F.Sc.

Physics (2nd Year) Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter # 12: Electrostatics

Chapter # 13: Current Electricity
Chapter # 14: Electromagnetism
Chapter # 15: Electromagnetic Induction
Chapter # 16: Alternating Current
Chapter # 17: Physics of Solids
Chapter # 18: Electronics
Chapter # 19: Dawn of Modern Physics
Chapter # 20: Atomic Spectra
Chapter # 21: Nuclear Physics
 CHAPTER # 12: ELECTROSTATICS

1. Coulomb’s law is only applicable for 8. The electric field created by positive
a) Big charges charge is:
b) Small charges a) Radially outward
c) Point charges b) Zero
d) Any charges c) Circular
d) Radially inward
2. The force exerted by two charged
bodies on one another, obeys 9. The value of relative permitivity for all the
Coulomb’s law provided that dielectrics is always:
a) The charges are not too small a) Less than unity
b) The charges are in vacuum b) Greater than unity
c) The charges are not too large c) Equal to unity
d) The linear dimension of charges is d) Zero
much smaller than distance
between them 10. Photo-copier and inkjet printers are
the applications of:
3. The constant K in Coulomb’s Law a) Electronics
depends upon b) Magnetism
a) Nature of medium c) Electrostatics
b) System of units d) Thermodynamics
c) Intensity of charge
d) Both a & b 11. Selenium is a conductor material
when exposed to
4. A unit if elelctric charge is: a) Light
a) Volt b) Dark
b) Henry c) Mono chromatic light
c) Coulomb d) None of these
d) Weber
12. Selenium is an
5. Presence of dielectric always: a) Insulator
a) Increases the electrostatic force b) Conductor
b) Decreases the electrostatic force c) Semiconductor
c) Does not effect the electrostatic force d) Photoconductor
d) Doubles the electrostatic force
13. In an inkjet printer, the charged ink
6. The S.I unit of permitivity is: drops are diverted by the deflection
a) 𝑁𝑚2 plates
2 /𝐶2
b) 𝐶
/𝑁𝑚 2 a) Towards the charging electrodes
c) 𝑁𝑚 / b) Towards the gutter
𝑁𝑚2 𝐶2 c) Towards a blank paper on which the
print is to be taken
d) In inkjet printer ink cannot be charged
d) /𝐶
7. The lines which provide information
about the electric force exerted on charged 14. The electric field produced due to
particles are: negative charge is always:
a) Magnetic field lines a) Radially outward
b) Electric field lines b) Radially inward
c) Tangent lines c) Circular
d) Curved lines d) Zero
15. The force experience by a unit positive 22. Electric flux is defined as:
charge placed at a point in an electric a) 𝜙 = 𝐀. 𝐁
field is called: b) 𝜙 = 𝐄 × 𝐀
a) Coulomb’s force
c) 𝜙 = 𝐄.𝐄 𝐀
b) Faraday’s force d) 𝜙 =
c) Lorentz’s force
d) Electric field intensity 𝐀
23. When vector area is held perpendicular to
16. Of the following quantities, the one that the field lines, then the magnitude of
is vector in character is an electric flux is:
a) Negative
a) Electric Charge b) Maximum
b) Electric Field Intensity c) Minimum
c) Electric Energy d) Zero
d) Electric Potential Difference
24. When vector area is held parallel to
17. Electric field intensity is also known as electric field lines, the the magnitude
a) Electric potential of electric flux is:
b) Electric flux a) Maximum
c) Potential gradient b) Minimum
d) None c) Either maximum or minimum
d) Negative
18. Potential gradient is defined as
a) 25. The SI unit of electric flux is:
∆𝐸
∆𝑉
∆𝐸
a) 𝑁𝑚𝐶−1
b) − b) 𝑁𝑚2𝐶−1
∆𝑉
c) ∆𝑟 c) 𝑁𝑚𝐶−2
∆𝑉∆𝑉 d) 𝑁𝑚2 −2
d) − 𝐶
26. The magnitude of the electric field inside
∆𝑟 oppositely charged plates, having
19. The SI unit of E are: uniform
a) (𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛 surface charge density 𝜎, is:
(𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛/𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟)
b) 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏/) a) (𝜎/𝜀0)
b) (𝑞𝜎
𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛/ 2𝜀 )
c) ( /𝜀 0𝑟)
c) ( 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒) / 0
d) (𝑛𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛 × 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟) d) (𝜎/ 2𝜀0
𝑟)
20. The electric intensity is expressed in 27. The electric intensity near an infinite
unit of N/C or plate𝑞of positive charge will be:
a) ( 𝜀 )
/0
a) Volts b) (𝜎/2𝜀 )
b) Walt
c) Joules 0
𝑞
d) V/m c) ( /𝐴)
d) (𝜎/𝜀0)
21. The unit 𝑉𝑚−1 is equivalent to:
28. If a charged body is moved agaist the
a) 𝑁𝐶−1 electric field, it will gain:
b) 𝑁 𝐶 a) Potential energy
c) 𝑁𝐶 𝑚−1 b) Kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) None of these
d) 𝑁𝑚𝐶−1
29. One volt is 37. The equation for the stokes law is
a) One joule per coulomb a) 6𝜋𝜂𝑟
b) One dyne per coulomb b) 6𝑟𝑣
c) One Newton per coulomb c) 6𝑟𝑣
d) One watt per second
d) 8𝑟𝑣
30. Absolute potential difference, due of 38. The charge determined by the Millikan’s
point charge of 1C at a distance of 1m is experiment
given by: 6 qvdis
a) q 
a) 9 × 10 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
b) 9 × 107 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠 m
c) 9 × 108 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠 qvd
b) q 
d) 9 × 109 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠 g

31. A charge of 0.01 C accelerated through a mgd

c) g 
p.d of 1000 V acquires K.E
v
a) 10 J d) None
b) 100 J
c) 200 J 39. Capacitors may be considered as a
d) 400 eV device for
32. 1 joule = a) Storing energy
b) Increasing resistance
a) 6.25 × 1018 𝑒𝑉
c) Decreasing resistance
b) 6.25 × 10−18 𝑒𝑉 d) None
c) 1.6 × 10−19 𝑒𝑉
40. The medium used b/w the plates
d) 9.1 × 10−31 𝑒𝑉 of capacitor is called
33. One electron volt is equal to
a) 6.25 × 1018 𝐽 a) Polarization
b) 6.25 × 10−18 𝐽 b) Dielectric
c) 1.6 × 10−19 c) Insulators
d) Medium
d) 9.1 × 10−31 𝐽
34. How many electron will have a charge of 41. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon
one coulomb? a) Size of plate
a) 6.2 × 1018 b) Distance b/w plates
b) 6.2 × 1019 c) Nature of dielectric b/w plates
c) 5.2 × 1018 d) All of above
d) 5.2 × 1019 42. Farad is defined as:
35. Gravitational force between two a) 𝐶
𝑉
objects does not depends on: b) 𝐴

a) Force 𝑉
𝐶
b) Masses c)
𝐽
c) Distance d) 𝐽
d) Medium
𝐶
36. The charge on the electron was 43. The capacitance of a parallel plate
calculated by capacitor is given by:
𝐴
a) Faraday a) 𝐶 =
b) J.J. Thomson 𝜀0 𝑑
𝐴𝜀 0
b) 𝐶 =
c) Millikan 𝜀0𝑑𝑑
d) Einstein c) 𝐶 =
𝑑𝐴
d) 𝐶 =
𝜀0 𝐴
44. The expression of energy stored in 47. The ratio of Cvac and Cmed is equal to
a capacitor is given by:
a) 𝐸 = 𝐶𝑉2 a) 𝜀 𝑟
b) 1
1 𝜀𝑟
b) 𝐸 = 𝐶𝑉2 c) 𝜀0
2
c) 𝐸 =
1 2 d) 1
2𝐶 𝑉 𝜀
1
d) 𝐸 = 2(𝐶𝑉)2 0
45. Unit of energy density of electric field is:
a) J C−1 48. During charging of a capacitor, the ratio
of instantaneous charge and maximum
b) J V−1 charge on plates of capacitors at t = RC is
c) J m−3
d) J F−3 a) 36.8%
46. The term “RC” has same unit as that of: b) 63.2%
a) Potential c) 20%
b) Capacitance d) 30%
c) Energy
d) Time

Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.

1 c 17 c 33 c
2 d 18 d 34 a
3 d 19 b 35 d
4 c 20 d 36 c
5 b 21 a 37 b
6 b 22 c 38 c
7 b 23 d 39 a
8 a 24 a 40 b
9 b 25 b 41 d
10 c 26 a 42 a
11 a 27 b 43 b
12 d 28 a 44 b
13 b 29 a 45 c
14 b 30 d 46 d
15 d 31 a 47 b
16 b 32 a 48 b
 CHAPTER # 13: CURRENT ELECTRICITY
8. The heat produced by passage of current

a) 𝐻 = 𝐼2𝑅𝑡
through resistor is:

b) 𝐻 = 𝐼𝑅𝐼2 𝑡
1. One coulomb per second is equal to

c) 𝐻 =
a) Joule 2

b) Volt
𝑅𝑡
𝐼
d) 𝐻 =
c) Ampere
d) Walt
𝑅𝑡
2. In the metallic conductor the current is due 9. Current can be measured by using:
to flow of charge a) Heating effect
a) Positive b) Magnetic effect
b) Negative c) Chemical effect
c) Proton d) None of these
d) None
10. In liquids and gases, the current is due to
3. Conventional current flow from the motion of :
a) Point of higher potential to point of a) Negative charges
lower potential b) Positive charges
b) Point of lower potential to point of c) Neutral particles
higher potential d) Both negative and positive charges
c) Point of lower potential to point of
lower potential 11. When electricity passes through the liquid,
d) None then process is called:
a) Electro late
4. In the thermocouple the heat energy is b) Electrolysis
converted into c) Electro-conductor
a) Mechanical energy d) None
b) Electric energy
c) Magnetic energy 12. Magnetic effect of current is utilized in
d) None a) Iron
b) Thermocouple
5. The heating effect of current utilized in c) Measurement of current
a) Iron d) None
b) Tube light
c) Fan 13. The VI-graph of Ohm’s law is:
d) Motor a) Hyperbola
b) Ellipse
6. Through an electrolyte, electric current is c) Parabola
passed due to drift of d) Straight
a) Free electrons
b) Positive and negative ions 14. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is
c) Free electrons and holes a) I = VR
d) Protons b) I = V/R
7. Joule law can be expressed as c) I = R/V
a) 𝐻 = 𝐼2𝑅𝑡
d) R = IV

b) 𝐻 = 𝐼𝑅
𝐼2 𝑡
c) 𝐻 =
2
15. Ohm’s law is valid for only current
𝑅𝑡
𝐼
d) 𝐻 =
flowing in
a) Conductors
b) Transistors
𝑅𝑡 c) Diodes
d) Electric Areas
16. The proportionality constant between 24. Thermistor can be used for the accurate
a) 𝜌
current and potential difference is: measurement of
b) 𝑅
a) Voltage
c) 𝐶
b) Resistance

𝑉 is defined as:
c) Temperature
d) Heat
17. d)
1 ohm
𝑉
a)
𝐶
25. The maximum power delivered by battery
𝑉
is:
a) 𝑃𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝐸
𝐴
b)
2
𝐶

𝑉 b) 𝑃𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 4𝑟𝐸2
c) 4𝑟

c) 𝑃𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑉𝐼𝑇
𝑉
d)
𝐴
18. In series circuit the net resistance is d) 𝑈𝑛𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑑
a) Algebraic Sum of all resistance 26. If the length and diameter of conductor is
b) Sum of reciprocals of all resistances in double, the resistance is
circuit a) Remain same
c) Remain constant b) Double
d) None c) Half
d) Four times
19. The reciprocal of resistivity is called
a) Resistance 27. A wire of uniform cross-section A and
b) Conduction length L is cut into two equal parts. The
c) Conductivity resistance of each part becomes:
d) None a) Double
b) Half
20. The unit of conductivity is c) 4 times
a) Ω. m d) ¼ times
b) (Ω.m)-1
c) Ω.m-1 28. The fractional change in resistivity per
d) None Kelvin
a) Co-efficient in resistance
21. A wire of resistance R is cut into two b) Co-efficient of resistivity
equal parts, its resistance becomes R/2. c) Resistance
What happens to resistivity? d) None
a) Double
b) Same 29. In the carbon resistor their value can be
c) Half find by their
d) One forth a) Wires
b) Terminals
22. When temperature increases, the c) Color Bands
resistance of conductor: d) Spots
a) Increases
30. The third band is written in the form of
b) Decreases
power of
c) Remains constant
a) 2
d) Vanishes
b) 6
c) 8
23. Heat sensitive resistors are called
d) 10
a) Resistors
b) Capacitors 31. The numerical value of black color is:
c) Thermisters a) 3
d) Inductors b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
32. The color code for the color Grey is 40. Which electric bulb has the least
a) 7 resistance?
b) 8 a) 60 watts
c) 9 b) 100 watts
d) 5 c) 200 watts
33. The colors of strips on a certain carbon d) 500 watts
resistor from extreme left are yellow,
black and red respectively. Its resistance 41. An electric heater 220V, 440W has a
is:
a) 4 𝑘Ω
resistance
a) 2 Ω
b)
c) 400
40 ΩΩ b) 110 Ω

d) 40 𝑘Ω
c) 0.5 Ω
d) 20 Ω
34. If the tolerance color is gold then it value 42. Kirchhoff’s first rule is:

a) ∑ 𝑉 = 0
is

b) ∑ 𝑅 = 0
a) ± 2%

c) ∑ 𝐼 = 0
b) ± 4%

d) ∑ 𝑇 = 0
c) ± 5%
d) ± 6%
43. Kirchhoff’s first rule is based on
35. Tolerance for silver band is: conservation of:
a) ±5% a) Energy
b) ±10% b) Voltage
c) ±15% c) Charge
d) ±20% d) Mass
44. The algebraic sum of all the current at
36. A rheostat can be used as a junction is zero, is Kirchhoff’s
a) Variable resistor a) 1st law
b) Potential divider b) 2nd law
c) Both a and b c) 3rd law
d) None of these d) 4th law
45. The algebraic sum of voltages changes
37. The wire used in Rheostat is made from around a closed circuit or loop is zero, is
a) Constantan Kirchhoff’s
b) Nichrome a) 1st law
c) Manganin b) 2nd law
d) Tungston c) 3rd law
d) 4th law

38. The S.I unit of emf is same as: 46. An ideal voltmeter would have an infinite
a) Work a) Current
b) Energy b) Voltage
c) Power c) Resistance
d) Potential Difference d) None of these

39. The terminal potential difference of a 47. The emf of two cells can be compared by
battery of internal resistance “r” and emf a) AVO meter

a) 𝑉 = 𝜀 + 𝐼𝑟
“𝜀” is: b) Voltmeter

b) 𝑉 = 𝜀𝜀−𝑟− 𝐼𝑟
c) Potentiometer
c) 𝑉 =
d) Galvanometer
𝐼𝐼
d) 𝑉 =
𝜀−𝑟
 48. An accurate measurement of emf of a cell
is made by
a) A voltmeter
b) An ammeter
c) A potentiometer
d) All of them
𝜀1
/𝜀 , is equal
𝑙
49. The
to ratio of emf of two cells
a) 1/𝑙
2

b) 1 ∶ 22
𝑙
c) 2/𝑙

d) 2 ∶ 1
1

Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans

1 c 18 a 35 b
2 b 19 c 36 c
3 a 20 b 37 c
4 b 21 b 38 d
5 a 22 a 39 b
6 b 23 c 40 d
7 a 24 c 41 b
8 a 25 a 42 c
9 b 26 c 43 c
10 d 27 b 44 a
11 b 28 b 45 b
12 c 29 c 46 c
13 d 30 d 47 c
14 b 31 d 48 c
15 a 32 c 49 a
16 b 33 d
17 d 34 c
CHAPTER # 14. ELECTROMAGNETISM

8. When a small resistance is connected

1. The units of magnetic field B, in system parallel to the galvanometer, the
international is: resulting circuit behaves as:
a) Weber a) Voltmeter
b) Tesla b) Wheatstone bridge
c) Gauss c) Ammeter
d) Newton d) Potentiometer
2. One tesla (T) is: 9. The anode in the CRO is:
a) 1𝑇 = 1𝑁 𝐴 𝑚−1 a) Control number of electrons
b) 1𝑇 = 1𝑁 𝐴−1 𝑚−1 b) Control the brightness of
c) 1𝑇 = 1𝑁 𝐴 𝑚 spot formed
d) 1𝑇 = 1𝑁 𝑚 𝐴−1 c) Accelerates and focus the beam
d) At negative potential with respect to
3. The magnetic flux “∅” through an area cathode
“A” is:
10. The galvanometer constant in a moving
a) ∅ = 𝐁 × 𝐀
coil galvanometer is given by:
b) ∅ = 𝐁. 𝐀 𝑁𝐵
a) 𝐾 =
c) ∅ = 𝐀 × 𝐁 𝐶𝐴
𝐶
d) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑒 b) 𝐾 =
𝑁𝐴𝐵
𝑁𝐴𝐵
4. One Tesla is also equal to c) 𝐾 =
𝐶
𝐶𝐴
a) wb.m2-2 d) 𝐾 =
b) wb.m 𝑁𝐵
c) wb.m 11. ∑𝑁 𝐁. 𝚫𝐋 = 𝜇0𝐼 is the relation for:
𝑟=1

d) None a) Milikan’s law

b) Gauss’s law
5. Torque on a current carrying coil is: c) Ampere’s aw
a) 𝐵𝐼𝑁𝐴 cos 𝛼 d) Lenz’s law
b) 𝐵𝐼𝑁𝐴 sin 𝛼
c) 𝐵𝐼𝐿 cos 𝛼 12. The brightness of spot on CRO screen
d) 𝐵𝐼𝐿 sin 𝛼 is controlled by:
a) Anodes
6. The magnetic force is simply a: b) Cathodes
a) Reflecting force c) Grid
b) Deflecting force d) Plates
c) Restoring force
d) Gravitational force 13. To measure the current in a circuit,
ammeter is always connected in:
7. The galvanometer can be made a) Parallel
𝐶 b) Series
sensitive if the value of the factor is:
𝐵𝑁𝐴 c) Sometimes parallel sometimes series
a) Made large d) Neither series nor parallel
b) Made small
c) Remains constant
14. If the angle b/w v and B is zero then
d) Infinite
magnetic force will be
a) Max
b) Min
c) Zero
d) None
 22. To convert a Weston-type
15. A charged particles is projected at an galvanometer into voltmeter, the series
angle into a uniform magnetic field. resistance is given by
Which of the following parameter of the a) 𝑉
charged particle will be affected by 𝑅𝑕 = 𝑉𝐼𝑔
magnetic field: = −𝑅
b) 𝑅
a)
b) Energy
Momentum
𝑕 𝑉
𝐼𝑔 𝑔
c) 𝑅 = −𝐼
𝑕 𝑅𝑔 𝑔
c) Speed d) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑒
d) Velocity
23. The shape of magnetic field around
a long straight current carrying wire
16. Force on a moving charge in a uniform
is
magnetic field will be maximum,
a) Electrical
when angle between v and B is:
b) Squire
a) 0°
c) Varies with current
b) 30° d) Circular
c) 60°
d) 90° 24. The electrons of mass “m” and charge
“e” is moving in a circle of radius “r”
17. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is with speed “v” in a uniform magnetic
a) Tesla field of strength “B”. then
b) Weber a) 𝑟 ∝ 𝑚
c) Joule b) 𝑟 ∝ 𝐵
1
d) Newton c) 𝑟 ∝
𝑣
1
d) 𝑟 ∝
18. Beam of electrons are also called: 𝑚
a) Positive rays 25. The toque in the coil can be
b) x-rays increased by increasing
c) cathode rays a) Number of turns
d) cosmic rays b) Current and magnetic field
c) Area of coil
19. Tesla is the unit of d) All of above
a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field 26. A current carrying loop, when placed in
c) Magnetic field intensity a uniform magnetic field will experience
d) Electric field intensity a) Electric flux
b) Torque
20. It is possible to set a charge at rest c) Magnetic flux
into motion with magnetic field d) Force
a) Yes
b) No 27. The magnetic flux will be maximum
c) Some Time if the angle between magnetic field
d) None strength and vector area is:
a) 0o
21. The grid in CRO b) 60o
a) Controls the number of c) 90o
electrons accelerated by anode d) 180o
b) Controls the brightness of the
spot fall on the screen 28. One weber is equal to
c) Both a and b a) N.A2/A
d) Deflects the beam of electrons b) N.m2/A
c) N.A/m
d) N.m/A
 36. In the galvanometer the current
29. The waveform of sinusoidal voltage, is proportional to
its frequency and phase can be found a) Magnetic field
by b) Electric field
a) CRO c) Angle
b) Diode d) None
c) Transistor
d) Radio 37. When a small resistance is connected
in parallel to the galvanometer it is
30. The force on a charge particle called
moving parallel to magnetic field is a) Ammeter
a) Maximum b) Voltmeter
b) Minimum c) AVO meter
c) Zero d) None
d) None
38. The relation between current “𝐼” and
31. The unit of permeability of free space is deflection “𝜃” in a moving coil
a) T.m/A galvanometer is:
1
b) T.m2/A a) 𝐼 ∝
𝜃
c) T.m/A2
b) 𝐼 ∝ cos 𝜃
d) None
c) 𝐼 ∝ sin 𝜃
 d) 𝐼 ∝ 𝜃
32. The value of o is
a) 4  x 10-6
39. To convert a galvanometer into
voltmeter we connect a resistance
b) 4  x 10-7 in
c) 4  x 10-8 a) Series
d) 4  x 10-9
b) Parallel
c) Series or parallel
d) None
33. The magnetic induction inside
current carryin solenoid is 40. AVO-meter is used to find
o a) Current
a) nI
b) Voltage
o c) Resistance
b) NL
 d) All of above
c) oN

d) None 41. An ideal voltmeter has

a) Small resistance
34. F = Fe + Fm is b) High resistance
a) Electric force c) Infinite resistance
b) Magnetic force d) None
c) Lorentz force
d) None 42. A galvanometer can be more sensitive
if C/BAN is made
35. The material used in fluorescent a) Very large
screen is b) Very small
a) Electric c) Unaltered
b) Magnetic d) None
c) Phosphors
d) None 43. Ammeter and galvanometer
a) Are always connected in series
b) Are always connected in parallel
c) Both in series and parallel
d) None
 51. To find the shunt resistance we
44. The sensitivity of galvanometer is used equation
directly depends on
a) Magnetic field a) RS = IgRg
I  Ig
b) Area of coil
c) Number of turns IsRg
b) RS =
d) All of above I  Ig
IgRs
45. The dot product of magnetic field c) RS = R 
induction and vector area is Ig
called
d) RS IsRs
a) Electric flux = I  Ig
b) Magnetic flux
c) Ampere law
d) None
52. Ammeter is used to measure:
a) Resistance
46. When the number of turns in a solenoid b) Voltage
is doubled without any change in the c) Current
length of the solenoid its self induction d) Capacitance
will be:
a) Four times
53. An avo-meter is also called:
b) Doubled a) An ammeter
c) Halved b) A voltmeter
d) None c) A multi.meter
d) An ohm-meter
47. The wave form of sinusoidal voltage,
its frequency and phase can be found by
a) CRO
b) Diode
c) Transistor
d) Radio

48. Voltmeter is used to measure:

a) Current
b) Resistance
c) Temperature
d) Potential difference

49. The resistance of a voltmeter should

have a very high resistance
a) It does not disturb the circuit
b) It draws some current
c) It same the galvanometer coil
d) None of these

50. A voltmeter is always connected in:

a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Perpendicular
d) Straight line
 CHAPTER # 15. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

1. The induced e.m.f. is produce due to c) Vanished

a) Motion of coil d) Kept constant
b) Motion of magnet
c) The rate of change of flux
d) None
2. The direction of induced current is
always so as to oppose the change which
causes the current is called:
a) Faraday’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Ohm’s law
d) Kirchhoff’s 1st rule

3. The energy stored per unit volume inside

a solenoid is calculated by:
1 𝐵
(𝐴𝑙)
2

2𝜇0
a)
b) 1 𝐵2
2𝜇0
1 𝜇0
(𝐴𝑙)
2 𝐵2
c)
d) 𝜇0
1
2 𝐵2
4. The SI units of induced emf is
a) Ohm
b) Tesla
c) Henry
d) Volt

5. The principle of an alternating

current generator is based on:
a) Coulomb’s law
b) Ampere’s law
c) Faraday’s law
d) Lenz’s law

6. If velocity of a conductor moving

through a magnetic field B is made zero,

a) −𝑣𝐵𝐿
then motional emf is:

b) −
𝑣

𝐵𝐿
c) −
𝐵𝐿

𝑣
d) Zero

7. If we make the magnetic field

stronger, the value of induced current
is:
a) Decreased
b) Increased
8. The inductance is more in
self induction in:
a) Air cored coil
b) Iron cored coil
c) Tungsten cored coil
d) None of these
9. One henry is equal to:
a) 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚 × 1 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑
b) 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚 × 1 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟
c) 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚 × 1 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏

d) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒
10. A device which converts electrical energy
into mechanical energy is called:
a) Transformer
b) AC generator
c) DC motor
d) DC generator

11. When constant current flows in

primary of transformer, then
the emf induced across
secondary of transformer is:
a) Zero
b) Constant
c) Alternating
d) Irregular
12. 1 henry
a) 1 𝑉 𝐴 𝑠−1
b) 1 𝑉 𝑠 𝐴−1
c) 1 𝑉 𝑚 𝐴−1

d) 1 𝑉 𝐴 𝑚−1
13. A generator converts mechanical energy
into
a) Chemical energy
b) Light energy
c) Heat energy
d) Electrical energy

14. When a loop of wire is moved

across a magnetic field, the
current is produced in it is
called
a) Eddy current
b) Direct current
c) Photo electric current
d) Induced current
15. Energy stored in an inductor is:
𝐿𝐼2
1
22. If we increase the resistance of the
a) circuit containing a coil, the induced
𝐿𝐼
2
b) 1 e.m.f. will be

𝐿2𝐼2
2 a) Increase
c) 1 b) Decrease

𝐿𝐼
2
1
c) Remain same
d) d) None
2
16. If fingers of right hand show the direction
23. The self-inductance may be defined by
of magnetic field and palm shows the 
direction of force, then thumb points a) L
for: =  / t
a) Torque
b) Voltage b)   / t
c) Current L= 
d) Induced emf 
c) L=
17. Induced electric current can be  / t
explained using which law 
a) Gauss’s law d) L=
b) Faraday’s law  / t
c) Ohm’s law
d) Ampere law 24. Inductance are measured by
a) Coulombs
18. Lenz’s law is consistent with law b) Amperes
of conservation of c) Volt
a) Mass d) Henry
b) Energy
c) Charge 25. An over loaded motor draws
d) None a) Max. current
b) Min. current
19. An inductor is a circuit element that c) Half
can store energy in the form of d) None
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric flux 26. The co-efficient of mutual inductance

a) 𝜀 ( )
c) Electric field is equal∆𝐼to
𝑃

∆𝑡
d) None
b) 𝜀 ( )
∆𝑡
20. The negative sign with induced ∆𝐼𝑃

c) 𝜀∆𝐼𝑃∆𝑡
e.m.f. is due to
a) Faraday’s law d) None
b) Lenz’s law
c) Ampere law 27. Alternating current changes
d) None a) Its magnitude as well as direction
b) Only direction but not magnitude
21. The relation of motional e.m.f. , when c) Only magnitude but not direction
a conductor is move in perpendicular d) None
magnetic field, is:
a) E=BLV 28. Inductance is measured in:
b) E=qBl a) Volt
c) E=Blq b) Ampere
d) E=qVB c) Henry
d) Ohm
29. The instantaneous value of A.C. voltage is d) Energy

a) V = Vo sin 2  ft
b) V = Vo sin 2 ft
c) V = Vo sin 2  wt
d) None

30. The induced e.m.f. in A.C. generator is

a) VBL sin

b) NESN sing

c) NAB sin

d) NIAB sin

e) none

31. The back motor effect exist in the

a) Generator
b) Mater
c) A.C. Meter
d) None

32. The coil used in the generators is called

a) Commutaters
b) Slip rings
c) Armature
d) None

33. The back ward generator is called

a) Electric motor
b) A.C. generator
c) Reverse generator
d) None

34. The principle of transformer is

a) Amperes law
b) Mutual induction
c) Motional e.m.f.
d) None

35. A transformer is a device which step up

or stop down
a) Energy
b) Power
c) Voltage
d) All of above

36. An ideal transformer obeys the law

of conservation of:
a) Flux
b) Momentum
c) Emf
37. The coil which is connected
to input of a transformer is
called:
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Middle
d) None

38. In the actual transformer,

the output is always
a) Equal to input
b) Less then input
c) More than input
d) None

39. In ideal transformer when

applied potential difference is
double, the current is:
a) Doubled
b) Tripled
c) Halved
d) Same

40. For a good transformer the

hysterics loop are in size.
a) Small
b) Large
c) Zero
d) None

41. To minimize the heating

effect in the transmission
lines
a) High current, low voltage in used
b) High voltage, low current in used
c) Same voltage and current in used
d) None
42. Maximum emf generated in a generator is:
a) 𝜀 = 𝜀0 sin 𝜃
b) 𝜀 = 𝑁𝜔𝐴𝐵 sin 𝜃
c) 𝜀 = 𝑁𝜔𝐴𝐵
d) None of these

43. Induced e.m.f is

a) Directly proportional
to change in flux
b) Directly proportional to rate of change
c) of flux
d) Inversely proportional
to change of flux
e) None of these
44. Lenz’s law is in accordance with the
law of conservation of:
a) Momentum
b) Angular momentum
c) Energy
d) Charge

45. When motor is at its Max. speed the back

e.m.f will be
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Cannot tell
d) None of these

46. The application of mutual induction is a

a) Television
b) Radio
c) D.C. motor
d) Transformer

47. The ratio of average induced emf to

the rate of change of current in the coil
is called:
a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Self inductance
d) Mutual inductanc

48. Which of the following is not present

in AC generator:
a) Armature
b) Magnet
c) Slip rings
d) Commutator
 CHAPTER # 16. ALTERNATING CURRENT CIRCUITS

1. The mean value of A.C. over a

complete cycle in 9. Which of the following requires a
a) Maximum material medium for their
b) Minimum propagation:
c) Zero a) Heat waves
d) None b) X-rays
2. The inductive reactance is:
c) Sound waves
a) 𝑋𝐿 = 𝜔𝐶 d) Ultravoilot rays
b) 𝑋𝐿 = 𝐿
10. In modulation, low frequency signal
is known as:
c) 𝑋 = 1
a) Loaded signal
𝐿 𝜔𝐶
1 b) Fluctuated signal
= c) Harmonic signal
𝜔𝐿
d) 𝑋

𝐿
3. At high frequency, the current through a a) Current lags behind voltage
capacitor of AC circuit will be: b) Current leads voltage by 𝜋
a) Large c) Both are in-phase 2
b) Small
c) Infinite d) Voltage leads current by 𝜋
2
d) Zero
4. The highest value reached by the
voltage or current in one cycle is
called
a) Peak to peak value
b) Peak value
c) Instantaneous value
d) Root mean square value

5. If the motor is overloaded, then

the magnitude of “back emf”:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Constant
d) Becomes zero

6. A capacitor is perfect insulator for:

a) Alternating current
b) Direct current
c) Both a and b
d) None

7. The process combining low frequency

signal with high frequency radio wave
is called:
a) Modulation
b) Amplification
c) Demodulation
d) Resonance
8. In pure resistive AC circuit,
instantaneous value of voltage
or current:
 d) Modulation signal

11. The mutual induction between

two coils depends upon:
a) Area of the coils
b) Number of turns
c) Distance between the coils
d) All of these

12. Pure choke consumes:

a) Minimum power
b) Maximum power
c) No power
d) Average power
13. To construct a step down transformer:
a) 𝑁𝑆 < 𝑁𝑃
b) 𝑁𝑃 < 𝑁𝑆
c) 𝑁𝑆 = 𝑁𝑃

d) 𝑁𝑆 . 𝑁𝑃 = 1
14. Power dissipation in pure inductive or in
a pure capacitive circuit is:
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Maximum

15. The practical appllication of

phenominon of mutual
induction is:
a) Electrical motor
b) Transformer
c) Ac generator
d) DC generator

16. There are

types of modulations:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
17. The SI unit of impedance is: 25. If 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 10√2 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠, then
a) Henry phase voltage 𝑉 0will be:

b) Hertz a) 10 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
b) 20 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
c) Ampere
d) Ohm c) 40 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠

18. Which of the following is true for a d) 10

step down transformer: 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠

√2

a) 𝑁𝑃 > 𝑁𝑆 26. At resonance RLC series circuit shows

b) 𝑁𝑃 < 𝑁𝑆 the behavior of:
c) 𝑁𝑃 = 𝑁𝑆 a) Pure resistive circuit
b) Pure capacitive circuit
d) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒 c) Pure inductive circuit
19. If 𝐼0 isover
value the peak value of cycle
the complete AC, its
is:average d) Pure RLC circuit
a) 𝐼0
√2 27. At resonance, the value of current
b) √ 2𝐼0 in RLC series circuit is equal to:
c) √2 a) 𝑉0
𝐼
𝑅

0
b) 𝑉0𝑅
𝐼
c) 2
d) 𝑧𝑒𝑟𝑜
20. At resonance, the phase angle for RLC d) 𝑧𝑒𝑟𝑜
series resonance circuit equals: 28. At high frequency, RLC series circuit
a) 0° shows the behavior of:
b) 90° a) Pure inductive circuit
c) 180° b) Pure resistive circuit
d) 270° c) Pure capacitive circuit
21. The unit of impedance is: d) Pure RLC circuit
a) 𝑂ℎ𝑚 29. The r.m.s. value of A.C current in
b) (𝑂ℎ𝑚)−1 a) 0.707 Io
b) 0.707 Vo
c) (𝑂ℎ𝑚 − 𝑚)−1 c) 0.707 Ro
d) None
d) 𝑛𝑜 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡
22. A device that allows permits flow of DC 30. In pure resistive A.C. circuit the
through the circuit easily, is called: voltage and current are
a) Inductor a) In phase
b) Capacitor b) Voltage leads the current
c) AC generator c) Current leads the voltage
d) Transformer d) None
23. The phase difference between each 31. The waves which can also pass
pair of coils of a three phase AC through the vacuum are
generator is: a) Matter wave
a) 0° b) Mechanical wave
b) 90° c) Electromagnetic wave
c) 120° d) Transverse wave
d) 180°
32. The unit used for capacitive reactance is
24. Main reason for the world wide use a) Volt
of AC is that it can be transmitted to: b) Ampere
a) Short distances at very low cost c) Joule
b) Long distances at very high cost d) Ohm
c) Short distances at very high cost
d) Long distances at very low cost
33. Power dissipated in pure inductor is:
a) Large 42. In case of phasor diagram the
b) Small vector rotates
c) Infinite a) Clockwise
d) Zero b) Anti clockwise
e) c) Remain stationary
f) o d) None
34. If the frequency of A.C in large
the reactance of capacitor is 43. The combine opposition of
a) Large resistor, capacitor and inductor is
b) Small called
c) Zero a) Reactance
d) None b) Resistor
c) Impedance
35. In case of capacitor, the voltage d) None
lag behind the current by
a) 90o 44. The S.I unit of impedance is called
b) 60o a) Joule
c) 30o b) Weber
d) 180o c) Ampere
36. In the pure inductor the resistance is d) Ohm
a) Zero
b) Maximum 45. When A.C. flow through RC
c) Minimum series circuit the magnitude of
d) None voltage is
a) 𝑉 = 𝐼√𝑅2 + 𝑋2 𝐿
37. In
a) pure
Leadinductive circuit
the current theo voltage
by 90 b) 𝑉 = 𝐼√𝑅2 + 𝑋2 𝐶

b) Ledge the current by 90o a) Increases

c) Remain same with current b) Decreases
d) None c) Remain same

38. The reactance of inductor is

represented by
a) Xc
b) XL
c) RL
d) None

39. If the frequency of A.C. is doubled,

the reactance of inductor will be
a) Half
b) Same
c) Double
d) Triple

40. The average power dissipated in a

pure inductor is
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) None

41. By increasing the frequency of A.C.

through an inductor the reactance
will be
 c) 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
d) None

46. The magnitude of voltage in

case of RL – series circuit
a) 𝑉 = 𝐼√𝑅2 + 𝑋2 𝐿
b) 𝑉 = 𝐼√𝑅2 + 𝑋2
𝐶
c) 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
d) None

47. The average power in case

of A.C. series circuit is
a) 𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼
b) 𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼 cos

c) 𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼 𝑠𝑖𝑛

d) None

48. In equation P = VI cos  , the factor

cos
 is called
a) Cosine factor
b) Power factor
c) Phase
d) None

49. The behavior of resistance is frequency

a) Dependent
b) Independent
c) No, response
d) None of these
50. The impedance Z can be expressed as:
b) Frequency Metal
a) 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 + 𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 c) Frequency Member
b) 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 − 𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠
c) 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠/
𝑟𝑚𝑠
�
𝐼
d) 𝑟𝑚𝑠 / �
�
�𝑟𝑚𝑠
51. At resonance frequency the power factor
is
a) One
b) Zero
c) Two
d) Three

52. The frequency at which XL is equal to

XC in called
a) Resonance frequency
b) Threshold frequency
c) Non-frequency
d) None

53. At resonance frequency the

impedance of A.C series circuit is
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Can not explain by give data
d) None
54. In parallel RLC circuit , at
resonance frequency, there will be
maximum
a) Power
b) Voltage
c) Impedance
d) None

55. The electrical oscillators are used in

a) Metal detectors
b) Amplifier
c) Diode
d) None

56. Which of the following permits

direct current to flow easily?
a) Resistance
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance
d) None of these

57. A.M stands for

a) Amplitude Modulation
b) Applied Metal
c) Accurate Measurement
d) None

58. F.M stands for

a) Frequency Modulation
 d) None of these
59. The process of combing the
low frequency signal with
high frequency radio-wave is
called
a) Modulation
b) Amplification
c) Rectification
d) None

60. A capacitor is perfect insulator for:

a) Alternating current
b) Direct current
c) Both a and b
d) None

61. During each cycle A.C voltage

reaches its peak value
a) One time
b) Two times
c) Four times
d) None of these

62. In modulation, high

frequency radio wave is
called:
a) Fluctuated wave
b) Carrier wave
c) Matter wave
d) Energetic wave

63. At high frequency the

reactance of the capacitor is
a) Low
b) Large
c) Very large
d) None of these

64. The behavior of resistance is frequency

a) Dependent
b) Independent
c) No response
d) None of these

65. In an inductor the phase

difference between the
current and voltage is
a) Current lags voltage by 90o
b) Voltage lags current by 180o
c) Current leads voltage by 90o
d) None of these

66. The condition of resonance

reached when
a) XC > XL
b) XL < XC
c) XL = XC
67. The phase difference between coils 69. How many times per second will an
of three phase A.C is incandescent lamp reach maximum
a) 60o brilliance when connected to a 50Hz
b) 45o source?
c) 90o a) 50 times
d) 120o b) 100 times
c) 200 times
68. Modulation is the process in which d) None of these
a) Amplitude is change
b) Frequency is change 70. The peak value of sinusoidal voltage
c) Both a & b in an AC circuit is 50V. The rms value
d) None of these of voltage is roughly equal to

a) 70V
b) 40V
c) 35V
d) 45V

71. In RLC series AC circuit, when XL = XC

then impedance is
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) None
 CHAPTER # 17. PHYSICS OF SOLIDS
8. Substances which break just after the elastic
1. What is the S.I unit of modules of elasticity limit is reached are called:
of substances? a) Ductile substances
a) Nm-2 b) Hard substances
b) Jm-2 c) Soft substances
c) Nm-1 d) Brittle substances
d) Being number, it has no unit
9. Cure temperature for iron is:
2. The bands in atom containing conductive a) 0 ℃
electrons, according to “band theory of b) 570 ℃
solids” is c) 750 ℃
a) Conduction band d) 1025 ℃
b) Valance band
c) Forbidden band 10. The SI unit of stress is same as that of:
d) None of these a) Momentum
b) Pressure
3. The substances which have partially c) Force
filled conduction bands are called: d) Length
a) Insulators
b) Semi-conductors 11. Which of the following has least energy gap?
c) Conductors a) Conductors
d) Super conductors b) Insulators
c) Semi-conductors
4. What type of impurity is to be added to d) None of these
the semi-condutor material to provide
holes: 12. A magnetism produced by electrons within
a) Monovalent an atom is due to:
b) Trivalent a) Spin motion of electrons
c) Tetravalent b) Orbital motion of electrons
d) Pentavalent c) Both Spin and orbital motion of electrons
d) Vibratory motion of electrons
5. Which of the following is an example
of ductile substances: 13. If the conductivity of a material is high, then
a) Lead it is:
b) Copper a) An insulator
c) Glass b) A semi-conductor
d) Lead and copper c) A good conductor
d) A super condutor
6. When a stress changes the shape of a body,
it is called: 14. A substance having empty conduction band
a) Volumetric stress is called:
b) Shear stress a) Semi-conductor
c) Tensile stress b) Conductor
d) Compressional strees c) Insulator
d) None of these
7. The ration of applied stress to
volumetric strain is called: 15. The stress that produces change in length
a) Young’s modulus is known as:
b) Shear modulus a) Tensile stress
c) Bulk modulus b) Shear stress
d) Tensile modulus c) Volumetic stress
d) Longitudenal stress
16. What are the dimensions of stress?
a) MLT-2 24. The energy band occupied by the
b) ML-2T-1 valence electrons is called
c) ML-1T-2 a) Energy state
d) MLoT-1 b) Valence band
c) –ve energy state
17. Which one of the following physical d) Conduction band
quantities does not have the dimensions of
force per unit? 25. the substances having negative
a) Stress temperature coefficient of resistance is
b) Strains called:
c) Young’s modulus a) Conductors
d) Pressure b) Insulators
c) Semi-conductor
18. Germanium is: d) None of these
a) semi-conductor
b) conductor 26. The Curie temperature is that at which
c) insulator a) Semi conductor becomes conductors
d) none of these b) Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic
c) Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic
19. unit of strain is: d) Metal becomes super conductor
𝑁
a)
𝑚2
b) 𝑁 27. Materials in which valence electrons are
𝑚 tightly bound to their atoms at low
c) 𝑁 𝑚 temperature are called
d) 𝑛𝑜 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 a) Semi conductors
b) Super conductors
20. At curie temperature, iron becomes: c) Insulators
a) Ferromagnet d) Conductors
b) Diamagnet
c) Paramagnet 28. The band theory of solids
d) Super-conductor explains satisfactorily the nature of
21. Materials that undergo plastic a) Electrical insulators alone
deformation before breaking are called b) Electrical conductors alone
a) Brittle c) Electrical semi conductors alone
b) Ductile d) All of the above
c) Amorphous
d) Polymers 29. A vacant or partially filled band is called

22. Formation of large molecule by a) Conduction band

joining small molecules is b) Valence band
a) Fusion c) Forbidden band
b) Polymerization d) Empty band
c) Crystallization
d) Subtraction 30. A completely filled or partially filled band
is called
23. Any alteration produced in shapes, length a) Conduction band
or volume when a body is subjected to b) Valence band
some external force is called c) Forbidden band
a) Stiffness d) Core band
b) Ductility
c) extension
d) deformation
31. Which one has the greatest energy gap 39. The temperature at which conductors lose
its resistivity is called
a) Semi-conductors a) Supper temperature
b) Conductors b) Kelvin temperature
c) Metals c) Critical temperature
d) Non-metals d) None
32. With increase in temperature, the 40. The magnetic domains are the small regions
electrical conductivity of intrinsic semi of the order of
conductors a) Millimeter
b) Micrometer
a) Decreases c) Micron
b) Increases d) None of these
c) Remain the same
d) First increases, then decreases 41. N-type semi-conductor is obtained by doping
intrinsic semi-conductors with
33. Holes can exists in a) Tetravalent impurity atom
a) Conductors b) Trivalent impurity atom
b) Insulators c) Pentavalent impurity atom
c) Semi conductors d) Hexavalent impurity atom
d) All of the above
42. The first supper conductor was discovered by
34. In a semi conductors, the charge a) Fermi
carriers are b) Kmaerling
a) Holes only c) Weinberg
b) Electrons only d) None
c) Electrons and holes both
d) All of the above 43. Examples of brittle substances are
a) Glass
35. The net charge on N-type material is b) Copper
c) Lead
a) Positive d) None
b) Negative
c) Both a & b 44. Example of crystalline solids are also
d) Neutral a) Metals
b) Ionic compounds
36. The most stable material for c) Ceramics
making permanent magnet is: d) All of them
a) Iron
b) Steel 45. a semi-conductor will behave as
c) Aluminum insulator when:
d) Copper a) High potential difference is applied
b) When its temperature is 0 k
37. Pentavalent impurities are called c) Pentavalent impurity added
a) Donor impurities d) Trivalent impurity added
b) Acceptor impurities
c) Sometimes donor and some times 46. The field of long bar magnet is like a
d) Acceptors a) Solenoid
b) Toroid
38. Minority carriers in N-type materials are c) Pieces of magnet
a) Electrons d) None
b) Protons
c) Neutrons
d) Holes
47. The curie temperature of Iron is
a) 600oC 55. A current which demagnetize the material
b) 650oC completely is called
c) 700oC a) Applied current
d) 750oC b) Coercive current
c) Maximum current
48. The examples of diamagnetic are d) None of these
a) Water
b) Copper 56. The energy need to magnetize and
c) Antimony demagnetize the specimen during the
d) All of them each cycle of magnetizing current is
a) Value of current
49. Strain is dimensionless and has b) Value of demagnetizing current
a) Units c) Value of magnetic flux density
b) No units d) Area of the loop
c) S.I units
d) None 57. The temperature below which resistivity
of some materials becomes zero, is called:
50. The electrons occupying the outermost shell a) Kelvin temperature
of an atom and the electrons occupying in the b) Critical temperature
energy band are called c) Absolute zero temperature
a) Energy band d) Limiting temperature
b) Valence band
c) Forbidden energy band 58. A well known example of an intrinsic
d) None of these semi- conductor is:
a) Germanium
51. Conductors are those materials in which b) Phosphorous
the free electrons c) Aluminum
a) Very large d) Cobalt
b) Very small
c) Plenty of 59. The critical temperature for mercury is:
d) None of these a) 7.2 K
b) 4.2 K
52. The magnetism produced by electrons
c) 1.18 K
within an atom is due to
d) 3.7 K
a) Spin motion
b) Orbital motion
c) pin S& orbital motion
d) None of these
60. Holes can exist in:
a) Super conductors
53. The combination of solenoid and a
b) Conductors
specimen of iron inside it make a powerful
c) Semi-conductors
magnet called
d) Insulators
a) Horse shoe magnet
b) Bar magnet
c) Electromagnet
d) None of these
54. the substance in which the atoms don’t form
magnetic dipole are called:
a) ferromagnetic
b) paramagnetic
c) diamagnetic
d) conductors
 CHAPTER # 18. ELECTRONICS

8. A diode characteristics curve is a graph

1. A semi – conductor can be used as a plotted between
rectifier because a) Current and time
a) It has low resistance to the current flow b) Voltage and time
when forward biased c) Voltage and current
b) It has high resistance to the current flow d) Forward voltage and reverse current
when reversed biased
c) It has low resistance to the current flow 9. The output of AND gate will be 1 when
when forward biased and high resistance a) Both inputs are at 0
when reversed biased b) Either one input is at 1
d) None of the above c) Both inputs are at 1
d) None of these
2. The central region of a transistor is called: 10. For non-inverting amplifiers if 𝑅1 = ∞ Ω and
a) Base
b) Emitter 𝑅2 = 0 Ω, then gain of amplifier is
c) Collector a) -1
d) Neutral b) 0
c) +1
3. The SI unit of current gain is: d) infinite
a) Ampere 11. An expression for current gain of a transistor
b) Volt is given 𝐼by
c) Ohm-meter a) 𝛽 = 𝐵
d) It has no units 𝐼𝐶
b) 𝛽 = 𝐼𝐵 + 𝐼𝐶
4. A NAND gate with two inputs A & B has c) 𝛽 = 𝐼𝐼𝐶𝐶 − 𝐼𝐵
an output 0 if d) 𝛽 =
a) A is 0
𝐼𝐵
b) B is 0
c) Both A and B are 0 12. In n-type materials, the minority carriers are
a) Free electrons
d) Both A and B are 1
b) Holes
c) Protons
5. The gain G of non inverting
d) Mesons
operational𝑅amplifier is
a) 𝐺 = − 2 13. Transistors are made from
𝑅1𝑅
b) 𝐺 = 1 + 2 a) Plastics
𝑅2 𝑅1 b) Metals
c) 𝐺 = c) Insulators
𝑅1 𝑅2 d) Doped semi-conductors
d) 𝐺 = 1 −
14. The number of diodes in a bridge rectifier is
𝑅1
a) 4
6. When a PN junction is reverse biased, b) 2
the depletion region is c) 3
a) Widened d) 5
b) Narrowed
c) Normal 15. The reverse current through PN junction is
d) No change a) Infinite
b) Zero
7. A potential barrier of 0.7 V exist across c) Less than forward current
pn junction made from d) Greater than forward current
a) Silicon
b) Germanium 16. Photocells are used for
c) Indium a) Security system
d) Gallium b) Counting system
c) Automatic door system
d) All of these
 d) 0.8 V
17. Transistor has
a) 2 regions
b) 3 regions
c) 4 regions
d) 1 region
18. A complete amplifier circuit made on a
silicon chip and enclosed in a small capsule is
called
a) Diode
b) Inductor
c) Resistor
d) Operational amplifier
19. The open loop gain of an operational amplifier
is of the order of
a) 108
b) 1052
c) 10

d) 10−3
20. The automatic working of streets lights is due to
a) Inductor
b) Capacitor
c) Comparator
d) Rectifier
21. In half ware rectification, the output DC
voltage is obtained across the load for
a) The positive half cycle of input AC
b) The negative half cycle of input AC
c) The positive and negative half cycles of
input AC
d) Either positive or negative half cycle of
input AC
22. The color of light emitted by LED depends on
a) Its forward biased
b) Its reversed biased
c) The amount of forward current
d) The type of semi conductor material used
23. A PN junction photodiode is
a) Operated in forward direction
b) Operated in reversed direction
c) A very fast photo detector
d) Dependent on thermally generated minority
carriers
24. The reverse current through semi-
conductor diode is due to
a) Holes
b) Electrons
c) Majority carriers
d) Minority carriers
25. The potential barrier for PN junction made
from Si at room temperature is
a) 0.9 V
b) 0.3 V
c) 0.7 V
26. Process of conversion of DC to AC is called d) Either input is 0
a) Rectification
b) Amplification
c) Oscillation
d) Modulation

27. Which one of the following

is called fundamental gate
a) NOR gate
b) NOT gate
c) NAND gate
d) Exclusive OR gate

28. For proper working of a transistor in

normal circuits
a) Emitter base junction is reversed
biased, collector base junction is
forward biased
b) Emitter base junction is forward
biased and collector base junction is
forward biased
c) C-B junction is reversed
biased, E-B junction is
forward biased
d) C-B junction is reversed biased
and E-B junction is reversed
biased

29. In a properly biased NPN transistor

most of the electrons from the emitter
a) Recombine with holes in the base
b) Recombine in the emitter itself
c) Pass through the base to the collector
d) Are stopped by the junction barrio

30. A diode characteristic curve is a graph between

a) Current and time
b) Voltage and time
c) Voltage and current
d) Forward voltage and reverse current

31. A NOR Gate is ON only when all its input are

a) ON
b) OFF
c) Positive
d) High

32. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which

a) Makes logic decision
b) Work on binary algebra
c) Alternates between 0 and 1
d) None of these

33. The output of a 2-input OR gate is

zero only when its
a) Both input are zero
b) Either input is 1
c) Both input are 1
34. An XOR gate produces an positive logic 43. Transistor can be used as
output only when its two inputs are a) Oscillators
a) High b) Switches
b) Low c) Memory unit
c) Different d) All of them
d) Same

35. An AND Gate 44. NOT gate has only

a) Implement logic addition a) One input
b) Two inputs
b) Is equivalent to a series switching circuit
c) Is any or all gate c) Many inputs
d) Is equivalent to a parallel switching circuit d) None

36. The only function of a NOT gate is to 45. A photo – diode can switch its current ON
a) Stop a signal and OFF in
b) Re-complement a signal a) Milli seconds
b) Micro seconds
c) Invert an input signal
d) Acts as a universal gate c) Nano seconds
d) None
37. The forward current through a
semiconductor diode circuit is due to 46. Diode is a device which has terminals.
a) Minority carriers a) One
b) Two
b) Majority carriers
c) Holes c) Three
d) Electrons d) Four

38. The device used for conversion of AC into DC is 47. Transistor is a device which has
a) An oscillator terminals.
b) A detector a) One
c) An amplifier b) Two
d) A rectifier c) Three
d) Four
39. The thickness of depletion region is of the
order of 48. The Boolean expression X = A + B
a) 10-7 m represents the logic operation of
b) 10-6 m a) NAND gate
c) 10-5 m b) NOR gate
d) 10-4 m c) OR gate
d) NOT gate
40. The ratio of β gives the
a) Voltage gain 49. The open loop gain of op – amplifier is
b) Current gain a) Zero
c) Input resistance b) High
d) None c) Very high
d) Low
41. The resistance between + ive and – ive inputs
of op – amplifier is 50. The width of depletion region of a diode
a) 100 Ω
a) Increases under forward bias
b) 1000 Ω b) Is independent of applied voltage
c) 106 Ω c) Increases under reverse bias
d) None of these
d) None of these
42. Photo – voltic cell have
a) Battery input 51. A LED emits lights only
b) No external bias a) Forward biased
c) No internal bias b) Reverse Biased
d) None c) Un biased
d) None of these
52. NAND gate is a combination 60. For typical transistor as an amplifier
a) AND gate and NOT gate
b) AND gate and OR gate a) Vout RC
c) OR gate and NOT gate Vin   Rie
d) NOT gate and NOT gate Vout
b) 
53. The reverse or leakage current of the diode is Vin
of the order of
a) Microampere c) Vout Ric
Vin   Rc
b) Milli-ampere
c) Both
d) None of these d) Vout Rie
Vin   Rie
54. Temperature, pressure etc are converted
into electronic informations by devices
called 61. The resistance between (+) and (-) of ideal Op-
a) LEDs Amp is
b) Sensors a) High
c) Vacuum tubes b) Low
d) None c) Infinity
55. Base of the transistor is very thin of the order of d) Moderate
a) 10−2𝑚
b) 10−4𝑚
c) 10−6𝑚

d) 10−8𝑚
56. How many diodes are used for the full wave
bridge rectifier circuit is
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of these

57. The electronic circuits which implement

the various logic operations are known as
a) Digital gates
b) Logic gate
c) Voltage operated gate
d) All of them

58. In a half-wave rectifier the diode

conducts during
a) Both halves of the input cycle
b) A portion of the positive half of the input
cycle
c) A portion of the negative half of the
input cycle
d) One half of the input cycle

59. The output of a two inputs OR gate is 0

only when its
a) Both inputs are 0
b) Either input is 1
c) Both inputs are 1
d) Either input is zero
 CHAPTER # 19. DAWN OF MODERN PHYSICS
1. The Einstein mass-energy relationship is
a) 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐 d) Refraction
b) 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐3
c) 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐2

d) 𝐸 = 𝑚2𝑐2
2. When an electron combines with a positron,
we get
a) One photon
b) Two photons
c) Three photons
d) Four photons

3. Production of X-rays can be regarded as the

reverse phenomenon of
a) Pair production
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Compton effect
d) Annihilation of matter
4. The radius of atom is the order of
a) 1010 𝑚
b) 10−10 𝑚
c) 10−14 𝑚

d) 1014 𝑚
5. In 1905, the special theory of relativity was
proposed by
a) Maxwell
b) De Broglie
c) Bohr
d) Einstein

6. Neutron was discovered in 1932 by

a) Bohr
b) Chadwick
c) Dirac
d) Fermi

7. The rest mass of photon is

a) Infinity
b) Zero
c) 𝑓

d) 𝑚𝑐2
8. A maximum compton shift in the wavelength
of scattered photon will be occur at
a) 𝜃 = 0°
b) 𝜃 = 45°
c) 𝜃 = 90°

d) 𝜃 = 180°
9. The Davisson and Germer experiment
indicates
a) Interference
b) Polarization
c) Electron diffraction
10. A positron is a particle having
a) Mass equal to electron
b) Charge equal to electron
c) Equal mass but opposite charge to
electron
d) Mass equal to proton

11. In compton scattering, the compton shift ∆𝜆

will be equal to compton wavelength if the
scattering angle is
a) 0°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°

12. Unit of plank’s constant is

a) volt
b) J s
c) J s−1

d) 𝑒𝑉
13. Which one is most energetic?
a) 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
b) 𝑋 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
c) 𝑈𝑙𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑡 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠

d) 𝑉𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑔𝑡
14. The total amount of energy radiated per unit
orifice area of cavity radiator
per unit time is directly
proportional to
a) 𝑇
b) 𝑇2
c) 𝑇3

d) 𝑇4
15. Plank’s constant h has the same units as that
of
a) Linear momentum
b) Angular momentum
c) Torque
d) Power

16. Photoelectric effect was explained by

a) Hertz
b) Einstein
c) Rutherford
d) Bohr
17. All motions are
a) Absolute
b) Uniform
c) Relative
d) Variable
18. The rest mass energy of an
electron in MeV is equal to
a) 0.511
b) 0.611
c) 0.902
d) 1.02
19. An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at 27. The minimum energy needed for a photon to
very high speed (relativistic) and finds that the create an electron-positron pair is
length of meter stick is a) 1.02 KeV
a) Greater than one meter b) 0.51 KeV
b) Less than one meter c) 0.51 MeV
c) One meter d) 1.02 MeV
d) None of these
28. Davisson and Germer indicates
20. Linear momentum of a photon is in their experiment
a) Zero a) Electron refraction
b) hf/c2 b) Electron polarization
c) hf/c c) Electron reflection
d) c2/hf d) Electron diffraction

21. Photon with energy greater than 1.02 MeV 29. In Davison – Germer experiment, the
can interact with matter as diffracted proton from crystal shows
a) Photoelectric effect
b) Compton effect a) Particle property
c) Pair production b) Wave property
d) Pair annihilation c) Light property
d) Quantum property
22. Stopping potential for a metal surface in case
of photo electric emission depends on 30. In electron microscope, electric and magnetic
a) The threshold frequency for the field are used as
metal surface a) Electromagnetic gun
b) The intensity of incident light b) Source of electromagnetic waves
c) The frequency of incident light and the c) Deflected charged particle
work function for metal surface d) Converging source of electrons
d) None of these
31. The uncertainty in momentum and position is
23. As the temperature of black body is raised, the due to its
wavelength corresponding to maximum a) Property of matter and radiation
intensity b) Two dimensional motions
a) Shifts towards longer wavelength c) Emotion of certain wave length
b) Shifts towards shorter wavelength d) Very high velocity
c) Remains the same
d) Shifts towards shorter as well as 32. The energy radiated is directly proportional to
longer wavelength fourth power of Kelvin’s temperature is
a) Karl-wein’s laws
24. The name of photon for quantum of light b) Raleigh jeans law
was proposed by c) Stephens law
a) Ampere d) Planck’s
b) Planck’s
c) Thomson 33. The anti-particle of electron is
d) Einstein a) Proton
b) Position
25. A photon is a c) Meson
a) Unit of energy d) Neutron
b) Positively charged particle
c) Packet of electromagnetic radiations 34. The reverse process of pair-production is
a) Annihilation
d) Unit of wavelength
b) Materialization
26. The light of suitable frequency falling on c) Fission
matel surface ejects electrons, this d) Fusion
phenomenon is called 35. The decrease in length with speed was
a) X-ray emission explained by
b) Compton effect a) Einstein
c) Photoelectric effect b) Lorentz
d) Nuclear fission c) Bohr
d) None
36. All the motion in this universe are 45. Application of photoelectric effect is
a) Absolute a) Photo diode
b) Uniform b) Photo transistor
c) Variable c) Photocell
d) Relative d) None of these
37. Pair production cannot possible in 46. In Compton effect, the law/laws are conserved
a) Air a) Energy
b) Water b) Momentum
c) Glass c) Both
d) Vacuum d) None of these
38. The minimum energy required for 47. The equations of pair production is
pair production is a) hf = 2moc2 – KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
a) 10.2 Mev b) hf = 2moc2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
b) 1.02 Mev c) hf = 2mo 2c2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
c) 102 Mev d) hf = 2mo 2c + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
d) None
48. Which of the following has the same

39. The relation MaxT  Contt. is dimension as h/moc?

a) Length
a) Wein’s Law b) Time
b) Plank’s Law c) Mass
c) Stephen Law d) None
d) None
49. Photon ‘A’ has twice the energy of photon ‘B’.
2 What is the ratio of the momentum of ‘A’ to
40. A quantity 1  v is always that of ‘B’?
c2 a) 4 : 1
a) Greater than one b) 2 : 1
b) Less than one c) 1 : 2
c) Equal to one d) None
d) None of these
50. Electron is an antiparticle of
41. Who gave the idea of matter wave? c) Compton
a) De-Broglie d) None of these
b) Planck
c) Einstein
d) Huygen

42. The Stefen-Boltzmann’s constant has the value

a) 5.67 × 10-5Wm-2K-4
b) 5.67 × 10-6Wm-1K-4
c) 5.67 × 10-6Wm-2K-4
d) 5.67 × 10-8Wm-2K-4

43. The energy of photon of radio waves is only

about
a) 10-6eV
b) 10-4eV
c) 10-10eV
d) 10-12eV

44. The idea of quantization of energy

was proposed by
a) Einstein
b) Max Planck
a) Proton
b) Photon
c) Positron
d) Deuteron
 CHAPTER # 20: ATOMIC SPECTRA

1. Which is an example of continuous spectra? 9. The relation between Rhdberg constant 𝑅𝐻

a) Black body radiation and ground state energy 𝐸0 is given by:
b) Molecular spectra 𝐸0
a) 𝑅 = ℎ𝑐
c) Atomic spectra
ℎ𝑐
d) None of these 𝐻 = 𝐸0
𝑅𝐻
2. Line spectra is an example of b) 𝑅 = ℎ𝑐

c) 𝐸0
a) Atomic
b) Molecular d) 𝑅𝐻 = 𝐸0ℎ𝑐
10. The radius of 3rd Bohr orbit in H-atom is
c) Black body radiation greater than the radius of 1st orbit by the factor
d) None of these
a) 2
3. The unit of Rydberg’s constant 𝑅𝐻 is: b) 3
c) 4
a) 𝑚−2
d) 9
b) 𝑚−1
c) 𝑚1 11. The orbital angular momentum in the
allowed stationary orbits of H-atom is given
d) 𝑚2 by:
4. In a meta-stable state an can reside for about: a) 𝜋
−8 2
𝑛ℎ
b) 𝑛ℎ
2𝜋
a) 10 𝑠 c) 2ℎ
b) 10−10𝑠
a) 1.0974 × 107𝑚−1
c) 10−9𝑠
b) 1.0794 × 107𝑚−1
d) 10−3𝑠 c) 1.0974 × 109𝑚−1
5. Which of the following series of H-spectrum
lies in ultraviolet region: d) 1.974 × 107𝑚−1
a) Lyman series
b) Balmer series
c) Paschen series
d) Bracket series

6. The reverse process of photoelectric effect is:

a) Compton effect
b) X-rays production
c) Pair production
d) Pair annihilation

7. Helium-Neon laser discharge tube

contains Neon equal to:
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 15%
d) 82%
8. The value of Rydberg constant is:
 𝑛𝜋
ℎ
d)
𝜋
12. If one or more electrons are completely
removed from an atom then the atom is said
to be:
a) Excited
b) Polarized
c) Stablized
d) Ionized
13. The quantized radius of first bohr orbit of
H- atom is:
a) 0.053 nm
b) 0.0053 nm
c) 0.00053 nm
d) 53 nm
14. When an electron absorbs energy, it jumps to:
a) Lower energy state
b) Higher energy state
c) Ground energy state
d) Remains in the same state

15. LASER light has the property of:

a) Coherent waves
b) Non-coherent waves
c) Sound waves
d) Water waves
16. Excited atoms return to their ground state in 24. The characteristic X-rays spectrum is due to
a) The illumination of the target metal by
a) 10-10 s ultraviolet radiation
b) 10-8 s b) The bombardment of the target by proton
c) 10-6 s c) The bombardment of target by electron
d) 10-9 s d) The absorption of Y-radiation by the
target metal
17. X-rays are
a) Unknown nature 25. Wave like characteristic of electron
b) High energy electrons is demonstrated by
c) High energy photon a) Line spectrum of atoms
d) Radioisotopes b) Production of X-rays
c) Diffraction by crystalline solids
18. Total number of series in hydrogen d) Photo electric effect
spectrum is
a) Three 26. In laser production, the state in which more
b) Four atoms are in the upper state then in the
c) Five lower one is called
d) Six a) Metal stable state
b) Normal state
19. The radiations emitted from hydrogen c) Inverted population
filled discharge tube show d) All the above
a) Bound spectrum
b) Line spectrum 27. Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to
c) Continuous spectrum a) Further stimulation
d) Absorption spectrum b) Lasing more
c) For production more energetic laser
20. If the ionization energy of H-atom is 13.6 d) All the above
eV, its ionization potential will be:
a) 13.6 V 28. The velocity of laser light is
b) 136.0 V a) Less than ordinary light
c) 3.4 V b) More than ordinary light
d) None of these c) Equal to ordinary light
d) Different for different colors or frequency
21. Radiation with wavelength longer than
red light 29. X – rays is also known as
a) Ultraviolet rays a) Photon
b) X-rays b) γ – rays
c) Infrared radiation c) Breaking radiation
d) Visible radiations d) none
22. Bracket series is obtained when all 30. Which one of the following is more coherent
transition of electron terminate on a) X – rays
a) 4th orbit b) Normal light
b) 5th orbit c) Laser
c) 3rd orbit d) γ – rays
d) 2nd orbit
31. Sunlight spectrum is
23. X - rays are similar in nature to a) Discrete
a) Cathode rays b) Line spectrum
b) Positive rays
c) Continuous spectrum
c) 𝛾 - rays d) None
d) α – rays
32. Optical pumping exist in 40. In LASER principle, a photon produce
a) X – rays another photon by the process of
b) Laser a) Excitation
c) Spectrum b) De-excite
d) None c) Ionization
d) None of these
33. The total energy of electron in an orbit
around the nucleus is 41. Characteristic X – rays are the X – rays
a) + ive which have
b) ive a) High energy photons
c) Zero b) Specific wavelengths
d) None c) Specific frequencies
d) All of these
34. According to Bohr’s theory the outer
orbit electron has energy than inner 42. In Laser a Meta-stable state is
orbits. a) An excite state
a) Greater b) In which an electron is usually stable
b) Smaller c) In which an electron reside 10-3 sec
c) Equal d) None of these
d) None of these
43. The Meta-stable state of Helium and Neon is
35. X – rays was discovered by a) Different
a) Bacquerel b) Identical
b) Mari – curie c) Nearly identical
c) Roentgen d) None of these
d) Lane
44. Emission of electrons by metal on heating
36. The value of Plank’s constant is is called
a) 6.63 × 10-34 J.sec a) Secondary emission
b) 6.63 × 10-34 J/sec b) Field effect
c) 6.63 × 10-34 sec/J c) Photoelectric emission
d) None d) Thermionic emission

37. Laser is a device which can 45. The numerical value of ground state energy
produce Intense beam of light for H-atom in electron volt is:
Coherent light a) -10
Monochoromatic light b) 13.6
All c) 10
d) -13.6
38. When magnetic field is applied in the path X
– rays , they will be moving in
a) Straight line
b) Circular path
c) Parabolic path
d) None

39. The quantized energy of first Bohr orbit

of hydrogen atom is
a) 13.04 eV
b) 13.6 eV
c) 13.6 eV
d) 13.5 eV
 CHAPTER 21: NUCLEAR PHYSICS

9. The number of protons in any atom

1. The energy released by fusion of are always equal to the number of:
two deuterons into a He nucleus is a) Electrons
about b) Neutrons
a) 24 MeV c) Positrons
b) 200 MeV d) Mesons
c) 1.02 MeV
d) 7.7 MeV 10. Types of quarks are:
a) 4
2. Dr. Abdus Salam unified b) 6
electromagnetic force and c) 8
a) Weak nuclear force d) 10
b) Strong nuclear force
11. 𝛽 −particles in Wilson cloud chamber have:
c) Magnetic force
d) Gravitational force
a) Zigzag or erratic path
3. Which of the following have no charge b) Curved path
a) 𝛼 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
c) Circular path
b) 𝛽 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
d) Elliptical path
c) 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
12. Nuclear fission chain reaction is
d) 𝑐𝑎𝑡ℎ𝑜𝑑𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
controlled by using:
a) Steel rods
4. In Wilson cloud chamber, we use: b) Graphite rods
a) Alcohol vapours c) Cadimum rods
b) Neon gas d) Platinum rods
c) Bromine gas
d) Water vapours 13. Extremely penetrating particles are

b) 𝛼 −particles
a) Neutrons

c) 𝛽 −particles
5. A high potential difference of is
used in GM counter

d) 𝛾 −particles
a) 400 volts
b) 1000 volts
c) 5000 volts 14. The nuclear reaction taking place in sun is:
d) 4000 volts a) Fission
6. One Curie is equal to: b) Fusion
a) 3.70 × 10−10 𝐵𝑞
c) Chain
b) 𝐵𝑞3.70 × 1010
d) Alpha decay
c) 1 𝐵𝑞
15. An 𝛼 −particle contains
d) 10 𝐵𝑞
3
a) 1 proton and 1 neutron
b) 2 protons and 2 neutrons
7. The most useful tracer isotop for the c) 3 protons and 3 neutrons
treatment of thyroid gland is: d) 4 protons and 4 neutrons
a) Cobalt-60
b) Carbon-14 16. Which of the following belong to
c) Iodine-131 hadrons group:
d) Strontium-90 a) Protons
b) Electrons
8. The chemical properties of any c) Muons
element depend on its: d) Neutrinos
a) Number of isotopes
b) Number of isobars 17. Number of isotopes of Helium is:
c) Atomic number a) 2
d) Mass number b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
 26. Half life of Radium is 1590 years. In how
18. One joule of energy absorbed in a body many years shall the earth loss all his
per kilogram is equal to: radium due to radioactive decay?
a) 1 rad a) 1590 x 106 years
b) One rem b) 1590 x 1012 years
c) One gray c) 1590 x 1025 years
d) One sievert
𝑈235 , the number
d) Never
19. In nucleus ofwill
of neutrons uranium
be 27. Which one of the following radiation
92
a) 92 possesses maximum penetrating

a) 𝛼 − rays
b) 235 power?

b) 𝛽 − rays
c) 143

c) 𝛾 − rays
d) Different for different isotopes

d) All have equal penetrating power

20. One a.m.u is equal to 28. Energy liberated when one atom of U-
a) 1.66 x 10-27 kg 235 undergoes fission reaction is
b) 1.66 x 10-25 kg a) 200 Mev
c) 1.66 x 10-20 kg b) 40 Mev
d) All of above c) 30 Mev
d) 20 Mev
21. According to which one of following
law, the density of nucleus is uniform ? 29. Nuclear force exist between
a) J.J. Thomson a) Proton – proton
b) Rutherford‟s Model b) Proton – Neutron
c) Bohr‟s Model c) Neutron – Neutron
d) All of the above
d) All of above laws
30. Tick the correct statement
22. For chain reaction to buildup, the size of a) Moderator slow down the neutron
the radio active target should be b) Moderator bring the neutrons to rest
a) 90 c) Moderator absorb the neutron
b) Greater than the critical size d) Moderator reflect the neutron
c) Less than the critical size
d) Equal to critical size 31. Radioactive decay obeys which one of
the following data?
23. After two half lives, the number of a) N = Noe-λt

a) �𝑁
decayed nuclei of an element are: b) N = Noext
c) N = Noe-xt/2
b) � d) No = N(Iext)
�
2
�
c) 32. Which one of the following

a) 𝛼 − rays
possesses maximum velocity?

b) 𝛽 − rays
4
d) 3𝑁

c) 𝛾 − rays
4

24. The examples of antimatter are: d) All of the above have same speed
a) Antiproton
b) Antineutron 33. Charge on an electron was determine by
c) Positron
d) All of above a) Ampere
b) Maxwell
25. Neutron and proton are commonly known as c) Milliken
d) Thomson
a) Nucleons
b) Meson 34. Charge on neutron is
c) Boson a) +1.6 x 10-19c
d) Quartz b) -1.6 x 10-19c
c) Zero
d) No definite charge
35. A particle having the mass of an d) 239
92U
electron and the charge of a proton is
called
a) Antiproton
b) Positron
c) Gamma rays
d) Photon

36. Mass of neutron is

a) 1.67 x 10-13 Kg
b) 1.67 x 10-27 Kg
c) 9.1 x 10-31 Kg
d) 1.67 x 10-19 Kg

37. Nuclei having the same mass number

but different atomic number are
a) Isotopes
b) Isobars
c) Isotones
d) Isomers

38. A mass spectrograph sorts out

a) Molecules
b) Ions
c) Elements
d) Isotopes

39. Sum of the masses of constituent

nucleons as compared to the mass of the
resultant nucleus is
a) Smaller
b) Greater
c) Same
d) Some times smaller some times greater

40. An α - particle is emitted from 88Ra226, what

is the mass and atomic number of the
daughter nucleus?

Mass Number Atomic Number

a) 224 84
b) 220 80
c) 222 86
d) 226 87

41. The unit of Radioactivity “Curie” is equal to

a) 3.74 x 109 disintegration per sec

b) 3.70 x 1010 disintegration per sec
c) 3.55 x 1010 disintegration per sec
d) 3.60 x 1010 disintegration per sec

42. In liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the

type of uranium used is
a) 235
92U
b) 238
92U
c) 234
92U
43. Radioactive materials can be b) +2
identified by measuring their c) -2
d) -1
a) Hardness
b) Density
c) Mass
d) Half life
44. If one or more of the neutrons
emitted during fission can be used
to build up further fission then the
reaction is self sustained and is
known as
a) Fission reaction
b) Fusion reaction
c) Chain reaction
d) Chemical reaction
45. Pair production takes place in the
vicinity of heavy nucleus so that
a) Net energy is conserved
b) Net charge is conserved
c) Net momentum is conserved
d) All of the above

46. During an encounter with an

atom α - particle knocks out
a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) Nothing
47. Which one of the following
radiations are suitable for the
treatment of an infection in the

a) 𝛼 − rays
interior body?

b) 𝛽 − rays
c) 𝛾 − rays

d) 𝑋 − rays
48. Various types of cancer are treated by

a) Cobalt 60
b) Strontium – 90
c) Carbon 14
d) Nickel – 63
49. Sterilizations of surgical instrument,
medical supplies and bandages can
be done by exposing them to a beam
of
a) α - rays
b) β - rays
c) γ- rays
d) „b‟ & „c‟ have equal
antiseptic properties

50. Charge on α - particle is

a) +1
51. B-particle ionizes an atom d) Limit
a) Through direct collision
b) Through electrostatic attraction
c) Through electrostatic repulsion
d) All of above

52. T.V. sets and microwave oven emit

a) X - rays
b) α - rays
c) β – rays
d) γ - rays

53. A β - particle in a single encounter

a) Loses a small fraction of its energy
b) Loses most of its energy
c) Loses no energy at all

d) Loses energy at all

54. Strontium -90 is used as

a) β - particle source
b) α - particle source
c) γ - particle source
d) Neutrons source
55. The penetration power of β - particle
as compared to a-particle is
a) 10 times more
b) 100 times more
c) 100 times less
d) 10 times less
56. Geiger counter is suitable for
a) Fast counting
b) Extremely fast counting
c) Slow counting
d) All situations

57. An α - particle can produce fluorescence in

a) ZnS
b) Barium Palatino cyanide
c) Calcium tunzstate
d) All of above

58. Pair production cannot take place in

vacuum as is not conserved
a) Energy
b) Charge
c) Mass
d) Momentum

59. Average distance covered by α - particle in

air before its ionizing power ceases is
called its
a) Trajectory
b) Range
c) Firing level
 c) 𝑋 − rays
60. 𝛾 - rays are electromagnetic waves like d) 𝛾 – rays
a) Normal light
b) Heat waves
c) Micro waves
d) X - rays

61. 𝛽 −particle ionizes an atom

a) Due to electrostatic force of attraction
b) Due to electrostatic force of repulsion
c) Due to direct collision

d) Due to gravitational force

62. 𝛽 −particlespower
penetration possess greater
then that of
a-particle due to its

a) Smaller ionization power

b) Energy is not conserved
c) Neither greater nor smaller
ionization power
d) Same ionization power

63. Pair production can take places only with

a) X-rays
b) γ - rays
c) UV-rays
d) IR-rays

64. A device for producing high

velocity nuclei is
a) Cloud chamber
b) Linear acceleration
c) A mass spectrograph
d) Wilson cloud

65. Which one of the following will

be better shield against γ - rays?
a) Ordinary water
b) Heavy water
c) Lead
d) Aluminum

66. The maximum safe limit does for

persons working in nuclear
power station are

a) 1 rem per week

b) 5 rem per week
c) 4 rem per week
d) 3 rem per week

67. Radiations are used for the

treatment of skin of a patient is

a) 𝛼 − rays
b) 𝛽 − rays
68. Strong nuclear force 76. The dead time of Geiger Muller counter is
a) Increase with magnitude of increasing of the order of
charge a) Micro second
b) Decreases with magnitude of increasing b) Miilli second
charge c) More than millisecond
c) Is independent of charge d) None of these
d) None
235

69. Complete the reaction 77. The breakage of U produces the fragments
92

X A
 X   ........ Q
∘ as
Z Z 1  a) Kr and Ba
a) Neutrino b) Sn and Mo
b) Antineutrino c) Xe and Sr
c)  - particle d) All of them
d) None
78. The fuel / fuels used in the reactor
70. The half of uranium – 238 is are nowadays
a) 1.67 × 108 years a) Plutonium – 239
b) 3.3 × 109 years b) Uranium – 233
c) 4.5 × 108 years c) Uranium – 235
d) 4.5 × 109 years d) All of these

71. The  - particle ionizes the particles in 79. The temperature of the core of the
its way and adopt the path which is reactor rises to about
a) Curved a) 1000oC
b) Straight b) 1100oC
c) Zig – Zag c) 1200oC
d) None of these d) 1300oC
80. Plutonium can be fissioned by
72. Which of the following is similar a) Slow neutron
a) 𝛼 − rays
to electron: b) Fast neutron

b) 𝛽 − rays
c) Very slow neutron
d) None of these
c) 𝛾 – rays 81. Ultraviolet radiation cuase
d) Photons
a) Sum burn
73. The rate of decay of a radioactive substance: b) Blindness
a) Remains constant with time c) Skin Cancer
b) Increase with time d) All of them
c) Decrease with time 82. Neutrons are particularly more damaging to
d) May increase or decrease with time a) Legs
b) Heart
74.  - rays are absorbed by a sheet of c) Eyes
a) 1 to 5 mm of lead d) Brain
b) 1 to 10 mm of lead
c) 5 to 10 mm of lead 83. Radio isotopes can be made easily
d) None of these by bombardment with
a) Electrons
b) Protons
75. Tracks obtained by  - particles in Wilson
c) Neutrons
Cloud Chamber is d) None of these
a) Strong Continuous
b) Discontinuous, not straight thin 84. Subatomic particles are divided into
c) Weak and no definite tracks a) Photons
d) None of these b) Leptons
c) Hadrons
d) All of these
85. One amu is equal to
a) 931 MeV 94. If a radioactive isotope of silver have a
b) 9.31 MeV half life of about 7.5 days. After 15 days
c) 93.1 MeV the remaining isotope of its original is
d) 0.931 MeV
a) 25%
b) 50%
86. Cobalt -60 emits 𝛾 −rays of c) 7.5%
d) 15%

95. A nuclide 86 R 220decays to a new nuclide by

energy
two  -emissions, the nuclide S is
a) 117 MeV
b) 11.7 MeV S 212
c) 1.17 MeV
d) 1.17 KeV
87. Which of the following statements a) 84
is correct?
b) S 212
a) Moderators slow down the neutrons 82
b) Moderators bring the neutrons to rest c) 80 S 220
c) Moderators absorbs the neutrons d) None
d) Moderators reflect the neutrons
88. The half life of radioactive element is

a) 𝑇1/ = 0.693
𝜆
b) 𝑇1/ = 1.43 𝜆
2

c) 𝑇1/ = 0.693 𝜆
2

d) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒
89. Hadrons are the particle included
a) Protons
b) Neutrons
c) Mesons
d) All of these
90. Lepton‟s particles which experience no
strong nuclear force are
a) Electrons
b) Muons
c) Neutrinos
d) All of these

91. The charges on the quarks are

a) One unit
b) Half unit
c) Fraction
d) None of these

92. Meson is made from

a) A pair of quarks
b) A pair of anti quarks
c) A pair of quarks and anti quarks
d) None of these
93. Fission nuclear reaction leads to

stability.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Medium
d) None