Agency Networks was the first network to be

implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol.

Computer Networks Questions &
6. The _______ is the physical path over which a
Answers – Basics – 1 message travels
a) Path
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
b) Medium
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basics
c) Protocol
– 1”.
d) Route
1. The IETF standards documents are called View Answer
a) RFC
Answer: b
b) RCF Explanation: Message travel from sender to reciever via
c) ID a medium using a protocol.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 7. Which organization has authority over interstate
and international commerce in the communications
Answer: a field?
Explanation: Request For Comments.
a) ITU-T
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves b) IEEE
from the upper to the lower layers, headers are c) FCC
a) Added d) ISOC
b) Removed View Answer
c) Rearranged Answer: c
d) Modified Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal
View Answer Communications Commission. FCC is responsible for
regulating all interstate communications originating or
Answer: a terminating in USA.
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to the
packet from the previous layer. 8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
3. The structure or format of data is called
b) Smartphones
a) Syntax
c) Servers
b) Semantics
d) Switch
c) Struct
View Answer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: Network egde devices refer to host
Answer: a systems, which can host applications like web browser.
Explanation: The structure and format of data are
defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a 9. A set of rules that governs data communication
particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to a) Protocols
be taken based on that interpretation.
b) Standards
4. Communication between a computer and a c) RFCs
keyboard involves ______________ transmission d) None of the mentioned
a) Automatic View Answer
b) Half-duplex Answer: a
c) Full-duplex Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a
d) Simplex set of rules and regulations that allow a network of
View Answer nodes to transmit and receive information.
Answer: d 10. Three or more devices share a link in
Explanation: Data flows in single direction. ________ connection
a) Unipoint
5. The first Network
b) Multipoint
a) CNNET
c) Point to point
b) NSFNET
d) None of the mentioned
c) ASAPNET
View Answer
d) ARPANET
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established
Answer: d
Explanation: ARPANET – Advanced Research Projects
when three or many network nodes are connected to Answer: d
each other Explanation: In a computer network, a node can be
anything that is capable of sending data or receiving
data or even routing the data to the destination.
Computer Networks Questions &
5. Communication channel is shared by all the
Answers – Basics – 2 machines on the network in
a) broadcast network
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
b) unicast network
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basics
c) multicast network
– 2”.
d) none of the mentioned
1. When collection of various computers seems a View Answer
single coherent system to its client, then it is called
Answer: a
a) computer network Explanation: In a broadcast network, an information is
b) distributed system sent to all station in a network whereas in a multicast
c) networking system network the data or information is sent to a group of
d) none of the mentioned stations in the network. In unicast network, information
View Answer is sent to only one specific station.

Answer: b 6. Bluetooth is an example of

Explanation: Computer networks is defined as a a) personal area network
collection of interconnected computers which uses a b) local area network
single technology for connection. c) virtual private network
A distributed system is also the same as computer
d) none of the mentioned
network but the main difference is that the whole
collection of computers appears to its users as a single View Answer
coherent system Answer: a
Example :- World wide web Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) is the
interconnection of information technology devices within
2. Two devices are in network if
the range of an individual person, typically within a
a) a process in one device is able to exchange range of 10 meters.
information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices 7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets
c) PIDs of the processes running of different between networks by processing the routing
devices are same information included in the packet.
d) none of the mentioned a) bridge
View Answer b) firewall
c) router
Answer: a
d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a
digital telecommunications network which allows nodes View Answer
to share resources. In computer networks, computing Answer: c
devices exchange data with each other using Explanation: A router[a] is a networking device that
connections between nodes. forwards data packets between computer networks.
Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the
3. Which one of the following computer network is
Internet.
built on the top of another network?
a) prior network 8. A list of protocols used by a system, one
b) chief network protocol per layer, is called
c) prime network a) protocol architecture
d) overlay network b) protocol stack
View Answer c) protocol suite
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network View Answer
that is built on top of another network. Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of
4. In computer network nodes are
protocols that are running concurrently that are
a) the computer that originates the data employed for the implementation of network protocol
b) the computer that routes the data suite.
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned 9. Network congestion occurs
View Answer a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates Answer: a
c) when connection between two nodes terminates Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Central
d) none of the mentioned Office does this function.
View Answer
4. The following term is not associted with DSL
Answer: a a) DSLAM
Explanation: A network congestion occurs when traffic b) CO
in the network is more than the network could handle. c) Splitter
d) CMTS
10. Which one of the following extends a private View Answer
network across public networks?
a) local area network Answer: d
b) virtual private network Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used
c) enterprise private network in cable internet access.
d) storage area network
5. HFC contains
View Answer
a) Fibre cable
Answer: b b) Coaxial cable
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private c) Both Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
network across a public network, and enables users to d) None of the mentioned
send and receive data across shared or public networks View Answer
as if their computing devices were directly connected to
the private network. Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a
telecommunications industry term for a broadband
Computer Networks Questions & network that combines optical fiber and coaxial cable.
Answers – Access Networks 6. Choose the statement which is not applicable for
cable internet access
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice a) It is a shared broadcast medium
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Access b) It includes HFCs
Networks”. c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential port
telephone line? d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in
a) A high-speed downstream channel DSLAM
b) A medium-speed downstream channel View Answer
c) A low-speed downstream channel Answer: d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted
View Answer to digital signal by CMTS.
Answer: c 7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way are essentially switched ethernet is
telephone channel. a) AON
2. In DSL telco provides these services b) PON
a) Wired phone access c) NON
b) ISP d) None of the mentioned
c) All of the mentioned View Answer
d) None of the mentioned Answer:a
View Answer Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially
switched ethernets.
Answer: c
Explanation: The same company which provides phone 8. StarBand provides
connection is also its ISP in DSL. a) FTTH internet access
3. The function of DSLAM is b) Cable access
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals c) Telephone access
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals d) Satellite access
c) Amplify digital signals View Answer
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite
broadband Internet service available in the U.S. from
2000–2015.
9. Home Access is provided by d) None of the mentioned
a) DSL View Answer
b) FTTP
c) Cable Answer: b
Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference
d) All of the mentioned
model is Application, Presentation, Session, Transport,
View Answer Network, Data link and Physical layer.
Answer: d
Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL, FTTP,
3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when
Cable. compared with TCP IP model
a) Application layer
10. ONT is connected to splitter using b) Presentation layer
a) High speed fibre cable c) Session layer
b) HFC d) Both Session and Presentation layer
c) Optical cable View Answer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
View Answer
Explanation: The only difference between OSI model
Answer: c and TCP/IP model is that in OSI model two layers
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. namely Presentation and Session layer have been
The ONT connects to the Termination Point (TP) with added.
an optical fibre cable.
4. Application layer is implemented in
advertisement a) End system
b) NIC
11. These factors affect transmission rate in DSL c) Ethernet
a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line d) None of the mentioned
b) Degree of electrical interfernece View Answer
c) Shadow fading
d) Both The gauge of the twisted-pair line and Answer: a
Degree of electrical interfernece Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation
View Answer layer, session layer and transport layer are also
implemented in the end system.
Answer: d
Explanation: Because DSL is made of twisted wire 5. Transport layer is implemented in
copper pair. a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
Computer Networks Questions & d) None of the mentioned
Answers – Reference Models – 1 View Answer
Answer: a
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on Transport layer are implemented in the end system.
“Reference Models – 1”.
6. The functionalities of presentation layer includes
1. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack a) Data compression
a) 5 b) Data encryption
b) 7 c) Data description
c) 6 d) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer
Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet include character-code translation, data conversion,
Protocol stack. The five layers in Internet Protocol stack data encryption and decryption, and data translation.
is Application, Transport, Network, Data link and
Physical layer. 7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange
is provided by
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference a) Application layer
model b) Session layer
a) 5 c) Transport layer
b) 7 d) Link layer
c) 6 View Answer
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: The session layer provides the mechanism Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System
for opening, closing and managing a session between Interconnection. OSI model provides a structured plan
end-user application processes. The session layer 5 is on how applications communicate over a network,
responsible for establishing managing synchronizing which also helps us to have a structured plan for
and terminating sessions. troubleshooting.

8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A 2. The OSI model has _______ layers.
to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is a) 4
a) Application layer b) 5
b) Transport layer c) 6
c) Link layer d) 7
d) Session layer View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers
Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is namely Application, Presentation, Session, Transport,
Session layer. Session layer provides the mechanism Network, Data Link and Physical layer.
for opening, closing and managing a session between
end-user application processes. 3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but
OSI model have this layer.
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device a) session layer
A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is b) transport layer
a) Application layer c) application layer
b) Transport layer d) None of the mentioned
c) Link layer View Answer
d) Session layer
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two
Answer: a layers which are not present in TCP/IP model. They are
Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is Presentation and Session layer.
application layer. when data is sent from device A to
device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is application 4. Which layer links the network support layers and
layer. user support layers
a) session layer
10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from b) data link layer
the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______ c) transport layer
a) Added d) network layer
b) Removed View Answer
c) Rearranged
d) None of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are
network support layers and session, presentation and
Answer: b application layers are user support layers.
Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet
moves from lower layers to higher layer, headers get 5. Which address is used in an internet employing
removed. Whereas when data packet move from higher the TCP/IP protocols?
layer to lower layers, headers are added. a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
Computer Networks Questions & d) all of the mentioned
Answers – Reference Models – 2 View Answer

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer: d

Explanation: All of the mentioned above addresses are
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
used in TCP/IP protocol. All the addressing scheme,
“Reference Models – 2”. that is physical (MAC) and logical address, port address
and specific address are employed in both TCP/IP
1. OSI stands for
model and OSI model.
a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface 6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI
c) optical service implementation model.
d) none of the mentioned a) prior to
View Answer b) after
c) simultaneous to Computer Networks Questions &
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer Answers – Physical Layer
Answer: a This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
developed at multiple research centers between 1978 “Physical Layer”.
and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was
developed in the year 1984. 1. The physical layer concerns with
a) bit-by-bit delivery
7. Which layer is responsible for process to p) process to process delivery
process delivery? c) application to application delivery
a) network layer d) none of the mentioned
b) transport layer View Answer
c) session layer
d) data link layer Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery
in networking. The data unit in the physical layer is bits.
Answer: b Process to process delivery is dealy in the transport
Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to layer.
establish a logical end to end connection between two
system in a network. The protocols used in Transport 2. Which transmission media has the highest
layer is TCP and UDP. transmission speed in a network?
a) coaxial cable
8. Which address identifies a process on a host? b) twisted pair cable
a) physical address c) optical fiber
b) logical address d) electrical cable
c) port address View Answer
d) specific address
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: Fibre optics is considered to have the
Answer: c highest transmission speed among the all mentioned
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a above. The fibre optics transmission runs at 1000Mb/s.
specific process to which an Internet or other network It is called as 1000Base-Lx whereas IEEE stndard for it
message is to be forwarded when it arrives at a server. is 802.3z.

9. Which layer provides the services to user? 3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided
a) application layer media as analog signal by
b) session layer a) digital modulation
c) presentation layer b) amplitude modulation
d) none of the mentioned c) frequency modulation
View Answer d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with Answer: a
application layer to create and send information to other Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low frequency
computer or network. baseband signal (digital bitstream) are transmitted over
a higher frequency. Whereas in digital modulation the
10. Transmission data rate is decided by only difference is that the base band signal is of discrete
a) network layer amplitude level.
b) physical layer
c) data link layer 4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with
d) transport layer the media access control sublayer is called
View Answer a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
Answer: b c) physical address sublayer
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which d) none of the mentioned
deals with network cables or the standards in use like
View Answer
connectors, pins, electric current used etc. Basically the
transmission speed is determined by the cables and Answer: a
connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that Explanation: The portion of physcial layer that interfaces
determines the transmission speed in network. with the medium access control sublayer is Physical
Signaling Sublayer. The main function of this layer is
character encoding, reception, decoding and performs d) none of the mentioned
optional isolation functions. View Answer
5. physical layer provides Answer: c
a) mechanical specifications of electrical Explanation: In communication and computer networks,
connectors and cables the main goal is to share a scarce resource. This is
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal done by multiplexing, where multiple analog or digital
level signals are combined into one signal over a shared
c) specification for IR over optical fiber medium.
d) all of the mentioned 10. Wireless transmission can be done via
View Answer a) radio waves
Answer: d b) microwaves
Explanation: Anything dealing with a network cable or c) infrared
the standards in use – including pins, connectors and d) all of the mentioned
the electric current used is dealt in the physical layer View Answer
(Layer 1).
Answer: d
6. In asynchronous serial communication the Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out by
physical layer provides radio waves, microwaves and IR waves. These waves
a) start and stop signalling range from 3 Khz to above 300 Ghz and are more
b) flow control suitable for wireless transmission because they allow a
wider band for modulating signals, so you can obtain
c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
higher frequency transmission.
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Computer Networks Questions &
Explanation: In asynchronous serial communication, the Answers – Data Link Layer
communication is not synchronized by clock signal.
Instead of a start and stop signaling and flow control This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
method is followed. Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Data
Link Layer”.
7. The physical layer is responsible for
a) line coding 1. The data link layer takes the packets from
b) channel coding _________ and encapsulates them into frames for
c) modulation transmission.
d) all of the mentioned a) network layer
View Answer b) physical layer
c) transport layer
Answer: d
Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for line d) application layer
coding, channel coding and modulation that is needed View Answer
for the transmission of the information.
Answer: a
8. The physical layer translates logical Explanation: In computer networks, the data from
application layer is sent to transport layer and is
communication requests from the ______ into
converted to segments. These segments are then
hardware specific operations. transferred to the network layer and these are called
a) data link layer packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer
b) network layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames
c) trasnport layer are then transferred to physical layer where the frames
d) application layer are converted to bits.
View Answer
2. Which one of the following task is not done by
Answer: a data link layer?
Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or information a) framing
from the data link layer and converts it into hardware b) error control
specific operations so as to transfer the message c) flow control
through physical cables.
d) channel coding
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by View Answer
a) analog modulation Answer: d
b) digital modulation Explanation: Channel coding is the function of physical
c) multiplexing layer. Data link layer mainly deals with framing, error
control and flow control.
3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs Answer: a
data link functions that depend upon the type of Explanation: Cyclic redundancy check is a code that is
medium? added to a data which helps us to identify any error that
a) logical link control sublayer occurred during the transmission of the data.
b) media access control sublayer 8. Which one of the following is a data link
c) network interface control sublayer protocol?
d) none of the mentioned a) ethernet
View Answer b) point to point protocol
Answer: b c) hdlc
Explanation: Media access control (MAC) deals with d) all of the mentioned
transmission of data packets to and from the network- View Answer
interface card, and also to and from another remotely
shared channel. Answer: d
Explanation: There are many data link layer protocols.
4. Header of a frame generally contains Some of them are SDLC (synchronous data link
a) synchronization bytes protocol), HDLC (High level data link control), SLIP
b) addresses (serial line interface protocol), PPP (Point to point
protocol) etc.
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned 9. Which one of the following is the multiple access
View Answer protocol for channel access control?
Answer: d a) CSMA/CD
Explanation: In computer networks, the header is a part b) CSMA/CA
of the data that contains all the required information c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
about the transmission of the file. It contains information d) None of the mentioned
like synchronization bytes, addresses, frame identifier View Answer
etc.
Answer: c
5. Automatic repeat request error management Explanation: In CSMA/CD, it deals with detection of
mechanism is provided by collision after collision has occurred. Whereas
a) logical link control sublayer CSMA/CA deals with preventing collision. CSMA/CD is
b) media access control sublayer abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple
Access/Collision detection. CSMA/CA is abbreviation for
c) network interface control sublayer
Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance.
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer 10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing
acknowledgements so that they can be hooked
Answer: a
Explanation: The logical link control is a sublayer of data onto the next outgoing data frame is called
link layer whose main function is to manage traffic, flow a) piggybacking
and error control. This layer also acts as an interface b) cyclic redundancy check
between MAC layer and network layer. c) fletcher’s checksum
d) none of the mentioned
6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been View Answer
changed during the transmission, the error is called
a) random error Answer: a
b) burst error Explanation: Piggybacking is a technique in which the
c) inverted error acknowledgment is temporarily delayed so as to be
hooked with the next outgoing data frame.
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b Computer Networks Questions &
Explanation: When a single bit error occurs in a data, it Answers – Network Layer
is called single bit error. When more than a single bit of
data is corrupted or has error, it is called burst error. This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network
7. CRC stands for
Layer”.
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check 1. The network layer concerns with
c) code redundancy check a) bits
d) cyclic repeat check b) frames
View Answer c) packets
d) none of the mentioned vector routing, link state routing, Hierarchical routing
View Answer etc.

Answer: c 6. Multidestination routing

Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the a) is same as broadcast routing
application layer is sent to the transport layer and is b) contains the list of all destinations
converted to segments. These segments are then c) data is not sent by packets
transferred to the network layer and these are called d) none of the mentioned
packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer View Answer
where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames
are then transferred to physical layer where the frames Answer: c
are converted to bits. Explanation: None.
2. Which one of the following is not a function of 7. A subset of a network that includes all the
network layer? routers but contains no loops is called
a) routing a) spanning tree
b) inter-networking b) spider structure
c) congestion control c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network
layer and it provides data routing paths for network protocol that creates a loop free logical topology for
communications. ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on
bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to
3. The 4 byte IP address consists of ensure that you do not create loops when you have
a) network address redundant paths in your network.
b) host address
c) both network address & host address 8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used
d) none of the mentioned for congestion control?
View Answer a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
Answer: c c) load shedding
Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that d) none of the mentioned
means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a network and
View Answer
host portion and it depends on address class.
Answer: d
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains Explanation: None.
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number 9. The network layer protocol of internet is
c) only source address a) ethernet
d) only destination address b) internet protocol
View Answer c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
View Answer
Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID
(virtual circuit identifier) is a type of identifier which is Answer: b
used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a Explanation: There are several protocols used in
connection oriented circuit switched network. Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP, CLNP,
ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can application layer and ethernet protocol is for data link
be used for network layer design? layer.
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing 10. ICMP is primarily used for
c) link state routing a) error and diagnostic functions
d) all of the mentioned b) addressing
View Answer c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides
where a packet should go next. There are several Answer: a
routing techniques like shortest path algorithm, static Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control
and dynamic routing, decentralized routing, distance Message Protocol is used by networking devices to
send error messages and operational information Answer: d
indicating a host or router cannot be reached. Explanation: Major internet applications like www, email,
file transfer etc rely on tcp. TCP is connection oriented
and it is optimized for accurate delivery rather than
Computer Networks Questions & timely delivery.
It can incur long delays.
Answers – Transport Layer
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice flow across a computer network is called
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on a) socket
“Transport Layer”. b) pipe
1. Transport layer aggregates data from different c) port
applications into a single stream before passing it d) none of the mentioned
to View Answer
a) network layer Answer: a
b) data link layer Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way
c) application layer communication link in the network. TCP layer can
d) physical layer identify the application that data is destined to be sent
View Answer by using the port number that is bound to socket.

Answer: a 6. Socket-style API for windows is called

Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in a) wsock
following manner Application -> Presentation -> Session b) winsock
-> Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical. c) wins
d) none of the mentioned
2. Which one of the following is a transport layer
View Answer
protocol used in networking?
a) TCP Answer: b
b) UDP Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which
c) Both TCP and UDP deals with input output requests for internet applications
d) None of the mentioned in windows OS. It defines how windows network
View Answer software should access network services.

Answer: c 7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP

Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer with congestion control?
protocol in networking. TCP is an abbreviation for a) datagram congestion control protocol
Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an b) stream control transmission protocol
abbreviation for User Datagram Protocol. TCP is c) structured stream transport
connection oriented whereas UDP is connectionless. d) none of the mentioned
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless View Answer
because Answer: a
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a
transport layer transport layer protocol which deals with reliable
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets connection setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit
c) it is received in the same order as sent order congestion notification, feature negotiation.
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer 8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service
access point.
Answer: a a) port
Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is b) pipe
used for those purposes where speed matters most c) node
whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP is d) none of the mentioned
connectionless whereas TCP is connection oriented. View Answer
4. Transmission control protocol is Answer: a
a) connection oriented protocol Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a computer, the network port identifies the application or
connection service running on the computer. A port number is 16
c) recievs data from application as a single stream bits.
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer 9. Transport layer protocols deals with
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication c) Ring
c) node to node communication d) Bus
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: In bus topology, there is a single cable to
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP which all the network nodes are connected. So
model and OSI reference model. It deals with logical whenever a node tries to send a message or data to
communication between process. It is responsible for other nodes, this data passes through all other nodes in
delivering a message between network host. the network.

10. Which one of the following is a transport layer 4. Data communication system spanning states,
protocol? countries, or the whole world is ________
a) stream control transmission protocol a) LAN
b) internet control message protocol b) WAN
c) neighbor discovery protocol c) MAN
d) dynamic host configuration protocol d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: There are many protocols in transport Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area
layer. The most prominent are TCP and UDP. Some of Network. This network extends over a large
the other protocols are RDP, RUDP, SCTP, DCCP etc. geographical area. These are used to connect cities,
states or even countries.

Computer Networks Questions & 5. Data communication system within a building or

campus is________
Answers – Topology a) LAN
b) WAN
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
c) MAN
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
d) None of the mentioned
“Topology”.
View Answer
1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is
Answer: a
__________ Explanation: LAN is an abbreviation for Local Area
a) Topology Network. This network interconnects computers in a
b) Routing small area such as schools, offices, residence etc.
c) Networking
d) None of the mentioned 6. Expand WAN?
View Answer a) World area network
b) Wide area network
Answer: a c) Web area network
Explanation: Topology in networks is the structure or d) None of the mentioned
pattern in which each and every node in the network is
View Answer
connected. There are many topologies in networking
like bus, tree, ring, star, mesh, hybrid. Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area
2. In which topology there is a central controller or Network. This network extends over a large
hub? geographical area. These are used to connect cities,
a) Star states or even countries. They can be connected
b) Mesh through leased lines or satellites.
c) Ring
d) Bus 7. In TDM, slots are further divided into
View Answer __________
a) Seconds
Answer: a b) Frames
Explanation: In star topology a main hub is present to c) Packets
which all other nodes of the network is connected. d) None of the mentioned
Every data or information being transmitted or received
View Answer
in this topology has to pass through the hub. The hub
directs the data to its destination. Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division
3. This topology requires multipoint connection multiplexing. It is technique for combining several low
a) Star rate channel to a single high rate channel. For a certain
b) Mesh
time slot, the several channels could use the maximum DIvision Multiplexing and Wavelength Division
bandwidth. Multiplexing are used for analog signals.

advertisement 4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate than

TDM link has _______ slots.
8. Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a) n
a different carrier frequency b) n/2
a) FDM c) n*2
b) TDM d) 2n
c) Both FDM & TDM View Answer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: When it comes to TDM, each and every
slots are dedicated to the source.
Answer: a
Explanation: FDM is an abbreviation for Frequency 5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each
Division Multiplexing. This technique is used when the slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit this TDM
bandwidth of the channel is greater than the combined is _________
bandwidth of all the signals which are to be transmitted. a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
Computer Networks Questions & d) None of the mentioned
Answers – Multiplexing View Answer

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer: a

Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number os
“Multiplexing”. bits in a slot.

1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more 6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called
devices is called _________ __________
a) Fully duplexing a) Death period
b) Multiplexing b) Poison period
c) Both Fully duplexing and Multiplexing c) Silent period
d) Duplexing d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Multiplexing is a method using which one Explanation: There are instances when connection
can send multiples signals through a shared medium at between two endpoints have been established, but no
the same time. This helps in using less resources and communication or transfer of messages occur. This
thus saving the cost of sending messages. period of time is called silent period.

2. Multiplexing is used in _______ 7. Multiplexing can provide _________

a) Packet switching a) Efficiency
b) Circuit switching b) Privacy
c) Data switching c) Anti jamming
d) Packet & Circuit switching d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Circuit switching is a switching method by Explanation: Multiplexing helps us to transfer our
which one can obtain a physical path between end messages over a shared channel. This brings up the
points. Circuit switching method is also called a issue of privacy and efficiency. Fortunately, Multiplexing
connection oriented network. has high efficiency and high privacy when implemented.

3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital advertisement

signals?
8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path
a) FDM
is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of
b) TDM
the signal sources.
c) WDM
a) Greater than
d) FDM & WDM
b) Lesser than
View Answer
c) Equal to
Answer: b d) Equal to or greater than
Explanation: TDM abbreviation for Time DIvision View Answer
Multiplexing is a method used for digital signals.
Answer: a
Whereas FDM and WDM abbreviation for Frequency
Explanation: In TDM the transmission rate provided by
the path that is multiplexed will always be greater than c) R/La
the sum of transmission rates of the single sources. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
9. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________
a) Seconds Answer: a
b) Frames Explanation: None.
c) Packets
d) None of the mentioned 5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if
View Answer the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps,
Answer: b
20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is
Explanation: In TDM time is divided into a frame. These usually
same frames are then divided into slots. a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
Computer Networks Questions & d) 50Mbps
Answers – Delays and Loss View Answer
Answer: b
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Explanation: The throughput is generally the
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Delays transmission rate of bottleneck link.
and Loss”.
6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end =
1. Which of the following delay is faced by the N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested
packet in travelling from one end system to another network. The number of routers between source
? and destination is
a) Propagation delay a) N/2
b) Queuing delay b) N
c) Transmission delay c) N-1
d) All of the mentioned d) 2N
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the 7. The total nodal delay is given by
packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is(in a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
microseconds) b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
a) 3.2 c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) 32 d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
c) 0.32 View Answer
d) 320
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission 8. In a network, If P is the only packet being
rate = 32/10 = 3.2 microseconds. transmitted and there was no earlier transmission,
which of the following delays could be zero
3. The time required to examine the packet’s a) Propogation delay
header and determine where to direct the packet is b) Queuing delay
part of c) Transmission delay
a) Processing delay d) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay View Answer
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: a 9. Transmission delay does not depend on

Explanation: None. a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L = number of c) Transmission rate
bits in the packet a = average rate R = d) None of the mentioned
transmission rate View Answer
a) La/R
b) LR/a
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length / Explanation: None.
transmission rate
5. Packet sniffers involve
10. Propagation delay depends on a) Active receiver
a) Packet length b) Passive receiver
b) Transmission rate c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
c) Distance between the routers d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: They donot inject packets into the channel.
Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit
to propagate from one router to the next. 6. Sniffers can be deployed in
a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
Computer Networks Questions & c) Ethernet LAN
Answers – Network Attacks d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Answer: d
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network
Explanation: None.
Attacks”.
7. Firewalls are often configured to block
1. The attackers a network of compromised
a) UDP traffic
devices known as
b) TCP traffic
a) Internet
c) Both of the mentioned
b) Botnet
d) None of the mentioned
c) Telnet
View Answer
d) D-net
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. advertisement

2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ? 8. In a network, If P is the only packet being
a) Vulnerability attack transmitted and there was no earlier transmission,
b) Bandwidth flooding which of the following delays could be zero
c) Connection flooding a) Propogation delay
d) All of the mentioned b) Queuing delay
View Answer c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
Answer: d
View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
3. The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes Explanation: None.
a large number of half-open or fully open TCP
connections at the target host
a) Vulnerability attack Computer Networks Questions &
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
Answers – Physical Media
d) All of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Answer: c “Physical Media”.
Explanation: None.
1. Which of this is not a guided media?
4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends a) Fiber optical cable
deluge of packets to the targeted host b) Coaxial cable
a) Vulnerability attack c) Wireless LAN
b) Bandwidth flooding d) Copper wire
c) Connection flooding View Answer
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.
2. UTP is commonly used in __________ Answer: b
a) DSL Explanation: The three types are those that operate
b) FTTP over very short distance, those that operate in local
c) HTTP areas, those that operate in the wide area.
d) None of the mentioned 7. Radio channels are attractive medium because
View Answer __________
Answer: a a) Can penetrate walls
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is commonly b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
used in home access. c) Can carry signals for long distance
d) All of the mentioned
3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric View Answer
copper conductors.
a) 1 Answer: d
b) 2 Explanation: Radio channels can penetrate walls, can
c) 3 be used to provide connectivity to mobile users and can
also carry signals for long distances.
d) 4
View Answer advertisement
Answer: b 8. Geostationary satellites ___________
Explanation: Coaxial cable has an inner conductor a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
surrounded by a insulating layer, which is surrounded
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
by a conducting shield. Coaxial cable is used to carry
high frequency signals with low losses. c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
d) All of the mentioned
4. Fiber optics posses following properties View Answer
__________
Answer: a
a) Immune electromagnetic interference
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km
b) Very less signal attenuation above Earth’s surface.
c) Very hard to tap
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer Computer Networks Questions &
Answer: d Answers – Packet Switching &
Explanation: In fibre optics the transmission of
information is in the form of light or photons. Due to all
Circuit Switching
above properties mentioned in options fibre optics can
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
be submerged in water and are used at more risk
environments.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Packet
Switching & Circuit Switching”.
5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n,
generally the link speed equals(in Mbps) 1. A local telephone network is an example of a
__________ _______ network.
a) n*39.8 a) Packet switched
b) n*51.8 b) Circuit switched
c) 2n*51.8 c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched
d) None of the mentioned d) Line switched
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: The base unit of transmission rates in Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented
optical fibre is 51.8 Mbits/s. So an optical carrier switching technique. Whereas in the case of packet
switching, it is connectionless. Circuit switching is
represented as OC-n has n*51.8 Mbits/s transmission
implemented in the Physical layer, whereas packet
speed. For eg. OC-3 has 3*51.8 Mbits/s speed.
switching is implemented in the Network layer.
6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed
2. Most packet switches use this principle
into _____ groups.
____________
a) 2
a) Stop and wait
b) 3
b) Store and forward
c) 4
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward
d) 1
d) Stop and forward
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b b) circuit switching
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first c) line switching
bit to outbound link until it receives the entire packet. d) frequency switching
View Answer
3. If there are N routers from source to destination,
a total end to end delay in sending packet P(L-> Answer: a
number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate) Explanation: In packet switching, the bits are received in
a) N out of order and need to be assembled at the receiver
b) (N*L)/R end. Whereas in the case of Circuit switching, all the
c) (2N*L)/R bits are received in order.
d) L/R
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View Answer
8. Which of the following is an application layer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation to find the end to end delay service?
when no. of bits, transmission rate and no. of routers is a) Network virtual terminal
given by (N*L)/R. b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
4. What are the Methods to move data through a d) All of the mentioned
network of links and switches? View Answer
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching Answer: d
c) Line switching Explanation: Network virtual terminal, mail service, file
transfer, access and management are all services of an
d) Both Packet switching and Circuit switching
application layer.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Packet switching and Circuit switching are Computer Networks Questions &
two different types of switching methods used to Answers – Application Layer – 1
connect the multiple communicating devices with one
another. This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
5. The resources needed for communication “Application Layer – 1”.
between end systems are reserved for the duration
of the session between end systems in ________ 1. Which is not a application layer protocol?
a) Packet switching a) HTTP
b) Circuit switching b) SMTP
c) Line switching c) FTP
d) Frequency switching d) TCP
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: In circuit switching, a physical path Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol.
between the sender and receiver is established. This
path is maintained until the connection is needed. 2. The packet of information at the application layer
is called __________
6. As the resouces are reserved between two a) Packet
communicating end systems in circuit switching, b) Message
this is achieved ___________ c) Segment
a) authentication d) Frame
b) guaranteed constant rate View Answer
c) reliability
d) store and forward Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session
layers there is no data format for message. Message is
Answer: b message as such in these three layers. But when it
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented comes to Transport, Network, Data and Physical layer
and is always implemented in the physical layer. Once a they have data in format of segments, packets, frames
path is set, all transmission occurs through the same and bits respectively.
path.
3. Which one of the following is an architecture
7. In _________ resources are allocated on paradigms?
demand. a) Peer to peer
a) packet switching b) Client-server
c) HTTP Answer: d
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server Explanation: The services provided by the application
View Answer layer are network virtual terminal, file transfer, access
and management, mail services, directory services,
Answer: d various file and data operations.
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
9. To deliver a message to the correct application
4. Application developer has permission to decide program running on a host, the _______ address
the following on transport layer side must be consulted.
a) Transport layer protocol a) IP
b) Maximum buffer size b) MAC
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum c) Port
buffer size d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: IP address lets you know where the
Explanation: Application layer provides the interface network is located. Whereas MAC address is a unique
between applications and the network. So application address for every device. Port address identifies a
developer can decide what transport layer to use and process or service you want to carry on.
what should be its maximum buffer size.
10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
5. Application layer offers _______ service. a) File transfer
a) End to end b) File download
b) Process to process c) E-mail
c) Both End to end and Process to process d) Internet telephony
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the applications are not.
application layer. Whereas process to process service is
provided at the transport layer. advertisement

6. E-mail is _________ 11. Transport services available to applications in

a) Loss-tolerant application one or another form _________
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application a) Reliable data transfer
c) Elastic application b) Timing
d) None of the mentioned c) Security
View Answer d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available Answer: d
throughput. Explanation: The transport services that are provided to
application are reliable data transfer, security and
7. Pick the odd one out. timing. These are very important for proper end to end
a) File transfer services.
b) File download
12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer
c) E-mail
protocol?
d) Interactive games
a) SMTP
View Answer
b) HTTP
Answer: d c) FTP
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are d) SIP
services provided by the application layer and there are View Answer
message and data oriented.
Answer: a
8. Which of the following is an application layer Explanation: Email uses various protocols like SMTP,
service? IMAP and POP. The most prominent one used in
a) Network virtual terminal application layer is SMTP.
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer Answers – Application Layer – 2
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice 5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on a) base 64 encoding
“Application Layer – 2”. b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
1. The ____________ translates internet domain d) base 8 encoding
and host names to IP address. View Answer
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol Answer: a
c) network time protocol Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of
d) internet relay chat applications including email via MIME, and storing
View Answer complex data in XML. Problem with sending normal
binary data to a network is that bits can be
Answer: a misinterpreted by underlying protocols, produce
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the incorrect data at receiving node and that is why we use
internet domain names are stored and translated to IP this code.
addresses. The domain names systems matches the
name of website to ip addresses of the website. 6. Which one of the following is an internet
standard protocol for managing devices on IP
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one network?
site to establish a connection to another site and a) dynamic host configuration protocol
then pass keystrokes from local host to remote b) simple network management protocol
host? c) internet message access protocol
a) HTTP d) media gateway protocol
b) FTP View Answer
c) Telnet
d) TCP Answer: b
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network
View Answer
management and monitoring. This protocol is included
Answer: c in the application layer. SNMP uses 7 protocol data
Explanation: Telnet is used for accessing remote units.
computers. Using telnet a user can access computer
remotely. With Telnet, you can log on as a regular user 7. Which one of the following is not an application
with whatever privileges you may have been granted to layer protocol?
the specific application and data on the computer. a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
3. Application layer protocol defines ____________ c) resource reservation protocol
a) types of messages exchanged d) session initiation protocol
b) message format, syntax and semantics View Answer
c) rules for when and how processes send and
respond to messages Answer: c
d) all of the mentioned Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in
transport layer. It is designed to reserve resources
View Answer
across a network for quality of service using the
Answer: d integrated services model.
Explanation: Application layer deals with the user
interface, what message is to be sent or the message 8. Which protocol is a signaling communication
format, syntax and semantics. A user has access to protocol used for controlling multimedia
application layer for sending and receiving messages. communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
4. Which one of the following protocol b) session modelling protocol
delivers/stores mail to reciever server? c) session maintenance protocol
a) simple mail transfer protocol d) resource reservation protocol
b) post office protocol View Answer
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its
function includes initiating, maintaining and terminating
Answer: a real time sessions. SIP is used for signaling and
Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail controlling multimedia sessions.
Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol. A
client who wishes to send a mail creates a TCP 9. Which one of the following is not correct?
connection to the SMTP server and then sends the mail a) Application layer protocols are used by both
across the connection. source and destination devices during a
communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol b) RTT
c) TCP is an application layer protocol c) PTT
d) All of the mentioned d) JTT
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol. Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.
Whereas TCP is a transport layer protocol.
4. The HTTP request message is sent in
10. When displaying a web page, the application _________ part of three-way handshake.
layer uses the _____________ a) First
a) HTTP protocol b) Second
b) FTP protocol c) Third
c) SMTP protocol d) Fourth
d) TCP protocol View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer establish a connection with the server. In the second the
protocol. It is the foundation of data communication for step the client waits for the acknowledgement to be
world wide web. This protocol decides how the received from the server. After receiving the
message is formatted and transmitted etc. acknowledgement, the client sends actual data in the
third step.

Computer Networks Questions & 5. In the process of fetching a web page from a
server the HTTP request/response takes
Answers – HTTP __________ RTTs.
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice a) 2
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “HTTP”. b) 1
c) 4
1. The number of objects in a Web page which d) 3
consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is View Answer
________
Answer: b
a) 4
Explanation: By default the http connection will be
b) 1 persistent connection. Hence it will take only 1 RTT to
c) 5 fetch a webpage from a server.
d) 7
View Answer 6. The first line of HTTP request message is called
_____________
Answer: c a) Request line
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
b) Header line
2. The default connection type used by HTTP is c) Status line
_________ d) Entity line
a) Persistent View Answer
b) Non-persistent Answer: a
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent Explanation: The line followed by request line are called
depending on connection request header lines and status line is the initial part of response
d) None of the mentioned message.
View Answer
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified
Answer: a in ____________ of HTTP message
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued a) Request line
with persistent connection. In persistent connection b) Header line
server leaves connection open after sending response.
c) Status line
As little as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel
from client to server and back) is required for all d) Entity body
referenced objects. View Answer

3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client Answer: a

Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request
to server and then back to the client is called
line in the HTTP request message.
__________
a) STT
8. The __________ method when used in the Answer: c
method field, leaves entity body empty. Explanation: The HTTP protocol requests the server of
a) POST the website its trying to access so that it can store its
b) SEND files, images etc. in cache memory. This request of
asking the server for a document considering a specific
c) GET
parameter is called conditional GET Request.
d) PUT
View Answer 13. Which of the following is present in both an
HTTP request line and a status line?
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods which help to a) HTTP version number
request a response from a server. Those are GET and b) URL
POST. In GET method, the client requests data from c) Method
server. In POST method the client submits data to be d) None of the mentioned
processed to the server. View Answer
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the Answer: a
requested object when ____________ method is Explanation: Status line is the the start line of an HTTP
used response. It contains the information such as the
a) GET protocol version, a status text, status code.
b) POST
c) HEAD Computer Networks Questions &
d) PUT
View Answer Answers – HTTP & FTP
Answer: c This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “HTTP &
method. In HEAD method much smaller amount of data FTP”.
is transferred. The HEAD method asks only for
information about a document and not for the document 1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP
itself. connection between client and server in
a) persistent HTTP
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
b) nonpersistent HTTP
a) 200 OK
c) both persistent HTTP and nonpersistent HTTP
b) 400 Bad Request
d) none of the mentioned
c) 301 Moved permanently
View Answer
d) 304 Not Found
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found. 2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
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a) application layer
b) transport layer
11. Which of the following is not correct? c) network layer
a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space d) none of the mentioned
b) Web cache can act both like server and client View Answer
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
Answer: a
d) Web cache contains copies of recently Explanation: None.
requested objects
View Answer 3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a) uniform resource identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: Web cache or also known as HTTP cache
b) unique resource locator
is a temporary storage where HTML pages and images c) unique resource identifier
are stored temporarily so that server lag could be d) none of the mentioned
reduced. View Answer

12. The conditional GET mechanism Answer: a

a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be Explanation: None.
requested 4. HTTP client requests by establishing a
b) Limits the number of response from a server __________ connection to a particular port on the
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date server.
d) None of the mentioned a) user datagram protocol
View Answer
b) transmission control protocol 10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be
c) broader gateway protocol done in
d) none of the mentioned a) stream mode
View Answer b) block mode
c) compressed mode
Answer: b d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
View Answer
5. In HTTP pipelining Answer: d
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single Explanation: None.
TCP connection without waiting for the
corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a Computer Networks Questions &
single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a
Answers – FTP
single TCP connection This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
d) none of the mentioned Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “FTP”.
View Answer
1. Expansion of FTP is
Answer: a a) Fine Transfer Protocol
Explanation: None.
b) File Transfer Protocol
6. FTP server listens for connection on port c) First Transfer Protocol
number d) None of the mentioned
a) 20 View Answer
b) 21 Answer: b
c) 22 Explanation: None.
d) 23
View Answer 2. FTP is built on _____ architecture
a) Client-server
Answer: b b) P2P
Explanation: None.
c) Both of the mentioned
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using d) None of the mentioned
____ as the transport protocol. View Answer
a) transmission control protocol Answer: a
b) user datagram protocol Explanation: None.
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol 3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections
View Answer to transfer a file
a) 1
Answer: a b) 2
Explanation: None.
c) 3
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the d) 4
control and data connections. View Answer
a) active mode Answer: b
b) passive mode Explanation: Control connection and data connection.
c) both active mode and passive mode
d) none of the mentioned 4. Identify the incorrect statement
View Answer a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
Answer: b c) FTP sends its control information in-band
Explanation: None.
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data
9. The file transfer protocol is built on connection
a) data centric architecture View Answer
b) service oriented architecture Answer: c
c) client server architecture Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has separate
d) none of the mentioned control connection.
View Answer
5. If 5 files are transfered from server A to client B
Answer: c in the same session. The number of TCP
Explanation: None.
connection between A and B is Answer: b
a) 5 Explanation: None.
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6 Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer Answers – SMTP – 1
Answer: d This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Explanation: 1 control connection and other 5 for five file Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SMTP –
transfers. 1”.
6. FTP server 1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail
a) Mantains state servers it becomes ____________
b) Is stateless a) SMTP server
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer b) SMTP client
d) None of the mentioned c) Peer
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
7. The commands, from client to server, and Explanation: None.
replies, from server to client, are sent across the 2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP
control connection in ________ bit ASCII format it has to be encoded into
a) 8 a) Binary
b) 7 b) Signal
c) 3 c) ASCII
d) 5 d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly 3. Expansion of SMTP is
matched a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
a) 331 – Username OK, password required b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
c) 452 – Error writing file d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
4. In SMTP, the command to write recievers mail
9. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is left adress is written with this command
to TCP a) SEND TO
a) Stream mode b) RCPT TO
b) Block mode c) MAIL TO
c) Compressed mode d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by
10. The password is sent to the server using SMTP is
________ command a) TCP
a) PASSWD b) UDP
b) PASS c) Either TCP or UDP
c) PASSWORD d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a d) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
Explanation: None. View Answer
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of Answer: d
SMTP Explanation: None.
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol 12. User agent does not support this
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another a) Composing messages
mail server b) Reading messages
d) None of the mentioned c) Replying messages
View Answer d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the mail to Answer: d
receiving mail server hence it is push protocol. Explanation: None.

7. Internet mail places each object in

a) Separate messages for each object Computer Networks Questions &
b) One message Answers – SMTP – 2
c) Varies with number of objects
d) None of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SMTP –
2”.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes
_________ as the transport layer protocol for
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
electronic mail transfer.
a) 25
a) TCP
b) 35
b) UDP
c) 50
c) DCCP
d) 15
d) SCTP
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. A session may include
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
as
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
a) SMTPS
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
b) SSMTP
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be
c) SNMP
determined
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. Example of user agents for e-mail
3. SMTP uses the TCP port
a) Microsoft Outlook
a) 22
b) Apple Mail
b) 23
c) None of the above
c) 24
d) All of the mentioned
d) 25
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer:d
Explanation:None.
advertisement
4. Which one of the following protocol is used to
11. When the sender and the receiver of an email receive mail messages?
are on different systems, we need only _________ a) smtp
a) One MTA b) post office protocol
b) Two UAs c) internet message access protocol
c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs
d) all of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation:None. Explanation:None.

5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

a) protocol for SMTP security Computer Networks Questions &
b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages
Answers – DNS
d) none of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “DNS”.
Answer:b 1. The entire hostname has a maximum of
Explanation:None.
___________
6. An email client needs to know the _________ of a) 255 characters
its initial SMTP server. b) 127 characters
a) IP address c) 63 characters
b) MAC address d) 31 characters
c) Url View Answer
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: An entire hostname can have a maximum
of 255 characters. Although each label must be from 1
Answer:a
to 63 characters long. Host name is actually a label that
Explanation:None.
is given to a device in a network.
7. A SMTP session may include
2. A DNS client is called _________
a) zero SMTP transaction
a) DNS updater
b) one SMTP transaction
b) DNS resolver
c) more than one SMTP transaction
c) DNS handler
d) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer:d
Answer: b
Explanation:None.
Explanation: DNS client also known as DNS resolver
8. SMTP defines also known as DNS lookup helps to resolve DNS
requests using an external DNS server.
a) message transport
b) message encryption 3. Servers handle requests for other domains
c) message content _______
d) none of the mentioned a) directly
View Answer b) by contacting remote DNS server
Answer:a
c) it is not possible
Explanation:None. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server
configured in such a way that anyone on the Answer: b
Explanation: Whenever a request is received at server
internet can send e-mail through it? from other domains, it handles this situation by
a) open mail relay contacting remote DNS server.
b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception 4. DNS database contains _______
d) none of the mentioned a) name server records
View Answer b) hostname-to-address records
c) hostname aliases
Answer:a
d) all of the mentioned
Explanation:None.
View Answer
10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to Answer: d
a) user’s terminal Explanation: Domain Name system not only deals with
b) user’s mailbox mapping IP addresses with the hostname but also deals
c) both user’s terminal and mailbox with exchange of information in the server.
5. If a server has no clue about where to find the d) none of the mentioned
address for a hostname then _______ View Answer
a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjcent server Answer: a
Explanation: A domain name system is maintained by a
c) request is not processed
distributed database system. It is a collection of
d) none of the mentioned multiple, logically interrelated databases distributed over
View Answer a computer network.
Answer: a
10. Which one of the following is not true?
Explanation: Root name servers are actually very
important and critical as they are the first step in
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single
translating human readable hostnames into IP IP address
addresses for carrying out communication. b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP
addresses
6. Which one of the following allows client to c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP
update their DNS entry as their IP address address
change? d) none of the mentioned
a) dynamic DNS View Answer
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server Answer: c
Explanation: It need not be that a single hostname will
d) none of the mentioned
correspond to a ip address. For example facebook.com
View Answer and fb.com both correspond to same ip address. So
Answer: a there can be multiple hostnames for a single ip address.
Explanation: Dynamic DNS or in short DDNS or
DynDNS helps in automatically updating a name server
in the DNS. This does not require manual editing. Computer Networks Questions &
Answers – SSH
7. Wildcard domain names start with label _______
a) @ This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
b) * Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SSH”.
c) &
d) # 1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for
View Answer __________
a) secure data communication
Answer: b b) remote command-line login
Explanation: A wildcard DNS record matches requests c) remote command execution
to a non existent domain name. This wildcard DNS
d) all of the mentioned
record is specified by using asterisk “*” as the starting of
a domain name. View Answer
Answer: d
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by
Explanation: SSH provides high encryption and security
domain name registers which are accredited by features while communicating through a network. It is a
_______ cryptographic network protocol.
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society 2. SSH can be used in only _____________
c) internet research task force a) unix-like operating systems
d) internet corporation for assigned names and b) windows
numbers c) both unix-like and windows systems
View Answer d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ICANN (Internet Corporation for Answer: c
Assigned Names and Numbers) deals with IP address Explanation: SSH isn’t confined to a certain network or
space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, generic operating system. It can be implemented over different
and country code Top Level domain name system networks and on different operating systems.
management (gTLD and ccTLD).
3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the
9. The domain name system is maintained by remote computer.
_______ a) public-key cryptography
a) distributed database system b) private-key cryptography
b) a single server c) any of public-key or private-key
c) a single computer
d) both public-key & private-key d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Public encryption key is slower but more Explanation: All of the mentioned features are provided
flexible. Every cryptographic security system requires a by SSH-2 and that SSH-1 only provide strong
private key for private access and a public key for authentication and guarantee confidentiality.
location.
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over
4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for SSH.
contacting SSH servers? a) RCP protocol
a) port 21 b) DHCP protocol
b) port 22 c) MGCP protocol
c) port 23 d) GCP protocol
d) port 24 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: RCP is the abbreviation for Rate Control
Explanation: Port 22 is used for contacting ssh servers, Protocol is a congestion control algorithm for fast user
used for file transfers (scp, sftp) and also port response times.
forwarding.
10. Which one of the following authentication
5. Which one of the following protocol can be used method is used by SSH?
for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH? a) public-key
a) telnet b) host based
b) rlogin c) password
c) both telnet and rlogin d) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: SSH used public key authentication,
Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet and Password authentication, Host based authentication,
rlogin. keyboard authentication and authentication of servers.

6. Which one of the following is a file transfer

protocol using SSH? Computer Networks Questions &
a) SCP
b) SFTP
Answers – DHCP
c) Rsync This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
d) All of the mentioned Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “DHCP”.
View Answer
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol)
Answer: d provides __________ to the client.
Explanation: SCP (Secure copy protocol), SFTP (SSH
a) IP address
File Transfer Protocol) and Rsync all are file transfer
protocols which are used by SSH. b) MAC address
c) Url
7. SSH-2 does not contain ______________ d) None of the mentioned
a) transport layer View Answer
b) user authentication layer
Answer: a
c) physical layer
Explanation: We use DHCP to allow the hosts to
d) connection layer acquire their ip addresses dynamically which is better
View Answer than visiting each and every host on the network and
configure all of this information manually.
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH2 is a more secure, portable and 2. DHCP is used for ________
efficient version of SSH that includes SFTP, which is
a) IPv6
functionally similar to FTP, but is SSH2 encrypted.
b) IPv4
8. Which one of the following feature was present c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
in SSH protocol, version 1? d) None of the mentioned
a) password changing View Answer
b) periodic replacement of session keys
Answer: c
c) support for public-key certificates Explanation: DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6
addressing. With DHCP you get to let the hosts know c) TCP broadcast
about the change dynamically, and hosts update their d) TCP unicast
info themselves. View Answer
3. The DHCP server _________ Answer: a
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses Explanation: DHCP actually employs a connectionless
b) maintains the information about client service, which is provided by UDP, since TCP is
configuration parameters connection oriented. It is implemented with two UDP
c) grants a IP address when receives a request port numbers 67 and 68 for its operations.
from a client
d) all of the mentioned 8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP
View Answer conflict the client may use _________
a) internet relay chat
Answer: d b) broader gateway protocol
Explanation: Whenever a DHCP server gets a request c) address resolution protocol
from a client it responds with a DHCP offer containing d) none of the mentioned
IP address being offered, network mask offered, the View Answer
amount of time that the client can use and keep it, the ip
address of the DHCP server making this offer. Answer: c
Explanation: ARP abbreviation for address resolution
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is protocol is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC
a) for a limited period addresses that are present in the local network.
b) for an unlimited period
c) not time dependent 9. What is DHCP snooping?
d) none of the mentioned a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an
View Answer existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
Answer: a c) algorithm for DHCP
Explanation: The IP address offered to a client is only d) none of the mentioned
for a limited period of time. There is actually a certain View Answer
amount of time that the client can use and keep this IP
address. Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP snooping is a security feature that is
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending used in OS of a network in the layer 2. This technology
data to the server. prevents unauthorized DHCP servers offering IP
a) 66 addresses to DHCP clients.
b) 67
c) 68 10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN
d) 69 switch, then clients having specific ______ can
View Answer access the network.
a) MAC address
Answer: b b) IP address
Explanation: 67 is the UDP port number that is used as c) Both MAC address and IP address
the destination port of a server. Whereas UDP port d) None of the mentioned
number 68 is used by the client. View Answer
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of Answer: c
the IP addresses. Explanation: The DHCP snooping is done to prevent
a) dynamic allocation unauthorized IP addresses being offered by
b) automatic allocation unauthorized servers. This features allows only specific
c) static allocation mac addresses and IP addresses to access the
d) all of the mentioned network.
View Answer
Answer: d Computer Networks Questions &
Explanation: When a host acquires multiple offers of IP
addresses from different DHCP servers, the host will
Answers – IPSecurity
broadcast a dhcp request identifying the server whose
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
offer has been accepted.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet “IPSecurity”.
communicate via _________
1. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the
a) UDP broadcast
a) Transport layer
b) UDP unicast
b) Network layer
c) Application layer b) Email security
d) Session layer c) FTP security
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network layer is used for transferring the Answer: b
data from transport layer to another layers. Explanation: PGP is at email security.

2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the advertisement

a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header 8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher
c) IP payload called
d) None of the mentioned a) International data encryption algorithm
View Answer b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: It is nothing but adding control bits to the View Answer
packets.
Answer: a
3. Which component is included in IP security? Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher
a) Authentication Header (AH) called international data encryption algorithm.
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE) 9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect
d) All of the mentioned information from a host that has no authority giving
View Answer that information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
Answer: d b) DNS hijacking
Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE. c) DNS spoofing
d) None of the mentioned
4. WPA2 is used for security in View Answer
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth Answer: c
c) Wi-Fi Explanation: DNS spoofing is the phenomenon for the
d) None of the mentioned above mentioned transaction.
View Answer
Answer: c Computer Networks Questions &
Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi connection.
Answers – Virtual Private Networks
5. An attempt to make a computer resource
unavailable to its intended users is called This set of Computer Networks Interview
a) Denial-of-service attack Questions and Answers focuses on “Virtual Private
b) Virus attack Networks”.
c) Worms attack 1. A ___________ is an extension of an
d) Botnet process enterprise’s private intranet across a public
View Answer network such as the internet, creating a secure
Answer: a private connection.
Explanation: Denial of service attack. a) VNP
b) VPN
6. Extensible authentication protocol is c) VSN
authentication framework frequently used in d) VSPN
a) Wired personal area network View Answer
b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network Answer: b
Explanation: VIRTUAL PRIVATE NETWORK.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 2. When were VPNs introduced into the
Answer:b commercial world?
Explanation:Most data transfer is with wireless a) Early 80’s
networks. b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in d) Late 90’s
a) Browser security View Answer
Answer: d d) L2TP
Explanation: LATE 90’S. View Answer
3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a Answer: a
VPN? Explanation: It is the security type of the IPsec.
a) PPTP
b) IPsec 9. L2F was developed by which company?
c) YMUM a) Microsoft
d) L2TP b) Cisco
View Answer c) Blizzard Entertainment
d) IETF
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: YNUM.
Answer: b
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true Explanation: Cisco is the second best company to
concerning VPNs? design and make the computer networks.
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data 10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public PPTP work at?
networks a) Layer 1
d) Is the backbone of the Internet b) Layer 2
View Answer c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: virtual packet network is not a backbone of
the internet. Answer: b
Explanation: Presentation layer.
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
a) Invisible from public networks advertisement
b) Logically separated from other traffic 11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks IPsec work at?
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec a) Layer 1
View Answer b) Layer 2
Answer: c c) Layer 3
Explanation: Because it is secured with the IP address. d) Layer 4
View Answer
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________
a) Always more expensive than leased lines Answer: c
b) Always cheaper than leased lines Explanation: Session layer.
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer
Answers – SMI
Answer: c
Explanation: It is very cheap. This set of Computer Networks Questions and
Answers for Freshers focuses on “SMI”.
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over
a L2TP VPN? 1. Storage management comprises of
a) IP a) SAN Management
b) IPX b) Data protection
c) Neither IP or IPX c) Disk operation
d) Both IP or IPX d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Data roming layer. Explanation: SAN, Data protection and Disk operation
are the main things of storage management.
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined
in which of the following standards? 2. Identify the storage devices
a) IPsec a) Switch
b) PPTP b) RAID Arrays
c) PPP c) Tape drives
d) All of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: switch, RAID arrays and tape drives are Explanation: Identifying, Monitoring and Tracking are
main storage devices. main tasks involved in SCM.

3. Which protocols are used for Storage 8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s)
management? a) Standardization drives software interoperability
a) SNMP and interchange ability
b) LDAP b) Breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary
c) POP3 methods, trade secrets, and single providers
d) MIB c) Builds a strong foundation on which others can
View Answer quickly build and innovate
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol is
for storage management. Answer: d
Explanation: Driver software, old style dependence and
4. Identify the difficulties the SAN administrator strong foundation.
incur while dealing with diverse vendors
a) Proprietary management interfaces 9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the to
data center a) To promote interoperability among the
c) No single view management solution providers
d) All of the mentioned b Acts as an interface between the various budding
View Answer technologies and provide solution to manage
various environments
Answer: d c) Only To promote interoperability among the
Explanation: Proprietary management interfaces,
management solution providers
multiple applications management and no single view
are main difficulties.
d) Both To promote interoperability among the
management solution providers and Acts as an
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure interface between the various budding
access to storage devices: technologies and provide solution to manage
a) By using Zoning various environments
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device View Answer
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
Answer: d
d) By keeping devices when used Explanation: Promote interoperability and interface
View Answer between various buildings.
Answer: a
10. SMI-S Standard uses
Explanation: By using Zoning, Storage administrators
ensure secure access to storage devices.
a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
6. Effective Storage management includes c) CORBA
a) Securities d) .NET
b) Backups View Answer
c) Reporting
Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: CIM-XML/HTTP is a SMI-S standard.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In storage management all necessities like
Computer Networks Questions &
security, backups and reporting facilities are included. Answers – SNMP
7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage Capacity This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
management Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SNMP”.
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full
capacity 1. An application-level protocol in which a few
b) Monitoring trends for each resource manager stations control a set of agents is called
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total a) HTML
available b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP d) Security Management
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: An application-level protocol in which a few Explanation: A term that responsible for controlling
manager stations control a set of agents is called access to network based on predefined policy is called
SNMP. security management.

2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of each 7. BER stands for

domain from a) Basic Encoding Rules
a) 10 to 20 mbps b) Basic Encoding Resolver
b) 20 to 30 mbps c) Basic Encoding Rotator
c) 30 to 40 mbps d) Basic Encoding Router
d) 40 to 50 mbps View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Basic encoding rules.
Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity increased on each
domain in full duplex mode. 8. Control of users’ access to network resources
through charges are main responsibilities of
3. Configuration management can be divided into a) Reactive Fault Management
two subsystems those are b) Reconfigured Fault Management
a) Reconfiguration and documentation c) Accounting Management
b) Management and configuration d) Security Management
c) Documentation and dialing up View Answer
d) Both Reconfiguration and documentation and
Management and configuration Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Control of users’ access to network
resources through charges are main responsibilities of
Answer: a accounting management.
Explanation: Reconfiguration and documentation are
two subsystems of configuration management. 9. SNMP is a framework for managing devices in
an internet using the
4. To use Simple Network Management System a) TCP/IP protocol
(SNMP), we need b) UDP
a) Servers c) SMTP
b) IP d) None
c) Protocols View Answer
d) Rules
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a framework for managing
Answer: d devices in an internet using the TCP/IP protocol.
Explanation: To use Simple Network Management
System (SNMP), we need rules. 10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is
guideline of
5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 a) HTTP
is the b) SNMP
a) Management c) URL
b) Integration d) MIB
c) Classification View Answer
d) Enhanced security
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP.
Answer: d
Explanation: Enhanced security is the main difference
between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2. Computer Networks Questions &
6. In Network Management System, a term that
Answers – Telnet – 1
responsible for controlling access to network based This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
on predefined policy is called Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Telnet –
a) Fault Management 1”.
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management 1. The protocol used by Telnet application is
a) Telnet
b) FTP 7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
c) HTTP a) default mode
d) None of the mentioned b) server mode
View Answer c) line mode
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
2. In “character at a time” mode Explanation: None.
a) Character processing is done on the local
system under the control of the remote system advertisement
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the
remote host for processing 8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines client instead of server
are sent to the remote host a) escape character has to be used
d) None of the mentioned b) control functions has to be disabled
View Answer c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a Explanation: None.
remote computer
a) Telnet
b) FTP Computer Networks Questions &
c) HTTP Answers – Telnet – 2
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Telnet –
Answer: a 2”.
Explanation: None.
1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection
4. The correct syntax to be written in the web to
browser to Telnet to www.sanfoundry.com is a) TCP port number 21
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com b) TCP port number 22
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com c) TCP port number 23
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com d) TCP port number 24
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
2. Which one of the following is not true?
5. Telnet is a a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT)
a) Television on net standard
b) Network of Telephones b) client programs interact with NVT
c) Remote Login c) server translates NVT operations
d) Teleshopping site d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
6. Which one of the following is not correct? 3. All telnet operations are sent as
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program a) 4 bytes
b) telnet lets user access an application on a b) 8 bytes
remote computer c) 16 bytes
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer d) 32 bytes
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
a) windows Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “TCP-1”.
b) linux
c) mac 1. Which of the following is true with respect to
d) none of the mentioned TCP
View Answer a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
Answer: a c) Transport layer protocol
Explanation: None. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
5. The decimal code of interpret as command (IAC)
character is Answer: d
a) 252 Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol, process-
b) 253 to-process, and creates a virtual connection between
c) 254 two TCP’s.
d) 255
View Answer 2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as
a) Stream of bytes
Answer: d b) Sequence of characters
Explanation: None. c) Lines of data
d) Packets
6. In character mode operation of telnet View Answer
implementation
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the Answer: a
server Explanation: In TCP, data is sent and received in terms
b) each character typed is discarded by the server of Stream of bytes.
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word
3. TCP process may not write and read data at the
and then send to the server
same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
d) none of the mentioned
a) Packets
View Answer
b) Buffers
Answer: a c) Segments
Explanation: None. d) Stacks
View Answer
7. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the
screen but does not send it until a whole line is Answer: b
completed in Explanation: TCP needs buffers for storage to
a) default mode overcome this problem.
c) character mode 4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a
c) server mode packet called
d) none of the mentioned a) Packet
View Answer b) Buffer
Answer: a c) Segment
Explanation: None. d) Stack
View Answer
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Answer: c
8. Which one of the following is not correct? Explanation: Segment is a grouping of number of bytes
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program together into a packet.
b) telnet lets user access an application on a
remote computer 5. Communication offered by TCP is
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer a) Full-duplex
d) none of the mentioned b) Half-duplex
View Answer c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: Data flow in both the directions at the
Computer Networks Questions & same time during TCP communication hence, Full-
duplex.
Answers – TCP-1
6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, Computer Networks Questions &
___________ is used to check the safe and sound
arrival of data. Answers – TCP-2
a) Packet
b) Buffer This set of Computer Networks Interview
c) Segment Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
d) Acknowledgment “TCP – 2”.
View Answer 1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of
Answer: d data that are to be sent by the sender is referred as
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to ___________
check the safe and sound arrival of data. a) Flow control
b) Error control
7. In segment header, sequence number and c) Congestion control
acknowledgement number field refers to d) Error detection
a) Byte number View Answer
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number Answer: a
d) Acknowledgment Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver
View Answer from being overwhelmed with data.

Answer: a 2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between

Explanation: Sequence number and acknowledgement ___________
number field refers to byte number. a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file c) 20 and 60 bytes
of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. d) 20 and 60 bits
What is the sequence number of the segment if all View Answer
data is sent in only one segment.
a) 10000 Answer: c
b) 10001 Explanation: The header is 20 bytes if there are no
c) 12001 options and upto 60 bytes if it contains options.
d) 11001 3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by
View Answer which mechanism?
Answer: b a) Flow control
Explanation: The sequence number of each segment is b) Three-Way Handshaking
the number of first byte carried in that segment. c) Forwarding
d) Synchronisation
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each View Answer
connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers
starts with a Answer: b
a) Random number Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to
b) Zero connect between client and server.
c) One 4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s to accept a connection. This process is called
View Answer ___________
Answer: d a) Active open
Explanation: These numbers starts with a random b) Active close
number. c) Passive close
d) Passive open
10. The value of acknowledgement field in a View Answer
segment defines
a) Number of previous bytes to receive Answer: d
b) Total number of bytes to receive Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way
c) Number of next bytes to receive Handshaking process and is started by the server.
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s 5. The process of, A client that wishes to connect
View Answer to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be
Answer: c connected to that particular server is ___________
Explanation: Acknowledgement field in a segment a) Active open
defines the number of next bytes to receive. b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open b) Acknowledgment number
View Answer c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way
Handshaking process and is done by the client once it Answer: b
finds the open server. Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for
sequence number and acknowledgment number. Its
6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the these values that allow TCP to detect lost segments and
situation where both the TCP’s issue an active in turn recover from that loss.
open is ___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close Computer Networks Questions &
c) Simultaneous open Answers – UDP
d) Simultaneous close
View Answer This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “UDP”.
Answer: c
Explanation: Here, both TCP’s transmit a SYNC+ACK 1. Which of the following is false with respect to
segment to each other and one single connection is
UDP
established between them.
a) Connection-oriented
7. The situation when a malicious attacker sends a b) Unreliable
large number of SYNC segments to a server, c) Transport layer protocol
pretending that each of them is coming from a d) All of the mentioned
different client by faking the source IP address in View Answer
the datagrams.
Answer: a
a) SYNC flooding attack Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless
b) Active attack transport layer protocol.
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack 2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is
View Answer a) String of characters
b) String of integers
Answer: a c) Array of characters with integers
Explanation: This is the serious security problem during
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
the connection establishment.
View Answer
8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of
Answer: a
security attack known as ___________ Explanation: Chargen with port number 19 returns string
a) SYNC flooding attack of characters.
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack 3. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services
d) Denial-of-service attack such as
View Answer a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
Answer: d c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
collapses and denies service to every request.
View Answer
9. Size of source and destination port address of
Answer: d
TCP header respectively are ___________ Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol which provides
a) 16-bits and 32-bits demultiplexing and error checking.
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits 4. The main advantage of UDP is
d) 32-bits and 32-bits a) More overload
View Answer b) Reliable
c) Less overload
Answer: b d) Fast
Explanation: Size of source and destination ports must
View Answer
be 32-bits.
Answer: c
10. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless
in turn recover from that loss? transport layer protocol and uses minimum overload.
a) Sequence number
5. Port number used by Network Time encapsulated in an IP datagram, we get the length of
Protocol(NTP) with UDP is UDP user datagram.
a) 161
b) 123 10. The field used to detect errors over the entire
c) 162 user datagram is
d) 124 a) UDP header
View Answer b) Checksum
c) Source port
Answer: b d) Destination port
Explanation: Port number used by Network Time View Answer
Protocol with UDP is 123.
Answer: b
6. what is the header size of UDP packet? Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors
a) 8 bytes over the entire user datagram.
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer Answers – AH and ESP Protocols
Answer: a This set of Computer Networks Questions and
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is Answers for Experienced people focuses on “AH
8 bytes. and ESP Protocols”.
7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if 1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure
the source host is …… security and confidentiality of data within the same
a) NTP LAN?
b) Echo a) AH transport mode
c) Server b) ESP transport mode
d) Client c) ESP tunnel mode
View Answer d) AH tunnel mode
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: If the source host is the client, the port
Answer: b
number in most cases will be ephemeral port number.
Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used to
8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data that is
exchanged within the same LAN.
length of
a) Only UDP header 2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be
b) Only data used to secure the authentication of computers
c) Only checksum using IPsec?
d) UDP header plus data a) Kerberos V5
View Answer b) SHA
Answer: d c) MD5
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which d) Both SHA and MD5
contains the length of UDP header and the data. View Answer

9. Correct expression for UDP user datagram Answer: d

length is Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos V5 is
an authentication protocol, not an encryption protocol;
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
therefore, answer A is incorrect. Certificates are a type
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s of authentication that can be used with IPsec, not an
length encryption protocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s 3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure
length communications between two LANs?
View Answer a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
Answer: a c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP
d) ESP transport mode
datagram. There is a field in the IP datagram the
defines the total length. There is another field in the IP View Answer
datagram that defines the length of the header. So if we Answer: c
subtract the length of a UDP datagram that is Explanation: A tunnel mode IPsec should be used.
Option c is for data transfer purpose, option d is for accessible for reading by authorized parities.
integrity & confidentiality purpose. a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level. c) Availability
a) AH d) Authenticity
b) ESP View Answer
c) PGP
d) SSL Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Confidentiality means that the information
in a computer system only be accessible for reading by
Answer: a authorized parities.
Explanation: It provides integrity checking and anti-reply
security. 10. Which of the following organizations is primarily
concerned with military encryption systems?
5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and a) NSA
________ b) NIST
a) AH; SSL c) IEEE
b) PGP; ESP d) ITU
c) AH; ESP View Answer
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible for
Answer: c military encryption systems. The NSA designs,
Explanation: Authentication header and Encryption evaluates, and implements encryption systems for the
security payload. military and government agencies with high security
needs.
6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI
model?
a) Network Computer Networks Questions &
b) Transport
c) Application
Answers – Congestion Control
d) Physical This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Answer: a “Congestion Control”.
Explanation: Network layer is mainly used for security
purpose, so IPsec in mainly operates in network layer.
1. Two broad categories of congestion control are
a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
7. ESP provides b) Open-control and Closed-control
a) source authentication c) Active control and Passive control
b) data integrity d) None of the mentioned
c) privacy View Answer
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
View Answer
Explanation: These are two types of congestion control.
Answer: d
Explanation: Encrypted security payload provides 2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to
source, data integrity and privacy. __________
a) Remove after congestion occurs
8. In computer security… means that computer b) Remove after sometime
system assets can be modified only by authorized c) Prevent before congestion occurs
parities. d) Prevent before sending packets
a) Confidentiality View Answer
b) Integrity
c) Availability Answer: c
Explanation: Policies are applied to prevent congestion
d) Authenticity
before it occurs.
View Answer
3. Retransmission of packets must be done when
Answer: b
Explanation: Integrity means that computer system a) Packet is lost
assets can be modified only by authorized parities. b) Packet is corrupted
c) Packet is needed
9. In computer security… means that the d) All of the mentioned
information in a computer system only be View Answer
Answer: d knows the upstream node from which a flow data is
Explanation: Retransmission should be done on coming.
account of any of the above cases.
9. The packet sent by a node to the source to
4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the inform it of congestion is called
packet times out, several packets have to be a) Explicit
resent even some may have arrived safe. whereas b) Discard
in Selective Repeat window, tries to send c) Choke
___________ d) Backpressure
a) Packet that have not lost View Answer
b) Packet that have lost or corrupted
c) Packet from starting Answer: c
d) All the packets Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the
source to inform it of congestion.
View Answer
Answer: b 10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the
Explanation: In selective repeat window, packet that congestion window increases __________ until it
have lost or corrupted must be sent. reaches a threshold.
a) Exponentially
5. Discarding policy is mainly done by b) Additively
a) Sender c) Multiplicatively
b) Receiver d) None of the mentioned
c) Router View Answer
d) Switch
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the
Answer: c congestion window increases exponentially until it
Explanation: This is done by the routers to prevent reaches a threshold.
congestion.
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6. Closed-Loop control mechanism try to
a) Remove after congestion occurs 11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size
b) Remove after sometime of the congestion window increases ____________
c) Prevent before congestion occurs until congestion is detected.
d) Prevent before sending packets a) Exponentially
View Answer b) Additively
c) Multiplicatively
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Policies are applied to remove congestion View Answer
after it occurs.
Answer: b
7. The technique in which a congested node stops Explanation: In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the
receiving data from the immediate upstream node size of the congestion window increases additively until
or nodes is called as congestion is detected.
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
c) Forward signalling
Computer Networks Questions &
d) Backward signalling Answers – Virtual Circuit
View Answer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Answer: b Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Virtual
Explanation: This is a node-to-node congestion control Circuit”.
that starts with a node and propagates in opposite
direction of data flow to the source. 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
Virtual Circuit Network?
8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to a) There are setup and teardown phases in
a) Congestion networks addition to the data transfer phase
b) Closed circuit networks b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase
c) Open circuit networks or on demand
d) Virtual circuit networks c) All packets follow the same path established
View Answer during the connection
Answer: d d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in
Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each node
application layer Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Source after sending all the frames to
destination sends teardown request to which,
Answer: d destination sends teardown response.
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally
implemented in datalink layer. 7. Delay if, resource allocated during setup phase
during data transfer is
2. The address that is unique in the scope of the a) Constant
network or internationally if the network is part of b) Increases for each packet
an international network is called as c) Same for each packet
a) Global address d) Different for each packet
b) Network address View Answer
c) Physical address
d) IP address Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: If resource allocated during setup phase,
delay is same for each packet.
Answer: a
Explanation: This address is used to create a virtual 8. Delay if, resource allocated on demand during
circuit identifier. data transfer is
a) Constant
3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in b) Increases for each packet
virtual circuit network is c) Same for each packet
a) Global address d) Different for each packet
b) Virtual circuit identifier View Answer
c) Network identifier
d) IP identifier Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: If resource allocated on demand, delay is
different for each packet.
Answer: b
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier is used for data 9. In virtual circuit network, delay times for setup
transfer and has switch scope. and teardown respectively are
a) 1 and 1
4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual b) 1 and 2
circuit network? c) 2 and 1
a) Setup phase d) 2 and 2
b) Datatransfer phase View Answer
c) Termination phase
d) Teardown phase Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Delay time for setup and teardown is one
each.
Answer: c
Explanation: Virtual circuit network does not contain 10. In data transfer phase, the table contains how
termination phase. many columns?
a) 1
5. Steps required in setup process are b) 2
a) Setup request and acknowledgement c) 3
b) Setup request and setup response d) 4
c) Setup request and setup termination View Answer
d) Setup and termination steps
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: Table has 4 columns. Port and VCI for
Answer: a both incoming and outgoing data.
Explanation: Steps required in setup process are Setup
request and acknowledgement.
Computer Networks Questions &
6. During teardown phase, source after sending all
the frames to destination sends……..to notify Answers – ATM & Frame Relay
termination
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
a) Teardown response
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ATM &
b) Teardown request
Frame Relay”.
c) Termination request
d) Termination response 1. ATM and frame relay are
View Answer a) virtual circuit networks
b) datagram networks d) none of the mentioned
c) virtual private networks View Answer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: ATM stands for asynchronous transfer 8. Frame relay has
mode. a) only physical layer
b) only data link layer
2. ATM uses the c) only network layer
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing d) both physical and data link layer
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing View Answer
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: b 9. In frame relay networks, extended address is

Explanation: None. used
a) to increase the range of data link connection
3. ATM standard defines _______ layers. identifiers
a) 2 b) for error detection
b) 3 c) for encryption
c) 4 d) for error recovery
d) 5 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: Three layers are physical layer, ATM layer
and application adoption layer. 10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames
4. ATM can be used for coming from other protocols
a) local area network b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
b) wide area network c) FRAD is used for error detection
c) any of local or wide area network d) None of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay
Explanation: None. assembler/disassembler.

5. An ATM cell has the payload field of

a) 32 bytes Computer Networks Questions &
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
Answers – Frame Relay
d) 128 bytes This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Frame
Answer: b Relay”.
Explanation: None.
1. Frame Relay is very cheap than other
6. Frame relay has error detection at the a) LANs
a) physical layer b) WANs
b) data link layer c) MANs
c) network layer d) Multipoint Networks
d) transport layer View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Frame Relay is very cheap than other
Explanation: None. WANs.

7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called 2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called
a) data link connection identifier a) Voice Over For Relay
b) frame relay identifier b) Voice Over Fine Relay
c) cell relay identifier c) Voice On Frame Relay
d) Voice Over Frame Relay Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is
calleddata link connection identifier.
Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay networks offer an option 8. Frame relay has only
calledVoice Over Frame Relay a) physical layer
b) data link layer
3. There are ________ total features of Frame c) both physical layer and data link layer
Relay. d) none of the mentioned
a) Five View Answer
b) Seven
c) Nine Answer: c
d) Ten Explanation: Frame relay has only physical and data
View Answer link layer for error detection in data link layer and for
conversion in physical layer.
Answer: c
Explanation: There are total features of Frame Relay 9. In frame relay networks, extended address is
are Nine. used
a) to increase the range of data link connection
4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error identifiers
control, they must be provided by the b) for error detection
a) Lower Level Protocol c) both to increase the range of data link
b) High Level Protocol connection identifiers and for error detection
c) Upper Level Protocol d) none of the mentioned
d) Downward Level Protocol View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: In frame relay networks, extended address
Explanation: Frame Relay does not provide flow or error is usedto increase the range of data link connection
control, they must be provided by theUpper Level identifiers.
Protocol.
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames
such as coming from other protocols
a) ADMs b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
b) UPSR c) FRAD is used for error detection
c) BLSR d) None of the mentioned
d) SONET View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay
Explanation: Frame Relay deploys physical layer assembler/disassembler.
carriers such asSONET.

6. Frame relay has error detection at the Computer Networks Questions &
a) physical layer
b) data link layer Answers – World Wide Web
c) network layer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
d) transport layer
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “World
View Answer
Wide Web”.
Answer: b
Explanation: In data link layer error control header is the
1. A piece of icon or image on a web page
main thing for any packet transfer, so we use this layer associated with another webpage is called
frame relay has error detection. a) url
b) hyperlink
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called c) plugin
a) data link connection identifier d) none of the mentioned
b) frame relay identifier View Answer
c) cell relay identifier
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: None.
2. Dynamic web page d) None of the mentioned
a) is same every time whenever it displays View Answer
b) generates on demand by a program or a request
from browser Answer: d
Explanation: None.
c) both is same every time whenever it displays
and generates on demand by a program or a 8. An alternative of javascript on windows platform
request from browser is
d) none of the mentioned a) VBScript
View Answer b) ASP.NET
Answer: b c) JSP
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
3. What is a web browser?
a) a program that can display a web page Answer: a
Explanation: None.
b) a program used to view html documents
c) it enables user to access the resources of 9. What is document object model (DOM)?
internet a) convention for representing and interacting with
d) all of the mentioned objects in html documents
View Answer b) application programming interface
Answer: d c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
4. Common gateway interface is used to
a) generate executable files from web content by Answer: a
Explanation: None.
web server
b) generate web pages 10. AJAX stands for
c) stream videos a) asynchronous javascript and xml
d) none of the mentioned b) advanced JSP and xml
View Answer c) asynchronous JSP and xml
Answer: a d) advanced javascript and xml
Explanation: None. View Answer

5. URL stands for Answer: a

a) unique reference label Explanation: None.
b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator Computer Networks Questions &
d) unique resource locator
View Answer Answers – IPv4
Answer: c This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Explanation: None. Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPv4”.
6. A web cookie is a small piece of data 1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
a) sent from a website and stored in user’s web a) Error reporting
browser while a user is browsing a website b) Handle addressing conventions
b) sent from user and stored in the server while a c) Datagram format
user is browsing a website d) Packet handling conventions
c) sent from root server to all servers View Answer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is
not related to fragmentation?
7. Which one of the following is not used to a) Flags
generate dynamic web pages? b) Offset
a) PHP c) TOS
b) ASP.NET d) Identifier
c) JSP View Answer
Answer: c c) overlapping of fragments.
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of d) all of the mentioned
packets. View Answer
3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers Answer: d
(max) can process this datagram? Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation
a) 11 complex and also can create DOS attack.
b) 5
c) 10 9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the
d) 1 fragments?
View Answer a) offset
b) flag
Answer: c c) ttl
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time d) identifer
the datagram is processed by a router. View Answer
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport Answer: a
layer protocol used is _____________ Explanation: Offset field specifies where the fragment
a) TCP fits in the original datagram.
b) UDP
c) Either of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer Answers – IPv4 Addressing
Answer: b This set of Computer Networks Interview
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
Questions and Answers for Experienced people
5. The data field can carry which of the following? focuses on “IPv4 Addressing”.
a) TCP segemnt
1. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?
b) UDP segment
a) Connectionless
c) ICMP messages
b) Offer reliable service
d) None of the mentioned
c) Offer unreliable service
View Answer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport layer
segment, but it can also carry ICMP messages. Answer: b
Explanation: IP offers unreliable service.
6. What should be the flag value to indicate the last
2. Fragmentation has following demerits
fragment?
a) Complicates routers
a) 0
b) Open to DOS attack
b) 1
c) Overlapping of fragments
c) TTl value
d) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last fragment.
complex and also can create DOS attack.
7. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?
3. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the
a) is connectionless
fragments?
b) offer reliable service
a) Offset
c) offer unreliable service
b) Flag
d) none of the mentioned
c) TTL
View Answer
d) Identifier
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.
Answer: a
advertisement Explanation: offset field specifies where the fragment
fits in the original datagram.
8. Fragmentation has following demerits
a) complicates routers 4. In classless addressing, there are no classes but
b) open to DOS attack addresses are still granted in
a) IPs
b) Blocks d) ClassF
c) Codes View Answer
d) Sizes
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: Class F is not a class of IP addressing.
Answer: b
Explanation: In classless addressing, there are no
classes but addresses are still granted in blocks. Computer Networks Questions &
5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is
Answers – IPv6
replaced with This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
a) Classless Addressing Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPv6”.
b) Classful Addressing
c) Classful Advertising 1. The size of IP address in IPv6 is
d) Classless Advertising a) 4bytes
View Answer b) 128bits
c) 8bytes
Answer: a
d) 100bits
Explanation: Classful addressing is replaced with
classless addressing. View Answer
Answer: b
6. First address in a block is used as network
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
address that represents the
a) Class Network 2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is
b) Entity ___________
c) Organization a) 10bytes
d) Codes b) 25bytes
View Answer c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
Answer: c
Explanation: First address in a block is used as network View Answer
address that represents the organization. Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of
7. In classful addressing, a large part of available
40bytes, which results is faster processing of the
addresses are datagram.
a) Organized
b) Blocked 3. In the IPv6 header,the traffic class field is similar
c) Wasted to which field in the IPv4 header?
d) Communicated a) Fragmentation field
View Answer b) Fast-switching
c) ToS field
Answer: c
d) Option field
Explanation: In classful addressing, a large part of
available addresses are wasted. View Answer

advertisement Answer: c
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of
8. Network addresses are very important concepts IP datagram.
of
4. IPv6 doesnot use _________ type of address
a) Routing
a) Broadcast
b) Mask
b) Multicast
c) IP Addressing
c) Anycast
d) Classless Addressing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a
Explanation: Network addresses are very important
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6.
concepts of IP addressing.

9. Which of this is not a class of IP address? 5. These are the features present in IPv4 but not in
a) ClassE IPv6.
b) ClassC a) Fragmentation
c) ClassD b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) All of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks test focuses on
View Answer “IPv6 Addressing”.
Answer: d 1. Dual-stack approach refers to
Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4 a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
and not IPv6. b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
6. The _________ field determines the lifetime of
d) None of the mentioned
IPv6 datagram
View Answer
a) Hop limit
b) TTL Answer: c
c) Next header Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach used to
d) None of the mentioned support IPv6 in already existing systems.
View Answer
2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate
Answer: a using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution
by a router when the datagram is forwaded by the here is
router. When the value becomes zero the datagram is a) Use dual-stack approach
discarded.
b) Tunneling
7. Dual-stack approach refers to c) No solution
a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks d) Replace the system
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks View Answer
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel.
View Answer
3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In
Answer: c each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach used to
represented by bits
support IPv6 in already existing systems.
a) 96 to 127
advertisement b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate d) 64 to 79
using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each View Answer
other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution
here is Answer: a
a) Use dual-stack approach Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents
b) Tunneling obfuscated 1Pv4 address.
c) No solution 4. A link local address of local addresses is used in
d) Replace the system an
View Answer a) Isolated router
Answer: b b) Isolated mask
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tuunel. c) Isolated subnet
d) Isolated net
9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In View Answer
each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is
represented by bits Answer: c
a) 96 to 127 Explanation: Isolated subnet is very huge sharing
network area in this link local address of local
b) 0 to 63
addresses is used.
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79 5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6,
View Answer address that is used by a host to test itself without
going into network is called
Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents a) Unspecified address
obfuscated 1Pv4 address. b) Loopback address
c) Compatible address
d) Mapped address
Computer Networks Questions & View Answer
Answers – IPv6 Addressing Answer: b
Explanation: In subcategories of reserved address in
IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without This set of Computer Networks Problems focuses
going into network is called loop back address. on “P2P Applications”.
6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6 1. Which layer is responsible for process-to-
address define its category is called process delivery?
a) Prefix type a) Physical layer
b) Postfix type b) Network layer
c) Reserved type c) Transport layer
d) Local type d) Application layer
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Prefix means bits in the IP address are Explanation: Transport layer is responsible for process-
placed in leftmost position. to-process delivery.
7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses start with eight 0s 2. In process-to-process delivery, two processes
are called communicate in which of the following methods?
a) Unicast addresses a) Client/Server
b) Multicast addresses b) Source/Destination
c) Any cast addresses c) Message Transfer
d) Reserved addresses d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: In IPv6 address format the starting bits are Explanation: The most common method used for this
specified with eight 0s called reserved address. communication is Client/Server.
advertisement 3. Multiple processes on destinations at transport
layer are identified by:
8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are
a) Mac address
true?
b) Port number
a) Leading zeros are required
c) Host number
b) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive
d) Host address
hexadecimal fields of zeros
View Answer
c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields
d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6 Answer: b
addresses of different types Explanation: Multiple processes on destinations are
View Answer identified by transport layer address also called as port
number.
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to shorten the written length of an 4. Range of port numbers in Internet model is
IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be a) 0 and 32,765(8-bit)
replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten the b) 0 and 32,765(16-bit)
address further, leading zeros may also be removed. c) 0 and 65,535(32-bit)
Just as with IPv4, a single device’s interface can have
d) 0 and 65,535(16-bit)
more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types
of addresses and the same rule applies. There can be View Answer
link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all
Answer: d
assigned to the same interface. Explanation: Port numbers are 16-bit integers between
0 and 65,535.
9. When IPV6 launched
a) June 2, 2012 5. According to Internet Assigned Numbers
b) June 4, 2012 Authority(IANA), which of the following range is not
c) June 5, 2012 a part of port number?
d) June 6, 2012 a) Well-known ports
View Answer b) Registered ports
Answer: d c) Dynamic ports
Explanation: None d) Static ports
View Answer

Computer Networks Questions & Answer: d

Explanation: IANA divided port number range in to three
Answers – P2P Applications i.e., Well-known, Registered and Dynamic ports.
6. The combination of an IP address and port Computer Networks Questions &
number is called as?
a) Socket address Answers – ICMP
b) Port address
c) MAC address This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
d) Host address Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ICMP”.
View Answer 1. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) has
Answer: a designed to compensate
Explanation: Socket address is the combination of an IP a) Error-reporting
address and port number. b) Error-correction
c) Host and management queries
7. Which of the following is false with respect to d) All of the mentioned
Connectionless service of transport layer protocol? View Answer
a) Packets are not numbered
b) Packets are not delayed Answer: d
c) No acknowledgement Explanation: ICMP has been designed to address these
d) Packet may arrive out of sequence issues.
View Answer 2. Header size of the ICMP message is
Answer: b a) 8-bytes
Explanation: Packets in this method may be delayed or b) 8-bits
lost. c) 16-bytes
d) 16-bits
8. Correct order in the process of Connection- View Answer
Oriented services is
1. Data transfer Answer: a
2. Connection release Explanation: ICMP message has 8-bytes header and
3. Connection establishment variable size data section.
a) 1-2-3 3. During error reporting, ICMP always reports
b) 3-2-1 error messages to
c) 2-1-3 a) Destination
d) 3-1-2 b) Source
View Answer c) Next router
Answer: d d) Previous router
Explanation: First connection should be established View Answer
followed by data transfer and connection release.
Answer: b
9. In transport layer, Multiplexing is done at Explanation: ICMP sends error message to the source
a) Channel because the datagram knows information about source
and destination IP address.
b) Receiver site
c) Sender site 4. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting
d) Packet messages
View Answer a) Destination unreachable
Answer: c b) Source quench
Explanation: Multiplexing is done before sending c) Router error
packets at sender site. d) Time exceeded
View Answer
10. The process of error checking and dropping of
the header, delivering messages to appropriate Answer: c
process based on port number is called as Explanation: Router error is not a type of error-reporting
messages in ICMP.
a) Delivery of packets
b) Error correction 5. ICMP error message will not be generated for a
c) Multiplexing datagram having a special address such as
d) Demultiplexing a) 127.0.0.0
View Answer b) 12.1.2
Answer: d c) 11.1
Explanation: Demultiplexing is the process of error d) 127
checking and dropping of the header, delivering View Answer
messages to appropriate process based on port
number.
Answer: a a) Traceroute
Explanation: No ICMP error message will be generated b) Shell
for a datagram having a special address such as c) Ping
127.0.0.0 or 0.0.0.0. d) Java
6. When a router cannot route a datagram or host View Answer
cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is Answer: c
discarded and the router or the host sends a Explanation: Ping program is used to find if a host is
____________ message back to the source host alive and responding.
that initiated the datagram.
a) Destination unreachable advertisement
b) Source quench
11. In windows, ____________ can be used to
c) Router error
trace the route of the packet from the source to the
d) Time exceeded
destination
View Answer
a) Traceroute
Answer: a b) Tracert
Explanation: Router sends destination unreachable c) Ping
message if the destination is not found. d) Locater
View Answer
7. The source-quench message in ICMP was
designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP. Answer: b
a) Error control Explanation: Tracert is used in case of windows,
b) Flow control whereas Traceroute in UNIX.
c) Router control
12. In a simple echo-request message, the value of
d) None of the mentioned
the sum is 01010000 01011100. Then, value of
View Answer
checksum is
Answer: b a) 10101111 10100011
Explanation: Firstly, it informs the source that the b) 01010000 01011100
datagram has been discarded. secondly, it warns the c) 10101111 01011100
source that there is congestion in the network. d) 01010000 10100011
View Answer
8. In case of time exceeded error, when the
datagram visits a router, the value of time to live Answer: a
field is Explanation: Checksum is the compliment of the
a) Remains constant sum(exchange 0’s and 1’s).
b) Decremented by 2
c) Incremented by 1
d) Decremented by 1
Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer Answers – Transition from IPV4 to
Answer: d IPV6
Explanation: This field will be decremented by 1 at
every router, and will be zero by the time it reaches This set of Computer Networks Quiz focuses on
source. “Transition from IPV4 to IPV6”.

9. Two machines can use the timestamp request 1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6
and timestamp replay messages to determine the is
___________ needed for an IP datagram to travel a) Huge number of systems on the internet
between them. b) Very low number of system on the internet
a) Half-trip time c) Providing standard address
b) Round-trip time d) None of the mentioned
c) Travel time for the next router View Answer
d) Time to reach the destination/source
Answer: a
View Answer
Explanation: Due to huge number of systems on the
Answer: b internet, transition from IPv4 to IPv6 happens.
Explanation: Router sends destination unreachable
message if the destination is not found. 2. Which of the following is not a transition
strategies?
10. During debugging, we can use the a) Dual stack
____________ program to find if a host is alive and b) Tunnelling
responding c) Conversion
d) Header translation 7. Header translation uses ___________ to
View Answer translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
a) IP address
Answer: c b) Physical address
Explanation: Dual stack, tunnelling and header
c) Mapped address
translation are the only three transition strategies.
d) Any of the mentioned
3. To determine which version to use when View Answer
sending a packet to a destination, the source host Answer: c
queries which of the following? Explanation: Mapped address is used to translate an
a) Dual stack IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
b) Domain Name Server
c) Header information advertisement
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer 8. Which of the following is not the step in Header
translation procedure?
Answer: b a) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an
Explanation: Source host queries DNS to determine IPv4 address by extracting the rightmost 32bits
which version to use when sending a packet to a b) The value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded
destination. c) The type of service field in IPv4 is set to zero
d) The IPv6 flow label is considered
4. The strategy used when two computers using
View Answer
IPv6 want to communicate with each other and the
packet must pass through a region that uses IPv4 Answer: d
is Explanation: In header translation procedure, IPv6 flow
a) Dual stack label is ignored.
b) Header translation
c) Conversion
d) Tunnelling Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer Answers – IPV4 and IPV6
Answer: d Comparision
Explanation: Tunnelling is used when two computers
using IPv6 want to communicate with each other and This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
the packet must pass through a region that uses IPv4. Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPV4
and IPV6 Comparision”.
5. The correct format of packet in tunnel that uses
IPv4 region is 1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
1. IPv6 header a) Error reporting
2. Payload b) Handle addressing conventions
3. IPv4 header c) Datagram format
a) 3-1-2 d) Packet handling
b) 3-2-1 View Answer
c) 1-2-3
d) 1-3-2 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.

Answer: a 2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is

Explanation: In tunnel with IPv4 region, IPv6 packet will not related to fragmentation?
be encapsulated with IPv4 header. a) Flags
b) Offset
6. ___________ is necessary when the sender c) TOS
wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not d) Identifier
understand IPv6. View Answer
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation Answer: c
c) Conversion Explanation: TOS type of service identifies the type of
d) Tunnelling packets.
View Answer 3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers
Answer: b (max) can process this datagram?
Explanation: Header translation is used when the a) 11
sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not b) 5
understand IPv6. c) 10
d) 1 9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address
View Answer a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
Answer: c c) Any cast
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time
d) None of the mentioned
the datagram is processed by a router.
View Answer
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport
Answer: a
layer protocol used is _________ Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6.
a) TCP
b) UDP 10. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not
c) Either TCP and UDP in IPv6?
d) None of the mentioned a) Fragmentation
View Answer b) Header checksum
c) Options
Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
View Answer
5. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the Answer: d
fragments? Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4
a) offset and not IPv6.
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifier Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer
Answers – Analyzing Subnet
Answer: a Masks
Explanation: Offset field specifies where the fragment
fits in the original datagram. This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
6. The size of IP address in IPv6 is
“Analyzing Subnet Masks”.
a) 4bytes
b) 128bits 1. Which of the following is the broadcast address
c) 8bytes for a Class B network ID using the default
d) 100bits subnetmask?
View Answer a) 172.16.10.255
b) 255.255.255.255
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. c) 172.16.255.255
d) 172.255.255.255
7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is View Answer
___________
Answer: c
a) 10bytes
Explanation: This address is used for broadcast the
b) 25bytes class B network purpose
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes 2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a
View Answer 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class
of address, subnet address, and broadcast
Answer: d
address?
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of
40bytes, which results is faster processing of the a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast
datagram. address 172.16.13.127
b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast
8. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is address 172.16.13.127
similar to which field in the IPv4 header? c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
a) Fragmentation field 172.16.13.255
b) Fast switching d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address
c) TOS field 172.16.255.255
d) Option field View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Class B is the address of IP code
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of 172.16.13.5
IP datagram.
3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C c) FDDR
network ID, which subnet mask would you use? d) FOTR
a) 255.255.255.252 View Answer
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240 Answer: a
Explanation: FIBER DISTRIBUTED DATA INTERFACE
d) 255.255.255.248
View Answer 8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
Answer: c a) 1000 BASE-SX
Explanation: If you have eight networks and each b) 1000 BASE-LX
requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C mask of c) 1000 BASE-CX
255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in binary is d) all of the above
11110000, which means you have four subnet bits and View Answer
four host bits. Using our math, we’d get the following:
24-2=14 subnets Answer: d
24-2=14 hosts. Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet
(GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing various
4. The combination of _________ and __________ technologies for transmitting Ethernet frames at a rate
is often termed the local address of the local of a gigabit per second (1,000,000,000 bits per second),
portion of the IP address. as defined by the IEEE 802.3-2008 standard. It came
a) Network number and host number into use beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast
Ethernet in wired local networks, as a result of being
b) Network number and subnet number
considerably faster.
c) Subnet number and host number
d) Host number 9. _________ is a collective term for a number of
View Answer Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the nominal
Answer: c
rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the original Ethernet
Explanation: Sub networking is implemented for remote speed of 10 Mbit/s.
sensing in transparent way from that a host contains the a) Ethernet
sub network which called local operation. b) Fast Ethernet
c) Gigabit Ethernet
5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained d) All of the mentioned
from the same subnet mask. View Answer
a) Static subnetting
b) Dynamic subnetting Answer: b
c) Variable length subnetting Explanation: Fast Ethernet
d) Both Dynamic subnetting and Variable length 10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic
subnetting network with an active star for switching.
View Answer a) S/NET
Answer: a b) SW/NET
Explanation: Static sub network. c) NET/SW
d) FS/NET
6. State whether true or false. View Answer
i) A connection oriented protocol can only use
unicast addresses. Answer: a
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6. Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical Local
area network (LAN) and its optical combiner and mixing
a) True, True
rod splitter are presented. The limited power budget and
b) True, False relatively large tapping losses of light wave technology,
c) False, True which limit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN
d) False, False topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in optical
View Answer star topologies.
Answer: a
Explanation: A connection oriented protocol can only Computer Networks Questions &
use unicast addresses.
The any cast service is included in IPV6. Answers – Designing Subnet
7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic Masks
token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over distances
This set of Computer Networks MCQs focuses on
upto 1000 stations connected.
“Designing Subnet Masks”.
a) FDDI
b) FDDT
1.A network administrator is connecting hosts A 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as 4. The broadcast address of the subnet is
shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to a) 1 and 3
provide connectivity between the hosts? b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a
1. A crossover cable should be used in place of the Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits
straight-through cable. and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2
2. A rollover cable should be used in place of the (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in the
straight-through cable. interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The
host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is
3. The subnet masks should be set to
4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is
255.255.255.192. 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.
4. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
5. The subnet masks should be set to 4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses
255.255.255.0. that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet
a) 1 only that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
b) 2 only a) 14
c) 3 and 4 only b) 15
d) 1 and 5 only c) 16
View Answer d) 30
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly Answer: d
connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5
crossover cable. A straight-through cable won’t work. bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts.
Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or
them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits
both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24). would never change.
2. Your router has the following IP address on 5. You need to subnet a network that has 5
Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Wohich
can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface classful subnet mask would you use
attached to the router? a) 255.255.255.192
1. 172.16.1.100 b) 255.255.255.224
2. 172.16.1.198 c) 255.255.255.240
3. 172.16.2.255 d) 255.255.255.248
4. 172.16.3.0 View Answer
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Answer: b
c) 3 and 4 only Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16
d) None of the mentioned hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets
View Answer with 14 hosts-this will not work. The mask
255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30
Answer: c hosts. This is the best answer.
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 interface
is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes 6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while
the third octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is maximizing the number of host addresses available
in the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255 on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow
because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is from the host field to provide the correct subnet
2.1 through 3.254. The router is using the first valid host mask?
address in the range. a) 2
b) 3
3. Which two statements describe the IP address c) 4
10.16.3.65/23? d) 5
1. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. View Answer
2. The lowest host address in the subnet is
10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. Answer: d
3. The last valid host address in the subnet is Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides
16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets, Answer: b
so let’s add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0.
248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits,
3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer. but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with
8,190 hosts.
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an
IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the
valid subnet address of this host? Computer Networks Questions &
a) 172.16.112.0 Answers – IP Routing
b) 172.16.0.0
c) 172.16.96.0 This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
d) 172.16.255.0 Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IP
View Answer Routing”.
Answer: a 1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with TCP/IP and DEC net?
a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used
a) Ethernet 802.3
for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the
third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is b) Ethernet 802.2
only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on- c) Ethernet II
which is a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is d) Ethernet SNAP
in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 View Answer
since 128 is the next subnet
Answer: c
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP Explanation: Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare
address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used
interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses withNetWare 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II
is used with TCP/IP and DEC net,and Ethernet SNAP is
on the LAN attached to the router interface?
used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk.
a) 6
b) 8 2. You are a system administrator on a NetWare
c) 30 network, you are runningNetWare 4.11 and you
d) 32 cannot communicate with your router. What is the
View Answer likelyproblem?
a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
Answer: a
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is the c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11
maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
router interface. View Answer

9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an Answer: a

IP address of 172.16.66.0/21? Explanation: The default encapsulation on Cisco routers
a) 172.16.36.0 is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12and later
defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier
b) 172.16.48.0
defaults to 802.3.
c) 172.16.64.0
d) 172.16.0.0 3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network
View Answer number and a node number. Which statement is
not true?
Answer: c
Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we a) The network address is administratively
have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits
by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is long
64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address b) The node address is always administratively
of the 64 subnet is 71.255. assigned
c) The node address is usually the MAC address
10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides d) If the MAC address is used as the node
how many subnets and hosts? address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each View Answer
b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each Answer: b
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each Explanation: The network address can be up to 16
View Answer hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is
12hexadecimal digits. The node address is usually the
MAC address. An example IPXaddress is
4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network part is 4a1d. The IGRP. IGRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at
node part is0000.0c56.de33. The network number is the same time.
assigned by the system administrator of theNovell
network. 8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow an
administrator to change the
4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3– default settings. What are the default settings?
network layer—of the OSI model? a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces,
a) IPX six ticks
b) NCP b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN
c) SPX interfaces, one tick
d) NetBIOS c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN
View Answer interfaces, five ticks
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN
Answer: a
Explanation: IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is a
interfaces, zero Ticks
NetWare network layer 3 protocol used fortransferring View Answer
information on LANs.
Answer: a
5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state Explanation: The default is–for LAN interfaces, one tick;
for WAN interfaces, six ticks
routing?
a) NLSP 9. As a system administrator, you need to set up
b) RIP one Ethernet interface on the Cisco
c) SAP router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether
d) NCP encapsulations. Which set of
View Answer commands will accomplish this?
Answer: a
a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-
Explanation: NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) ether IPX network 9e interface
provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c
Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-
Core Protocol)provides client-to-server connections and ether IPX network 9e interface
applications. RIP is a distance vector routingprotocol. Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-
6. As a system administrator, you want to debug ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX
IGRP but are worried that the encapsulation sap
“debug IP IGRP transaction” command will flood d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-
the console. What is the command ether IPX network 9e interface
that you should use? Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
a) Debug IP IGRP event View Answer
b) Debug IP IGRP-events
c) Debug IP IGRP summary Answer: d
d) Debug IP IGRP events Explanation: The following commands setup the sub
View Answer interfaces to allow for two types of
encapsulation:interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation
Answer: d Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface Ethernet0.2 IPX
Explanation: The “debug IP IGRP events” is used to encapsulation sap IPX network 6c.
only display a summary of IGRP routing information.
You can append an IP address onto either command to 10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2”
see only the IGRP command accomplish?
updates from a neighbor. a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths
are equal metric paths
7. What does the following series of commands b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
accomplish? RouterIGRP 71 network c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0 d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 are unequal metric paths
b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71 View Answer
c) It disables RIP
d) It disables all routing protocols Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the
paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 pathand
Answer: a the maximum is 512 paths.
Explanation: It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0
and associates autonomous systems 109 and71 with 11. You want to enable both arpa and snap
encapsulation on one router interface.
How do you do this? 15. In Novell’s use of RIP, there are two metrics
a) The interface can handle multiple encapsulation used to make routing decisions.
types with no extra configuration Select the two metrics.
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each a) Ticks & Hops
encapsulation type b) Hops & Loops
c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple c) Loops & Counts
encapsulation types d) Counts & Ticks
d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so View Answer
you don’t have to configure anything
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: It first uses ticks (which is about 1/18 sec.);
Answer: b if there is a tie, it uses hops; if hops are equal,then it
Explanation: To assign multiple network numbers, you uses an administratively assigned tiebreaker.
usually use sub interfaces. A sample configuration
follows: IPXEthernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation novell-ether
ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation Computer Networks Questions &
sap ipx network 6c Answers – RIP v1
12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
remote networks.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RIP v1”.
a) False
b) True 1. Which protocol should you select if the network
View Answer diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
Answer: a
Explanation: GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get Nearest b) RIPv2
Server. If there is a server on the local network,that c) EIGRP
server will respond. If there isn’t, the Cisco router has to d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2
be configured to forward theGNS SAP. View Answer
advertisement Answer: a
Explanation: RIP v1 has network diameter is more than
13. To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) 17 hopes.
from flooding a network, Cisco routers
do not forward them. How are services advertised 2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its
to other networks? routing table by default?
a) Each router builds its own SAP table and a) Every 30 seconds
forwards that every 60 seconds b) Every 60 seconds
b) Each router assigns a service number and c) Every 90 seconds
broadcasts that d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically
c) SAPs aren’t necessary with Cisco routers View Answer
d) Cisco routers filter out all SAPs
Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Every 30 seconds RIPv1 router broadcast
its routing table by default.
Answer: a
Explanation: Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward
3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?
the table every 60 seconds. All SAPs can’t befiltered
even with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses
a) Show IP route
SAPs. b) Debug IP rip
c) Show protocols
14. Novell’s implementation of RIP updates routing d) Debug IP route
tables every _________ seconds. View Answer
a) 60
b) 90 Answer: b
Explanation: The debug IP rip command is used to
c) 10
show the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing Information
d) 30 Protocol (RIP) updates being sent and received on the
View Answer router.
Answer: a 4. Two connected routers are configured with RIP
Explanation: Novell’s RIP updates routing tables every
routing. What will be the result when a router
60 seconds, Apple’s RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers
ARP every 60 seconds, IGRP signal every 90 seconds,
receives a routing update that contains a higher-
and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds. cost path to a network already in its routing table?
a) The updated information will be added to the
existing routing table Debug IP rip Answer: c
b) The update will be ignored and no further action Explanation: Default administrative distance of RIP is
will occur Debug IP route 120.
c) The updated information will replace the existing
9. Which statement is true regarding classless
routing table entry
routing protocol?
d) The existing routing table entry will be deleted
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not
from the routing table and all routers will exchange
allowed
routing updates to reach convergence
b) Use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
View Answer
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
Answer: b d) IGRP supports classes routing within the same
Explanation: When a routing update is received by a autonomous system
router, the router first checks the administrative distance View Answer
(AD) and always chooses the route with the lowest AD.
However, if two routes are received and they both have Answer: b
the same AD, then the router will choose the one route Explanation: Use of variable length subnet masks is
with the lowest metrics, or in RIP’s case, hop count. permittedis true regarding classless routing protocol.

5. You type debug IP rip on your router console 10. Where we should use default routing
and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you a) On stub networks- which have only one exit path
with a metric of 16. What does this mean? out of the network
a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip b) Which have more than one exit path out of the
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds network
Debug IP route c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
c) The route is inaccessible d) None of the mentioned
d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: On stub networks- which have only one
Explanation: You cannot have 16 hops on a RIP exit path out of the networkuse default routing.
network by default. If you receive a route advertised
with a metric of 16, this means it is inaccessible.
Computer Networks Questions &
6. Default administrative distance of Static Route Answers – RIP v2
a) 0
b) 90 This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
c) 100 Questions & Answers focuses on “RIP v2”.
d) 1
View Answer 1. Which statement is true regarding classless
routing protocols?
Answer: d a) The use of discontinuous networks is not
Explanation: 1 is the default administrative distance of allowed
Static Route.
b) The use of variable length subnet masks is
7. Which protocol gives a full route table update permitted
every 30 seconds? c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
a) IEGRP d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
b) RIP View Answer
c) both IEGRP and RIP Answer: b
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Classful routing means that all hosts in the
View Answer internetwork use the same mask. Classless routing
means that you can use Variable Length Subnet Masks
Answer: b (VLSMs) and can also support discontinuous
Explanation: RIP gives a full route table update every 30 networking.
seconds.
2. What is route poisoning?
8. Default administrative distance of RIP
a) It sends back the protocol received from a router
a) 0
as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates.
b) 90
The use of variable length subnet masks is
c) 120
permitted
d) 130
b) It is information received from a router that can’t
View Answer
be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2
supports classless routing
c) It prevents regular update messages from Answer: b
reinstating a route that has just come up Explanation: Routing feedback is a reason for avoiding
d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a doing route redistribution on two routers between the
downed link to infinity same two routing domains.
View Answer 7. What does administrative distance rank?
Answer: d a) Metrics
Explanation: When a network goes down, the distance- b) Sources of routing information
vector routing protocol initiates route poisoning by c) Router reliability
advertising the network with a metric of 16, or d) Best paths
unreachable. View Answer
3. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2? Answer: b
a) It has a lower administrative distance than Explanation: Sources of routing information is the
RIPv1 administrative distance rank.
b) It converges faster than RIPv1
c) It has the same timers as RIPv1 8. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1 a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
View Answer b) IGRP and EIGRP
c) RIPv2
Answer: c d) EIGRP
Explanation: RIPv2 is pretty much just like RIPv1. It has View Answer
the same administrative distance and timers and is
configured just like RIPv1. Answer: c
Explanation: RIP V2 maintains neighbor adjacencies.
4. Which of the situations might not require require
multiple routing protocols in a network? 9. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the update algorithm?
network a) IS-IS
b) When you are migrating from one routing b) IGRP
protocol to another c) EIGRP
c) When you are using routers from multiple d) OSPF
vendors View Answer
d) When there are host-based routers from multiple Answer: c
vendors Explanation: EIGRProuting protocol implements the
View Answer diffusing update algorithm.
Answer: a 10. Which protocol should you select if the network
Explanation: One routing protocol to another, routers
diameter is more than 17 hops?
from multiple vendors,host-based routers from multiple
vendors.
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
5. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed c) EIGRP
into OSPF by a Cisco router? d) All of the above
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP View Answer
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
Answer: b
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP Explanation: RIPv2protocol should you select if the
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP network diameter is more than 17 hops.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IP EIGRP, RIPv2. These can be
Computer Networks Questions &
redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router. Answers – Cryptography
6. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
redistribution on two routers between the same two Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
routing domains? “Cryptography”.
a) Higher cost of two routers
b) Routing feedback 1. In cryptography, what is cipher?
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility a) algorithm for performing encryption and
d) Not possible to use two routers decryption
View Answer b) encrypted message
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and
decryption and encrypted message a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
d) none of the mentioned b) transport layer security (TSL)
View Answer c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
d) resource reservation protocol
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key Explanation: None.
is kept by
a) sender 8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol
b) receiver is provided by
c) sender and receiver a) A5/2 cipher
d) all the connected devices to the network b) b5/4 cipher
View Answer c) b5/6 cipher
d) b5/8 cipher
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
3. Which one of the following algorithm is not used Explanation: None
in asymmetric-key cryptography?
a) rsa algorithm 9. ElGamal encryption system is
b) diffie-hellman algorithm a) symmetric key encryption algorithm
c) electronic code book algorithm b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm
d) none of the mentioned c) not an encryption algorithm
View Answer d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a
message is rearranged by 10. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary
a) transpositional ciphers block of data and returns
b) substitution ciphers a) fixed size bit string
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution b) variable size bit string
ciphers c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit
d) none of the mentioned string
View Answer d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?
a) block cipher
b) stream cipher Computer Networks Questions &
c) bit cipher
d) none of the mentioned
Answers – Ports
View Answer This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Answer: a Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ports”.
Explanation: None.
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP
6. Cryptanalysis is used connection between client and server in
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic a) Persistent HTTP
scheme b) Ponpersistent HTTP
b) to increase the speed c) Both Persistent HTTP and Ponpersistent HTTP
c) to encrypt the data d) None of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: hypertext transfer protocol is used for
Explanation: None. sending multiple objects over TCP connection.

7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic 2. HTTP is ________ protocol.

protocol used to secure HTTP connection? a) Application layer
b) Transport layer d) Stream control transmission protocol
c) Network layer View Answer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: Client contacts server using TCP as the
Answer: a transport protocol.
Explanation: HTTP works on application layer.
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by control and data connections.
a) Uniform resource identifier a) Active mode
b) Unique resource locator b) Passive mode
c) Unique resource identifier c) Both Active mode and Passive mode
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP resources are located by uniform Explanation: In passive mode the client initiates both the
resource identifier. control and data connections.

4. HTTP client requests by establishing a 9. The file transfer protocol is built on

__________ connection to a particular port on the a) Data centric architecture
server. b) Service oriented architecture
a) User datagram protocol c) Client server architecture
b) Transmission control protocol d) None of the mentioned
c) Broader gateway protocol View Answer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
View Answer
Explanation: FTP is built on client server architecture.
Answer: b
Explanation:HTTP client requests by establishing TCP 10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be
connection to a particular port on the server. done in
a) Stream mode
5. In HTTP pipelining b) Block mode
a) Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single c) Compressed mode
TCP connection without waiting for the d) All of the mentioned
corresponding responses View Answer
b) Multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a
single TCP connection Answer: d
Explanation: Data transfer can be done in stream, block
c) Multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a
and compressed modes.
single TCP connection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer Computer Networks Questions &
Answer: a Answers – Socket Programming
Explanation: Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a
single TCP connection without waiting for the This set of Computer Networks Assessment
corresponding responses in HTTP pipelining. Questions and Answers focuses on “Socket
Programming”.
6. FTP server listens for connection on port
number 1. Which methods are commonly used in Server
a) 20 Socket class?
b) 21 a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()
c) 22 b) Public Socket accept ()
d) 23 c) Public synchronized void close ()
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 21 is the port number of FTP. Answer: b
Explanation: Public Socket accept () used in Server
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using Socket class.
_________ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol 2. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is
b) User datagram protocol used to create a datagram socket and binds it with
c) Datagram congestion control protocol the given Port Number?
a) Datagram Socket(int port) Answer: b
b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address) Explanation: The java.net.InetAddress class represent
c) Datagram Socket() IP Address.
d) None of the mentioned
8. The flush () method of Print Stream class flushes
View Answer
any un cleared buffers in memory
Answer: b a) True
Explanation: Datagram Socket (int port, Int Address b) False
address) is use data create a datagram socket. View Answer

3. The client in socket programming must know Answer: a

which information? Explanation: The flush () method of Print Stream class
a) IP address of Server flushes any un cleared buffers in memory.
b) Port number
9. Which classes are used for connection-less
c) Both IP address of Server & Port number
socket programming?
d) None of the mentioned
a) Datagram Socket
View Answer
b) Datagram Packet
Answer: c c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
Explanation: The client in socket programming must d) None of the mentioned
know IP address of Server. View Answer

4. The URL Connection class can be used to read Answer: c

and write data to the specified resource referred by Explanation: Datagram Socket, Datagram Packet are
the URL used for connection-less socket programming.
a) True
10. In Int Address class which method returns the
b) False
host name of the IP Address?
View Answer
a) Public String get Hostname()
Answer: a b) Public String getHostAddress()
Explanation: The URL Connection class can be used to c) Public static IntAddress get Localhost()
read and write data to the specified resource referred by d) None of the mentioned
the URL. View Answer
5. Datagram is basically an information but there is Answer: a
no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time. Explanation: In Int Address class public String get
a) True Hostname() method returns the host name of the IP
b) False Address.
View Answer
Answer: a Computer Networks Questions &
Explanation: Datagram is basically an information but Answers – Cookies
there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival
time. This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
6. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
examples of? “Cookies”.
a) Socket 1. Cookies were originally designed for
b) IP Address a) Client side programming
c) Protocol b) Server side programming
d) MAC Address c) Both Client side programming and Server side
View Answer programming
Answer: c d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are View Answer
examples of Protocol.
Answer: b
7. What does the java.net.InetAddress class Explanation: Cookies were originally designed for server
represent? side programming, and at the lowest level, they are
implemented as an extension to the HTTP protocol.
a) Socket
b) IP Address 2. The Cookie manipulation is done using which
c) Protocol property?
d) MAC Address a) cookie
View Answer b) cookies
c) manipulate 7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to
d) none of the mentioned local Storage?
View Answer a) /
b) %
Answer: a c) *
Explanation: There are no methods involved: cookies
d) All of the mentioned
are queried, set, and deleted by reading and Writing the
cookie property of the Document object using specially
View Answer
formatted strings. Answer: a
Explanation: Setting the path of a cookie to “/” gives
3. Which of the following explains Cookies nature? scoping like that of localStorage and also specifies that
a) Non Volatile the browser must transmit the cookie name and value to
b) Volatile the server whenever it requests any web page on the
c) Intransient site.
d) Transient
View Answer 8. Which of the following is a Boolean cookie
attribute?
Answer: d a) Bool
Explanation: Cookies are transient by default; the b) Secure
values they store last for the duration of the web
c) Lookup
browser session but are lost when the user exits the
browser.
d) Domain
View Answer
4. Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime of a
Answer: b
cookie? Explanation: The final cookie attribute is a boolean
a) Higherage attribute named secure that specifies how cookie values
b) Increaseage are transmitted over the network. By default, cookies
c) Maxage are insecure, which means that they are transmitted
d) Lifetime over a normal, insecure HTTP connection. If a cookie is
View Answer marked secure, however, it is transmitted only when the
browser and server are connected via HTTPS or
Answer: c another secure protocol.
Explanation: If you want a cookie to last beyond a single
browsing session, you must tell the browser how long 9. Which of the following function is used as a
(in seconds) you would like it to retain the cookie by consequence of not including semicolons,
specifying a manage Commas or whitespace in the Cookie value?
attribute. If you specify a lifetime, the browser will store a) EncodeURIComponent()
cookies in a file and delete them only once they expire.
b) EncodeURI()
5. Which of the following defines the Cookie c) EncodeComponent()
visibility? d) None of the mentioned
a) Document Path View Answer
b) LocalStorage Answer: a
c) SessionStorage Explanation: Cookie values cannot include semicolons,
d) All of the mentioned commas, or whitespace. For this reason, you may want
View Answer to use the core JavaScript global function
encodeURIComponent() to encode the value before
Answer: d storing it in the cookie.
Explanation: Cookie visibility is scoped by document
origin as local Storage and session Storage are, and 10. What is the constraint on the data per cookie?
also by document path. a) 2 KB
b) 1 KB
6. Which of the following can be used to configure
c) 4 KB
the scope of the Cookie visibility?
d) 3 KB
a) Path
View Answer
b) Domain
c) Both Path and Domain Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Each cookie can hold upto only 4 KB. In
View Answer practice, browsers allow many more than 300 cookies
total, but the 4 KB size limit may still be enforced by
Answer: d some.
Explanation: The Cookie visibility scope is configurable
through cookie attributes path and domain.
Computer Networks Questions & d) Maxage
View Answer
Answers – Web Caching
Answer: b
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Explanation: Private directive indicates that resource is
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Web cachable by only client and server, no intermediary can
Caching”. cache the resource.

1. What REST stands for? 6. Which of the following HTTP Status code means
a) Represent State Transfer CREATED, when a resource is successful created
b) Representational State Transfer using POST or PUT request?
c) Represent State Transfer a) 200
d) None of the mentioned b) 201
View Answer c) 204
d) 304
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: REST stands for Representational State
Transfer. Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP Status Code 201 means CREATED,
2. Which of the following protocol is used by when a resource is successful created using POST or
Restful web services as a medium of PUT request.
communication between client and server?
a) HTTP 7. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API
b) FTP is used to annotate a method used to create
c) Gopher resource?
d) None of the mentioned a) @Path
View Answer b) @GET
c) @PUT
Answer: a d) @POST
Explanation: Restful web services make use of HTTP View Answer
protocol as a medium of communication between client
and server. Answer: C
Explanation: @PUT – HTTP Get request, used to create
3. Which of the following is a best practice to resource.
create a standard URI for a web service?
a) Maintain Backward Compatibility 8. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API
b) Use HTTP Verb binds the parameter passed to method to a HTTP
c) Both of the mentioned matrix parameter in path?
d) None of the mentioned a) @PathParam
View Answer b) @QueryParam
c) @MatrixParam
Answer: C d) @HeaderParam
Explanation: Both of the above options are correct. View Answer
4. Which of the following HTTP method should be Answer: c
idempotent in nature? Explanation: @MatrixParam – Binds the parameter
a) OPTIONS passed to method to a HTTP matrix parameter in path.
b) DELETE
c) POST 9. In REST architecture, a REST Server simply
d) HEAD provides access to resources and REST client
View Answer accesses and presents the resources.
a) False
Answer: b b) True
Explanation: DELETE operations should be idempotent, View Answer
means their result will always same no matter how
many times these operations are invoked. Answer: b
Explanation: In REST architecture, a REST Server
5. Which of the following directive of Cache Control simply provides access to resources and REST client
Header of HTTP response indicates that resource accesses and presents the resources.
is cachable by only client and server?
a) Public 10. POST operations should be idempotent.
b) Private a) True
c) Nocache/nostore b) False
View Answer
Answer: b d) Delivery Measures
Explanation: POST operation can cause different result. View Answer
Answer: b
Computer Networks Questions & Explanation: Security measures.
Answers – Packet Forwarding and 6. In Unicast routing, if instability is between three
Routing nodes, stability cannot be
a) Stable
This set of Computer Networks online test focuses b) Reversed
on “Packet Forwarding and Routing”. c) Guaranteed
d) Forward
1. Term is used to place packet in its route to its View Answer
destination is called
a) Delayed Answer: c
b) Urgent Explanation: It is only for unidirectional.
c) Forwarding
d) Delivering 7. In Unicast Routing, Dijkstra algorithm creates a
View Answer shortest path tree from a
a) Graph
Answer: c b) Tree
Explanation: It is for transforming the message from c) Network
source to destination with forward technique. d) Link
View Answer
2. A second technique to reduce routing table and
simplify searching process is called Answer: a
a) Network-Specific Method Explanation: Graph technique is used for best node
b) Network-Specific Motion finding technic with shortest path algorithms.
c) Network-Specific Maintaining
d) Network-Specific Membership 8. In Multicast Routing Protocol, flooding is used to
View Answer broadcast packets but it creates
a) Gaps
Answer: a b) Loops
Explanation: It is the before method of the packet c) Holes
switching. d) Links
View Answer
3. Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents of
a Answer: b
a) Revolving table Explanation: Loops is for multicast routing.
b) Rotating Table
c) Routing Table 9. RPF stands for
d) Re-allocate table a) Reverse Path Forwarding
View Answer b) Reverse Path Failure
c) Reverse Packet Forwarding
Answer: c d) Reverse Protocol Failure
Explanation: This method is for creating the shortest View Answer
distances.
Answer: a
4. Several techniques can make size of routing Explanation: Reverse Path Forwarding.
table manageable and also handle issues such as
a) Maturity 10. LSP stands for
b) Error reporting a) Link Stable Packet
c) Tunneling b) Link State Packet
d) Security c) Link State Protocol
View Answer d) Link State Path
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To visible only accessing sub networks. Answer: b
Explanation: Link State Packet
5. Host-specific routing is used for purposes such
as checking route or providing
a) Network Measures Computer Networks Questions &
b) Security Measures Answers – Security In The Internet
c) Routing Measures
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice 7. Extensible authentication protocol is
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Security authentication framework frequently used in
In The Internet”. a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the c) wired local area network
a) transport layer d) none of the mentioned
b) network layer View Answer
c) application layer
d) session layer Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: b 8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in

Explanation: None. a) browser security
b) email security
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the c) FTP security
a) Entire IP packet d) none of the mentioned
b) IP header View Answer
c) IP payload
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: a 9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher

Explanation: None. called
a) international data encryption algorithm
3. Network layer firewall works as a b) private data encryption algorithm
a) frame filter c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
b) packet filter d) none of the mentioned
c) both frame filter and packet filter View Answer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect
information from a host that has no authority giving
4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as that information, then it is called
a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall a) DNS lookup
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall b) DNS hijacking
c) frame firewall and packet firewall c) DNS spoofing
d) none of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
5. WPA2 is used for security in
a) ethernet Computer Networks Questions &
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi Answers – OSPF
d) none of the mentioned
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “OSPF”.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 1. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called
as _____________
6. An attempt to make a computer resource a) Link state protocol
unavailable to its intended users is called b) Error-correction protocol
a) denial-of-service attack c) Routing information protocol
b) virus attack d) All of the mentioned
c) worms attack View Answer
d) botnet process
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: Each OSPF router monitors the cost of the
Answer: a link to each of its neighbours and then floods the link
Explanation: None. state information to other routers in the network.
2. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is c) 3-2-1
usually done by ____________ d) 2-1-3
a) Bellman-ford algorithm View Answer
b) Routing information protocol
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm Answer: b
Explanation: OSPF first implements a hello protocol.
d) Distance vector routing
Then it later on tries to establish synchronisation with
View Answer database. Later on building of routing tables is done.
Answer: c
Explanation: Shortest path in OSPF is usually computed
7. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect
by Dijkstra’s algorithm. It was proposed by Edsger W. errors in the packet?
Dijkstra in the year 1956. This algorithm computes the a) Type
shortest path between nodes. b) Area ID
c) Authentication type
3. Which of the following is false with respect to the d) Checksum
features of OSPF? View Answer
a) Support for fixed-length sunbathing by including
the subnet mask in the routing message Answer: d
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors. It
makes sure that the data portions that are being sent
65535
are all in integrity. It can detect duplicated bits.
c) Use of designated router
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that 8. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if more
have equal cost to the destination database descriptor packet flows, ‘M’ field is set to
View Answer ____________
Answer: a
a) 1
Explanation: Support for variable-length sunbathing by b) 0
including the subnet mask in the routing message. c) more
d) none
4. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover View Answer
neighbour routers automatically?
a) Link state protocol Answer: a
Explanation: M bit is set to 1.
b) Error-correction protocol
c) Routing information protocol 9. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field
d) Hello protocol is used to indicate that the router is master?
View Answer a) M
Answer: d b) MS
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover c) I
neighbour routers automatically. It makes sure that the d) Options
communication between neighbors are bidirectional. View Answer

5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF Answer: b

packet? Explanation: M bit is set to 1. These packets are
a) Hello exchanged when an adjacency is being initialized.
Master sends these packets called polls to slave, and
b) Link-state request
then slave sends back acknowledgments.
c) Link-state response
d) Link-state ACK 10. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which
View Answer field is used to detect a missing packet?
Answer: c
a) LSA header
Explanation: Five types of OSPF packets are: Hello, b) MS
Database description, Link-state request, Link-state c) Database descriptor sequence number
update, Link-state ACK. d) Options
View Answer
6. Correct order of the operations of OSPF.
1 – Hello packets Answer: c
2 – Propagation of link-state information and Explanation: Sequence number field is used to detect a
missing packet. LSA is abbreviation for link state
building of routing tables
advertisement. LSA is the main communication means
3 – Establishing adjacencies and synchronisation for OSPF.
database
a) 1-2-3
b) 1-3-2
Computer Networks Questions & d) 1 hour
View Answer
Answers – OSPF Configuration
Answer: c
This set of Computer Networks online quiz focuses Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer. By
on “OSPF Configuration”. default, 30 minutes does an LSA wait before requiring
an update.
1. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router
checks its sequence number, and this 5. Distance vector protocols use the concept of
number matches the sequence number of the LSA split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such
that the receiving router already has. as OSPF, do not.
What does the receiving router do with the LSA? a) True
a) Ignores the LSA b) False
b) Adds it to the database View Answer
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
Answer: b
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers Explanation: Distance vector protocols use the concept
View Answer of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as
OSPF, do not use this.
Answer: a
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA, the 6. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to
router checks its sequence number, and this number
populate the __________
matches the sequence number of the LSA that the
receiving router already has Ignores the LSA. a) Topology table
b) Routing table
2. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router c) Neighbor table
checks its sequence number and finds that d) Adjacency table
this number is higher than the sequence number it View Answer
already has. Which two tasks does
Answer: b
the router perform with the LSA?
Explanation: The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is
a) Ignores the LSA used to populate the Routing table.
b) Adds it to the database
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router 7. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers packets?
View Answer a) 89
b) 86
Answer: b
c) 20
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. The
router checks its sequence number and finds that this d) 76
number is higher than the sequence number Adds it to View Answer
the database, Floods the LSA to the other routers.
Answer: a
3. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router Explanation: 89 is the IP protocol number for OSPF
packets.
checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is lower than the sequence number it 8. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
already has. What does the router do a) LSU
with the LSA? b) LSR
a) ignores the LSA c) DBD
b) adds it to the database d) Query
c) sends newer LSU update to source router View Answer
d) floods the LSA to the other routers
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: Query packet is NOT an OSPF packet
Answer: c type.
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. The
router checks its sequence number and finds that this 9. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello
number is lower than the sequence number sends protocol use?
newer LSU update to source router. a) 224.0.0.5
b) 224.0.0.6
4. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how
c) 224.0.0.7
long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?
d) 224.0.0.8
a) 30 seconds
View Answer
b) 1 minute
c) 30 minutes
Answer: a area-id, Router ospf process-id are required for basic
Explanation: 224.0.0.5 is the multicast address does the OSPF configuration.
OSPF Hello protocol use.
15. Which OSPF show command describes a list of
10. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to OSPF adjacencies?
ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained a) Show ipospf interface
between adjacent routers. b) Show ipospf
a) True c) Show ip route
b) False d) Show ipospf neighbor
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: The Hello protocol sends periodic updates Explanation: Show ipospf neighborOSPF show
to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies.
between adjacent routers.

11. DBD packets are involved during which two Computer Networks Questions &
states?
a) Exstart Answers – Datagram Networks
b) Loading
This set of Computer Networks Questions and
c) Exchange
Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Datagram
d) Two-way
Networks”.
View Answer
1. Datagram switching is done at which layer of
Answer: a
Explanation: DBD packets are involved during which OSI model?
two states Exstart, Exchange. a) Network layer
b) Physical layer
12. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs? c) Application layer
a) 10 seconds d) Transport layer
b) 30 seconds View Answer
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally done at
View Answer
network layer.
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 2. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as
a) Switches
advertisement b) Segments
c) Datagrams
13. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF d) Data-packets
packet header? View Answer
a) Packet length
b) Router ID Answer: c
c) Authentication type Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram
d) Maxage time switching packets are called as datagrams.
View Answer
3. Datagram networks mainly refers to
Answer: d a) Connection oriented networks
Explanation: Maxage timeis NOT a field within an OSPF b) Connection less networks
packet header. c) Telephone networks
d) Internetwork
14. Which two commands are required for basic View Answer
OSPF configuration?
a) Network ip-address mask area area-id Answer: b
b) Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id Explanation: The switch does not keep the information
c) Router ospf process-id about the connection state, hence it is connection less.
d) both Network ip-address wildcard-mask area
4. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with
area-id and Router ospf process-id
the help of
View Answer
a) Switch table
Answer: d b) Segments table
Explanation: Network ip-address wildcard-mask area c) Datagram table
d) Routing table d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: Routing table is used to route the packets Explanation: Probability of the error in a transmitted
to their destinations. block increases with the length of the block.

5. The main contents of the routing table in 10. Which of the following is true with respect to
datagram networks are the datagram networks?
a) Source and Destination address a) Number of flows of packets are not limited
b) Destination address and Output port b) Packets may not be in order at the destination
c) Source address and Output port c) Path is not reserved
d) Input port and Output port d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Routing table contains destination address Explanation: All are the facts with respect to the
and output port to route the packets to their datagram networks.
destinations.

6. Which of the following remains same in the Computer Networks Questions &
header of the packet in a datagram network during
the entire journey of the packet?
Answers – Firewalls
a) Destination address This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
b) Source address Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
c) Checksum “Firewalls”.
d) Padding
View Answer 1. Network layer firewall works as a
a) Frame filter
Answer: a
b) Packet filter
Explanation: Destination address remains same in the
header during the entire journey of the packet. c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned
7. Which of the following is true with respect to the View Answer
delay in datagram networks?
Answer: b
a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available as
b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch hardware appliances, as software-only, or a
c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a combination of the two. In every case, the purpose of a
message firewall is to isolate your trusted internal network (or
d) All of the mentioned your personal PC) from the dangers of unknown
View Answer resources on the Internet and other network
connections that may be harmful. The firewall prevents
Answer: d unauthorized access to your internal, trusted network
Explanation: All the options are true with respect to the from outside threats.
delay in datagram networks.
2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as
8. During datagram switching, the packets are a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
placed in __________ to wait until the given b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
transmission line becomes available. c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
a) Stack d) None of the mentioned
b) Queue View Answer
c) Hash
d) Routing table Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can operate
as stateful or stateless firewalls, creating two
Answer: b subcategories of the standard network layer firewall.
Explanation: Packets are stored in queue during delay Stateful firewalls have the advantage of being able to
and are served as first in first out. track packets over a period of time for greater analysis
and accuracy — but they require more memory and
9. The probability of the error in a transmitted block operate more slowly. Stateless firewalls do not analyze
_________ with the length of the block past traffic and can be useful for systems where speed
a) Remains same is more important than security, or for systems that have
b) Decreases very specific and limited needs. For example, a
c) Increases computer that only needs to connect to a particular
backup server does not need the extra security of a security system that monitors and controls the incoming
stateful firewall. and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined
security rules.[1] A firewall typically establishes a barrier
3. A firewall is installed at the point where the between a trusted, secure internal network and another
secure internal network and untrusted external outside network, such as the Internet, that is assumed
network meet which is also known as __________ not to be secure or trusted.[2] Firewalls are often
a) Chock point categorized as either network firewalls or host-based
b) Meeting point firewalls.
c) Firewall point
7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with
d) Secure point
two firewalls?
View Answer
a) You can control where traffic goes in three
Answer: a networks
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a b) You can do stateful packet filtering
midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or a c) You can do load balancing
combination of these that determines which information d) Improved network performance
or services can be accessed from the outside and who View Answer
is permitted to use the information and services from
outside. Generally, a firewall is installed at the point Answer: c
where the secure internal network and untrusted Explanation: In a topology with a single firewall serving
external network meet, which is also known as a both internal and external users (LAN and WAN), it acts
chokepoint. as a shared resource for these two zones.

4. Which of the following is / are the types of 8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data
firewall? stream that has been divided into packets?
a) Packet Filtering Firewall a) The source routing future
b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall b) The number in the header’s identification field
c) Screen Host Firewall c) The destination IP address
d) All of the mentioned d) The header checksum field in the packet header
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a midrange, a Explanation: source routing future.
mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a router, or
combination of these. Depending on the requirements, a 9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________
firewall can consist of one or more of the following which is a list of active connections?
functional components: Packet-filtering router a) Routing table
b) Bridging table
5. A proxy firewall filters at? c) State table
a) Physical layer d) Connection table
b) Data link layer View Answer
c) Network layer
d) Application layer Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Routing table with best performance

Answer: d 10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it

Explanation: The application firewall is typically built to can grow with the network it protects
control all network traffic on any layer up to the a) Robust
application layer. It is able to control applications or b) Expansive
services specifically, unlike a stateful network firewall, c) Fast
which is – without additional software – unable to
d) Scalable
control network traffic regarding a specific application.
There are two primary categories of application View Answer
firewalls, network-based application firewalls and host- Answer: b
based application firewalls. Explanation: Expansive to block the fake subscribers.
6. A packet filter firewall filters at?
a) Physical layer Computer Networks Questions &
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer or Transport layer Answers – Network Management
d) Application layer
View Answer This set of Computer Networks Question Bank
focuses on “Network Management”.
Answer: c
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a network
1. Complex networks today are made up of a) Transmission path
hundreds and sometimes thousands of b) Virtual path
a) Documents c) Virtual circuit
b) Components d) None of the mentioned
c) Servers View Answer
d) Entities
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation:bThe physical connection between an end
Answer: b point and a switch or between two switches is
Explanation: Complex networks today are made up of transmission path.
hundreds and sometimes thousands of components.
7. Which of the following networks supports
2. Performance management, is closely related to pipelining effect?
a) Proactive Fault Management a) Circuit-switched networks
b) Fault management b) Message-switched networks
c) Reactive Fault Management c) Packet-switched networks
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Fault management is called the Explanation: Packet switched network is most preferred
performance management. for pipelining process.

3. Configuration management can be divided into 8. In Network Management System, maps track
two subsystems: reconfiguration and each piece of hardware and its connection to the
a) Documentation a) IP Server
b) Information b) Domain
c) Servers c) Network
d) Entity d) Data
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Documentation is the other type of Explanation: Network is main thing in connecting
configuration management. different entities in a place.

4. In Network Management System, a term that 9. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can
responsible for controlling access to network based be managed by
on predefined policy is called a) SMTP
a) Fault Management b) UDP
b) Secured Management c) SNMP
c) Active Management d) TCP/IP
d) Security Management View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: Simple network management controls the
Explanation: In Network Management System, a term group of objects in management interface base.
that responsible for controlling access to network based
on predefined policy is called security management. 10. A network management system can be divided
into
5. Control of users’ access to network resources a) three categories
through charges are main responsibilities of b) five broad categories
a) Reactive Fault Management c) seven broad categories
b) Reconfigured Fault Management d) ten broad categories
c) Accounting Management View Answer
d) Security Management
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Five broad categories are
Answer: c • Fault Management
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network • Configuration Management
resources through charges are main responsibilities of • Accounting (Administration)
accounting management. • Performance Management
• Security Management.
6. The physical connection between an end point
and a switch or between two switches is
Computer Networks Questions & 6. Which of the following is related to ipconfig in
Microsoft Windows ?
Answers – Network Utilities a) Display all current TCP/IP network configuration
values
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice b) Modify DHCP settings
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network c) Modify DNS settings
Utilities”. d) All of the mentioned
1. Ping can View Answer
a) Measure round-trip time Answer: d
b) Report packet loss Explanation: None.
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned 7. This allows to check if a domain is available for
View Answer registration.
a) Domain Check
Answer: d b) Domain Dossier
Explanation: None. c) Domain Lookup
2. Ping sweep is a part of d) None of the mentioned
a) Traceroute View Answer
b) Nmap Answer: a
c) Route Explanation: None.
d) Ipconfig
View Answer advertisement

Answer: b 8. Choose the wrong statement

Explanation: A ping sweep is a method that can a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for
establish a range of IP addresses which map to live DNS data
hosts and are mostly used by network scanning tools b) Ping is used to check connectivity
like nmap. c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping with
that of route
3. ICMP is used in
d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network interface
a) Ping
parameters
b) Traceroute
View Answer
c) Ifconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Pathping combines the functionality of ping
with that of traceroute (tracert).
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. __________ command is used to manipulate

Computer Networks Questions &
TCP/IP routing table. Answers – Ethernet
a) route
b) Ipconfig This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
c) Ifconfig Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
d) Traceroute “Ethernet”.
View Answer
1. Ethernet frame consists of
Answer: a a) MAC address
Explanation: None. b) IP address
c) both MAC address and IP address
5. If you want to find the number of routers d) none of the mentioned
between a source and destination, the utility to be View Answer
used is.
a) route Answer: a
b) Ipconfig Explanation: None.
c) Ifconfig
2. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet
d) Traceroute
frame?
View Answer
a) 10101010
Answer: d b) 10101011
Explanation: None. c) 00000000
d) 11111111 b) 1200 bytes
View Answer c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
3. MAC address is of Explanation: None.
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits 9. What is interframe gap?
c) 42 bits a) idle time between frames
d) 48 bits b) idle time between frame bits
View Answer c) idle time between packets
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
4. What is autonegotiation? Explanation: None.
a) a procedure by which two connected devices
choose common transmission parameters 10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE
b) a security algorithm 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called
c) a routing algorithm a) short frame
d) none of the mentioned b) run frame
View Answer c) mini frame
d) man frame
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) Explanation: None.
can be used as
a) pure ethernet
b) ethernet over SDH Computer Networks Questions &
c) ethernet over MPLS
d) all of the mentioned
Answers – Wireless LAN
View Answer This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Answer: d Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Explanation: None. “Wireless LAN”.

6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a 1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN?
network protocol for a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to
a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet a wired network
frames b) wireless devices itself
b) encapsulating ehternet framse inside PPP c) both device that allows wireless devices to
frames connect to a wired network and wireless devices
c) for security of ethernet frames itself
d) for security of PPP frames d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

7. High speed ethernet works on 2. In wireless ad-hoc network

a) coaxial cable a) access point is not required
b) twisted pair cable b) access point is must
c) optical fiber c) nodes are not required
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

8. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet 3. Which multiple access technique is used by
frame is IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) 1000 bytes a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA 9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ?
c) ALOHA a) security algorithm for ethernet
d) None of the mentioned b) security algorithm for wireless networks
View Answer c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
4. In wireless distribution system Explanation: None.
a) multiple access point are inter-connected with
each other 10. What is WPA?
b) there is no access point a) wi-fi protected access
c) only one access point exists b) wired protected access
d) none of the mentioned c) wired process access
View Answer d) wi-fi process access
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. A wireless network interface controller can work
in
a) infrastructure mode Computer Networks Questions &
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
Answers – Internet
d) none of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Answer: c “Internet”.
Explanation: In infrastructure mode WNIC needs access
1. What is internet?
point but in ad-hoc mode access point is not required.
a) a single network
6. In wireless network an extended service set is a b) a vast collection of different networks
set of c) interconnection of local area networks
a) connected basic service sets d) none of the mentioned
b) all stations View Answer
c) all access points
Answer: b
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
2. To join the internet, the computer has to be
Answer: a
connected to a
Explanation: None.
a) internet architecture board
7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN. b) internet society
a) time division multiplexing c) internet service provider
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing d) none of the mentioned
c) space division multiplexing View Answer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: None.
Answer: b
3. Internet access by transmitting digital data over
Explanation: None.
the wires of a local telephone network is provided
8. Which one of the following event is not possible by
in wireless LAN. a) leased line
a) collision detection b) digital subscriber line
b) acknowledgement of data frames c) digital signal line
c) multi-mode data transmission d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their
networks by
a) internet exchange point a) ethernet
b) subscriber end point b) digital subscriber line
c) isp end point c) fiber distributed data interface
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

5. Which one of the following protocol is not used

in internet? Computer Networks Questions &
a) HTTP
b) DHCP
Answers – Bluetooth
c) DNS This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
d) None of the mentioned Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
View Answer “Bluetooth”.
Answer: d 1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called
Explanation: None.
a) scatternet
6. IPv6 addressed have a size of b) micronet
a) 32 bits c) mininet
b) 64 bits d) none of the mentioned
c) 128 bits View Answer
d) 265 bits Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of bluetooth
system having a master node and upto seven active
Answer: c
slave nodes.
Explanation: None.
2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________
7. Internet works on
parked nodes in the net.
a) packet switching
a) 63
b) circuit switching
b) 127
c) both packet switching and circuit switching
c) 255
d) none of the mentioned
d) 511
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. Which one of the following is not an application
3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for
layer protocol used in internet?
a) local area network
a) remote procedure call
b) personal area network
b) internet relay chat
c) both local area network and personal area
c) resource reservation protocol
network
d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client
4. Bluetooth uses
connected in the internet?
a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
a) DHCP
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) IP
c) time division multiplexing
c) RPC
d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
5. Unauthorised access of information from a
10. Which one of the following is not used in media
wireless device through a bluetooth connection is
access control?
called Computer Networks Questions &
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing Answers – WiMAX
c) bluestring
d) none of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“WiMAX”.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 1. WiMAX stands for
a) wireless maximum communication
6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
profile)? c) worldwide international standard for microwave
a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio access
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video d) none of the mentioned
c) a bluetooth profile for security View Answer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 2. WiMAX provides
a) simplex communication
7. In the piconet of bluetooth one master device b) half duplex communication
a) can not be slave c) full duplex communication
b) can be slave in another piconet d) none of the mentioned
c) can be slave in the same piconet View Answer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 3. WiMAX uses the
a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ b) time division multiplexing
band. c) space division multiplexing
a) 2.4 GHz ISM d) all of the mentioned
b) 2.5 GHz ISM View Answer
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: a 4. Which one of the following modulation scheme is

Explanation: None. supported by WiMAX?
a) binary phase shift keying modulation
9. The bluetooth supports b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
a) point-to-point connections c) quadrature amplitude modulation
b) point-to-multipoint connection d) all of the mentioned
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to- View Answer
multipoint connection
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: c 5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface

Explanation: None. between
a) higher transport layers and physical layer
10. A scatternet can have maximum b) application layer and network layer
a) 10 piconets c) data link layer and network layer
b) 20 piconets d) none of the mentioned
c) 30 piconets View Answer
d) 40 piconets
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 6. For encryption, WiMAX supports
a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard
c) both advanced encryption standard and triple d) shell operational network
data encryption standard View Answer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 2. In SONET, STS-1 level of electrical signalling
has the data rate of
7. WiMAX provides a) 51.84 Mbps
a) VoIP services b) 155.52 Mbps
b) IPTV services c) 466.56 Mbps
c) Both VoIP services and IPTV services d) none of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
3. The path layer of SONET is responsible for the
8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a movement of a signal
WiMAX network are known as a) from its optical source to its optical destination
a) subscriber stations b) across a physical line
b) base stations c) across a physical section
c) gateway d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
4. The photonic layer of the SONET is similar to
9. WiMAX is mostly used for the __________ of OSI model.
a) local area network a) network layer
b) metropolitan area network b) data link layer
c) personal area network c) physical layer
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

10. Which one of the following frequency is not 5. In SONET, each synchronous transfer signal
used in WiMAX for communication? STS-n is composed of
a) 2.3 GHz a) 2000 frames
b) 2.4 GHz b) 4000 frames
c) 2.5 GHz c) 8000 frames
d) 3.5 GHz d) 16000 frames
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

6. Which one of the following is not true about

Computer Networks Questions & SONET?
a) frames of lower rate can be synchronously time-
Answers – SONET division multiplexed into a higher-rate frame
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice b) multiplexing is synchronous TDM
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on c) all clocks in the network are locked to a master
“SONET”. clock
d) none of the mentioned
1. SONET stands for View Answer
a) synchronous optical network
b) synchronous operational network Answer: d
Explanation: None.
c) stream optical network
7. A linear SONET network can be 2. RTP is used to
a) point-to-point a) carry the media stream
b) multi-point b) monitor transmission statistics of streams
c) both point-to-point and multi-point c) monitor quality of service of streams
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

8. Automatic protection switching in linear network 3. RTP provides the facility of jitter ____________
is defined at the a) media stream
a) line layer b) expansion
b) section layer c) both media stream and expansion
c) photonic layer d) none of the mentioned
d) path layer View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
4. Which protocol provides the synchronization
9. A unidirectional path switching ring is a network between media streams?
with a) RTP
a) one ring b) RTCP
b) two rings c) RPC
c) three rings d) None of the mentioned
d) four rings View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: One ring is used as the working ring and
other as the protection ring. 5. An RTP session is established for
a) each media stream
10. What is SDH? b) all media streams
a) sdh is similar standard to SONET developed by c) some predefined number of media streams
ITU-T d) none of the mentioned
b) synchronous digital hierarchy View Answer
c) both sdh is similar standard to SONET
developed by ITU-T and synchronous digital Answer: a
hierarchy Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned 6. RTP can use
View Answer a) unprevileleged UDP ports
Answer: c b) stream control transmission protocol
Explanation: None. c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Computer Networks Questions &
Answer: d
Answers – RTP Explanation: None.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice 7. Which one of the following multimedia formats
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RTP”. can not be supported by RTP?
a) MPEG-4
1. Real-time transport protocol (RTP) is mostly b) MJPEG
used in c) MPEG
a) streaming media d) None of the mentioned
b) video teleconference View Answer
c) television services
d) all of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: d 8. An RTP header has a minimum size of

Explanation: None. a) 12 bytes
b) 16 bytes 3. Remote procedure calls is
c) 24 bytes a) inter-process communication
d) 32 bytes b) a single process
View Answer c) a single thread
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
9. Which one of the following is not correct? Explanation: None.
a) RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to
all session participants 4. RPC allows a computer program to cause a
b) RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all subroutine to execute in
participants a) its own address space
c) RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption b) another address space
or authentication methods c) both its own address space and another address
d) None of the mentioned space
View Answer d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. Which protocol defines a profile of RTP that
provides cryptographic services for the transfer of 5. RPC works between two processes. These
payload data? processes must be
a) SRTP a) on the same computer
b) RTCP b) on different computers connected with a network
c) RCP c) both on the same computer and on different
d) None of the mentioned computers connected with a network
View Answer d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.

Computer Networks Questions & 6. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by

a) program number
Answers – RPC b) version number
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice c) procedure number
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RPC”. d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
1. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by
the Answer: d
Explanation: None.
a) server
b) client 7. An RPC application requires
c) both server and client a) specific protocol for client server communication
d) none of the mentioned b) a client program
View Answer c) a server program
Answer: b d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: None. View Answer

2. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, the Answer: d

Explanation: None.
client is blocked
a) unless the client sends an asynchronous 8. RPC is used to
request to the server a) establish a server on remote machine that can
b) unless the call processing is complete respond to queries
c) for the complete duration of the connection b) retrieve information by calling a query
d) none of the mentioned c) both establish a server on remote machine that
View Answer can respond to queries and retrieve information by
Answer: a calling a query
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: A false positive is any alert that indicates
nefarious activity on a system that, upon further
9. RPC is a inspection, turns out to represent legitimate network
a) synchronous operation traffic or behavior.
b) asynchronous operation
c) time independent operation 3. One of the most obvious places to put an IDS
d) none of the mentioned sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in
View Answer relation to the firewall is the most productive
placement?
Answer: a a) Inside the firewall
Explanation: None. b) Outside the firewall
c) Both inside and outside the firewall
10. The local operating system on the server d) Neither inside the firewall nor outside the
machine passes the incoming packets to the firewall.
a) server stub View Answer
b) client stub
c) client operating system Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: There are legitimate political, budgetary
View Answer and research reasons to want to see all the “attacks”
against your connection, but given the care and feeding
Answer: a any IDS requires, do yourself a favor and keep your
Explanation: None. NIDS sensors on the inside of the firewall.

4. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?

Computer Networks Questions & a) To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities
Answers – Intrusion Detection b) To help reduce false positives in a signature-
based IDS
Systems c) To randomly check suspicious traffic identified
by an anomaly detection system
This set of Computer Networks Questions and d) To enhance the accuracy of a traditional
Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Intrusion honeypot
Detection Systems”. View Answer
1. Which of the following is an advantage of Answer: c
anomaly detection? Explanation: “Shadow honeypots,” as researchers call
a) Rules are easy to define them, share all the same characteristics of protected
b) Custom protocols can be easily analyzed applications running on both the server and client side
c) The engine can scale as the rule set grows of a network and operate in conjunction with an ADS.
d) Malicious activity that falls within normal usage
patterns is detected 5. At which two traffic layers do most commercial
View Answer IDSes generate signatures?
a) Application layer
Answer: c b) Network layer
Explanation: Once a protocol has been built and a c) Transport layer
behavior defined, the engine can scale more quickly d) both Transport layer and Network layer
and easily than the signature-based model because a View Answer
new signature does not have to be created for every
attack and potential variant. Answer: d
Explanation: Most commercial IDSes generate
2. A false positive can be defined as… signatures at the network and transport layers.
a) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a
system that, upon further inspection, turns out to 6. An IDS follows a two-step process consisting of
represent legitimate network traffic or behavior a passive component and an active component.
b) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a Which of the following is part of the active
system that is not running on the network component?
c) The lack of an alert for nefarious activity a) Inspection of password files to detect
d) Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity on inadvisable passwords
a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to b) Mechanisms put in place to reenact known
represent legitimate network traffic or behavior and methods of attack and record system responses
An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a c) Inspection of system to detect policy violations
system that is not running on the network d) Inspection of configuration files to detect
View Answer
inadvisable settings known malicious activity. They then scan network traffic
View Answer for packets that match the signatures, and then raise
alerts to security administrators.
Answer: b
Explanation: Second component of mechanisms are set
in place to reenact known methods of attack and to Computer Networks Questions &
record system responses.
Answers – PPP
7. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?
a) An electronic signature used to authenticate the This set of Basic Computer Networks Questions
identity of a user on the network and Answers focuses on “PPP”.
b) Attack-definition file 1. Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer
c) It refers to “normal,” baseline network behavior protocols.
d) None of the above a) True
View Answer b) False
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: IDSes work in a manner similar to modern
Answer: a
antivirus technology. They are constantly updated with
Explanation: Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link
attack-definition files (signatures) that describe each
layer protocol.
type of known malicious activity.
2. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide
8. “Semantics-aware” signatures automatically
for handling the capabilities of the connection/link
generated by Nemean are based on traffic at which
on the network?
two layers?
a) LCP
a) Application layer
b) NCP
b) Network layer
c) Both LCP and NCP
c) Session layer
d) TCP
d) both Application layer and Session layer
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: d
Explanation: LCP and NCP are the PPP protocol
Explanation: Nemean automatically generates
provide for handling the capabilities of the
“semantics-aware” signatures based on traffic at the
connection/link on the network.
session and application layers.
3. The PPP protocol
9. Which of the following is used to provide a
a) Is designed for simple links which transport
baseline measure for comparison of IDSes?
packets between two peers
a) Crossover error rate
b) Is one of the protocols for making an Internet
b) False negative rate
connection over a phone line
c) False positive rate
c) Both Is designed for simple links which transport
d) Bit error rate
packets between two peers & Is one of the
View Answer
protocols for making an Internet connection over a
Answer: a phone line
Explanation: As the sensitivity of systems may cause d) None of the mentioned
the false positive/negative rates to vary, it’s critical to View Answer
have some common measure that may be applied
across the board. Answer: c
Explanation: The PPP protocolis designed for simple
10. Which of the following is true of signature- links which transport packets between two peers and
based IDSes? one of the protocols for making an Internet connection
a) They alert administrators to deviations from over a phone line.
“normal” traffic behavior
4. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP
b) They identify previously unknown attacks
suite.
c) The technology is mature and reliable enough to
a) Link
use on production networks
b) Network
d) They scan network traffic or packets to identify
c) Transport
matches with attack-definition files
d) Application
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: They are constantly updated with attack-
definition files (signatures) that describe each type of
Answer: a b) PPP can terminate the link only during the link
Explanation: PPP provides thelinklayer in the TCP/IP establishment phase
suite. c) PPP can terminate the link during the
authentication phase
5. PPP consists of ________components
d) None of the mentioned
a) Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name
View Answer
system)
b) Three ( encapsulating, a link control protocol, Answer: a
NCP ) Explanation: PPP can terminate the link at any time
c) Two ( a link control protocol, Simple Network because it works on the data link layer protocol.
Control protocol)
d) None of the mentioned 10. The link necessarily begins and ends with this
View Answer phase. During this phase, the LCP automata will be
in INITIAL or STARTING states
Answer: b a) Link-termination phase
Explanation: PPP consists of three (encapsulating, a b) Link establishment phase
link control protocol, NCP) c) Authentication phase
Components. d) Link dead phase
6. The PPP encapsulation View Answer
a) Provides for multiplexing of different network- Answer: d
layer protocols Explanation: The link necessarily begins and ends with
b) Requires framing to indicate the beginning and this phase. During this phase, the LCP automata will be
end of the encapsulation in INITIAL or STARTING states link dead phase.
c) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-
link connection
d) None of the mentioned Computer Networks Questions &
View Answer Answers – EIGRP
Answer: a This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Explanation: The PPP encapsulationprovides for
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
multiplexing of different network-layer protocols.
“EIGRP”.
7. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for
1. EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by Cisco.
a) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-
(Yes/No)?
link connection
a) Yes
b) Establishing and configuring different network-
b) No
layer protocols
View Answer
c) Testing the different network-layer protocols
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by
Cisco.
Answer: a
Explanation: A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for 2. EIGRP metric is ________
establishing, configuring and testing the data-link a) K-values
connection. b) Bandwidth only
8. A family of network control protocols (NCPs) c) Hop Count
a) Are a series of independently defined protocols d) Delay only
that provide a dynamic View Answer
b) Are a series of independently-defined protocols Answer: a
that encapsulate Explanation: EIGRP metric is K-values.
c) Are a series of independently defined protocols
that provide transparent 3. EIGRP can support ____________
d) The same as NFS a) VLSM/subnetting
View Answer b) Auto summary
c) Unequal cast load balancing
Answer: b d) All od the above
Explanation: A family of network control protocols View Answer
(NCPs)are a series of independently-defined protocols
that encapsulate. Answer: d
Explanation: VLSM/subnetting, Auto summary, Unequal
9. Choose one from the following cast load balancing.
a) PPP can terminate the link at any time
4. EIGRP send the hello message after every d) Dikstraalgo
___________ seconds View Answer
a) 5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)
b) 5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN) Answer: b
Explanation: EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm for
c) 15s
finding shortest path.
d) 180s
View Answer 10. In EIGRP best path is known as the successor,
Answer: a
where as backup path is known as __________
Explanation: EIGRP send the hello message after a) Feasible successor
every5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN). b) Back-up route
c) Default route
5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is d) There is no backup route in EIGRP
______ View Answer
a) 90
b) 170 Answer: a
c) 110 Explanation: Feasible successor is the backup path.
d) 91
View Answer Computer Networks Questions &
Answer: a Answers – STP
Explanation: Administrative distance for internal EIGRP
is 90. This set of Computer Networks Questions and
Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “STP”.
6. The EIGRP metric values include:
a) Delay 1. _____________ allows LAN users to share
b) Bandwidth computer programs and data.
c) MTU a) Communication server
d) All of the above b) Print server
View Answer c) File server
d) Network
Answer: d
View Answer
Explanation: The EIGRP metric values are Delay,
Bandwidth, and MTU. Answer: c
Explanation: File server allows LAN users to share
7. For default gateway you will use which of computer programs and data.
following command on Cisco router?
a) IP default network 2. STP stands for
b) IP default gateway a) Shielded twisted pair cable
c) IP default route b) Spanning tree protocol
d) Default network c) Static transport protocol
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IP default network command used in Answer: a
default gateway in Cisco router. Explanation: STP stands for Shielded twisted pair cable.
8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP route 3. A standalone program that has been modified to
is _______ work on a LAN by including concurrency controls
a) 90 such as file and record locking is an example of
b) 170 ___________
c) 110 a) LAN intrinsic software
d) 100 b) LAN aware software
View Answer c) Groupware
d) LAN ignorant software
Answer: b
Explanation: Administrative distance for external EIGRP View Answer
route is 170. Answer: a
Explanation: A standalone program that has been
9. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for
modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency
finding shortest path. controls such as file and record locking is an example of
a) SPF LAN intrinsic software.
b) DUAL
c) Linkstat
4. The __________ portion of LAN management Answer: c
software restricts access, records user activities Explanation: 1000 mbps is max data capacity for optical
and audit data etc. fiber cable.
a) Configuration management
10. Which of the following architecture uses
b) Security management
CSMA/CD access method?
c) Performance management
a) ARC net
d) None of the mentioned
b) Ethernet
View Answer
c) Router
Answer: b d) STP server
Explanation: The Security management portion of LAN View Answer
management software restricts access, records user
activities and audit data etc. Answer: b
Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA/CD access method.
5. What is the max cable length of STP?
a) 100 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 100 m
d) 200 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 200m is the max cable length of STP.

6. What is the max data capacity of STP?

a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 100 mbps is the max data capacity of STP.

7. Which connector STP uses?

a) BNC
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45
d) RJ-69
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable.

8. What is the central device in star topology?

a) STP server
b) Hub/switch
c) PDC
d) Router
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hub/switch is the central device in star
topology.

9. What is max data capacity for optical fiber

cable?
a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps
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