay
will
(a) decrease
(b) remains unchanged
(c) increase
(d) none of these

Question : The γ radiations are

(a) electromagnetic radiation with high energy
(b) electromagnetic radiation with low energy
(c) charged particles emitted by the nucleus
(d) electrons orbiting the nucleus

Question : Radioactive substance emits

(a) α-rays
(b) β-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) All of the above

Question : The 'rad' is the correct unit used to report the measurement of
(a) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produce ions in a target
(b) the energy delivered by radiation to a target
(c) the biological effect of radiation
(d) the rate of decay of a radioactive source

Question : One curie is equal to

(a) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/sec
(b) 3.2 × 108 disintegration/sec
(c) 2.8 × 1010 disintegration/sec
(d) None of these

Question : Half life of radioactive element depends upon

(a) amount of element present
(b) temperature
(c) pressure
(d) nature of element

Question : For a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are

(a) any nuclei
(b) heavy nuclei
(c) lighter nuclei
(d) nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table

Question : Fusion reaction occurs at temperatures of the order of

(a) 103 K
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(b) 107 K
(c) 10 K
(d) 104 K

Question : Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of

(a) stainless steel
(b) graphite
(c) cadmium
(d) plutonium

Question : Boron rods in a nuclear reactor are used to

(a) absorb excess neutrons
(b) absorb alpha particle
(c) slow down the reaction
(d) speed up the reaction

Question : A moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to

(a) slow down the speed of the nuetrons
(b) acceleerate the neutrons
(c) increase the number of neutrons
(d) decrease the number of neutrons

Question : If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen nuclei. The energy released per
oxygen nuclei is [Mass of He nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of Oxygen nucleus is 15.9994 amu]
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.9 MeV
Answer=C

Question : If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single U235 nucleus, the number of fissions
required per second to produce 1 kilowatt power shall be (Given 1eV = 1.6 × 10 –19 J)
(a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 3.125 × 1014
(c) 3.125 × 1015 (d) 3.125 × 1016
Answer=A

Question : A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in
fusion reaction is 0.02866 a.m.u. The energy liberated per a.m.u. is (Given : 1 a.m.u = 931 MeV)
(a) 26.7 MeV (b) 6.675 MeV
(c) 13.35 MeV (d) 2.67 MeV
Answer=B

Question : Radioactivity is
(a) irreversible process
(b) self disintegration process
(c) spontaneous
(d) all of the above
Answer=D

Question : Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are

(a) electromagnetic radiations
(b) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
 P a g e | 138

(c) charged particles emitted by nucleus

(d) neutral particles
Answer=C

Question : Which of the following is not a mode of a radioactive decay ?

(a) Positron emission (b) Electron capture
(c) Fusion (d) Alpha decay
Answer=C

Question : A radioactive material undergoes decay by ejecting electrons. The electron ejected in this process
is
(a) the electron from the decay of a neutron
(b) the electron present in the nucleus
(c) the resulting from the conversion of g photon
(d) an orbital electron
Answer=A

Question : The rate of disintegration at a given instant, is directly proportional to the number of atoms
present at that instant. This is the statement of
(a) law of radioactive decay
(b) half life
(c) law of radioactive transformation
(d) group displacement law
Answer=A

Question : Half life of radioactive element depends upon

(a) amount of element present
(b) temperature
(c) pressure
(d) nature of element
Answer=D

Question : A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hr emits radiation of intensity which is 64
times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this
source is
(a) 6 hr (b) 12 hr (c) 24 hr (d) 128 hr
Answer=B

Semiconductor Electronics Materials Devices and Simple Circuits MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers
Question : The transistor are usually made of
(a) metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(b) metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(c) metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity
(d) semiconducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resistivity
Answer=A

Question : To use a transistor as an amplifier, emitter-base junction is kept in ...X... and base-collector
junction is kept in ...Y... Here, X and Y refer to
(a) forward bias, forward bias
(b) reverse bias, reverse bias
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(c) reverse bias, forward bias

(d) forward bias, reverse bias
Answer=D

Question : A transistor has three impurity regions. All the three regions have different doping levels. In
order of increasing doping level, the regions are
(a) emitter, base and collector
(b) collector, base and emitter
(c) base, emitter and collector
(d) base, collector and emitter
Answer=D

Question : When npn transistor is used as an amplifier

(a) electrons move from collector to base
(b) holes move from emitter to base
(c) electrons move from base to collector
(d) holes move from base to emitter
Answer=D

Question : For a common base amplifier, the values of resistance gain and voltage gain are 3000 and 2800
respectively. The current gain will be
(a) 1.1 (b) 0.98 (c) 0.93 (d) 0.83
Answer=C

Question : The current gain of a transistor in common base mode is 0.995. The current gain of the same
transistor in common emitter mode is
(a) 197 (b) 201 (c) 198 (d) 199
Answer=D

Question : In Boolean algebra, Y = A + B implies that

(a) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exist
(b) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B exists or both inputs A and B exist
(c) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B exists but not when both inputs A and B exist
(d) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exists but not when either input A or B exist
Answer=A

Question : NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates primarily because they
(a) are available universally
(b) can be combined to produce OR, AND and NOT gates
(c) are widely used in Integrated circuit packages
(d) are easiest to manufacture
Answer=B

Question : The gate for which output is high if atleast one input is low?
(a) NAND (b) NOR (c) AND (d) OR
Answer=D

Question : Hole in semiconductor is

(a) an anti – particle of electron
(b) a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond
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(c) absence of free electrons

(d) an artificially created particle
Answer=D

Question : In a semiconductor
(a) there are no free electrons at 0 K
(b) there are no free electrons at any temperature
(c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure
(d) the number of fre electrons is more than that in a conductor

Question : Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor.
Then
(a) nh > ne
(b) nh = ne
(c) nh < ne
(d) nh ≠ ne

Question : A p-type semiconductor is

(a) positively charged
(b) negatively charged
(c) uncharged
(d) uncharged at 0K but charged at higher temperatures

Question : Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to

(a) electrons only
(b) holes only
(c) both electrons and holes
(d) neither electrons nor holes

Question : The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped to make it a p-type semiconductor are
those of
(a) phosphorus
(b) boron
(c) antimony
(d) nitrogen

Question : The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by

(a) increasing the temperature
(b) doping acceptor impurities
(c) doping donor impurities
(d) All of the above

Question : The resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in between

(a) 10–2 to 10–5 Ω cm
(b) 10–3 to 106 Ω cm
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(c) 106 to 108 Ω cm

(d) 1010 to 1012 Ω cm

Question : Number of electrons in the valence shell of a pure semiconductor is

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Question : In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the conduction
band is of the order is
(a) 1 MeV
(b) 0.1 Mev
(c) 1 eV
(d) 5 eV

Question : The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is

(a) 0.071 eV
(b) 0.71 eV
(c) 2.57 eV
(d) 6.57 eV

Question : In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is of
the order of
(a) 1 MeV
(b) 0.1 MeV
(c) 1 eV
(d) 5 eV

Question : What is the resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute zero ?

(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Same as that of conductors at room temperature
(d) Same as that of insulators at room temperature

Question : Temperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductor is

(a) zero
(b) constant
(c) positive
(d) negative

Question : In a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor valence band is

(a) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(b) close to conduction band of the host crystal
(c) below the conduction band of the host crystal
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(d) above the conduction band of the host crystal

Question : In an n-type semiconductor, donor valence band is

(a) above the conduction band of the host crystal
(b) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(c) close to the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) below the valence band of the host crystal

Question : The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because
(a) they are light
(b) they carry negative charge
(c) they mutually colllide less
(d) they require low energy to continue their motion

Question : The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a semiconductor and temperature (T) is
given by
(a) n ∝T
(b) n ∝ T2
(c) n ∝ √T
(d) n ∝T3/2

Question : In semiconductors, at room temperature

(a) the conduction band is completely empty
(b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
(d) the valence band is completely filled

Question : At absolute zero, Si acts as

(a) non-metal
(b) metal
(c) insulator
(d) None of these

Question : One serious drawback of semi-conductor devices is

(a) they do not last for long time.
(b) they are costly
(c) they cannot be used with high voltage.
(d) they pollute the environment.

Question : When an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor, the conductivity of the
semiconductor
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero

Question : An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the number of charge carriers be n and the
average drift speed be v. If the temperature is increased
(a) both n and v will increase
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(b) n will increase but v will decrease

(c) v will increase but n will decrease
(d) both n and v will decrease

Question : If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal

(a) it becomes a p–type semiconductor
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
(d) its resistance is increased

Question : By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor
(a) increases for both
(b) decreases for both
(c) increases, decreases
(d) decreases, increases

Question : A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80K. The
resistance of
(a) each of these decreases
(b) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(c) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
(d) each of these increases

Question : Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and
conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge respectively.
Which one of the following relationship is true in their case?
(a) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si
(b) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si
(c) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si
(d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge

Question : A semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current
is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost
zero. The device may be a/an
(a) intrinsic semiconductor
(b) p-type semiconductor
(c) n-type semiconductor
(d) p-n junction diode

Question : If the two ends of a p-n junction are joined by a wire

(a) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
(b) there will be a steady current from the n-side to the pside
(c) there will be a steady current from the p-side to the nside
(d) there may or may not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire

Question : The drift current in a p-n junction is from the

(a) n-side to the p-side
(b) p-side to the n-side
(c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
 P a g e | 144

Question : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the

(a) n-side to the p-side
(b) p-side to the n-side
(c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
(d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased

Question : Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
(a) if the junction is forward-biased
(b) if the junction is reverse-biased
(c) if the junction is unbiased
(d) in no case

Question : Forward biasing is that in which applied voltage

(a) increases potential barrier
(b) cancels the potential barrier
(c) is equal to 1.5 volt
(d) None of these

Question : In V-I characteristic of a p-n junction, reverse biasing results in

(a) leakage current
(b) the current barrier across junction increases
(c) no flow of current
(d) large current

Question : In reverse biasing

(a) large amount of current flows
(b) potential barrier across junction increases
(c) depletion layer resistance increases
(d) no current flows

Question : Zener diode is used for

(a) amplification
(b) rectification
(c) stabilisation
(d) all of the above

Question : Filter circuit

(a) eliminates a.c. component
(b) eliminates d.c. component
(c) does not eliminate a.c. component
(d) None of these

Question : In a transistor
(a) the emitter has the least concentration of impurity
(b) the collector has the least concentration of impurity
(c) the base has the least concentration of impurity
(d) all the three regions have equal concentrations of impurity

Question : In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers opposition to

(a) holes in P-region only
(b) free electrons in N-region only
 P a g e | 145

(c) majority carriers in both regions

(d) majority as well as minority carriers in both regions

Question : In a P -N junction
(a) the potential of P & N sides becomes higher alternately
(b) the P side is at higher electrical potential than N side.
(c) the N side is at higher electric potential than P side.
(d) both P & N sides are at same potential.

Question : Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend on

(a) doping density
(b) diode design
(c) temperature
(d) forward bias

Question : Reverse bias applied to a junction diode

(a) increases the minority carrier current
(b) lowers the potential barrier
(c) raises the potential barrier
(d) increases the majority carrier current

Question : In forward biasing of the p–n junction

(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p–side and the depletion region becomes thick
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n–side and the depletion region becomes thin
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n–side and the depletion region becomes thick
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p–side and the depletion region becomes thin

Question : When p-n junction diode is forward biased then

(a) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
(c) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
(d) Both the depletion region and barrier height are increased

Question : The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n junction diode is

(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction
(b) concentration of positive charges near the junction
(c) depletion of negative charges near the junction
(d) concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction

Question : The ratio of forward biased to reverse biased resistance for pn junction diode is
(a) 10–1 : 1
(b) 10–2 : 1
(c) 104 : 1
(d) 10–4 : 1

Question : In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse- biased on junction, the
(a) electric field is zero
(b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) potential is zero
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Question : Bridge type rectifier uses

(a) four diodes
(b) six diodes
(c) two diodes
(d) one diode

Question : The average value of output direct current in a half wave rectifier is
(a) I0/π
(b) I0/2
(c) π I0/2
(d) 2 I0/π

Question : The average value of output direct current in a full wave rectifier is
(a) I0/π
(b) I0/2
(c) π I0/2
(d) 2 I0/π

Question : In a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the a.c. component of the wave is
(a) equal to d.c. value
(b) more than d.c. value
(c) less than d.c. value
(d) zero

Question : In a semiconductor
(a) there are no free electrons at 0 K
(b) there are no free electrons at any temperature
(c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure
(d) the number of fre electrons is more than that in a conductor
Answer : A

Question : The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by

(a) increasing the temperature
(b) doping acceptor impurities
(c) doping donor impurities
(d) All of the above
Answer : D

Question : Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to

(a) electrons only
(b) holes only
(c) both electrons and holes
(d) neither electrons nor holes
Answer : C

Question : The drift current in a p-n junction is from the

(a) n-side to the p-side
(b) p-side to the n-side
 P a g e | 147

(c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
Answer : A

Question : If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal

(a) it becomes a p–type semiconductor
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
(d) its resistance is increased
Answer : C

Question : The peak voltage in the output of a half-wave diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without
filter is 10V. The d.c. component of the output voltage is
(a) 20/p V
(b) 10/Ö2 V
(c) 10/p V
(d) 10V
Answer : C

Question : In the half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental
frequency in the ripple would be
(a) 25 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 70.7 Hz
(d) 100 Hz
Answer : B

Question : If the forward bias on p-n junction is increased from zero to 0.045 V, then no current flows in the
circuit. The contact potential of junction i.e. VB is
(a) zero
(b) 0.045 V
(c) more than 0.045 V
(d) less than 0.045 V
Answer : C

Question : Choose the correct option

Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released, conductance
increases and resistance decreases.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Answer : A

Question : An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the number of charge carriers be n and the
average drift speed be v. If the temperature is increased
(a) both n and v will increase
(b) n will increase but v will decrease
 P a g e | 148

(c) v will increase but n will decrease

(d) both n and v will decrease
Answer : A

Communication Systems MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics with Answers

Question : Communication is the process of
(a) keeping in touch
(b) exchange information
(c) broad casting
(d) entertainment by electronics
Answer= B

Question : Which of the following is the element of a communication system?

(a) Transmitter (b) channel
(c) Receiver (d) All of the above
Answer= D

Question : A transducer used at the transmitting end, serves the purpose of converting
(a) electrical signal to sound form
(b) sound signal to electrical form
(c) electrical signal to magnetic form
(d) sound signal to magnetic form
Answer= B

Question : The term channel is used to indicate

(a) the amplitude range allocated to a given source
(b) the frequency range allocated to a given source
(c) the voltage-range allocated to a given source
(d) All of the above
Answer= B

Question : Buffer amplifier is used at the transmitting end to

(a) feed carrier frequency to master oscillator
(b) amplify carrier frequency
(c) mix modulating signal with carrier frequency
(d) isolate master oscillator from other stages of transmitter.
Answer= D

Question : During ground wave propagation the transmitted waves gets attenuated because
(a) earth surface absorbs the waves
(b) frequency of the waves are too low
(c) energy content of these waves are high
(d) earth surface offers resistance.
Answer= D

Question : Wave obtained on superimposition of audible frequency e.m. wave is known as

(a) carrier wave (b) high frequency wave
(c) modulating wave (d) modulated wave
Answer= D

Question : The AM wave is equivalent to the summation of

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(a) two sinusoidal waves

(b) three sinusoidal waves
(c) four sinusoidal waves
(d) None of these
Answer= B

Question : As the height of satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remain same (d) both (a) and (b)
Answer= B

Question : Which of the following is drawback of amplitude modulation?

(a) low efficiency (b) noise reception
(c) operating range is small (d) all of these
Answer= D

Question : For a radio wave reaching the ionised medium

(a) will bend away from normal
(b) will bend towards normal
(c) will bend follow a straight-path
(d) None of these.
Answer=A

Question : Audio signal cannot be transmitted because

(a) the signal has more noise
(b) the signal cannot be amplified for distance communication
(c) the transmitting antenna length is very small to design
(d) the transmitting antenna length is very large and impracticable
Answer=D

Question : The service area of space wave communication increases by

(a) increasing the height of transmitting antenna
(b) decreasing the height of receiving antenna
(c) increasing the height of both transmitting and receiving antenna
(d) decreasing the distance between transmitting and receiving antenna
Answer=C

Question : 12 signals each band limited to 5 kHz are to be transmitted by frequency-division multiplexer. If
AM-SSB modulation guard band of 1 kHz is used then the bandwidth of multiplexed signal is
(a) 101 kHz (b) 99 kHz (c) 84 kHz (d) 71 kHz
Answer=D

Question : An audio frequency of 10 kHz is transmitted by SSB after AM with carrier waves of frequency
1MHz. The frequency of current in output load is
(a) 1010 kHz or 990 kHz (b) 1010 MHz or1010 MHz
(c) 110 kHz or 990 kHz (d) 110 MHz or 990 MHz
Answer=A

Question : In an amplitude modulated wave for audio frequency of 500 cycle/second, the appropriate
carrier frquency will be
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(a) 50 cycles/s (b) 100 cycles/s

(c) 500 cycles/s (d) 50, 000 cycles/s
Answer=D

Question : To cover a population of 20 lakh, a transmission tower should have a height: (radius of the earth
= 6400 km, population per square km = 1000)
(a) 25 m (b) 50 m (c) 75 m (d) 100 m
Answer=B

Question : In FM, when frequency deviation is doubled, then

(a) modulation is halved
(b) carrier swing is halved
(c) modulation is doubled
(d) modulation index is decreased
Answer=C

Question : Television signals are

(a) frequency modulated
(b) amplitude modulated
(c) both frequency and amplitude modulated
(d) phase modulated
Answer=C

Question : In PCM if the transmission path is very long

(a) pulse spacing is reduced
(b) pulse amplitude is increased
(c) pulse width is increased
(d) repeater stations are used.
Answer=D

Q1. Audio signal cannot be transmitted because

(a) the signal has more noise
(b) the signal cannot be amplified for distance communication
(c) the transmitting antenna length is very small to design
(d) the transmitting antenna length is very large and impracticable
Show Answer
(d) the transmitting antenna length is very large and impracticable

Q2. The service area of space wave communication increases by

(a) increasing the height of transmitting antenna
(b) decreasing the height of receiving antenna
(c) increasing the height of both transmitting and receiving antenna
(d) decreasing the distance between transmitting and receiving antenna
Show Answer
(c) increasing the height of both transmitting and receiving antenna

Q3. Communication channel consists of:

(a) transmission line only
(b) optical fibre only
(c) free space only
(d) All of the above
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Show Answer
(d) All of the above

Q4. Which is more advantageous?

(a) analog data communication
(b) digital data communication
(c) both (a) and (b) are equally good
(d) depends on the situation
Show Answer
(b) digital data communication

Q5. The output of a digital computer is an example of:

(a) digital signal
(b) analog signal
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Show Answer
(a) digital signal

Q6. The length of a half wave dipole at 30 mega-hertz is:

(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 80 m
Show Answer
(a) 5 m

Q7. In FM, when frequency deviation is doubled, then

(a) modulation is halved
(b) carrier swing is halved
(c) modulation is doubled
(d) modulation index is decreased
Show Answer
(c) modulation is doubled

Q8. Television signals are

(a) frequency modulated
(b) amplitude modulated
(c) both frequency and amplitude modulated
(d) phase modulated
Show Answer
(c) both frequency and amplitude modulated

Q9. The audio frequencies range from:

(a) 20 Hz to 20.000 kHz
(b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(c) 20 kHz to 20.000 kHz
(d) None of these
Show Answer
(b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
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Q10. The wavelength of a wave of frequency 10 kHz is:

(a) 30 m
(b) 300 m
(c) 30 km
(d) 300 km
Show Answer
(c) 30 km

Q11. The sound produced by a tuning fork is a sort of:

(a) analog signal
(b) digital signal
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Show Answer
(a) analog signal

Q12. If both the length of an antenna and the wavelength of the signal to be transmitted are doubled, the
power radiated by the antenna
(a) is doubled
(b) is halved
(c) remains constant
(d) is quadrupled
(e) increases 16 times
Show Answer
(c) remains constant

Q13. A modem is a
(a) modulating device only
(b) demodulating device only
(c) modulating and demodulating device
(d) transmitting device
(e) receiving device
Show Answer
(c) modulating and demodulating device

Q14. A loudspeaker converts:

(a) electrical signals into sound signals
(b) sound signals into electrical signals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Show Answer
(a) electrical signals into sound signals

Q15. A microphone converts:

(a) sound signals into electrical signals
(b) electrical signals into sound signals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Show Answer
(a) sound signals into electrical signals
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Q16. The output of a digital computer is an example of:

(a) digital signal
(b) analog signal
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Show Answer
(a) digital signal

Q17. The modulation index in amplitude modulation is:

(a) Always zero
(b) Between 0 and 1
(c) Between 1 and ∞
(d) None of these
Show Answer
(c) Between 1 and ∞

Q18. A repeater is a combination of

(a) receiver and modulator
(b) receiver and transducer
(c) receiver and transmitter
(d) receiver and amplifier
(e) amplifier and transmitter
Show Answer
(c) receiver and transmitter

Q19. Broadcasting antenna are generally:

(a) Ommi directional type
(b) Vertical type
(c) Horizontal type
(d) None
Show Answer
(b) Vertical type

Q20. The increasing order of the frequency bands used for various communication services is
(a) space waves, sky waves, ground waves
(b) space waves, ground waves, sky waves
(c) sky waves, ground waves, space waves
(d) ground waves, sky waves, space waves
Show Answer
(d) ground waves, sky waves, space waves