MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2021-22

Course Code:MBS201 Paper ID: 03221202

Pathology-II
Time: 2 Hours 40 Minutes Max Marks: 80
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.

Part ‘B’

Problem based (Clinical) structured questions:

1. A 72 year old male presented with changes in the bowel
habit, tarry stool, and loss of weight, fatigue and weakness
of 6 months duration. After an endoscopic biopsy of colon,
left sided hemicolectomy was done. (2+4+4=10)
a) What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) Describe the etiopathogenesis of this disease.
c) Describe in detail the morphology of the target organ
involved.

Structured questions:
2. a) Discuss etiopathogenesis, pathology and complications of
Bronchiectasis. (3+3+4=10)
b) What is Nephotic syndrome? Discuss etiology and
laboratory diagnosis of Nephrotic Syndrome. (2+4+4=10)

Short answer type questions:

4. Write short notes on: (5x4=20)
a) Renal changes in Diabetes mellitus
b) Etiology of carcinoma of cervix
c) Etiopathogenesis of rheumatic carditis
d) Hamartoma

Reasoning questions:
5. Give reasons: (2x5=10)
a) Microscopic features of leiomyoma
b) Features of Diabetic Retinopathy
c) Enzymes in Myocardial Infarction
d) Microscopic features of Basal cell carcinoma
e) Different stages of Pneumonia

AETCOM:
5. Discuss and Describe the role of autonomy and shared
responsibility as a guiding principle in patient care. (5)

6. Write short notes on: (5x3=15)

a) The four features of Fallot’s Tetralogy
b) Four differences between Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s
Lymphoma
c) Difference between Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease
 MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2021-22

Roll No. Student’s Name

Student’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Course Code:MBS201 Paper ID: 03221202

Pathology-II
Part ‘A’
Time: 20 Minutes Max Marks: 20
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 20 Minutes.
2. Please tick (√) correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1 HNPCC has defect in: Q.9 In which ovarian tumor Alpha fetoprotein
a) Nucleotide excision (AFP) is raised:
b) Base pair excision a) Yolk Sac Tumour
c) Point mutation b) Dysgerminoma
d) Mismatch repair gene c) Teratoma
d) Epithelial tumours
Q.2 Which of the following is positive in
follicular lymphoma: Q.10 In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa
a. BCL 2 of intestine the predominant population is
b. BCL 6 that of:
c. BCL 1 a) B cells
d. BCL 10 b) T cells
c) Plasma cells
Q.3 A middle aged woman presented with fishy d) Basophils
odour vaginal discharge and shows ‘clue
cells’ in pap smear preparation. She P.T.O
probably has: Q.11 A myocardial infarct showing early
a) Bacterial vaginosis granulation tissue has most likely occurred:
b) Chlamydia infection a) Less than 1 hour
c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae b) Within 24 hours
d) None of the above c) Within 1 week
d) Within 1 month
Q.4. Which of the following differentiate
between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Q.12 A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic
disease: fever. All the following can be expected at
a) Diffuse polyp autopsy, EXCEPT
b) Mucosal oedema a. Aschoff nodules
c) Lymphocyte infiltrate b. Rupture of chordae tendinae
d) Crypt abscess c. Mc Callum patch
d. Fibrinous pericarditis
Q.5 Cushing ulcer is seen in:
a) Stress ulcers in burns
Q.13 All of the following are seen in asbestosis,
b) Stress ulcers in head injury
EXCEPT:
c) Ulcer in hiatus hernia
a) Diffuse alveolar damage
d) Ulcer in Crohn’s disease
b) Calcified pleural plaques
c) Diffuse pulmonary interstitial
Q.6 Which wall of heart is enlarged first in a
fibrosis
patient with McCallum patch:
d) Mesotheliomas
a) Right atrium
b) Left Ventricle Q.14 If a leiomyoma is located underneath the
c) Left atrium endometrial lining, it is labelled as:
d) Right Ventricle a) Submucosal
b) Intramural
Q.7 Punched out ulcer in oesophagus is seen in: c) Subserosal
a) Herpetic oesophagitis d) Cervical
b) CMV oesophagitis
c) Candida oesophagitis Q.15 All of the following ovarian tumors are
d) Eosinophilic oesophagitis surface epithelial tumors, EXCEPT:
a) Teratoma
Q.8 Risk factor for Alzheimer disease: b) Brenner’s tumour
a) Turner syndrome c) Mucinous Cystadenoma
b) Down syndrome d) Serous cystadenoma
c) Klinefelter syndrome
d) None of the above Q.16 Councilman bodies are seen in:
 a) Wilson’s disease
b) Alcoholic Hepatitis
c) Acute Viral Hepatitis
d) Autoimmune Hepatitis

Q.17 Hepatitis E is transmitted by:

a) Blood
b) Fluid
c) Feco-oral
d) All of the above

Q.18 Ground glass appearance change is

associated with:
a) Hepatitis C
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis A
d) Hepatitis D

Q.19 Mallory body is an abnormal intracellular

accumulation of:
a) Glycogen
b) Protein
c) Fat
d) Pigment

Q.20 Which of the following is associated with

unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
a) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
b) Rotor syndrome
c) Gilbert syndrome
d) Gall stone