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Varieties with distinct heritable features

Character such as the color of a flower. 2 alleles

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Character variants (such as purple or white

Traits flowers)

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Producing offspring with the same trait. An

True breeding organism must be homozygous. Referred to
as P generation.

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Parental (always F1=offspring true

P generation breeding). True breeding parents.

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F1 Offspring. Hybrid offspring

+1 others

1 trackers blocked
less

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When F1 individuals self-pollinate or

cross- pollinate with other F1 hybrids.
F2 generation
F1*F1=F2 generation

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The mating, or crossing, of two true

Hybridization breeding varieties.

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On the homologous chromosome located

Alleles are always found where? on the locus

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Allele Alternative form of gene

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If two alleles at a locus differs then the dominant one

Dominant allele determines the appearance of the organism. Example Dd, so
the Bigger D will be the dominant

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Has no noticeable affect on the organisms

Recessive allele appearance. Example Dd, so the smaller d
will be recessive

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The two alleles for a heritable character

Law of Segregation separate (segregate) during gamete
formation and end up in different gametes.

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An organism with two identical alleles for

Homozygous a character

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An organism that has two different alleles

Heterozygous for a gene

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physical appearance

Phenotype PP and Pp plants have the same

phenotype (purple) but different
genotypes

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Genetic makeup

Genotypes PP and Pp plants have the same

phenotype (purple) but different
genotypes

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The F1 offspring produced in this cross

Monohybrids were monohybrids, individuals that are
heterozygous for one character

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Monohybrid cross A cross between monohybrids

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Crossing two true-breeding parents

differing in two characters. in the F1
Dihybrids generation, heterozygous for both
characters

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Two or more enes sort independent of one another. States

Law of independent assortment that each pair of alleles segregates independently of each
other pair of alleles during gamete formation

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occurs when phenotypes of the

Complete dominance heterozygote and dominant homozygote
are identical

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the probability that two or more

Multiplication rule independent events will occur together is
the product of their individual probabilities

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the phenotype of F1 hybrids is somewhere between the

phenotypes of the two parental varieties. This is basically a
Incomplete Dominance mixture. Genotype takes on a mixture of both the dominant
allele and recessive allele one allele red and the other
White...both colors mix to make pink.

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two dominant alleles affect the phenotype

CoDominant in separate, distinguishable ways

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Most genes have a phenotypic effects.

Pleitropy ***Gives out several phenotypes

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Epistasis ***Several alleles affect one phenotype.

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Dihybrid crosses always gives you a

phenotypic ratio of what? 9:3:3:1

1) What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and front 28
dihybrid back 28
cross?

A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross Answer: C

involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross
produces two progeny. A dihybrid cross involves organisms that
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two
characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one. are heterozygous for two characters and a
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid
cross is performed for two generations. monohybrid cross involves only one.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross
gives a 3:1 ratio.

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Why did the F₁ offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross

always look like one of the two parental varieties? Answer: D
A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
C) The traits blended together during fertilization. One phenotype was completely dominant
D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
E) Different genes interacted to produce the parental over another
phenotype.

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Monohybrid always gives you a

phenotypical ratio of what? 3:1

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Norm of Reaction Influenced by the enviornment

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When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for
a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of
producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive
phenotype?
Answer: C
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50% 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

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How many unique gametes could be produced through

independent assortment by an individual with the genotype
AaBbCCDdEE? Answer: B
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
8
E) 64

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Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual
cannot appropriately metabolize a particular amino acid. The amino acid is
not otherwise produced by humans. Therefore, the most efficient and
effective treatment is which of the following? Answer: C
A) Feed them the substrate that can be metabolized into this amino acid.
B) Transfuse the patients with blood from unaffected donors.
C) Regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of Regulate the diet of the affected persons to
the amino acid.
D) Feed the patients the missing enzymes in a regular cycle, such as twice severely limit the uptake of the amino acid
per week.
E) Feed the patients an excess of the missing product.

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An obstetrician knows that one of her patients is a pregnant
woman whose fetus is at risk for a serious disorder that is
detectable biochemically in fetal cells. The obstetrician
would most reasonably offer which of the following Answer: C
procedures to her patient?
A) CVS
B) ultrasound imaging
C) amniocentesis
amniocentesis
D) blood transfusion
E) X-ray

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Why does recombination between linked genes continue front to

36 back 36
occur?
A) Recombination is a requirement for independent
assortment. Answer: C
B) Recombination must occur or genes will not assort
independently.
C) New allele combinations are acted upon by natural New allele combinations are acted upon by
selection.
D) The forces on the cell during meiosis II always result in natural selection
recombination.
E) Without recombination there would be an insufficient
number of gametes.
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In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs back 37
in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr)
homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce
offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?
Answer: B
A) red × white
B) roan × roan roan × roan
C) white × roan
D) red × roan
E) The answer cannot be determined from the information
provided.
Recombination between linked genes comes about forfront
what38 back 38
reason?
A) Nonrecombinant chromosomes break and then rejoin with Answer D
one another.
B) Independent assortment sometimes fails. Crossovers between these genes result in
C) Linked genes travel together at anaphase. chromosomal exchange.
D) Crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal
exchange.
Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in malignant
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tumors. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in
close proximity to different control regions. Which of the
following might then occur to make the cancer worse?
Answer B
A) an increase in nondisjunction
B) expression of inappropriate gene products expression of inappropriate gene products
C) a decrease in mitotic frequency
D) failure of the cancer cells to multiply
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Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?

A) Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino Answer: C
corn snake.
B) The allele b17 produces a dominant phenotype, although b1 through b16
do not. In rabbits and many other mammals, one
C) In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (cc) prevents any fur
color from developing. genotype (cc) prevents any fur color from
D) In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or
to a combination of other genes. developing.
E) In cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines.

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One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a

fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. What is this
alteration called? Answer: D
A) deletion
B) transversion
C) inversion
D) translocation
translocation
E) duplication

The following question refer to the

front
pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for42
a back 42
family, some of whose members
exhibit the dominant trait, W.
Affected individuals are indicated by
a dark square or circle. Answer: C
41) What is the likelihood that the
progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have
the trait?
A) 0%
50%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
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Which of the following statements is true of linkage?

A) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that Answer: A
a crossover will occur between them.
B) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart
from each other has a maximum value of 100%. The closer two genes are on a
C) All of the traits that Mendel studied–seed color, pod shape, flower color,
and others–are due to genes linked on the same chromosome. chromosome, the lower the probability that
D) Linked genes are found on different chromosomes.
E) Crossing over occurs during prophase II of meiosis. a crossover will occur between them.

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This a map of four genes on a
chromosome (See Image)

51) Between which two genes would

you expect the highest frequency of
Answer: E
recombination?
A) A and W
B) W and E
C) E and G
A and G
D) A and E
E) A and G

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Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short
tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the
progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have
black fur and long tails? Answer: D
A) 1/16
B) 3/16
C) 3/8
1/2
D) 1/2
E) 9/16

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front 46
The following question refer to the pedigree chart in Figure back 46
14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit the
dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a
dark square or circle. Answer: C
40) What is the genotype of individual II-5?
A) WW
B) Ww ww
C) ww
D) WW or ww
E) ww or Ww
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Which of the following is true of aneuploidies in general?
A) A monosomy is more frequent than a trisomy.
B) 45 X is the only known human live-born monosomy. Answer: B
C) Some human aneuploidies have selective advantage in
some environments.
D) Of all human aneuploidies, only Down syndrome is 45 X is the only known human live-born
associated with mental retardation. monosomy
E) An aneuploidy resulting in the deletion of a chromosome
segment is less serious than a duplication.

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A couple has a child with Down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old at the
time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the
child's condition?
A) The woman inherited this tendency from her parents.
Answer: D
B) One member of the couple carried a translocation.
C) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in somatic cell
production.
One member of the couple underwent
D) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete
production.
nondisjunction in gamete production
E) The mother had a chromosomal duplication.

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What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?

A) The two genes are likely to be located on different Answer: A
chromosomes.
B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match
one of the two parents. The two genes are likely to be located on
C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred. different chromosomes.
E) Independent assortment is hindered.

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) Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive
system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging
from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of
the following terms best describes this?
Answer: C
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple alleles
C) pleiotropy pleiotropy
D) epistasis
E) codominance

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In humans, clear gender differentiation occurs, not at fertilization, but after

the second month of gestation. What is the first event of this differentiation? Answer: D
A) formation of testosterone in male embryos
B) formation of estrogens in female embryos
C) anatomical differentiation of a penis in male embryos activation of SRY in male embryos and
D) activation of SRY in male embryos and masculinization of the gonads
E) activation of SRY in females and feminization of the gonads masculinization of the gonads

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The pedigree in Figure 15.3 shows
the transmission of a trait in a
particular family. Based on this
pattern of transmission, the trait is Answer: A
most likely
A) mitochondrial.
B) autosomal recessive.
C) sex-linked dominant.
D) sex-linked recessive.
mitochondrial
E) autosomal dominant.

The following question refer to the

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pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a
family, some of whose members
exhibit the dominant trait, W.
Affected individuals are indicated by
a dark square or circle. Answer: E
42) What is the probability that
individual III-1 is Ww?
A) 3/4
B) 1/4
1
C) 2/4
D) 2/3
E) 1
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Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that

generally has the most severe impact on the health of the
individual? Answer: A
A) 47, +21
B) 47, XXY
C) 47, XXX
D) 47, XYY
47, +21
E) 45, X

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When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for
a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of
producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive
phenotype?
Answer: C
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50% 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

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Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because

A) male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations

on the X chromosome. Answer: D
B) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of
mutations on the X chromosome.
C) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X males are hemizygous for the X
chromosomes in females.
D) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome. chromosome
E) mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked
mutations.

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SRY is best described in which of the following ways?

A) a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development Answer: C

B) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y
chromosome
C) a gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male a gene region present on the Y
development
D) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome that triggers male
chromosome
E) a gene required for development, and males or females lacking the gene development
do not survive past early childhood

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What is a syndrome?
A) a characteristic facial appearance Answer: C
B) a group of traits, all of which must be present if an
aneuploidy is to be diagnosed
C) a group of traits typically found in conjunction with a a group of traits typically found in
particular chromosomal aberration or gene mutation conjunction with a particular chromosomal
D) a characteristic trait usually given the discoverer's name
E) a characteristic that only appears in conjunction with one aberration or gene mutation
specific aneuploidy

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How many unique gametes could be produced through

independent assortment by an individual with the genotype
AaBbCCDdEE?
Answer: B
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64
8
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When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to
each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies.
Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation
for this result?
Answer B
A) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
B) The gene involved is on the X chromosome. The gene involved is on the X chromosome
C) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males.
D) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.

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Which of the following is the best statement of the use of the addition rule
of probability?
A) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur
Answer: C
B) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur in the
offspring of one set of parents
C) the probability that either one of two independent events will occur
the probability that either one of two
D) the probability of producing two or more heterozygous offspring
E) the likelihood that a trait is due to two or more meiotic events
independent events will occur

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Why did the F₁ offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross

always look like one of the two parental varieties? Answer: D
A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
C) The traits blended together during fertilization. One phenotype was completely dominant
D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
E) Different genes interacted to produce the parental over another.
phenotype.

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A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following

products?
A) deletion only Answer: D
B) duplication only
C) nondisjunction deletion and duplication
D) deletion and duplication
E) duplication and nondisjunction

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In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous

plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the
probability that the offspring will be short? Answer: E
A) 1
B) 1/2
C) 1/4
D) 1/6
0
E) 0

front
Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses 65
with back 65
the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss
cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines
whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses
have no spines at all.

61) The relationship between genes S and N is an example of Answer: B

A) incomplete dominance.
B) epistasis.
C) complete dominance.
D) pleiotropy.
E) codominance.

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Humanoids on the newly explored planet Brin (in a hypothetical galaxy in
frontbut
~50 years from the present) have a gene structure similar to our own, 66 back 66
many very different plants and animals.

73) Marfan syndrome in humans is caused by an abnormality of the

connective tissue protein fibrillin. Patients are usually very tall and thin,
with long spindly fingers, curvature of the spine, sometimes weakened
Answer: D
arterial walls, and sometimes ocular problems, such as lens dislocation.
Which of the following would you conclude about Marfan syndrome from
this information?
It is pleiotropic
A) It is recessive.
B) It is dominant.
C) It has a late age of onset (> 60).
D) It is pleiotropic.
E) It is epistatic.
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What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?

A) They are located close together on the same chromosome. Answer: A
B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number
of chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are unbreakable. They are located close together on the same
D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis. chromosome
E) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.

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The centimorgan (cM) is a unit named in honor of Thomas

Hunt Morgan. To what is it equal? Answer: B
A) the physical distance between two linked genes
B) 1% frequency of recombination between two genes
C) 1 nanometer of distance between two genes 1% frequency of recombination between
D) the distance between a pair of homologous chromosomes
E) the recombination frequency between two genes assorting two genes
independently

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An ideal procedure for fetal testing in humans would have which of the
following features? Answer: A
A) the procedure that can be performed at the earliest time in the pregnancy
B) lowest risk procedure that would provide the most reliable information
C) the procedure that can test for the greatest number of traits at once the procedure that can be performed at the
D) a procedure that provides a three-dimensional image of the fetus
E) a procedure that could test for the carrier status of the fetus earliest time in the pregnancy

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What is the source of the extra chromosome 21 in an

individual with Down syndrome? Answer: D
A) nondisjunction in the mother only
B) nondisjunction in the father only
C) duplication of the chromosome nondisjunction or translocation in either
D) nondisjunction or translocation in either parent parent
E) It is impossible to detect with current technology.

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front 71
What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid back 71
cross?

A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross Answer: C

involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross
produces two progeny. A dihybrid cross involves organisms that
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two
characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one. are heterozygous for two characters and a
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid
cross is performed for two generations. monohybrid cross involves only one
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross
gives a 3:1 ratio.

front 72 back 72

Which of the following is an example of polygenic

inheritance?
A) pink flowers in snapdragons Answer: E
B) the ABO blood group in humans
C) Huntington's disease in humans skin pigmentation in humans
D) white and purple flower color in peas
E) skin pigmentation in humans

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At which phase(s) is it preferable to obtain chromosomes to

prepare a karyotype?
A) early prophase Answer: E
B) late telophase
C) anaphase late prophase or metaphase
D) late anaphase or early telophase
E) late prophase or metaphase

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Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of
inheritance as expressed in the early 20th century?
Answer: B
A) Individuals inherit particular chromosomes attached to genes.
B) Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and in turn
segregate during meiosis. Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the
C) Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and crossover
chromosomes to other genes. chromosome and in turn segregate during
D) No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy
normal cell. meiosis.
E) Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays rather than on genes.

front
Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses 75
with back 75
the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss
cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines
whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses Answer: A
have no spines at all.

62) A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless A cross between a true-breeding sharp-
cactus would produce
A) all sharp-spined progeny. spined cactus and a spineless cactus would
B) 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
C) 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny. produce
D) all spineless progeny.
E) It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.

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front 76 back 76

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio

for a particular trait. What does this suggest? Answer: D
A) that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
B) that the trait shows incomplete dominance
C) that a blending of traits has occurred that the parents were both heterozygous for
D) that the parents were both heterozygous for a single trait
E) that each offspring has the same alleles for each of two a single trait
traits

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Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in

humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-
blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents? Answer: E
A) XcXc and XcY
B) XcXc and XCY
C) XCXC and XcY
D) XCXC and XCY
XCXc and XCY
E) XCXc and XCY

front 78 back 78

Mendel's second law of independent assortment has its basis

in which of the following events of meiosis I?
A) synapsis of homologous chromosomes Answer: C
B) crossing over
C) alignment of tetrads at the equator alignment of tetrads at the equator
D) separation of homologs at anaphase
E) separation of cells at telophase

Which of the following is known as a Philadelphia

front 79 back 79
chromosome?
A) a human chromosome 22 that has had a specific
translocation Answer: A
B) a human chromosome 9 that is found only in one type of
cancer a human chromosome 22 that has had a
C) an animal chromosome found primarily in the mid-
Atlantic area of the United States specific translocation
D) an imprinted chromosome that always comes from the
mother
E) a chromosome found not in the nucleus but in
mitochondria
front 80
Which of the following is a function of a poly-A signal back 80
sequence?
A) It adds the poly-A tail to the 3' end of the mRNA. Answer: B
B) It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that
signals enzymatic cleavage ~10 35 nucleotides away.
C) It allows the 3' end of the mRNA to attach to the It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic
ribosome. transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage
D) It is a sequence that codes for the hydrolysis of the RNA
polymerase. ~10 35 nucleotides away.
E) It adds a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 3' end of the
mRNA.

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front 81 back 81

A frameshift mutation could result from

A) a base insertion only. Answer: E
B) a base deletion only.
C) a base substitution only.
D) deletion of three consecutive bases. either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

front 82
Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic back 82
eukaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene
expression?
A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed. Answer: C
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a
cap is added to the 5' end. A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an
D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.
even a little.
E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the
molecule.
front 83 back 83

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that

make up DNA?
Answer: B
A) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of
the other strand. The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs
C) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
D) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other
E) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines. strand.

front 84 back 84

Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands

apart while they are being replicated?
A) primase Answer: D
B) ligase
C) DNA polymerase single-strand binding proteins
D) single-strand binding proteins
E) exonuclease

front 85 back 85

Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary

structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the Answer: E
A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon. bonding of the anticodon to the codon and
D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs
of amino acids to tRNAs.

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front 86 back 86

Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of

DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of
the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? Answer: A
A) 8%
B) 16%
C) 31%
D) 42%
8%
E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.

front 87 back 87

What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the

lagging strand during DNA replication?
A) It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer. Answer: C
B) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres.
C) It joins Okazaki fragments together. It joins Okazaki fragments together
D) It unwinds the parental double helix.
E) It stabilizes the unwound parental DNA.

front 88 back 88

Which of the following variations on translation would be

most disadvantageous for a cell?
A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA Answer: A
B) using fewer kinds of tRNA
C) having only one stop codon translating polypeptides directly from DNA
D) lengthening the half-life of mRNA
E) having a second codon (besides AUG) as a start codon

front 89 back 89
There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs.
This is best explained by the fact that
A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different
codons.
Answer: B
B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are
flexible.
C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are
the rules for base pairing between the third
dispensable.
D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are then destroyed.
base of a codon and tRNA are flexible
E) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases.

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Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote

lacking telomerase? Answer: D
A) a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous
B) production of Okazaki fragments
C) inability to repair thymine dimers a reduction in chromosome length in
D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes gametes
E) high sensitivity to sunlight

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front 91 back 91
The figure represents tRNA that recognizes and binds a
particular amino acid (in this instance, phenylalanine).
Which codon on the mRNA strand codes for this amino
acid?
Answer: D
A) UGG
B) GUG
C) GUA UUC
D) UUC
E) CAU

front 92 back 92

Which of the following sets of materials are required by both

eukaryotes and prokaryotes for replication? Answer: A
A) double-stranded DNA, four kinds of dNTPs, primers,
origins
B) topoisomerases, telomerases, polymerases double-stranded DNA, four kinds of
C) G-C rich regions, polymerases, chromosome nicks
D) nucleosome loosening, four dNTPs, four rNTPs dNTPs, primers, origins
E) ligase, primers, nucleases

front 93 back 93

To repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in

which order do the necessary enzymes act? Answer: E
A) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase
B) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA
D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase ligase
E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase

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Which of the following investigators was/were responsible
for the following discovery?
In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the
amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the Answer: D
amount of cytosine.
A) Frederick Griffith
B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod
Erwin Chargaff
D) Erwin Chargaff
E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl

front 95 back 95

Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following

in addition to RNA polymerase?
A) the protein product of the promoter Answer: D
B) start and stop codons
C) ribosomes and tRNA several transcription factors (TFs)
D) several transcription factors (TFs)
E) aminoacyl synthetase

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front 96 back 96
When the function of the newly made polypeptide is to be secreted from the
cell where it has been made, what must occur?
A) It must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the
ER.
B) Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, from which it goes to the
Answer: B
Golgi.
C) It has a signal sequence that must be cleaved off before it can enter the
ER.
Its signal sequence must target it to the ER,
D) It has a signal sequence that targets it to the cell's plasma membrane
where it causes exocytosis.
from which it goes to the Golgi
E) Its signal sequence causes it to be encased in a vesicle as soon as it is
translated.

front 97 back 97
What is a ribozyme?
A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B) an RNA with enzymatic activity
C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the Answer: B
large and small ribosomal subunits
D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the an RNA with enzymatic activity
transcription process
E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA
replication

front 98 back 98
In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?
A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.
B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living
nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic Answer: B
form.
C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a
pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic. living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living
D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them cells into the pathogenic form.
resistant to pathogenic strains.
E) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the
infection to other mice.

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What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?

A) It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein. Answer: C
B) It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the
encoded protein.
C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA. It introduces a premature stop codon into
D) It alters the reading frame of the mRNA. the mRNA
E) It prevents introns from being excised.

front 100 back 100

Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are
hypersensitive to sunlight. This occurs because their cells are
impaired in what way?
A) They cannot replicate DNA. Answer: D
B) They cannot undergo mitosis.
C) They cannot exchange DNA with other cells. They cannot repair thymine dimers.
D) They cannot repair thymine dimers.
E) They do not recombine homologous chromosomes during
meiosis.

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For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and
front 101
Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of back 101
the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has
only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens Answer: E
would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't
this experiment work?
Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have
A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen.
B) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity
would be too dangerous for too long.
C) Avery et al. have already concluded that this experiment showed
would not distinguish between DNA and
inconclusive results. proteins.
D) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates
actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive.
E) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the
front 102 back 102
65) What amino acid sequence will
be generated, based on the following
mRNA codon sequence?
5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC- Answer: D
UUG 3'
A) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
B) met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
C) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
D) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
E) met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu

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What is the function of the release factor (RF)?
A) It separates tRNA in the A site from the growing
polypeptide. Answer: B
B) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA.
C) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the
amino acid to form a peptide bond. It binds to the stop codon in the A site in
D) It supplies a source of energy for termination of
translation. place of a tRNA
E) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow
polypeptides into the cytosol.

What is the function of GTP in translation? front 104 back 104

A) GTP energizes the formation of the initiation complex,
using initiation factors.
B) GTP hydrolyzes to provide phosphate groups for tRNA Answer: A
binding.
C) GTP hydrolyzes to provide energy for making peptide
bonds. GTP energizes the formation of the
D) GTP supplies phosphates and energy to make ATP from initiation complex, using initiation factors
ADP.
E) GTP separates the small and large subunits of the
ribosome at the stop codon.
At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequencefront
of 105 back 105
nucleotides below is present where the chain opens to form a
replication fork:
3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5'
An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of Answer: D
the template. Which of the following represents the primer
sequence?
A) 5' G C C T A G G 3' 5' A C G U U A G G 3'
B) 3' G C C T A G G 5'
C) 5' A C G T T A G G 3'
D) 5' A C G U U A G G 3'
E) 5' G C C U A G G 3'

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front 106 back 106

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of

their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast
amount of hereditary information in which of the following? Answer: A
A) sequence of bases
B) phosphate-sugar backbones
C) complementary pairing of bases sequence of bases
D) side groups of nitrogenous bases
E) different five-carbon sugars

front 107 back 107

Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively
charged. Answer: A
B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively
charged.
C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. Histones are positively charged, and DNA
D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. is negatively charged.
E) Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is
hydrophilic.

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A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA

is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA
codon is Answer: C
A) TTT.
B) UUA.
C) UUU.
D) AAA.
UUU.
E) either UAA or TAA, depending on first base wobble.

front 109 back 109

Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands

apart while they are being replicated?
A) primase Answer: D
B) ligase
C) DNA polymerase single-strand binding proteins
D) single-strand binding proteins
E) exonuclease

front 110 back 110

A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides
to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best
explained by the fact that
Answer: A
A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
C) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
many noncoding stretches of nucleotides
D) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
E) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.
are present in mRNA

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front 111 back 111

Which of the following can be determined directly from X-

ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA?
A) the diameter of the helix Answer: A
B) the rate of replication
C) the sequence of nucleotides the diameter of the helix
D) the bond angles of the subunits
E) the frequency of A vs. T nucleotides

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What is the function of DNA polymerase III?

A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication Answer: C
B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
C) to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a
E) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after growing DNA strand
replication

front 113 back 113

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in
the level of protein's activity?
A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation. Answer: D
B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.
C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine
codon. It might substitute an amino acid in the
D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site. active site
E) It might substitute the N-terminus of the polypeptide for
the C-terminus.

front 114 back 114

Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary

structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the Answer: E
A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon. bonding of the anticodon to the codon and
D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
of amino acids to tRNAs.

front 115 back 115

If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following
would be a likely effect?

A) There would be an increase in the amount of "satellite" DNA produced

Answer: B
during centrifugation.
B) The cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its nucleus.
C) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
The cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its
D) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.
E) Pseudogenes would be transcribed to compensate for the decreased
nucleus.
protein in the cell.

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front 116 back 116

In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule
into a eukaryotic cell after he has removed its 5' cap and poly-A tail. Which
of the following would you expect him to find?
A) The mRNA could not exit the nucleus to be translated.
Answer D
B) The cell recognizes the absence of the tail and polyadenylates the
mRNA.
C) The molecule is digested by restriction enzymes in the nucleus.
The molecule is digested by exonucleases
D) The molecule is digested by exonucleases since it is no longer protected
at the 5' end.
since it is no longer protected at the 5' end
E) The molecule attaches to a ribosome and is translated, but more slowly.

front 117 back 117

A frameshift mutation could result from

A) a base insertion only. Answer: E
B) a base deletion only.
C) a base substitution only.
D) deletion of three consecutive bases. either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

front 118 back 118

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that
A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement
of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite Answer: A
direction.
B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of
the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the
nucleotides to the 5' end. movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is
C) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading synthesized in the opposite direction.
strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

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A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the

following would be a consequence of that mutation? Answer: A
A) an accumulation of A and no production of B and C
B) an accumulation of A and B and no production of C
C) an accumulation of B and no production of A and C an accumulation of A and no production of
D) an accumulation of B and C and no production of A B and C
E) an accumulation of C and no production of A and B

front 120
A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction back 120
because
A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end
of the template. Answer: E
B) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5'
direction.
C) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides
nucleotides at the 3' end. to the free 3' end.
D) replication must progress toward the replication fork.
E) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3'
end.

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front 121 back 121

Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?

A) to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of Answer: D
the ER
B) to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate
transcription to translocate polypeptides across the ER
C) to terminate translation of the messenger RNA
D) to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane membrane
E) to signal the initiation of transcription

front 122 back 122

Which of the following statements describes chromatin?
A) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas
euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA. Answer: C
B) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the
cytoplasm.
C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas Heterochromatin is highly condensed,
euchromatin is less compact.
D) Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin whereas euchromatin is less compact
is transcribed.
E) Only euchromatin is visible under the light microscope.

front 123 back 123

Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each

consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in
parallel arrays. How could these arise? Answer: B
A) replication followed by mitosis
B) replication without separation
C) meiosis followed by mitosis replication without separation
D) fertilization by multiple sperm
E) special association with histone proteins

front 124 back 124

The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of

which group?
A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone Answer: C
B) proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA ATP, RNA, and DNA
D) α glucose, ATP, and DNA
E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP

front 125 back 125

How do we describe transformation in bacteria?

A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule Answer: E
B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA assimilation of external DNA into a cell
E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell

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front 126 back 126

The tRNA shown in the figure has its 3' end projecting
beyond its 5' end. What will occur at this 3' end?
A) The codon and anticodon complement one another.
B) The amino acid binds covalently. Answer: B picture
C) The excess nucleotides (ACCA) will be cleaved off at the
ribosome. The amino acid binds covalently
D) The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach
to it.
E) The 5' cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound.

front 127 back 127

During splicing, which molecular component of the

spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction?
A) protein
Answer: C
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) lipid RNA
E) sugar

front 128 back 128

What is the function of topoisomerase?

A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork Answer: A
B) elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding
nucleotides to the existing chain
C) adding methyl groups to bases of DNA relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the
D) unwinding of the double helix replication fork
E) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork

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Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in

the 5' → 3' direction?
A) primase Answer: C
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase III DNA polymerase III
D) topoisomerase
E) helicase

front 130 back 130

Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a

codon? Answer: D
A) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets
B) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid
C) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment a triplet in the same reading frame as an
site of the amino acid
D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG upstream AUG
E) a sequence in tRNA at the 3' end

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front 131 back 131

An Okazaki fragment has which of the following

arrangements?
A) primase, polymerase, ligase Answer: C
B) 3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5'
C) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3' DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III
D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III
E) 5' DNA to 3'

front 132
Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic back 132
eukaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene
expression?
A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed. Answer: C
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a
cap is added to the 5' end. A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an
D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.
even a little.
E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the
molecule.
front 133 back 133

Wild type found normally in nature

front 134 back 134

Where is SRY gene found? Y chromosome only

front 135 back 135

Add Recombiant offspring(last 2) x 100
Total offspring
Recombination frequency 17% crossover will occur ***Not linked
equation 16% under ***Linked
Cant go over 50

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front 136 back 136

Topoisomerase Untwists the DNA

front 137 back 137

Leading Strand Continuous

front 138 back 138

Unzips DNA-breaks hydrogen bond

Helicase between the two strands of DNA

front 139 back 139

Single Strand Binding Protein Protector

front 140 back 140

primer (RNA mucleotides) needs the

Primase primer to start DNA replication

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front 141 back 141

Dna Pol III 5

front 142 back 142

DNA ligase its going to come in and seal in the gaps.

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