INTER-AGENCY

1. A consciously coordinated social entity, with a relatively identifiable boundary,

that functions on a relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or sets
of goals.
2. Organization
3. Administration
4. Police Organization
D. Police Administration

2. An officer who has the more senior rank/higher in a group or team.

a) Sworn Officer
b) Commanding Officer
c) Superior Officer
d) Ranking Officer

3. The principle of organization that is adopted when the organization is too big and
men are scattered in different areas of the country.\
A. Span of Control
B. Unity of Command
C. Delegation of authority
D. Scalar Principle

4. The police organization can be structured to attain effective, efficient and economical
police service. Following are the organic units that form part of the components,
EXCEPT:
A. Operational Unit C. Auxiliary Unit
B. Service Unit D. Administrative Unit
 5. The administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP is a power
of;
A. DILG C. Congress
B. NAPOLCOM D. Mayors

6. The operational supervision and control over the PNP assigned at cities and
municipalities is a power of th:
A. Congress
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Local Government Executives
D. National Police Commission

7. A single uninterrupted line of authority – often represented by boxes and lines of

an organizational chart – is run in order by what we call –
A. organizational control B. administrative control
C. scalar chain D. span of control

8. This Act shall be known as the "Philippines Coast Guard Law of 2009“
A. RA 9933
B. RA 9993
C. RA 9339
D. RA 9939

9. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a
continuous service shall be retired or separated if the said period of non
promotion gained with in
A. 20 yrs
B. 10 yrs
C. 15 years
D. 18 months
E. none of these
10. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM who shall conduct
management audit, and prepare a proposed reorganization plan. Who shall
approve the said plan?
A. DILG Secretary
B. C/PNP
C. Congress
D. President

11. What is the term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the
NAPOLCOM?
A. 6 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 9 years
E. None of these

12. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their capabilities best fit
them is referred to as
A. Staffing
B. None of these
C. Planning
D. Organizing
E. Directing

13. If the CPNP assumes his office in July 8, 2005, his last day in office as the CPNP
will be on
A. July 7, 2009
B. July 7, 2010
C. July 7, 2011
D. July 7, 2002

14. What is the law provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police
examination?
A. RA 2260
B. RA 6040
C. RA 4864
D. RA 6141
15. On October 3, 1901, Insular Constabulary was renamed as Philippine
Constabulary pursuant to Organic Act 255. Who was the first Chief of the then
Philippine Constabulary?
a. Sir Robert Peel c. Brigadier General Rafael Crame

b. General Howard Taft d. Lt. Col. Henry T. Allen

16. What article and specific section of the 1987 Philippine Constitution that provides
for the establishment and maintenance of one police force which shall be
national in scope but civilian in character that shall be administratively controlled
and operationally supervised by the National Police Commission?
a. Art. III, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
b. b Art. VI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
c. Art. XVI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
d. Art. XVII, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
17. Responsible for the processing of claims and benefits of personnel PNP
personnel, retirees and separated PNP personnel and their direct dependents.
a. Information Technology Management Service
b. Directorate for Plans
c. Communications and Electronic Service
d. Personnel and Retirement Benefits Service
18. The standard manning level in rural areas is:
a. a. 1 police officer for every 500 residents c. 1 police officer for
every 500 residents
b. b. 1 police officer for every 1000 residents d. 1 police officer for
every 1,500 residents
19. Decisions from the PLEB involving demotion or dismissal from the service are
appealable to?
a. Court of Appeals
b. National Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM
c. Regional Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM
d. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)

20. When is the operational supervision and control powers conferred to mayors by
the NAPOLCOM is suspended and temporarily given to the COMELEC?
a. 30 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections

b. 60 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections

c. 90 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections

d. 180 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections

NOTE:
 21. Direction that is provided on a one-to-one basis is called __________.
A. Administration C. Supervision
B. Management D. Organization

22. PDEA highest rank is

A. Director General
B. Secretary - DDB
C. Undersecretary
D. Chief, PDEA

23. What will happen to a police officer who, after a given time period fails to satisfy
a continuing specific requirement for employment with the PNP?
A. Separated from the service if he is below 50 years of age and has served in
government for less than 20 years
B. Retired if he is from the age of 50 and above and has served the government
for at least 20 years without prejudice in either case to the payment of benefits he
may be entitled to under existing laws
C. Dismissed from the service if he is either below or above 50 years of age and
rendered less that 20 years service
D Both A or B

24. The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police Superintendent is vested in

the;
A. Chief, PNP
B. President
C. Civil Service Commission
D. NAPOLCOM

25. The first Insular Police Force created by virtue of Organic Act No. 175.
A. Philippine Constabulary
B. Guardia Civil
C. Philippine National Police
D. PC/INP

26. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
 D. 4

27. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the __________.

A. DDG for operation
B. Chief, Directorial Staff
C. DDG for administration
D. Chief, PNP

28. Formulates plans and policies on the career development of PNP members;
formulates doctrines pertaining to organization, administration and operations of
PNP; and determines training requirements of the PNP personnel and units and
formulates training programs and directives for the purpose.
a. Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
b. Directorate for Investigation & Detective Management
c. Directorate for Information and Communication Technology Management
d. Directorate for Plans
29. The following are the appropriate eligibilities for Police Officer 1, except:
a. Honor Graduates pursuant to P.D. 907
b. Licensed Criminologists pursuant to R.A. 6506
c. Bar and PRC Board Passers pursuant to R.A. 1080
d. Holder of a Master’s Degree pursuant to CHED Memorandum Order

30. It acts as a national clearing house of criminal records and other related
information for the benefit of the government;
A. NBI
B. PNP
C. NICA
D. PDEA

31. The ____ acts as the principal law agency (EO No. 292) and legal counsel of the
government.
A. NATIONAL PROSECUTORS OFFICE
B. DOJ
C. SUPREME COURT
D. COURT OF APPEALS

32. The following are the management process except one:

A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Leading
D. Coordinating
33. Maintenance of intended delegation requires that the decisions within its
authority of individual commander should be made by them and not be referred
upward or downward in the organizational structure is referred to as;
A. principle of delegation by result expected
B. principle of absoluteness of responsibility
C. principle of parity and responsibility
D. authority level principle

34. Benefits derived by a PNP officer qualified for early retirement

a. two ranks higher
b. one rank higher
c. his present rank
d. one year gratuity

35. An association or group of individuals with a common goal.

a. Police organization
b. Law enforcement group
c. Non-government organization
d. Organization

36. Waiver system in the PNP will apply if

a. recruitment falls on summer
b. qualified applicant falls below quota
c. ordered by the President
d. none of them

37. Caloocan City maintains a police force with a total manpower of 2000 officers
and men. How many PLEB must be established?
a. two
b. four
c. three
d. five

38. Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to as

a. citizens complaint
b. grave misconduct
c. breach of internal discipline
d. none of them

39. PLEB is composed of how many person?

 a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6

40. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but they offer advice.
Frequently, this advice is based on a high level of expertise but the advice carries
no formal requirement for acceptance.
A. Democracy
B. Functional
C. Line
D. Staff

41. A promotion granted to police officers meeting the mandatory requirements for
position.
a. Regular Promotion
b. Promotion by Virtue of Position
c. Special/Meritorious/Spot Promotion
d. Posthumous Promotion

42. Disciplinary authority where the offense is punishable by withholding of

privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any
combination thereof, for a period of not less than sixteen (16) days but not
exceeding thirty (30) days.
a. Chief of Police c. People’s Law Enforcement
Board (PLEB)
b. City or Municipal Mayors d. National Police Commission
(NAPOLCOM

43. Transfer and assignment of personnel as well as the adjustment of qualification

standards; assesses personnel fitness and performance; and records, processes
and administers application of leaves and other benefits.
a. Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
b. Directorate for intelligence
c. Directorate for Operations
d. Directorate for Logistics

44. To defend Against external and internal threats To territorial integrity and
sovereignty And promote the welfare of the people in order to create a secure
and stable environment Conducive to national development Is the mission of
A. DND
B. PNP
C. DDB
 D. DILG

45. The following are the Bureau of Immigration core values, except;
A. Integrity
B. Patriotism
C. Commitment
D. Professionalism

46. What is the parent agency of the Bureau of Customs?

A DOJ
B. DoF
C. DILG
D. DENR
47. It is charged with assessing and collecting customs revenues, curbing illicit trade
and all forms of customs fraud and facilitating trade through an efficient and
effective customs management system.
A Bureau of customs
B. Bureau of Treasury
C. Bureau of Internal Revenue
D Bureau of Local Government Finance

48. It is responsible for the administration and enforcement of immigration,

citizenship and alien admission and registration laws in accordance with the
provisions of the Philippine Immigration Act Of 1940. It also plays a role in
enforcement of RA 9208, Also known as the anti trafficking in Person Act of
2003.
A Bureau of customs
B. Bureau of immigration
C. Bureau of Fire Protection
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.

49. The Bureau of Immigration is headed by -

A. Commissioner
B. Chairperson
C. Chief of Immigration
D. None of these

50. The function of PCG, designed to help prevent or minimize unnecessary loss of
lives and properties at sea
A. MARSAF
B. MARSEC
C. MARSAR
D. MARLEN
E. MAREP
 INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

1. This is otherwise known as the Private Security Agency Law.

A. RA 5478
B. RA 5487
C. RA 8551
D. RA 8515

2. A new Private Security Agency shall be issued a temporary license to operate

that is good for:
A. six months
B. one year and six months
C. one year
D. two years

3. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to

unexpected opportunity and little chance of detection?
A. systematic pilferer
B. ordinary pilferer
C. casual pilferer
D. unusual pilferer

4. A security force maintained and operated by any private company/corporation

utilizing any of its employees to watch, secure or guard its business
establishment premises, compound or properties is called:
a. Company Guard Force
b. Government Guard Unit
c. Private Security Agency
d. All of these
5. The vault door should be made of steel at least in thickness?
A. 7 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 20 feet or more

6. The maximum number of private security personnel that a PSA/CGF/PDA may

employ shall be:
a. 500
b. 1500
c. 1000
d. 2000

7. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy
security
a. relative vulnerability - to damage, loss, or disruption of operation due to
various hazard.
b. relative necessity
c. relative criticality
d. relative security

8. A type of fence that is constructed in such a way that visual access through the
fence is denied is called:
a. Chain link fence
b. Solid fence
c. Concertina wire fence
d. Full-view fence
9. What are documents or records which are irreplaceable or any reproduction do
not have the same value as the originals?
A. Secured
B. Important
C. Vital
D.Useful

10. If Paco Alvarado wants to become a SG, how many hours of training is needed
to acquire his license as SG?
A. 150 Hours
B. 48 Hours
C. 72 Hours
D. 300 Hour

11. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff:

A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1

12. What type of SECURITY is when an architect assumed the owners of quality
steel for the perimeter wall, steel doors will be used for the main entrance to
prevent an unauthorized entrance?
A. Natural
B. Safe barrier
C. Plain
D. Physical

Physical Security
It is the broadest branch of security.
It is the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized access to equipment,
facilities, materials, documents, and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage
damage and theft.

13. A type of protective alarm system where the protective alarm located outside the
installation.
A. Local Alarm system
B. Central Station System
C. Auxiliary System
D. Proprietary
 14. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a
comprehensive security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
B. security survey
C. security check
D. security education

15. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with

establishment security policies and procedures?
A. Security Education
B. Security Inspection
C. Security Planning
D. Security Survey

16. It is a natural, man-made or physical device which is capable of restricting,

deterring or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. Fence
B. barrier
C. wall
D. hazard

17. These are barbed wires placed above the vertical fence in order to increase
physical protection of establishments or installations
A. Top tower
B. Top guard
C. Cellar guard
D. Tower guard house Guard Control Station

18. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a
staple ring or the like and is then made fast or secured.
a. Lock
b. Padlock
c. Code Operated
d. Card Operated
 19. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12-gauge wire with 4
point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
___ high excluding the top guard.
a. 8 feet
b. 7 feet
c. 9 feet
d. 6 feet

20. Which among the following aspects of Security is the weakest of them all?
a. Physical security
b. Personnel security
c Personal Security
d Document Security

21. What LINE of defense is considered by using perimeter fence, security guards
and barriers?
A. Third
B. First
C. Alternative
D. Second

22. If utility opening such as air intakes, sewers, and exhaust tunnels have a cross
section of ninety-six inches or more, as a security consultant what should be the
appropriate recommendation?
a. It should be protected by filters and bar grills
b. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry of persons with petit physique
c. It should be manned with an armed guard at all times
d. should be place on it to detect movements

23. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of electronic

hardware, human guards and even animals. In England, an owner to protect his
compound used this and they are not only effective but also the cheapest to
maintain. This man is using ___
a. Doberman dogs
b. Tamed tigers and lions
c. Geese
d. Ducks

24. A stationary luminary lighting devised in a way that its light beam is directed
towards the intruder.
a. Controlled Illumination
b. Movable Lighting
c. Stationary Luminary
d. Glare-projection Type

25. What is an electronic or mechanical device that serves to warn of danger by

means of a sound or signal? It provides an electrical and mechanical means of
detecting intruders and announcing their proximity which endanger the security
of a restricted area, a facility, or its components.
a. Signaling System
b. Fire Alarm
c. Alarm
d. Siren

26. How many number of firearms ammunition is a private security guard allowed to
have in his or her possession.
a. Fifty (50) rounds per firearm
b. Twenty-five (25) rounds per firearm
c. Seventy (70) rounds per firearm
d. . one-hundred (100) rounds per firearm

27. Those that carry sabotage work are called what in intelligence parlance?
a. provocateur
b. infiltrators
c. spies
d. saboteurs

28. Comparing pilferage, sabotage, vandalism and espionage, what is the most
annoying of all and why?
a. Pilferage, because of its regularity in occurrence.
b. Sabotage, because it stops company operations.
c. Vandalism, because it destroys company property.
d. Espionage, because important information is lost.

29. Document issued by the Chief, Philippine National Police or his duly authorized
representative, authorizing a person to engage in employing security guard or
detective, or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage or operate
 an individual or a private detective agency or private security agency/company
security force.
a. Security Guard License
b. Security Agency License
c. License to Operate
d. Business Permit

30. The prescribed ratio of firearm to security guard that a PSA must adhere to.
a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 2:1
d. 2:2

31. Can natural hazards be prevented by security force of a plant?

A. Yes, by monitoring warning from the weather bureau
B. No, it is an act of God and nobody can prevents it
C. No, but its effects which can cause damage to life and property
D. Yes, by proper planning and constant drills

32. Can natural hazards be prevented by security force of a plant?

A. Yes, by monitoring warning from the weather bureau
B. No, it is an act of God and nobody can prevents it
C. No, but its effects which can cause damage to life and property
D. Yes, by proper planning and constant drills

33. Sir Robert Peel’s concept of modern police are 1. Organized along military lines
who are screened and trained 2. Hired on a probationary basis and deployed by
time and area 3. Accessible to the people and maintains records 4. Good
appearance commands respect. 5. Public security demands that every police be
given a code
A. 1, 3 and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 2 and 4
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5

34. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private
security personnel?
A. PNP SOSIA
B. PNP FED
C. PADPAO
D. PNP SAGSD
 35. America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal
Investigation.
A. Allan Pinkerton
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Frederick the Great
D. Robert Pee

36. In security survey, who is NOT involved in crime prevention, but creates a
situation that defer crime?
A. Manager
B. Investigator
C. Surveyor
D. Personnel

37. Involve the installation of physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, locks
and others.
a. Active measures
b. Passive measures
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

38. Those that will deter man from committing such act of fear of being caught,
charge in court or get dismissed
a. Active measures
b. Passive measures
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

39. Unobstructed area maintain on both sides of the perimeter barrier.

a. Zone
B. Clear zone
b. Zoning
c. All of the above

40. Is a visual or audible signaling device, which initiates conditions of associated

circuits.
a. Alarm
b. Barrier
c. Protective Alarm
d. Annunciator

41. Type of perimeter barrier made of chain link designed with mesh openings not
larger than two inches squares.
a. Wire fence
b. Fence
c. barrier
d. All of the above

42. Private security agency/private detective agency/company security

force/government security force is allowed to possess firearms in excess of five
hundred (500) units.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False

43. The following are the basis for the confiscation of firearms, except.
a. When the firearm is actually being used in the commission of a crime
b. When the firearm has just been used in the commission of a crime
c. When the firearm being carried by the security guard is unlicensed or a
firearm is not authorized by law and regulation for his use.
d. When the confiscation of the firearm is directed by the order of the
prosecutor

44. Type of code system so that security personnel or any employee when forced by
armed men intending to enter an installation can five alarm by the use of certain
words.
a. Duress Code
b. Coded Code
c. List Code
d. Secret Code

45. Any information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause
exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically or militarily.
a. Restricted
b. Secret
c. Confidential
d. Top Secret
 46. Term given to the requirement that the dissemination of classified matters be
limited strictly to those persons whose official duties require knowledge thereof.
a. Need to know
a. Dissemination
b. Classification
c. Tagging

47. Refers to the grant of access to classified matter only to properly cleared
persons when such classified information is required in the performance of their
official duties.
a. Security Clearance
b. Access
c. Document Security
d. Compartmentation

48. Interception of communication using an electronic device

a. Eavesdropping
b. Wiretapping
c. Bugging
d. Encoding

49. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas issued
to an employees who keeps it in the possession until his authorization is change
or until he terminates.
A. Single Pass
B. Pass exchange system
C. Visitors pass system
D. Multiple Pass System

50. The Court may allow any Law Enforcement Agency to conduct wiretapping in
any offense under RPC.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
 COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM

1. An agency mandated to promote police co-operation in all cases of international

crime except those of political, military, religious or racial character.
A. INTERPOL
B.United Nation
C. Commission on Human Rights
D. International Red Cross
E. Geneva Conventions

2. This type of society has not only codified laws but also laws that prescribe good
behavior and a specialized police system and principle based system of
punishment, being followed by England and the US:
A. Bureaucratic society
B. Urban-industrial society
C. Post-modern society
D. Folk-communal society
E. Urban-commercial society

3. The type of police and criminal justice system are distinguished by a strong
adversarial system where lawyers interpret and judges are bound by precedent.
A. Civil law systems
B.Common law systems
C. Socialist system
D. Islamic system

4. The theory of comparative policing that sees problem as society is becoming too
complex.
A. Deprivation theory
B.Demographic theory
C. Modernization theory
D. Opportunity theory
E.Theory of anomie and synomie
5. The first Arab country to recruit women to its police force and opened a Women’s
Police Academy for the purpose.
A. Jordan
B. Dubai
C. Kuwait
D. Abu Dhabi

6. In the PNP the highest rank is Director General, in the Indonesian National Police
the highest is:
A. Police General
B. Police Grand Commissioner
C. Police Commissioner General
D. Police Brigadier General
7. The equivalent rank of Chief PNP in the Royal Thailand Police.
A. Police Commissioner
B. Police General
C. Policeman Constable
D. Police Lieutenant General

8. Pertains to all those forms of policing that in some sense, transgress national
borders.
A. Global policing
B. International policing
C. Preventive policing
D. Transnational policing

9. It is now a common form of policing practiced in most advance countries that

involves information exchange, has a common monopoly around the world.
A. Community oriented policing - programs designed to bring the police and
the public closer together and create more cooperative working
environment between them.
B. Broken window policing
C. Intelligence led policing
D. Problem oriented policing (HERMAN GOLDSTEIN) - preventing crime
from happening
NOTE: SARA
SCANNING(IDENTIFY) – ANALYSIS (CAUSE)– RESPONSE (ACTION) –
ASSESSMENT (EVALUATE EFFECTIVENESS)
10. These police force are often referred to as “Bobbies or Peelers” of London that
became the model for the police forces in the US and the British Empire.
A. Gendarmerie Police Force
B. Prefectural Police Force3
C. Marine Police Force
D. Metropolitan Police Force

11. All except one uses a centralized system of policing.

A. Israel
B. France
C. United States
D. Philippines

12. All except one uses a centralized system of policing.

A. Israel
B. France
C. United States
D. Philippines
13. In the Philippines the PNP is under NAPOLCOM, Japan National Police is under
the:
A. National Police Agency
B. Public Safety Bureau
C. National Public Safety Commission
D. Police Administrative Bureau

14. Religious police in Saudi Arabia whose duty is to ensure strict adherence to
established codes of conduct.
A. Taliban
B. Schupo
C. Mutawa
D. Ngā Pirihimana o Aotearoa

15. These are residential police box in Japan is usually staffed by a single officer. It
is typically located outside of urban districts in villages and is operated by one
community officer, who resides with his family in this police facility.
A. Sokoiya
B. Chuzaisho - Chuzaishan – police officers of Chizaisho
C. Koban
D. Kobun

16. Riot police in Japan whose criteria for selection is their physical strength,
command of the martial arts and ability to cope in stressful situation is called:
 A. Bushido
B. Ninja
C. Samurai
D. Kidotai

17. What is the minimum rank of Indonesia National Police?

A. PO1
B. Junsa
C. Police Constable
D. 2nd bhayangkara

18. The present Police Force of the Republic of Singapore.

A. Republic of Singapore Police Force
B. Singapore Federal Police
C. Singapore Police Force
D. Singapore National Police

19. The Philippines has PNP; the Hong Kong has ________________.
A. Royal Hong Kong Police Force
B. Hong Kong National Police
C. Federal Police of Hong Kong
D. Hong Kong Police

20. The Filipino president of the INTERPOL in 1980-1984 was –

A. Roger Delos Santos
B. Ernesto Maceda
C. Jolly R. Bugarin
D. Pablo San Jose

21. At the INTERPOL, each member country has its own National Central Bureau
(NCB). In the Philippines, which of the following is the chairman of the NCB
Manila?
A. NBI Director
B. Sec. of DOJ
C. Chief PNP
D. The President
22. At the INTERPOL, the Executive Committee, composed of the President, VPs
and Delegates are mandated to meet ___ in a year prior to the General
Assembly.
A. 3 times – MARCH – JULY – BEFORE GENERAL ASSEMBLY
B. 2 times
C. 5 times
D. Every month

23. Which of the following is not one among the official language of the INTERPOL?
A. English
B. German
C. Spanish
C. French

24. What is this law that gives Japanese police the authority to arrest people with
“wrong thoughts”.
A. Peace process law
B. Peace talk law
C. Peace preservation law
D. Preserved peace law

25. This is a package of transnational flows of people, production, investment,

information, ideas and authority.
A. Manufacturing
B. Globalization
C. Internationalization
D. Transnational

26. What notice is being applied to help locate missing persons including children, or
to help people to identify themselves.
A. Blue notices
B. Green notices
C. Red notices
D. Yellow notices

27. The researcher communicates with foreign researcher for his research. Which
method is appropriate for that research?
A. Communication method
B. Safari method
C. Collaborative method
D. Collective method
28. Under the rules and function of Australian Federal Police, the AFP falls under the
portfolio of:
A. Home Affairs Ministry
B. Attorney-General
D. Minister for Home Affairs
D. Minister for Justice and Customs

29. The primary threat to law enforcement brought about by globalization which is
evidenced by genocide or mass killing.
A. Unfair access to global mechanism by the under privilege
B. Occupation of nations by the most powerful
C. Conflict between nations
D. Increasing human rights violations
30. Which one below is NOT a benefits that the Philippines Derive as Member of the
INTERPOL?
A. Access to police information on international Criminal Cases.
B. Access to International Summaries of Criminal Cases.
C. Attend meetings and symposiums on case of special topics
D. Access to funds against transnational Crimes
E. Access to information dealing with economic and financial crime in an
international level

31. Conflicts are resolved by a tribunal council, and there are no jails and prisons.
This type of society is an excellent example of the folk-communal or informal
justice system.
A. Congo Police
B. Egypt Police
C. Ireland Police
D. Switzerland Police

32. This is the kind of policing system where police control is under direct control of
the national government:
A. Fragmented
B. Centralized
C. Integrated
D. None of these

33. This is a very broad category, encompassing everything from illegal immigration
to international prostitution, slavery, and child pornography.
A. Flow of people
 B. Migration
C. Human trafficking
D. Sex slavery

34. It is the Interpol's supreme governing body. It meets annually to

take all important decisions related to policy, resources, working
methods, finances, activities and programmes.
A. General Assembly
B. Executive Committee
C. General Secretariat
D. National Central Bureaus

35. Elected by the General Assembly, It is headed by the President of the Interpol. It
provides guidance and direction to the Organization and oversees the
implementation of decisions made at the annual General Assembly.
A. General Assembly
B. Executive Committee
C. General Secretariat
D. National Central Bureaus

36. The Permanent seat of the Aseanapol secretariat is in what place?

A. Manila
B. Kuala Lumpur
C. Hanoi
D. Jakarta
37. Police officers in the Philippines is generally regarded as.
A. Public servants
B. state servants
C. Peace officers
D. public safety officers
38. The Insignia usually worn by the law enforcer with the highest police post.
A. 1 star
B. 2star
C. 3 star
D. 4 star
39. Police as a social agency historically started as a function of the?
A. State
B. Royalty
C. Civic Society
D. Military
40. This police organization tend to exist only in metropolitan countries and have
county wide jurisdiction in some areas there is Sheriff Department which only
handles minor issues such as service of papers, such as constable in other areas
along with security for the local courthouse
A. Federal police
B. State police
C. Local police
D. County police

41. Police organizations around the world usually utilizes military ranks. This
statement is.
A. True
B. False
C. Partly true
D. Absolutely true
42. The National Central Bureau of the Interpol in the Philippines is located in what
city?
A. Makati City
B. Quezon City
C. City of Manila
D. City of Pasay

43. A French term which claimed to be the origin of the term Police Officer.
A. Officer de la Paix
B. Praetorian guards
C. Constabuli
D. Sheriff

44. The one which organized the first formal policing in China.
A. Japanese Yakuza
B. Japanese Colonial Government
C. Keihoryo
D. Japan National Police Agency

45. The following are the three types of policing, except:

a. Service
b. Watchman
c. Legalistic
d. Social

46. The first secretary general of the Interpol.

A. Johann Schober
B. Oskar Dressler
 C. Jurgen Stock
D. Kim Jong Yang

47. In 1981, the first formal meeting of The

Chiefs of ASEAN Police was attended by 5
original member countries. These are:
I. Malaysia
II. Indonesia
III. Brunei
IV. Philippines
V. Singapore
VI. Thailand
A. I, II, III, IV and V
B. I, II, IV, V and VI
C. I, III, IV, V, VI
D. II, III, IV, V and VI

48. INTERPOL global communication for the enforcement community called?

a. I-360/24/7
b. I-7/24
c. I-24/7
d. I-24/360/7

49. UNCTOC means:

a. Unites Nation Center on Transnational Organized Crime
b. Unknown and Not Constitutionally Transparent On Countries
c. United Nation Crime Through Organized Convention
d. United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime

50. INTERPOL global communication for the enforcement community called?

a. I-360/24/7
b. I-7/24
c. I-24/7
d. I-24/360/7
 PLANNING WITH CRIME MAPPING

1. Which of the following criteria is necessary in obtaining an EFFECTIVE

operational plan?
A. Identification of unseen scenarios that are possible to happen
B. Need for an increased logistics
C. More available space for conference
D. More man power

2. It is the formal process of choosing the organizational mission and overall

objective for both the short and long term as well as the divisional and individual
objectives based on the organizational objectives.
a. Directing
b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Managerial decision-making

3. What plan is designed to take future possible event into consideration?

A. Synoptic
B. Strategic
C. Tactical
D. Contingency

4. This model is especially appreciated for police agencies as it based on

problem oriented approach to planning. It relies heavily on the problem
identification and analysis of the planning process and can assist police
administrator in formulating goals and priorities is called;
A. Long range planning
B. Synoptic planning
C. Transactive planning
D. Problem oriented planning

5. Planning is essential in every police organization because _____.

A. it identifies activities and determines task of everyone.
B. it combines all aspects of police works for efficient and effective performance.
C. It utilizes the easiest method of crime prevention and control.
D. All of these

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective plan?

A. Give police department a clear direction
B. Increase personnel involvement
C. Clearly define objectives and goals
D. Contain a degree of flexibility for the unforeseen

7. The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in sequential order.
Which is the first step?
a. Formulation of the details of the plan
b. Gathering and analysis of the data
c. Setting up planning objectives
d. Recognition of the need to plan

8. This particular procedure calls for the recognition of the predicament and
comprehending all the history and record then seek for possible solutions for the
dilemma. This statement is pertaining to what step of planning:
A. collecting of facts
B. analyzing facts
C. clarifying the problem
D. developing alternative plan

9. Procedures that relate to reporting, raids, arrest, stopping suspicious persons,

touring beats and investigation of crimes are example of;
a. Field procedure
b. Headquarters procedure
c. Special operation procedure
d. Standing operating procedure
10. Line units such as the patrol section or investigation section in police stations
prepare their work programs which are called;
a. Budgets
b. Management plan
c. Operational plan
d. Tactical plan

11. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at designated location and
under specific circumstances?
a. Management plans
b. Operating plans
c. Procedural plans
d. Tactical plans

12. This planning includes a face to face interactions with the people who are to
be affected, it also include field surveys and interpersonal dialogue marked by a
process of mutual learning is called;
A. Incremental planning
b. Transactive planning
c. Sypnoptic planning
d. Strategic planning

13. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field
operations and some special operations.
A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. Policy or procedural plan

14. Which of the following is the MOST important characteristics of a good and
effective operational plan?
A. Details of the plan are known to all implementations
B. Allocation of funds is presented
C. Objectives and goals are presented
D. It is possible that the plan is feasible

15. Incrementalism concludes that long range and comprehensive planning are
not only too difficult, but inherently bad. This refers to:
a. Synoptic planning
b. incremental planning
c. transactive planning
d. advocacy planning

16. Beneficial aspects of this approach include a greater sensitivity to the

unintended and negative side effects of plans.
a. Synoptic planning
b. incremental planning
c. transactive planning
d. advocacy planning

17. Broad design or method; or a plan to attain a stated goal or objectives.

a. Tactics – ARE SPECIFIC DESIGNS
b. Strategy
c. Procedure
d. Guidelines

18. It relates to plans, which determine quantity and quality efforts and
accomplishments. It refers to the process of determining the contribution on
efforts that can make or provide with allocated resources.
a. Strategic planning
b. Intermediate or medium planning
c. Operational planning
d. Police planning

19. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?

A. STANDARD OPERATION PROCEDURES
B. STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURES
C. SPECIAL OPERATION PROCEDURES
D. SPECIAL OPERATING PROCEDURES

20. It refers to the Anti – Crime Master Plan of PNP.

A. Master Plan Sandigan Milenyo
B. Master Plan Sandugo
C. Master Plan Banat
D. Master Plan Saklolo

21. In SWOT analysis, “W” means: STRENGTH, WEAKNESSES,

OPPORTUNITIES AND THREATS
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats
C. Intelligence
D. Win

22. Standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the
duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron and other personnel concerned which may be
reflected in the duty manual.
A. headquarters procedures
B. special operating procedures
C. field procedures
D. operational plans

23. Refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of special
activity and are applicable from one week or less than year duration. Plan that
addresses immediate need which are specific and how it can be accomplished
on time with available allocated resources.
a. Strategic or long range planning
b. Intermediate or medium planning
c. Operational or short range planning
d. Police planning

25. Essential statements that identify the role of the police in the community and
a future condition or state to which the department can aspire. It may also include
a statement of values to be used to guide the decision making process in the
department.
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
d. Operational plans

26. Developed in anticipation of problems. Although not all police problems are
predictable, many are, and it is possible for a police department to prepare a
response in advance.
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
d. Operational plans

27. Designed to meet the long-range, overall goals of the organization. Such
plans allow the department to adapt to anticipated changes or develop a new
philosophy or model of policing (community policing).
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
d. Strategic plans

28. A doctrine that provides guidance for specialized activities of the PNP in the
broad field of interest such as personnel, intelligence operation, logistics,
planning etc.
A. Operational
B. Functional
C. Ethical
D. Fundamental

29. These are procedures in coping with specific situations at known locations
and plans for dealing with an attack against buildings, special community
events and other street affairs is called;
A. policy plan
B. tactical plan
C. operational plan
D. extra office plan

30. Formulated jointly by two or more bureaus in order to effect a certain

operation with regard to public safety and peace and order.
a. Fundamental Doctrine
b. Operational Doctrine
c. Functional Doctrine
d. Complimentary Doctrine

31. Which of the following PLANS can map out in advance all operations involved
in the organization management of personnel, materials and in the
procurement of financial resources?
a. Procedural
b. Management
c. Tactical
d. Operational

32. If you are a police officer of the investigation department and you are
encountered a day-to-day operation problem, what solution do you and your
department needs?
a. None of these
b. Operation program
c. Standard operating seminar
d. Regular operating program
33. The police are the public and the public are the police. This question was
answered by the father of modern policing system in person of:
a. William Norman
b. King Charles II
c.Henry Fielding
D. Robert Peel

34. It is imposed by command or self-restraint to insure supportive behavior.

a. Discipline
b. Cooperation or Coordination
c. Authority
d. Doctrine

35. It provides for the organizations objectives. It provides the various actions.
Hence, policies, procedures, rules and regulations of the organization are
based on the statement of doctrines.
a. Discipline
b. Cooperation or Coordination
c. Authority
d. Doctrine

36. Plans that are developed as a result of crisis

a. Reactive Plans
b. Proactive Plans
c. Visionary Plans
d. Operational Plans

37. General statements and/or understandings which guide or channel thinking

and action of subordinate is called
A. Objectives
B. Programs
C. Policies
D. Decisions

38. In police operational planning, the use of the wedge, squad diagonal or
deployed line, would be most likely for
A. coup de etat
B. Disaster and relief operation
C. employees walk-out
D. Civil Disturbance
39. That defines the fundamental principles governing the rules of conduct,
attitude, behavior and ethical norm of the PNP.
A. ETHICAL DOCTRINE
B. COMPLIMENTARY DOCTRINE
C. FUNDAMENTAL DOCTRINE
D. OPERATIONAL DOCTRINE

40. These are work programs of the top management unit which related to the
nature and extent of the workload and the availability of resources.
A. Administrative plan
B. Operational plan
C. Tactical plan
D. OPLAN

41. What is the process that aid law enforcers to determine the exact location of a
crime-prone area?
A. Mapping
B. Observation
C. Investigation
D. Inspection

42. What is becoming central to policing and crime reduction in 21st century?
A. Investigation
B. Surveillance
C. Crime mapping
D. Patrol

43. What can help law enforcement agency's process of collecting and storing
information in the data base?
A. Geographic System for Police
B. Geographic Information System
C. Geographic Manual for Police
D. Geographical Police System

44. Is the general term used to describe the process of developing digital maps
from aerial photographs, satellite images, gps records, paper maps and other
archival data resources.
A. Computer Mapping
B. Crime Mapping
C. Conventional Mapping
D. All of these
45. It involves systematic analysis for identifying and analyzing patterns and
trends in crime and disorder
a. Crime Analysis Mapping
b. Thematic Crime Mapping
c. Computer Mapping
d. GIS

46. A type of crime mapping which offers limited utility because they are difficult
to keep updated, keep accurate, make easy to read and can only display a
limited amount of data –
a. Mapping
b. Computer Mapping
c. Thematic Crime Mapping
d. Manual Pin Mapping

47. The GIS can help you to:

I. Understand events and dynamics in the neighborhood including persons,
events and crime hazards
II. Identify risk factors including building or other location that draw crime
III. Rapidly configure beats and reallocate resources after analyzing crime trend
is over
IV. develop plans for special crime abatement teams to address regional and
seasonal hotspot location
V. Capture repeated call of service locations to apply additional help and
assistance
A. I,II,IV
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. I,II,III,IV,V

48. Is the relationship between the dimensions of the map and the dimensions of
the earth.
A. Scale
b. Measurement
C.Topography
d. None of these

49. The following are advantages of Crime mapping:

I. It helps reveal crime patters
 II. It allows the identification of hot spot areas
III. It creates a profile of characteristic for criminals
IV. It enhances the implementation of the various policing methodology and
approaches in reducing overall criminal activities and disorders.
V. It allows to understand places that requires high allocation of preventive
resources
A. I, II, III
B.I,II,III,IV
C.I,II,IV
D.I, II, III, IV, V

50. A feature of GIS data representation which is analogous to a pin placed on a

paper wall map.
A. Point
B. Line
C. Polygon
D. Image

PATRIOTISM AND NATIONALISM

1. __________ defines the nation as an association of people who identify themselves

as belonging to the nation, who have equal and shared political rights, and allegiance to
similar political procedures .
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic Nationalism
2. ___________ nationalism refers to the ideology that emerged in independence
movements among the creoles (descendants of the colonizers), especially in Latin
America in the early 19th century .
 a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic Nationalism
3. __________ nationalism is a type of nationalism similar to creole or territorial types of
nationalism, but which defines belonging to a nation solely by being born on its territory.
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic Nationalism
4. __________ nationalism, also known as ethno-nationalism, is a form of nationalism
wherein the “nation” is defined in terms of ethnicity.
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic Nationalism
5. __________ nationalism seeks to preserve a given race through policies such as
banning race mixing and the immigration of other races.
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic Nationalism
e. Racial Nationalism

6. __________ nationalism (or civil nationalism) is the form in which the state derives
political legitimacy from the active participation of its citizenry, from the degree to which
it represents the-will of the people.
a. Ethnic b. Civic
c. State d. Expansionist
7. __________ nationalism is a variant of civic nationalism, often combined with ethnic
nationalism
a. Ethnic b. Civic
c. Expansionist d. State
8. The term __________ originally referred to the Spanish criollos of the Philippines.
a. Filipino b. Tagalog
c. Philippines d. guardia civil

9. The first president of the Philippine Commonwealth.

 a. Emilio Aguinaldo b. Carlos P. Garcia
c. Sergio Osemena d. Manuel L. Quezon
10. A __________ is a country's national song.
a. Lupang Hinirang b. Bayang Magiliw
c. Bayan ko d. Inang Bayan
e. national anthem
11. __________ in the sense that you are loyal to the state you are living in, and want it
to flourish so good for the development of the nation.
a. Patriotism b. Nationalism
c. Marxism d. Humanism
12. The word __________ is a noun that means "devoted love, support, and defense of
one's country; national loyalty.”
a. patriotism b. patriotic
c. national pride d. any of the above
13. A __________ person is always on the side of his own nation and supports its
leaders if they are deserving.
a. patriotism b. patriotic
c. national pride d. any of the above
14. __________ through its protectionist beliefs, is the polar opposite of globalism.
a. Patriotism b. Patriotic
c. National pride d. Nationalism
15. The soldiers showed exemplary patriotism defending their country from
__________.
a. patriotism b. patriotic
c. national pride d. nationalism
e. attack
16. __________ is defined as a special concern for one's country's well-being, and that
is not the same as an exclusive and aggressive concern for it.
a. Patriotism b. Nationalism
c. Loyalty d. Nationalistic
17. Nationalism may prevent people from learning new languages. This statement is
true?
a. Yes b. No
c. Maybe d. Uncertain
18. This act shall be known as the “Flag and Heraldic Code of the Philippines.”
a. RA 8491
b. RA 8194
c. RA 9418
d. RA 8914
19. Shall mean the part of the flag outside the hoist or length
a. Festoon
b. Flag
c. Fly
d. Feast
20. The flag shall be flown on merchant ships of Philippine registry of more than ______
gross tons and on all naval vessels.
a. 1000
b.10
c.100
d10000
21. When the Philippine flag is flown with another flag, the flags, if both are national
flags, must be flown on separate staffs of the same height and shall be of equal size.
The Philippine flag shall be hoisted first and lowered last.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. PARTIALY TRUE
d. PARTIALY FALSE
22. Upon official announcement of the death of the President or any former president,
how many days the flag will put into half-mast?
 a. 10 days
b. 7 days
c. 15 days
d. 5 days
23. The period from ______________ of each year is declared as Flag Days.
a. from June 12-14
b. from May 25-28
c. from May 28 to June 12
d. from June 28-July 12

24. he following are the National Motto of the Philippines except:

a. Maka-Diyos
b. Maka-Tao
c. Makakalikasan
d Maka Hayop

25. he following are the National Motto of the Philippines except:

a. Maka-Diyos
b. Maka-Tao
c. Makakalikasan
d Maka Hayop

26. Section 1 of Art. II of 1987 Constitution states that the Philippines is a

_________State.
A. Democratic and Sovereign
B. Democratic and republican
C. Republican and Sovereign
D. All of the above

27. The separation of Church and State shall be inviolable. Inviolable means_____
 A. Prone to tarnish
B. Never to be broken, infringed, or dishonored
C. Indispensable
D. Nota
28. This is one of the most popular qualities of Filipinos.
A. Respect
B. Strong Family Ties and Religions
C. Hospitality
D. Generosity and Helpfulness

30. It is in the Filipino value of going out of the way to help, without being asked, i.e.,
unsolicited help.
A. Pakikiramay
B. Pakikisama
C. Bayanihan
D. Galang

31. Patriotism ultimately derives from Greek word patriotes, “fellow-countryman or

lineage member.” The root of this word, in turn, means______
a. fellow-countryman
b. lineage member
c. Fatherland
d. Nota

32. Section 6 of RA 8491, the flag shall be permanently hoisted, day and night
throughout the year, in front of the following, except;
a. Malacanang Palace
b. The Congress of the Philippines building
c. Barasoain Shrine in Malolos
d. International Ports of Entry
e. Nota

33. A flag worn out through wear and tear, shall not be thrown away. It shall be
_____________ to avoid misuse or desecration.
A. buried
C. ceremoniously burned
B. solemnly burned
D. solemnly kept

34. . The flag shall be replaced ___________ when it begins to show signs of wear
and tear.
A. upon approval
C. with permission from the NHC
B. within 24 hours
D. immediately

35. Which of the following is considered as the most important unit of a Filipino's life?
A. Friends
C. Colleagues
B. Family
D. Spouse

36. EXCEPT one, Philippine territory is consists of the following domains:

A. Terrestrial
C. Aerial
B. Fluvial
D. Airspace

37. Shall mean places of hilarity marked by or providing boisterous merriment or

recreation;
a. Official Residences
b. Institute
c. Places of Fidelity
d. Places of Frivolity

38. This is also known as character building by which an individual develops his
stable pattern of functioning, thinking and feeling as a result of his interaction
biologically and environmentally.
a. Character development
c. Character formation
b. Character
d. Good character

39. It refers to all habitual ways of feeling and reacting of a person which distinguish
one from another.
a. Character development
c. Character formation
b. Character
d. Good character

40. This contributing factors for character formation is the cradle of human character
and
personality that contribute to the formation of the child.
a. Family
c. School
b. Home
d. Culture

41. This is a negative Filipino trait and attitude where they tend to push each other
down to clear the way for their own gain.
a. Fatalism
c. Procrastination
b. Ningas cogon
d. Crab mentality

42. This is a “bahala na” or “come what may” attitude tendency to surrender the
future to luck and leaving everything to God.
a. Fatalism
c. Procrastination
b. Ningas cogon
d. Crab mentality

43. It refers to a Maῇana habit or an attitude of causing delays in accomplishing

things or making transactions and do not care of what lies ahead.
a. Fatalism
c. Procrastination
b. Ningas cogon
d. Crab mentality

44. This a trait of being good only at the start and become too lazy to finish it.
a. Fatalism
c. Procrastination
b. Ningas cogon
d. Crab mentality

45. This is any philosophy that considers personality the supreme value and the key
to the measuring of reality.
a. Familiarism
c. Particularism
b. Personalism
d. all of the above

46. It is the subordination of the personal interests and prerogatives of an individual

to the values and demands of the family.
a. Familiarism
c. Particularism
b. Personalism
d. all of the above

47. This an aspiration which is always grateful for enjoying life and grateful to our
God.
a. Stable
d. Enthusiastic
b. Thankful
e. Self-sacrificing
c. Courteous

48. How the Philippine National Anthem be rendered?

A. In accordance with the musical arrangement and composition of Jose Rizal
B. In accordance with the musical arrangement and composition of Levi Celerio
C. In accordance with the musical arrangement and composition of Noel Cabangon
D. In accordance with the musical arrangement and composition of Julian Felipe

49. This is a traits underscoring Filipino values with the exclusive attachment to the
interests of one group, class, sect, etc.
a. Familiarism
c. Particularism
b. Personalism
d. all of the above
50. Religious nationalism pertains to the –
A. relationship of nationalism to a
particular religious belief, church, or affiliation
B. politicization of religion and the converse influence of religion on politics
C. shared religion that contribute to a sense of national unity,
a common bond among the citizens of the nation
D. influence of religion on politics

LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT

1. This is a practical skill encompassing the ability of an individual, group or

organization
to influence or guide other individuals, teams, or entire organizations.
a. Leadership
c. Decision Making
b. Humility
d. Service

2. It means being humble and vulnerable focus on problem-solving and team

dynamics
much more than self-promotion.
a. Honesty
c. mentoring
b. Humility
d. constructive attitude

3. It is the ability to rely or place confidence to someone, perform a job effectively

and
work harder for the benefit of the team.
a. Honesty
c. trust
b. Integrity
d. humility
4. These skills are absolutely crucial who can be able to express yourself openly
and
build empathy with other people.
a. Listening
c. communication
b. Service
d. integrity

5. It means shifting from doing to leading by entrusting works to other members

they
must be more essential and less involved.
a. Resilience
c. influence
b. Delegation
d. Empathy

6. This is the act of setting the organizational direction, making new ideas, ensuring
team members know the bottom line, and understand the goals and the mission of
the organization.
a. Mission
c. vision
b. Purposes
d. Function

7. This means always fair and just, have no favorites, and treat everyone equally.
a. Equality
c. due process
b. Justice
d. all of the above

8. It means those persons who are not good in making decision because of timidity
which result in taking a long time for making a decision and the opportunity may be
lost.
a. Postponing the decision
b. failure to assess the reliability of information
c. indecisiveness
d. failure to isolate the root cause of the problem
9. This refers to the administrative activities of coordinating, controlling and
directing
police resources, activities and personnel.
a. Police administration
c. Police management
b. Police supervision
d. Police direction

10. It is an organizational process concerned with the implementation of objectives

and plans and internal operating efficiency.
a. Administration
c. management
b. Supervision
d. Direction

11. Staffing as one of the management function aims

mainly to –
A. put right man on right job
B. fill in the position with a highly qualified person in the
organization
C. put trusted person for the job
D. choose the right person supported by co-employees

12. Today, it is the widely accepted theory. People can opt for leadership. People can
learn the ability to take leadership.

A. Process Leadership Theory

B. Great Events Theory
C. Trait Theory
D. Personality Theory

13. A crisis or important event can cause a person to rise to the occasion, putting
forth extraordinary qualities of leadership in an ordinary person.

A. Process Leadership Theory

B. Great Events Theory
C. Trait Theory
D. Personality Theory
14. Which is the BEST description of a leader in an organization?
A. He is the one who helps the organizations and people to grow
B. He makes work processes more effective in the organization
C. He is the most important person in the organization
D. He serves as a base of a successful organization

15. Which statement is NOT true about the characteristics of leaders in the law
enforcement organization?
A. They motivate personnel to want to produce.
B. They accomplish things by placing increased pressure on their personnel to
produce results.
C. They understand that while they provide a service, there are some issues that they
cannot handle.
D. They believe in what they are doing, and convey that to their subordinates

16. One of the features which indicates that science and management are the same is
the universal acceptance of scientific laws are the same in every case and in every part
of the world. Which of the following serves as an example of this statement?

A. Unity of Direction Principle

B. Unity of Command Principle
C. Scalar Chain Principle
D. Motivational Principle
17. A leadership trait that make sure each of the subordinate is responsible for what
they do by giving them a pat on the back if they do well but when they fail make them
realize their mistakes and work together to improve.

a. Commitment and Passion

b. Good Communicator
c. Accountability
 d. Creativity and Innovation

18. This power shows influence based on special skills or knowledge as it relies on the
notion that experience and knowledge give the person respect.

A. Informational Power
B. Referent Power
C. Influential Power
D. Expert Power

19. What is a structured lesson designed to give people the knowledge and skills to
perform a task?

A. Evaluation
B. Supervision
C. Training
D. Coaching

20. This managerial concept is important for employing different types of people and
performing different activities such as training, growth, evaluation, compensation,
welfare etc.

A. Controlling
B. Organizing
C. Planning
D. Staffing

21. ______________ is the secret to efficient operations. Teamwork is important to the

entire order, from the smallest unit.
 A. Reconciliation
B. Cooperation
C. Coordination
D. Correlation

22. People and materials should be in the right place at the right time.

A. Equity
B. Initiative
C. Order
D. Centralization

23. This is shown when the group promotes team spirit that build unity and harmony
within the organization.

a. Esprit de Corps
b. Brotherhood
c. Gallantry
d. Team Building

24. Which is considered as supreme in aiming for what’s best for the business?

a. Individual Interest
b. General Interest
c. Financial Interest
d. Operational Interest
25. An approach in decision-making when people will point to a "gut feeling" or "hunch"
as the cause for a choice, reflecting that explanation is not accessible through
conscious thought.

A. Rational
B. Intuitive
C. Analytical
D. Random

26. This type of leaders see themselves as having absolute power and making
decisions on their subordinates' behalf. They decide not just what needs to be done, but
how to accomplish certain tasks too.

a. Democratic
b. Autocratic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez-Faire
27. Also known as “Collaborative Decision-Making’’, is a situation faced when
individuals collectively make a choice from the alternatives before them.

A. Individual Decision-Making
B. Group Decision-Making
C. Bidirectional Decision-making
D. Partnered Decision-making

28. Such leaders use eloquent communication and persuasion to unite a team
around a cause, instead of promoting actions by strict instructions.

a. Democratic
b. Charismatic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez-Faire
29. Leaders let their team members make decisions, solve problems, and get their
work done without having to worry about their every move being obsessively watched
by the leader.

a. Democratic
b. Autocratic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez-Faire

30. With this style of leadership, there is a specified collection of boxes to check to be a
true leader. Also means “by-the-book.”

a. Democratic
b. Autocratic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez-Faire
31. Which of the following is not a positive outcome of practicing self - leadership?

A. Proactive participation with the group

B. Disciplined members
C. independent decision maker
D. too overwhelmed

32. A ___________ leader gives people a little direction to help them tap into their
ability to achieve all that they're capable of.

A. Coaching
B. Laissez-faire
 C. Democratic
D. Affiliative

33. This is based on fear. Employees who work for someone having this are unlikely to
commit themselves, and are more likely to resist the manager.

A. Coercive Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. Referent Power
D. Reward Power

34. Influence based on individual or desirable possession of wealth or personal traits.

Sometimes this is seen as beauty, elegance, or appreciation. You like the individual and
you want to do things for him or her.

A. Coercive Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. Referent Power
D. Reward Power

35.The power a person receives in an organization's formal hierarchy as a consequence

of his or her role. The person has the right to expect you to comply with valid demands,
given his or her status and your job responsibilities.

A. Coercive Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. Referent Power
D. Reward Power
36. Mr. Clifford changed the hours of work shifts of his 15 subordinates without
consulting anyone, especially those who are affected by the sudden change. What
leadership style did Mr. Clifford exercised?
A. Strategic
C. Bureaucratic
B. Transactional
D. Autocratic

37. In a meeting, the division chief give his/her subordinates a few decision-related
options. They then open a discussion about each option, by which the former took
his/her thoughts and feedback into consideration. What leadership style was used?
A. Strategic
C. Transformational
B. Democratic
D. Transactional

38. Mr. Arcega listed basic set of tasks and goals that
his subordinates will complete for every week, month, year
until the end of his four years term of office. Consequently,
he constantly push his subordinates outside of their
comfort zone or capability. What leadership style does Mr.
Arcega used?
A. Transformational
C. Transactional
B. Autocratic
D. Coach-style

39. To motivate his men to exert utmost effort to

serve and protect the public, PCOL Vargas is actively and
consistently gives awards and incentives to his men for
every good work they have accomplished. PCOL Vargas
used ___________ leadership style.
A. transformational
C. laissez-faire
B. transactional
D. coach style

40. In the bureaucratic type of leadership, the leader

–
A. goes by the book
B. focus on strategies that will enable their team work better
together
C. reward their employees for precisely the work they do
D. put full trust into their employees

41. The first step in making the right decision is –

A. getting others on board with the decision
B. asking what need to know in order to make the right
decision
C. recognizing the problem or opportunity and
deciding to address it.
D. gathering relevant information related to the problem at
hand

42. This model is considered the first attempt to know the decision-making-process.
a. Garbage can model
c. Retrospective decision-making model
b. Rational or classical model
d. Administrative bounded rationality model

43. This model assumes that no organizational process for finding a solution to a
problem exists and that decision-makers are disconnected from problems and
solutions.
a. Garbage can model
c. Retrospective decision-making model
b. Rational or classical model
d. Administrative bounded rationality model
44. They include all levels of management between the supervisory level and the top
level of the organization. These managers may be called functional managers, plant
heads, and project managers.

A. first line managers

B. middle level managers
C. top managers
D. last managers

45. Treating people equally and advocates for their rights and doesn't let personal
feelings bias decisions. Which quality of a good leader is this?

A. Compassion
B. Fairness
C. Accountable and responsible
D. People oriented

46. Which of the following statement is conclusive?

a. Leaders must be influenced

b. Leaders are influencers
c. Leaders must influence and should be influenced
d. Leaders can be influenced

47. What does the statement "keep improving yourself" means?

a. You have to learn something new

b. Not making the same mistake twice
c. Start acting like a great leader
d. Have a clear purpose

48. What is the other term for first line managers?

a. superiors
 b. supervisors
c. leaders
d. boss

49. It’s a process whereby an individual influences other and guides the organization
in a manner that makes it more cohesive and coherent.
A. Leadership
B. Organizational Leadership
C. Planning
D. Self-leadership

50. Different people expect different leadership styles. The basic starting point is to
have a clear understanding of human nature such as needs, feelings and motivation.
This is a factor concerning _________.

A. Leader
B. Followers
C. Supervisors
D. Top Management