ENT MCQs

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The Following is true about the tympanic membrane EXCEPT:
A. It is rounded in shape.
B. It is placed obliquely forming acute angle with meatus anteriorly
It is rounded in shape.
and obtuseone posteriorly.
C. The normal tympanic membrane is pearly white in color.
D. The light reflex is due to the concave position of the membrane.
The following is true about the Eustachian tube EXCEPT:
A. It ends 1 cm behind the posterior end of the inferior turbinate.
It is normally opened at rest.
B. The upper 1/3 is bony while the lower 2/3 is fibrocartilagenous.
C. It is normally opened at rest.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Ear washing is not contraindicated in traumatic perforation of
the drum.
B. Pathological perforation of the drum occurs at any site while
Pathological perforation of the drum occurs at any site while
traumatic ones occurs in pars tensa only.
traumatic ones occurs in pars tensa only.
C. In ear washing, the sterile nozzle of the syringe is directed to
the drum directly.
D. Ear washing is indicated in the presence of fistula between the
middle AND inner ear.
Pain on mastication is present in:
A. Acute mastoiditis.
B. Otosclerosis. Furunculosis of the external ear.
C. Furunculosis of the external ear.
D. Allergic otitis externa.
Sagging of the postero-superior wall of the EAC occurs in:
A. Acute mastoiditis.
B. Furunculosis of the external ear. Acute mastoiditis.
C. Otitis media.
D. Petrositis.
The causative agent in otomycosis is:
A. Aspergillus nigers and / or Candida albicans.
B. Streptococci.
Aspergillus nigers and / or Candida albicans.
C. Staphylococci.
D. E.coli
E. B. pyocyaneus.
The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens in
A. Floor of the sinus
B. Roof of the sinus. Between the medial wall and floor of the orbit.
C. Medial wall of the sinus.
D. Between the medial wall and floor of the orbit.
The inferior meatus receives the opening of:
A. The maxillary sinus.
B. The anterior ethmoidal sinus. Nasolacrimal duct.
C. The posterior ethmoidal sinus.
D. Nasolacrimal duct.
The middle meatus contains:
A. The ostia of the maxillary, anterior ethmoidal and frontal sinus-
es. The ostia of the maxillary, anterior ethmoidal and frontal sinuses.
B. The ostia of the posterior ethmoidal sinuses.
C. The nasolacrimal duct.
All are true about rhinoscleroma EXCEPT:
A. It is endemic in Egypt.
B. It is a disease of low immunity and low resistance. It runs in families due to genetic inheritance.
C. It runs in families due to genetic inheritance.
D. It is sub-epithelial inflammatory granuloma.
Mikulicz cell is a characteristic histological finding in:
A. Rhinoscleroma. Rhinoscleroma.
B. Rhinosporodosis.

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C. Aspergillosis.
D. Sarcoidosis.
Keim test is positive in:
A. Sarcoidosis.
B. Rhinoscleroma. Sarcoidosis.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
Russell bodies is a characteristic histological finding in:
A. Rhinoscleroma.
B. Rhinosporodosis. Rhinoscleroma.
C. Aspergillosis.
D. Sarcoidosis.
The causative agent of rhinoscleroma is:
A. Sporozoon.
B. Low virulent T.B bacillus. Gram -ve short capsulated diplobacillus.
C. Treponema Ballidum.
D. Gram -ve short capsulated diplobacillus.
Spontaneous recovery is usual in:
A. Rhinosporodosis.
B. Sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
Perforation of bony part of the nasal septum occurs in:
A. Sarcoidosis.
B. Rhinoscleroma. Syphilis.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
Sarcoidosis is:
A. Chronic sub-epithelial inflammatory granuloma of upper respi-
ratory tract.
Non caseating granuloma with histological picture similar to T.B.
B. Non caseating granuloma with histological picture similar to T.B.
C. Fungal infection of nasal mucosa.
D. Infection with sporozoon.
All the following lines of treatment could be applied in rhinoscle-
roma EXCEPT:
A. Rifampicin.
Cytotoxic drugs.
B. Cytotoxic drugs.
C. Surgery to canalize the stenosed canal.
D. Laser surgery.
The causative agent of lupus vulgaris is:
A. Sporozoon.
B. Low virulent T.B bacillus. Low virulent T.B bacillus.
C. Treponema Ballidum.
D. Gram -ve short capsulated diplobacillus.
Watery nasal discharge is a finding in:
A. Atrophic rhinitis.
B. Allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis AND CSF rhinorrhea.
C. Chronic rhinitis.
D. CSF rhinorrhea.
The allergic nasal polyp is:
A. Soft and mobile.
B. Rigid and non mobile. Soft and mobile.
C. Reddish in color.
D. Grayish in color.
The most common type of nasal polypi is:
A. Allergic.
Allergic.
B. Infective.
C. Secondary to malignancy in the nose.

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Eosinophils in great numbers in nasal secretion is a finding in:
A. Atrophic rhinitis.
B. Chronic rhinitis. Chronic rhinitis AND Acute rhinitis.
C. Allergic rhinitis.
D. Acute rhinitis.
The mechanism of nasal allergy is:
A. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.
B. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.
C. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.
D. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction.
The ideal intranasal decongestant:
A. Must not damage the cilia.
B. Must not be followed by rebound congestion. All of the above.
C. Must be isotonic and faintly alkaline.
D. All of the above.
If a patient represented with edema and swelling after nasal
trauma:
Repair should be delayed for 3-10 days.
A. Repair should be done immediately.
B. Repair should be delayed for 3-10 days.
F.B of nose is represented by:
A. Bilateral nasal obstruction.
B. Unilateral nasal discharge. Unilateral nasal discharge AND Unilateral nasal obstruction.
C. Bilateral nasal epistaxis.
D. Unilateral nasal obstruction.
Sneezing is a prominent feature in:
A. Atrophic rhinitis.
B. Chronic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis.
C. Allergic rhinitis.
D. Acute rhinitis.
Nasal furunculosis is due to:
A. Staphylococcal infection of a pilosebaceous gland.
B. T.B infection of nasal mucosa. Staphylococcal infection of a pilosebaceous gland.
C. Fungal infection of nasal skin.
D. H.influenza infection of the nose.
Apple-jelly nodules of the nasal mucosa is a clinical finding in:
A. Apple-jelly nodules of the nasal mucosa is a clinical finding in:
B. Rhinoscleroma. Lupus vulgaris.
C. Lupus vulgaris.
D. Tuberculosis.
Unilateral polypoidal mass arising from the lateral wall of the nose
in 55 years old man is most probably:
A. Inverted papilloma.
Inverted papilloma.
B. Rhinoscleroma.
C. Allergic nasal polyp.
D. Antrochoanal polyp.
Anterior ethmoid presents bulge in the middle meatus called:
A. Bulla ethmoidalis.
B. Concha bullosa. Bulla ethmoidalis.
C. Lamina papyracea.
D. Haitaus semilunaris.
Post nasal discharge may occurs:
A. At puberty.
B. At pregnancy. All of the above.
C. In diabetes.
D. All of the above.
Nasal regurgitation occurs in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Ethmoid carcinoma. Ethmoid carcinoma.
B. Palatal paralysis.

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C. Advanced maxillary sinus carcinoma.
D. Cleft palate.
Which of the following is used to confirm nasal allergy:
A. Esinophilia in nasal secretion.
B. Esinophilia in blood. All of the above.
C. Elevated serum IGE.
D. All of the above.
Perforation of the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum may be
due to Except:
A. Lupus.
Syphilis.
B. Leprosy.
C. T.B.
D. Syphilis.
Perforation of the bony part of the nasal septum may be due to:
A. Lupus.
B. Leprosy. Syphilis.
C. T.B.
D. Syphilis.
The main presenting symptom of ethmoidal nasal polyp are all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. Attack of severe epistaxis.
Attack of severe epistaxis.
B. Persistant nasal obstruction.
C. Rhinorrhea.
D. All of the above.
Unilateral chronic maxillary sinusitis is usually of:
A. Nasal origin.
B. Dental origin. Dental origin.
C. Orbital origin.
D. All of the above.
Radiological finding of sinusitis include all of the following EX-
CEPT:
A. Bone destruction.
Bone destruction.
B. Opacity of the affected sinus.
C. Fluid level.
D. Mucosal thickening.
All are true about the treatment of CSF rhinorrhea EXCEPT:
A. Antibiotics to avoid infection.
B. Nasal drops. Nasal drops.
C. Treatment of the cause.
D. Cleaning and sterilization of the skin of the nasal vestibule.
CSF rhinorrea is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Clear color
B. Sediment formation after standing in a test tube. Sediment formation after standing in a test tube.
C. Containing glucose.
D. Accelerated flow rate with straining.
The most common site of origin of allergic nasal polpi is:
A. Maxillary sinus.
B. Ethmoidal sinus. Ethmoidal sinus.
C. Frontal sinus.
D. Sphenoid sinus.
Post nasal discharge may occurs in:
A. Adenoid abscess.
B. Acute and chronic sinusitis. None of the above.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Unilateral nasal obstruction in newly born infant may be due to:
A. Antrochoanal polyp. Choanal atresia.
B. Allergic nasal polyp.

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C. Choanal atresia.
D. None of the above.
The following lesions may leads to proptosis EXCEPT:
A. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Adenoid hypertrophy.
C. Adenoid hypertrophy.
D. Nasopharyngeal sarcoma.
Periodic headache is a characteristic symptoms in:
A. Frontal sinusitis.
B. Ethmoidal sinusitis. Frontal sinusitis.
C. Maxillary sinusitis.
D. None of the above.
The following drugs can cause epistaxis EXCEPT:
A. Salicylates.
B. Anticoagulants. Ampicllin.
C. Quinine.
D. Ampicllin.
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma cause Horner's syndrome as a result
of infiltration of:
A. 3rd cranial nerve
Cervical sympathetic chain
B. 5th cranial nerve
C. 7th cranial nerve
D. Cervical sympathetic chain
Little's area is the site of anastomosis of the following arteries
EXCEPT:
A. Anterior ethmoidal artery.
Ascending pharyngeal artery.
B. Sphenopalatine artery.
C. Greater palatine artery.
D. Ascending pharyngeal artery.
Resistant epistaxis from below the middle turbinate requires lig-
ation of:
A. The anterior ethmoidal artery.
The sphenopalatine artery.
B. The sphenopalatine artery.
C. The maxillary artery.
D. The internal jugular vein.
Rhinoscleroma characterized by the following EXCEPT:
A. Hard-like nodules.
B. Histopathology shows Mikulicz cells. Ulceration of the surrounding tissue.
C. Responses to rifampicin.
D. Ulceration of the surrounding tissue.
The most common site of nasal bleeding is:
A. Little's area.
B. Mac ewing triangle. Little's area.
C. Pyriform fossa.
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess.
The following are some general causes of epistaxis EXCEPT:
A. Anemia.
B. Arterial hypertension. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
C. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
D. Renal failure.
The frontal mucocele may be caused by:
A. Chronic frontal sinusitis.
All of the above.
B. Obstruction of a duct of a mucus gland.
C. All of the above.
Unilateral mucopurulent and purulent nasal discharge may be due
to:
All of the above.
A. Unilateral sinusitis.
B. FB in the nose.

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C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
The following are cranial complications of sinusitis EXCEPT:
A. Osteomylitis of the maxillary and frontal bone.
B. Fistula formation. Extradural abscess.
C. Subperiosteal abscess.
D. Extradural abscess.
Cyclic asphyxia is the presenting symptom is:
A. Bilateral choanal atresia.
B. Adenoids. Bilateral choanal atresia.
C. Acute laryngitis.
D. Nasal allergy.
Alternating nasal obstruction is mainly:
A. Allergic.
B. Infective. Allergic.
C. Neoplastic.
D. None of the above.
The commonest complication of sinusitis is:
A. Meningitis.
B. Orbital. Orbital.
C. Extradural abscess.
D. Brain abscess.
The commonest cause of CSF rhinorrhea is:
A. Congenital.
B. Traumatic. Traumatic.
C. Infective.
D. Neoplastic.
The main manifestation of antrochoanal polyp is:
A. Proptosis.
B. Unilateral nasal obstruction. Unilateral nasal obstruction.
C. Headache.
D. Sneezing.
Chronic sinusitis has:
A. Low grade fever.
B. Intermittent fever. No fever.
C. Remittent fever.
D. No fever.
Non symptomatic deviated nasal septum needs:
A. Septoplasty.
B. No treatment. No treatment.
C. Sub-mucperichondrial resection.
D. Cauterization.
The time of occurrence of headache in frontal sinusitis:
A. All the day.
B. At night. Periodic.
C. Periodic.
D. None of the above.
Headache in sinusitis is due to:
A. Tension headache.
B. Vacuum headache. All of the above.
C. Toxic headache.
D. All of the above.
The following is complication of SMR of deviated nasal septum:
A. Septal haematoma.
B. Septal abscess. All of the above.
C. Septal perforation.
D. All of the above.

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The commonest cause of epistaxis in 50 years old man is:
A. Hypertension.
B. Angiofibroma. Hypertension.
C. Allergic nasal polypi.
D. Antrochoanal polyp.
The point of tenderness in acute frontal sinusitis is:
A. The inner canthus.
B. The supra-orbital margin. The supra-orbital margin.
C. The infra-orbital margin.
D. None of the above.
The point of tenderness in acute ethmoidal sinusitis is:
A. The inner canthus.
B. The supra-orbital margin. The inner canthus.
C. The infra-orbital margin.
D. None of the above.
Unilateral nasal discharge and unilateral nasal obstruction in 13
years old boy is most probably diagnostic of:
A. Choanal atresia.
Choanal atresia.
B. Adenoids.
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
D. None of the above.
The point of tenderness in acute maxillary sinusitis is:
A. The inner canthus.
B. The supra-orbital margin. The infra-orbital margin.
C. The infra-orbital margin.
D. None of the above.
In maxillary sinusitis, the discharge is in:
A. The anterior part of the middle meatus.
B. The posterior part of the middle meatus. The posterior part of the middle meatus.
C. All over the middle meatus.
D. The inferior meatus.
In ethmoidal sinusitis, the discharge is in:
A. The anterior part of the middle meatus.
B. The posterior part of the middle meatus. All over the middle meatus.
C. All over the middle meatus.
D. The inferior meatus.
In frontal sinusitis, the discharge is in:
A. The anterior part of the middle meatus.
B. The posterior part of the middle meatus. The anterior part of the middle meatus.
C. All over the middle meatus.
D. The inferior meatus.
The nasolacrimal duct opens in:
A. Superior meatus.
B. Middle meatus. Inferior meatus.
C. Inferior meatus.
D. None of the above.
Mucoid fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates:
A. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage.
B. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Catarrhal inflammation.
C. Allergic sinusitis.
D. Catarrhal inflammation.
Watery fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates:
A. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage.
B. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Allergic sinusitis.
C. Allergic sinusitis.
D. Catarrhal inflammation.
The commonest cause of nasal polypi is:
A. Infective.

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B. Malignant.
C. Secondary to malignancy. Allergic.
D. Allergic.
FB in the nose may be characterized by:
A. Unilateral nasal discharge
B. Unilateral obstruction. All of the above.
C. Unilateral epistaxis
D. All of the above.
Headache may be due to:
A. Anemia.
B. Premenstrual. All of the above.
C. Hypoglycemia.
D. All of the above.
Headache may be due to:
A. Eye origin.
B. Dental origin. All of the above.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Headache may be due to:
A. Constipation.
B. Hypotension. All of the above.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Headache may be due to:
A. Psycogenic.
B. Allergic origin. All of the above.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Headache may be due to:
A. Temporal arteritis
B. Neurogenic origin. All of the above.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Headache may be due to:
A. Sinus origin.
B. Cervical origin. All of the above.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Stapedectomy is one line for treatment of:
A. Otosclerosis.
B. Otomycosis. Otosclerosis.
C. Otitic barotrauma.
D. Secretory otitis media.
Bloody discharge from the ear occurs in:
A. Fracture base of the skull.
B. Glomus jugular tumor.
C. Haemorrhagic otitis media. All of the above.
D. Rupture drum.
E. All of the above.
F. None of the above.
Purulent fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates:
A. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage.
B. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage.
C. Allergic sinusitis.
D. Catarrhal inflammation.
Mucopurulent fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates:
A. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology.
B. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology.

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C. Allergic sinusitis.
D. Catarrhal inflammation.
The cause of secondary hemorrhage is:
A. Wound sepsis.
B. Unprepared patient. Wound sepsis.
C. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle.
D. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature
Watery discharge from the ear occurs in all of the following EX-
CEPT:
A. Cerebro-spinal otorrhoea.
Acute otitis media.
B. Parotid fistula.
C. Acute otitis media.
D. Endolymphatic sac surgery.
Pain in salivary calculi is referred to the ear through:
A. The 5th nerve.
B. The 9th nerve. The 5th nerve.
C. The 10th nerve.
D. 2nd and 3rd cervical nerve.
Pain in cancer larynx is referred to the ear through:
A. The 5th nerve.
B. The 9th nerve. The 10th nerve.
C. The 10th nerve.
D. 2nd and 3rd cervical nerve.
In a case of 5 years old boy with a membranous faucial lesion ,
temp 38° and pulse 180/min, the most probable diagnosis is:
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
Diphtheria.
B. Acute follicular tonsillitis.
C. Diphtheria.
D. Agranulocytosis.
the pulse in diphtheria is:
A. Weak rapid pulse.
B. Full bounding pulse. Non synchronous with the temperature.
C. Synchronous with the temperature.
D. Non synchronous with the temperature.
Leucoplakia of the oral and pharyngeal mucosa is:
A. Malignant condition.
B. Precancerous condition. Precancerous condition.
C. Inflammatory condition.
D. Toxic condition.
The causative agent of vincent's angina:
A. Borrelia vincenti.
B. Candida albicans. Borrelia vincenti.
C. Epstein-Barr virus.
D. Streptococci.
Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to:
A. Blood diseases.
B. Skin diseases (linchen planus). All of the above.
C. Toxic (heavy metals).
D. All of the above.
Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to:
A. Syphilis.
B. Behcet's syndrome. All of the above.
C. AIDS.
D. All of the above.
Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to:
A. Herpes simplex. All of the above.
B. Herpes zoster.

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C. TB.
D. All of the above.
Paul-bunnell test is diagnostic for:
A. Diphtheria.
B. Acute follicular tonsillitis. Infectious mononucleosis.
C. Infectious mononucleosis.
D. All of the above.
Membranous tonsillitis may be due to :
A. Diphtheria.
B. Acute follicular tonsillitis. All of the above.
C. Infectious mononucleosis.
D. All of the above.
The causative agent of thrush stomatitis is:
A. Borrelia vincenti.
B. Candida albicans. Candida albicans.
C. Epstein-Barr virus.
D. Streptococci.
The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis:
A. Borrelia vincenti.
B. Candida albicans. Epstein-Barr virus.
C. Epstein-Barr virus.
D. Streptococci.
The following antibiotic is contraindicated in infectious mononu-
cleosis :
A. Ampicillin.
Ampicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Cephalosporin.
D. None of the above
Acute tonsillitis may cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Acute retropharyngeal abscess.
B. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess.
C. Para Pharyngeal abscess.
D. Quinsy.
Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is treated by:
A. External drainage posterior to sternomastoid.
B. External drainage anterior to sternomastoid. External drainage posterior to sternomastoid.
C. Internal drainage via longitudinal incision.
D. None of the above
Acute retropharyngeal abscess is treated by:
A. External drainage posterior to sternomastoid.
B. External drainage anterior to sternomastoid. Internal drainage via longitudinal incision.
C. Internal drainage via longitudinal incision.
D. None of the above
Adenoid hypertrophy may lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Adenoid face.
B. Otitis media with effusion. Sensory neural deafness.
C. Sensory neural deafness.
D. Night mares.
Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is caused by:
A. TB of bodies of the cervical vertebrae.
B. Suppuration of the retropharyngeal gland. TB of bodies of the cervical vertebrae.
C. Diphtheria bacilli.
D. None of the above
Acute retropharyngeal abscess is caused by:
A. TB of bodies of the cervical vertebrae.
B. Suppuration of the retropharyngeal gland. Suppuration of the retropharyngeal gland.
C. Diphtheria bacilli.
D. None of the above

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Frog face appearance, is a clinical manifestation of:
A. Ludwig's angina.
B. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. None of the above
The most common site of quinsy is:
A. Superior to tonsils.
B. Lateral to tonsils. Superior to tonsils.
C. Posterior to tonsils.
D. Inferior to the tonsils.
The swelling in acute retropharyngeal abcess is:
A. In the middle line.
B. Lateral to the middle line. In the middle line.
C. Appears from outside the neck.
D. None of the above.
Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma may cause:
A. Conductive deafness.
B. Sensory neural deafness. Conductive deafness.
C. Mixed deafness.
D. All of the above.
The cause of bleeding in cases of juvenile nasopharyngeal an-
giofibroma is:
A. Soft friable tissue.
Non muscle coated blood vessels.
B. Non muscle coated blood vessels.
C. Non capsulated.
D. Malignancy.
Ludwig's angina is:
A. Cellulitis of the pyriform fossa.
B. Cellulitis in the parapharyngeal space. Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth.
C. Cellulitis in the retropharyngeal space.
D. Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth.
The most dangerous complication of ludwig's angina is:
A. Acute laryngeal edema.
B. CHL. Acute laryngeal edema.
C. Bleeding.
D. Nasal obstruction.
Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma spread to the surrounding
tissue because it is:
A. Malignant.
Non capsulated.
B. Non capsulated.
C. Pre-malignant.
D. Highly vascular.
the possible cause of death in case of juvenile nasopharyngeal
angiofibroma is:
A. Recurrent infection.
Severe epistaxis.
B. Severe epistaxis.
C. Upper respiratory tract obstruction.
D. None of the above.
Chordoma is:
A. Malignant tumor.
B. Locally malignant tumor. Locally malignant tumor.
C. Benign tumor.
D. None of the above.
The cause of suffocation and laryngeal spasm after tonsillectomy:
A. Backward of the tongue.
B. Inhalation of vomitus or blood clots. All of the above.
C. Extubation spasm.
D. All of the above.

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Trotter's syndrome occurs in:
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
B. Oropharyngeal carcinoma. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
C. Hypopharyngeal carcinoma.
D. Postcricoid carcinoma.
The cause of secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy :
A. Secondary infection.
B. Rising blood pressure with slipping of ligature. Secondary infection.
C. Injury of the pharyngeal muscles and mucosa.
D. None of the above.
The cause of reactionary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy:
A. Secondary infection.
B. Rising blood pressure with slipping of ligature. Rising blood pressure with slipping of ligature.
C. Injury of the pharyngeal muscles and mucosa.
D. None of the above.
Hemorrhage 7 days following tonsillectomy operation is:
A. Primary.
B. Reactionary. Secondary.
C. Secondary.
D. None of the above.
Hemorrhage during the operation of tonsillectomy is:
A. Primary.
B. Reactionary. Primary.
C. Secondary.
D. None of the above.
Pain in the ear in cases of acute tonsillitis or following tonsellicto-
my is referred via:
A. 5th nerve.
9th nerve.
B. 9th nerve.
C. 10th nerve.
D. 12th nerve.
Hemorrhage within the 24 hours following tonsillectomy:
A. Primary.
B. Reactionary. Reactionary.
C. Secondary.
D. None of the above.
Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. During menses.
B. Uncontrolled diabetes. Full stomach.
C. After peritonsillar abscess.
D. Full stomach.
Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. During epidemic of polio.
B. During acute attack. Diphtheria carrier.
C. Malignant hypertension.
D. Diphtheria carrier.
Tonsillectomy is indicated in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. During epidemic of polio.
B. Tumors of tonsils. During epidemic of polio.
C. After peritonsillar abscess.
D. Symptoms of septic focus.
Tonsillectomy is indicated in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Blood diseases.
B. Diphtheria carrier. Blood diseases.
C. Chronic tonsillitis.
D. Impacted FB.
6th nerve paralysis occurs in the following cases EXCEPT:
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

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B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
C. Postcricoid carcinoma. Postcricoid carcinoma.
D. Petrositis.
The value of post-tonsillectomy position is:
A. To prevent backward falling of tongue.
B. To prevent inhalation of the vomitus or blood. All of the above.
C. To detect bleeding.
D. All of the above.
Acute laryngeal abscess is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Occur most commonly in infants.
Is seen in lateral X-ray of neck.
B. Involves the prevertebral space.
C. Usually occurs with TB of the cervical vertebra.
D. Is seen in lateral X-ray of neck.
The following are midline swelling EXCEPT:
A. Thyroglossal duct cyst.
B. Thyroid isthmus nodule. Pharyngeal pouch.
C. Dermoid cyst.
D. Pharyngeal pouch.
The following are submental swelling EXCEPT:
A. Submental LN.
B. Plunging ranula. Cystic hygroma.
C. Suprahyoid thyroglossal cyst.
D. Cystic hygroma.
The following metabolic disorder associated with stomatitis:
A. Uremia.
B. DM. All of the above.
C. Liver disease.
D. All of the above.
Stomatitis associated with skin lesions:
A. Pemphigus.
B. Linchen planus Pemphigus.
C. Lupus erythromatosis.
D. All of the above.
Treatment of Behcet's disease consist of:
A. Corticosteroids locally and systemic.
B. Cytotoxic drugs. None of them.
C. Antihistaminic drugs.
D. None of them.
Behcet's disease is characterized by a all of the following EX-
CEPT:
A. Stomatitis, herpes like lesion.
B. Conjunctivitis, corneal opacity, iridocyclitis. Tendency to recur.
C. Genital ulcer.
D. SNHL.
E. Tendency to recur.
Contraindication of tonsillectomy includes all of the following EX-
CEPT:
A. Hemophilia.
Acute attack.
B. Acute attack.
C. One attack of quinsy 2 months ago.
D. Active rheumatic arthritis.
Vincent angina is characterized by :
A. Very severe systemic symptoms and mild local symptoms.
B. Very severe local symptoms and mild systemic symptoms. Very severe local symptoms and mild systemic symptoms.
C. Very severe local and systemic symptoms.
D. Very mild local and systemic symptoms.

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The following are lateral swelling in neck EXCEPT:
A. Branchial cleft cyst.
B. Carotid body tumor. Dermoid cyst.
C. Lymph gland enlargement.
D. Dermoid cyst.
Infection reaching the submental and submandibular space is
called:
A. Vincent angina.
Submandibular sialadenitis.
B. Ludwig's tumor.
C. Submandibular sialadenitis.
D. Bezold's abscess.
The following are swelling of the floor of the mouth EXCEPT:
A. Ranula.
B. Dermoid cyst. Cystic hygroma.
C. Tumor of the sublingual salivary gland.
D. Cystic hygroma.
The following signs of pus collection in quinsy:
A. Pain become throbbing.
B. Fever may become hectic. All of them.
C. Softening and fluctuation can be detected.
D. All of them.
BULL NECK is known to occur in :
A. Tonsillar diphtheria.
B. Quinsy. Tonsillar diphtheria.
C. Acute tonsillitis.
D. Chronic tonsillitis.
Dysphagia may be due to:
A. Aneurysm of the aorta.
B. Enlarged left atrium. All of the above.
C. Mediastinal tumor.
D. All of the above.
All are correct about corrosive oesophaditis EXCEPT:
A. Shock may occur due to electrolytes imbalance.
B. Normal feeding is encouraged. Cortisone in the acute stage is contraindicated.
C. Vomiting is not encouraged.
D. Cortisone in the acute stage is contraindicated.
Pharyngeal pouch occurs mostly in:
A. Old males.
B. Old females. Old males.
C. Infants.
D. Adult males.
The dysphagia in cardiac achalasia starts to:
A. Solids then to fluids.
B. Fluids then to solids. Fluids then to solids.
C. Fluid and solids at the same time.
D. All of the above.
Plummer-Vinson syndrome is:
A. Malignant condition.
B. Pre-malignant. Pre-malignant.
C. Locally malignant.
D. None of the above.
Plummer-Vinson syndrome predispose to:
A. Postcricoid carcinoma.
B. Cancer larynx. Postcricoid carcinoma.
C. Cancer oesophagus.
D. None of the above.
The anemia in Plummer Vinson syndrome is:
A. Microcytic hypochromic.

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B. Macrocytic.
C. Both. Microcytic hypochromic.
D. None of the above.
X-ray barium swallow showing tea-pot appearance is a finding in:
A. Plummer Vinson syndrome.
B. Cardiac achalasia. Pharyngeal pouch.
C. Pharyngeal pouch.
D. Cancer oesophagus.
X-ray barium swallow showing rat-tail appearance is a finding in:
A. Corrosive oesophagitis.
B. Cardiac achalasia. Cancer oesophagus.
C. Pharyngeal pouch.
D. Cancer oesophagus.
X-ray barium swallow showing parrot-peak appearance is a find-
ing in:
A. Plummer Vinson syndrome.
Cardiac achalasia.
B. Cardiac achalasia.
C. Pharyngeal pouch.
D. Cancer oesophagus.
Dysphagia in cancer oesophagus is :
A. Progressive.
B. Regressive. Progressive.
C. Stationary.
D. Intermittent.
Failure of relaxation of crico-pharyngeal sphincter during swal-
lowing leads to:
A. Plummer Vinson syndrome.
Plummer Vinson syndrome.
B. Pharyngeal pouch.
C. Pharyngeal pouch.
D. Cancer oesophagus.
X-ray with barium swallow showing multiple stricture in the oe-
sophagus is a diagnostic finding in:
A. Chronic corrosive oesophagitis.
Chronic corrosive oesophagitis.
B. Cardiac achalasia.
C. Plummer Vinson syndrome.
D. None of them.
The cause of death in corrosive oesphagitis may be:
A. Dehydration due to electrolytes imbalance.
B. Stridor due to laryngeal oedema. Both of them.
C. Both of them.
D. None of them.
Cardiac achalasia is:
A. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT
subclavian artery or double aorta.
Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter.
B. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence.
C. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation.
D. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter.
PATRESON-BROWN-KELLY syndrome is:
A. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT
subclavian artery or double aorta.
Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation.
B. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence.
C. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation.
D. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter.
Dysphagia lusoria is:
A. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT
subclavian artery or double aorta. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT sub-
B. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence. clavian artery or double aorta.
C. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation.
D. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter.
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Dysphagia in cardiac achalasia is:
A. Progressive.
B. Regressive. Intermittent.
C. Stationary.
D. Intermittent.
The dysphagia in plummer-vinson syndrome start to:
A. Solids then to fluids.
B. Fluids then to solids. Solids then to fluids.
C. Fluid and solids at the same time.
D. All of the above.
Feeble very rapid pulse is known to occur in:
A. Tonsillar diphtheria.
B. Quinsy. Tonsillar diphtheria.
C. Acute tonsillitis.
D. Chronic tonsillitis.
Low grade fever is known to occur in:
A. Tonsillar diphtheria.
B. Quinsy. Tonsillar diphtheria.
C. Acute tonsillitis.
D. Chronic tonsillitis.
Pain in acute sinusitis is referred to the ear through:
A. The 5th nerve.
B. The 9th nerve. The 5th nerve.
C. The 10th nerve.
D. 2nd and 3rd cervical nerve.
Tobey-Ayer's test is a characteristic sign in:
A. Brain abscess.
B. Lateral sinus thrombosis.
Lateral sinus thrombosis.
C. Extradural abscess.
D. Meningitis.
E. Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
In traumatic ossicular disruption, all is true EXCEPT:
A. The audiogram shows 55 dB loss.
B. Separation of the icudo-stapedial joint is the commonest lesion. There is bulging drum.
C. There is bulging drum.
D. C.T scan is indicated.
Fever in lateral sinus thrombosis is:
A. Intermittent.
B. Remittent. Intermittent.
C. Low grade.
D. High grade.
Griesinger's sign is:
A. Edema and tenderness over the posterior border of the mastoid
process. Edema and tenderness over the posterior border of the mastoid
B. Unilateral pulsating otorrhoea. process.
C. Vertigo and nystagmus on increasing the pressure of the EAC.
D. Tenderness on the tip of mastoid bone.
Gradinigo syndrome occurs in:
A. Acute mastoid abscess.
B. Acute petrositis. Acute petrositis.
C. Chronic otitis media.
D. Secretory otitis media.
Reservoir is a characteristic sign in:
A. Acute mastoid abscess.
B. Acute otitis media. Acute mastoid abscess.
C. Chronic otitis media.
D. Secretory otitis media.

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Crescentic hairline is an otoscopic finding in:
A. Otomycosis.
B. Otosclerosis. Secretory otitis media.
C. Secretory otitis media.
D. Acute otitis media.
Violent vomiting or large meal may cause:
A. Pharyngeal pouch. Pharyngeal pouch.
B. Cardiac achalasia. Plummer Vinson syndrome.Cardiac achalasia.
C. Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus.
D. Plummer Vinson syndrome.
Pain in acute tonsillitis is referred to the ear through:
A. The 5th nerve.
B. The 9th nerve. The 9th nerve.
C. The 10th nerve.
D. 2nd and 3rd cervical nerve.
Dysphagia may be due to:
A. Aneurysm of the ICA.
B. Enlarged thyroid. All of the above.
C. Enlarged malignant gland.
D. All of the above.
Pain in tempro-mandibular joint is referred to the ear through:
A. The 5th nerve.
B. The 9th nerve. The 5th nerve.
C. The 10th nerve.
D. 2nd and 3rd cervical nerve.
Fever in diphtheria is:
A. High grade fever.
B. Low grade fever. Low grade fever.
C. Remittent fever.
D. Intermittent fever.
The cause of primary hemorrhage is:
A. Wound sepsis.
B. Unprepared patient. Wound sepsis.
C. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle.
D. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature
The cause of reactionary hemorrhage is:
A. Wound sepsis.
B. Unprepared patient. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature
C. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle.
D. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature
The fluids presents in secretory otitis media is:
A. Mucopurulent.
B. Serosanguinous.
Mixture of exudates and transudates.
C. Exudates.
D. Transudates.
E. Mixture of exudates and transudates.
The discharge in case of cholesteatoma is:
A. Copious purulent.
B. Copious offensive. Scanty offensive.
C. Scanty offensive.
D. Thick scanty creamy.
In Rinne's test:
A. In perceptive deafness: air conduction is better than bone
conduction. In perceptive deafness: air conduction is better than bone con-
B. In conductive deafness: air conduction is better than bone duction AND In conductive deafness: bone conduction is better
conduction. than air conduction.
C. In conductive deafness: bone conduction is better than air
conduction.

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D. In perceptive deafness: bone conduction is better than air
conduction.
In Weber's test:
A. In conductive deafness: sound is heard better in the diseased
ear.
In conductive deafness: sound is heard better in the diseased ear
B. In conductive deafness: sound is heard better in the healthy
AND In perceptive deafness: sound is heard better in the healthy
ear.
ear.
C. In perceptive deafness: sound is heard better in the healthy ear.
D. In perceptive deafness: sound is heard better in the diseased
ear.
The most common cause of deafness in children:
A. Acute otitis media.
B. Secretory otitis media. Secretory otitis media.
C. Chronic otitis media.
D. Cholesteatoma.
Ramsy-Hunt syndrome is:
A. Herpes-zoster affection of the geniculate ganglion of the facial
nerve. Herpes-zoster affection of the geniculate ganglion of the facial
B. Dysphagia in middle aged female. nerve.
C. Dysphagia in old male.
D. Sensory-neural deafness in newly born.
Schwabach's test is:
A. Comparison between air and bone conduction of the same ear.
Comparison of duration of bone conduction of the patient and the
B. Comparison of bone conduction of both ears at the same time.
examiner.
C. Comparison of duration of bone conduction of the patient and
the examiner.
The following is true about pure tone audiometry EXCEPT:
A. It gives the amount of the hearing loss in dB.
B. It gives the type of deafness.
C. It gives the possible cause of deafness. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea.
D. It helps in hearing aid selection.
E. It helps in follow up of the case.
F. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea.
The following is true about impedance audiometry EXCEPT:
A. It measures the pressure changes in the middle ear.
B. It measures fixation and dislocation of the ossicular chain. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea.
C. It measures the patency of the Eustachian tube.
D. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea.
In lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen, there is:
A. L.M.N.L of the facial muscles.
B. No impairment of taste.
All of the above.
C. No impairment of salivation.
D. No impairment of lacrimation.
E. All of the above.
In lesion of facial nerve at vertical part"below the nerve of
stapedius" there is:
A. Loss of taste.
Loss of taste.
B. Impairment of salivation.
C. Impairment of lacrimation.
D. Hyperacusis.
In lesion of the facial nerve at horizontal part, there is:
A. Loss of taste.
B. Impairment of salivation.
All of the above.
C. Impairment of lacrimation.
D. Hyperacusis.
E. All of the above.
In lesion of the facial nerve at the geniculate ganglion, there is:
A. Loss of taste.
B. Impairment of salivation.
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C. Impairment of lacrimation.
D. Hyperacusis. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
In UMNL of the facial nerve, there is:
A. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower 1/2 of the face on the
opposite side Paralysis of the muscles of the lower 1/2 of the face on the
B. Paralysis involves the voluntary but spares the emotional and opposite side AND Paralysis involves the voluntary but spares the
associative movement. emotional and associative movement.
C. Hypotonia.
D. Hyporeflexia.
In LMNL of the facial nerve, there is:
A. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower 1/2 of the face on the
opposite side
B. Paralysis involves the voluntary but spares the emotional and
Hypotonia, Hyporeflexia AND Reaction of degeneration.
associative movement.
C. Hypotonia.
D. Hyporeflexia.
E. Reaction of degeneration.
In LMNL of the facial nerve, there is:
A. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower and upper 1/2 of the face
on the opposite
Paralysis involves the voluntary, emotional and associative move-
side.
ment AND Paralysis of the muscles of the lower and upper 1/2 of
B. Paralysis involves the voluntary, emotional and associative
the face on the same side.
movement.
C. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower and upper 1/2 of the face
on the same side.
Bell's palsy is LMNL at the level of:
A. Geniculate ganglion.
B. Internal facial auditory meatus. Stylomastoid foramen.
C. Stylomastoid foramen.
D. Cerebellopontine angle.
The cause of Bell's palsy may be one of the following EXCEPT:
A. Vascular ischemia.
B. Virus infection. Bacterial infection.
C. Bacterial infection.
D. Auto immune.
The early symptom of Bell's palsy is:
A. Dropping of angle of the affected side.
B. Obliteration of the angle of the mouth. Pain of acute onset behind the ear.
C. Pain of acute onset behind the ear.
D. Inability to close the eye.
Intra cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media
includes:
A. Mastoiditis.
Meningitis AND Brain abscess.
B. Meningitis.
C. Labyrinthitis.
D. Brain abscess.
Cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media includes:
A. Mastoiditis.
B. Labyrinthitis.
All of the above.
C. Petrositis.
D. Facial nerve paralysis.
E. All of the above.
Extra cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media
includes:
A. Mastoiditis.
Bezold abscess AND Otitis externa.
B. Bezold abscess.
C. Lateral sinus thrombosis.
D. Otitis externa.

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CSF examination in case of meningitis shows:
A. Protein diminished.
B. Sugar diminished.
C. Chloride diminished. b, c and d.
D. Cell count increased.
E. a, b and c.
F. b, c and d.
All are correct about Ménière's disease EXCEPT:
A. It is an endolymphatic hydrops.
B. Males are more affected than females.
The type of deafness is conductive.
C. The type of deafness is conductive.
D. Decompression of the labyrinth is indicated if the vertiginous
attack iscrippling.
The aim of radical mastoidectomy is:
A. To give safe ear.
B. To preserve hearing. To give safe ear.
C. Reconstruct the ossicles.
D. Reconstruct the tympanic membrane.
The aim of modified radical mastoidectomy is:
A. To give safe ear and to preserve hearing.
To give safe ear and to preserve hearing.
B. Reconstruct the ossicles.
C. Reconstruct the tympanic membrane.
The pain in acute suppurative otitis media in the suppurative stage
is:
A. Dull aching.
Throbbing.Dull aching.
B. Throbbing.
C. Boring.
D. Burning.
The pain in acute suppurative otitis media in the catarrhal stage
is:
A. Dull aching.
Dull aching.
B. Throbbing.
C. Boring.
D. Burning.
The pain in acute suppurative otitis media is more severe at:
A. Night.
B. Morning. Night.
C. Mid-day.
D. All the day.
The pain in acute suppurative otitis media disappear after:
A. Bulging of the drum.
Perforation of the drum.
B. Perforation of the drum.
C. Congestion of the drum.
In malignant otitis externa all the following is true EXCEPT:
A. It is common in old diabetic.
B. There may be facial paralysis. Mainly treated surgically.
C. The commonest organism is pseudomonas.
D. Mainly treated surgically.
McEwen's triangle is the surface landmark of:
A. The tympanic part of the facial nerve.
B. Mastoid antrum. Mastoid antrum.
C. Dome of the lateral semicircular canal.
D. Icudo-stapedial joint.
Longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone may be associated with
all of the
following EXCEPT: Profound hearing loss.
A. LMNL facial palsy.
B. Traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane.

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C. Conductive hearing loss.
D. Profound hearing loss.
The middle ear magnifies the sound:
A. 20 times.
B. 22 times. 22 times.
C. 200 times.
D. 21 times.
The test of hearing in infants is:
A. Rinne test.
B. Weber test. ABR "Auditory Brain stem Response".
C. Pure tone audiometry.
D. ABR "Auditory Brain stem Response".
ABR "Auditory Brain stem Response" is used in:
A. Test of hearing in malingering.
B. Test of hearing in retrochoclear lesion. All of the above.
C. Detection of acoustic neuroma.
D. All of the above.
The following are the manifestations of temporal lobe abscess
EXCEPT:
A. Hemi paresis.
Vertigo.
B. Aphasia.
C. Convulsive fits.
D. Vertigo.
The earliest manifestation of cavernous sinus thrombosis is:
A. Fever.
B. Ptosis. Ophthalmoplegia.
C. Proptosis.
D. Ophthalmoplegia.
In traumatic rupture of the drum, all are true EXCEPT:
A. The main treatment is conservative.
B. Local ear drops are highly indicated. Local ear drops are highly indicated.
C. It heals spontaneously within 3 months.
D. It may be caused by longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone.
Early acute suppurative otitis media is manifested by:
A. Retracted tympanic membrane.
B. Aural fullness. All of the above.
C. Deafness.
D. All of the above.
The pathology in case of Bell's palsy is:
A. Facial nerve tumor.
B. Cut in the tympanic segment in the facial nerve. Edema of the facial nerve inside its bony canal.
C. Edema of the facial nerve inside its bony canal.
D. Hemorrhage in the facial nerve nucleus.
The most accurate diagnostic test to detect degeneration of the
facial nerve:
A. Nerve excitability test.
Electroneurography.
B. Electromyography.
C. Electroneurography.
D. Stapedial reflex.
Cholesteatoma is:
A. Benign middle ear tumor.
B. Skin in a wrong place. Skin in a wrong place.
C. Specific middle ear granuloma.
D. None of the above.
Bezold's abscess is a swelling:
A. Behind the ear. Below the ear in the neck.
B. Below the ear in the neck.

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C. Above the ear.
D. In front of the ear.
Inability to raise the eye brow & close the same eye with deviation
of the angle of the mouth to the opposite side is:
A. UMNL 7th cranial nerve palsy.
LMNL 7th cranial nerve palsy.
B. UMNL 5th cranial nerve palsy.
C. LMNL 5th cranial nerve palsy.
D. LMNL 7th cranial nerve palsy.
Conductive deafness is the main presentation of:
A. Furunculosis of the external auditory canal.
B. Ear wax. Ear wax.
C. Haematoma auris.
D. None of the above.
Unilateral hearing loss with pulsating tinnitus is suggestive of:
A. Otosclerosis.
B. Extradural abscess complicating CSOM. Glomus tumor.
C. Glomus tumor.
D. Acoustic neuroma.
The intracranial complications of cholesteatoma are all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Extradural abscess.
Petrositis.
B. Lateral sinus thrombosis.
C. Petrositis.
D. Meningitis.
The most common vertigo is:
A. Acoustic neuroma.
B. Ototoxicity. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.
C. Ménière's disease.
D. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.
A case of ear infection followed by headache, blurring of vision &
vomiting is suggestive of:
A. Mastoiditis.
Brain abscess.
B. Petrositis.
C. Labyrinthitis.
D. Brain abscess.
The commonest organism in malignant otitis externa:
A. Streptococci.
B. Pneumococci. Pseudomonas aeroginosa.
C. Pseudomonas aeroginosa.
D. Moraxella catarrhalis.
The medial wall of the middle ear shows the following EXCEPT:
A. The oval window.
B. The promontory. The pyramid.
C. The pyramid.
D. The lateral semicircular canal.
Mixed hearing loss may be caused by one of the following:
A. Otosclerosis.
B. Ménière's disease. Otosclerosis.
C. Ear wax.
D. Acoustic neuroma.
Pulsating ear discharge may be found in:
A. Extradural abscess.
B. Acute exacerbation of CSOM. All of the above.
C. Acute otitis media with small perforation.
D. All of the above.
The following are tests of hearing sensitivity EXCEPT:
A. Tuning fork tests. Tympanometry.
B. Tympanometry.

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C. Auditory Brain stem Response.
D. Pure tone audiometry.
All are true about the Eustachian tube EXCEPT:
A. It opens during swallowing.
B. It ventilates the middle ear. It opens in the oropharynx.
C. It is wider and horizontal in children.
D. It opens in the oropharynx.
The triad of ear discharge, retro-orbital pain % 6th nerve paralysis
is due to:
A. Mastoiditis.
Apical petrositis.
B. Labyrinthitis.
C. Apical petrositis.
D. Lateral sinus thrombosis.
In case of Meniere's disease with mild SNHL is treated by all the
following EXCEPT:
A. Medical treatment.
Labyrinthectomy.
B. Labyrinthectomy.
C. Endolymphatic sac decompression.
D. Vestibular nerve section.
Fluctuant SNHL usually occurs in:
A. Presbyacusis.
B. Ménière's disease. Ménière's disease.
C. Otosclerosis.
D. All of the above.
Nystagmus & vertigo induced by pressure on the tragus is a sign
of:
A. Fistula complicating cholesteatoma.
Fistula complicating cholesteatoma..
B. Benign paroxysmal vertigo.
C. Vestibular neuritis.
D. Cholesteatoma only.
Fever, headache, vomiting & neck rigidity in a patient with
cholesteatoma is an indication of:
A. Lumbar puncture.
All of the above.
B. CT scan.
C. Fundus examination.
D. All of the above.
Insertion of Grommet tube is indicated in:
A. Acute suppurative otitis media.
Secretory otitis media resistant to medical treatment.
B. Secretory otitis media resistant to medical treatment.
C. Chronic otitis media.
Acute mastoiditis is manifested by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Tenderness over mastoid antrum.
B. Continuous ear discharge. Obliteration of retro-auricular sulcus.
C. Sagging of postero-superior meatal wall.
D. Obliteration of retro-auricular sulcus.
Fever and rigor developing in a case of cholesteatoma is sugges-
tive of:
A. Cerebellar abscess.
Lateral sinus thrombosis.
B. Acute mastoiditis.
C. Lateral sinus thrombosis.
D. Labyrinthitis.
Vertigo is a case of cholesteatoma is a suggestive of:
A. Temporal lobe abscess.
B. Acute petrositis. Labyrinthine fistula.
C. Lateral sinus thrombosis.
D. Labyrinthine fistula.
Equilibrium during angular "rotational" movement is the function
of:

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A. The utricle.
B. The saccule.
The semicircular canal.
C. The cochlea.
D. The semicircular canal.
The earliest symptom in a case with cholesteatoma that indicates
intracranial complication is:
A. Persistent headache.
Persistent headache.
B. Facial palsy.
C. SNHL.
D. Squint.
Facial palsy is most commonly:
A. Neoplastic.
B. Traumatic. Bell's palsy.
C. Herpetic.
D. Bell's palsy.
Slowly progressive conductive deafness in middle aged female
with normal drum & Eustachian tube function is most probably
due to:
A. Otitis media with effusion. Otosclerosis.
B. Otosclerosis.
C. Malingering.
D. Tympanosclerosis.
Adhesive otitis media is a complication of:
A. Cholesteatoma.
B. Otitis media with effusion. Otitis media with effusion.
C. Both of them.
D. None of them.
Following ear surgery, LMNL facial palsy with intact taste sensa-
tion of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue indicates injury at the level
of:
A. The parotid gland. The stylomastoid foramen.
B. The internal auditory canal.
C. The stylomastoid foramen.
D. The tympanic segment.
Anesthesia of the face may be caused by:
A. Facial paralysis.
B. Occulomotor paralysis. Trigeminal paralysis.
C. Trigeminal paralysis.
D. All of the above.
A false +ve fistula test is due to:
A. Labyrinthine fistula with dead ear.
B. Cholesteatoma bridging an inner ear fistula. Hyper mobile footplate of the stapes.
C. Hyper mobile footplate of the stapes.
D. All of the above.
The concept that the facial nerve supplies the auricle is related to:
A. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome.
B. Jugular foramen syndrome. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome.
C. Horner's syndrome.
D. Bell's palsy.
The most common cause of otitis media with effusion is:
A. Inadequate treatment of acute otitis media.
B. Nasopharyngeal neoplasm. Inadequate treatment of acute otitis media.
C. Allergy.
D. Otitic barotraumas.
Complete LMNL facial paralysis due to acoustic neuroma may be
associated by all the following EXCEPT:
Hyperacusis.
A. Loss of lacrimation of the ipsilateral eye.
B. Loss of taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.

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C. Loss of stapedial reflex.
D. Hyperacusis.
Topognostic test is used in the assessment of facial paralysis
include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Schirmer test.
Electroneurography.
B. Stapedial reflex.
C. Electroneurography.
D. Gustatory test.
A patient with uncomplicated CSOM has:
A. Ear discharge and headache.
B. Ear discharge and dizziness. Ear discharge and hearing impairment.
C. Ear discharge and hearing impairment.
D. Ear discharge and fever.
The following drugs are ototoxic:
A. Neomycin.
B. Gramycin.
All of the above.
C. Saliclates.
D. Kanamycin.
E. All of the above.
Apnea immediately after opening the trachea is due to:
A. Rise of the blood carbon dioxide level.
B. Rise of the blood O2 level. Wash of the blood carbon dioxide level.
C. Wash of the blood carbon dioxide level.
D. None of the above.
Which is true about laryngeal carcinoma:
A. Commoner in males.
B. The commonest type is squamous cell carcinoma. All of the above.
C. Is predisposed by smoking.
D. All of the above.
Inhaled smooth small FB is commonly arrested in:
A. The larynx.
B. The trachea. The right bronchus.
C. The right bronchus.
D. The left bronchus.
30 years old female suffring form bilateral nasal obstruction,
crusty nose, hoarseness of voice & stridor. The most probable
cause is:
A. Allergic rhinitis. Rhino laryngo scleroma.
B. Vasomotor rhinitis.
C. Rhino laryngo scleroma.
D. Acute rhinosinusitis.
The left recurrent laryngeal nerve swing in the chest around:
A. Aortic arch.
B. Left main bronchus. Aortic arch.
C. Left ventricle.
D. Thoracic duct.
The commonest cause of breathing difficulty after tracheostomy
is:
A. Pneumonia.
Obstruction of the tube by secretion.
B. Obstruction of the tube by secretion.
C. Surgical emphysema.
D. Pneumothorax.
Laryngeal lesions are investigated by:
A. CT.
B. MRI. All of the above.
C. Endoscopy and biopsy.
D. All of the above.

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Singer's nodules:
A. Localized epithelial hyperkeratosis on the free edge of the vocal
cord. Localized epithelial hyperkeratosis on the free edge of the vocal
B. Premalignant nodules. cord.
C. Chronic infectious granuloma.
D. Allergic nodules.
The site of singer's nodules is:
A. At the epiglottis.
B. At the junction of the anterior 1/3 with posterior 2/3 of the vocal At the junction of the anterior 1/3 with posterior 2/3 of the vocal
cords. cords.
C. At the arytenoids.
D. None of the above.
Leucoplakia of the larynx is:
A. Epithelial hyperplasia.
B. Epithelial hypertrophy. Epithelial hyperplasia.
C. Epithelial degeneration.
D. None of the above.
The causative agent of acute laryngo-tracheal bronchitis is:
A. Pneumococci.
B. Staphylococci. Streptococcus haemolyticus.
C. Streptococcus haemolyticus.
D. None of the above.
TB of the larynx affects:
A. The posterior part.
B. The middle part. The posterior part.
C. The anterior part.
D. The subglottic part.
Scleroma of the larynx affects:
A. The posterior part.
B. The middle part. The subglottic part.
C. The anterior part.
D. The subglottic part.
Syphilis of the larynx affects:
A. The posterior part.
B. The middle part. The anterior part.
C. The anterior part.
D. The subglottic part.
Painful cough & dysphagia occur in:
A. Syphilis of larynx.
B. Scleroma of the larynx. TB of the larynx.
C. TB of the larynx.
D. Lupus of the larynx.
Single laryngeal papilloma is:
A. Locally malignant lesion.
B. Malignant lesion. Precancerous.
C. Precancerous.
D. None of the above.
Single laryngeal papilloma occurs in:
A. Adults.
B. Children. Adults.
C. Both of them.
D. None of the above.
Multiple laryngeal papilloma occurs in:
A. Adults.
B. Children. Children.
C. Both of them.
D. None of the above.

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The following conditions cause stridor EXCEPT:
A. Laryngeal diphtheria.
B. Acute laryngitis in adult. Acute laryngitis in adult.
C. Acute laryngitis in children.
D. Multiple laryngeal papilloma.
The following conditions cause stridor EXCEPT:
A. Acute epiglottitis.
B. Bilateral abductor paralysis. Bilateral adductor paralysis.
C. Bilateral adductor paralysis.
D. Laryngoscleroma.
A newborn with cyanosis and respiratory difficulty improved by
insertion of an oral airway. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Laryngomalacia.
Congenital bilateral choanal atresia.
B. Congenital laryngeal web.
C. Congenital subglottic stenosis.
D. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia.
The narrowest part in the infantile larynx is:
A. The supraglottic area.
B. The subglottic area. The subglottic area.
C. The pyriform fossa.
D. None of the above.
Cyclic asphyxia is a manifestation of:
A. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia.
B. Laryngeal web. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia.
C. Acute laryngitis.
D. None of the above.
Surgical emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to:
A. When small tube is used and a wide opening made in the
trachea.
When small tube is used and a wide opening made in the trachea.
B. Injury of the pleura.
C. None of them.
D. Both of them.
Surgical emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to:
A. When the skin is not closed tightly.
B. Injury of the pleura. When the skin is not closed tightly.
C. None of them.
D. Both of them.
Mediastinal emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to:
A. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly.
B. Injury of the pleura. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly.
C. None of them.
D. Both of them.
Pneumothorax after trachestomy occurs due to:
A. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly.
B. Injury of the pleura. Injury of the pleura.
C. None of them.
D. Both of them.
The following drug is contraindicated after tracheostomy:
A. Expectorants.
B. Analgesics. Opiates.
C. Opiates.
D. None of them.
The best position after trachestomy:
A. Supine.
B. Semi-sitting. Semi-sitting.
C. Standing.
D. On one side.

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Dyspnea, crepitation and expectoration of large amount of frothy
stained sputum after trachestomy is suspected of:
A. Pneumothorax.
Acute pulmonary edema.
B. Acute pulmonary edema.
C. Mediastinal emphysema.
D. None of them.
The tube may slip due to:
A. Small sized tube.
B. Pulled out by voilent cough. All of the above.
C. Loosely tied tape.
D. All of the above.
Valvular obstructive emphysema occurs due to:
A. Partial obstruction of the bronchus.
B. Complete obstruction of the bronchus. Partial obstruction of the bronchus.
C. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly.
D. Injury of the pleura.
Ulceration of the vocal cord edge (mouth nibbled) occurs in:
A. TB.
B. Scleroma. TB.
C. Syphilis.
D. Sarcoidosis.
Structures in the larynx responsible for sphincteric function:
A. Vocal cords.
B. Ventricular bands. All of the above.
C. Aryoepiglottic folds.
D. All of the above.
Laryngeal stenosis may be due to:
A. Scleroma.
B. TB. All of the above.
C. High tracheostomy.
D. All of the above.
Laryngeal stenosis may be due to:
A. Scleroma.
B. Congenital. All of the above.
C. Traumatic.
D. All of the above.
Laryngeal stenosis may be due to:
A. Perichondritis.
B. Endotracheal intubation. All of the above.
C. Syphilis.
D. All of the above.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.

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