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Che DPPs

Uploaded by

Alok Ranjan
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Physical Chemistry

Part – 1 (Periodic Table) (DPP 01 – 03)


DPP No. : 01

1. The long form of periodic table has


(1) Eight horizontal rows and seven vertical columns
(2) Seven horizontal rows and eighteen vertical columns
(3) Seven horizontal rows and seven vertical columns
(4) Eight horizontal rows and eight vertical columns

2. If an atom has electronic configuration


1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2, it will be placed in
(1) II A group (2) III A group (3) V B group (4) VI A group

3. All the s-block element of the periodic table are placed in the group.
(1) IA and IIA (2) IIIA and IVA (3) B sub groups (4) VA to VIIA

4. Which one of the following belongs to representative group of elements in the periodic table
(1) Iron (2) Argon (3) Chromium (4) Aluminium

5. The elements having the electronic configuration, [Kr] 4d10, 4f14, 5s2, 5p6, 5d2, 6s2 belongs to
(1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block

6. An element has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4. Predict their period, group and block
(1) Period = 3rd, block = p , group = 16 (2) Period = 5th, block = s , group = 1
(3) Period = 3rd, block = p , group = 10 (4) Period = 4th, block = d , group = 12

7. Electronic configuration of chalcogens in their outermost orbit is


(1) ns2n p3 (2) ns2n p4 (3) ns2 np5 (4) ns2 np6

8. Which configuration represents a noble gas


(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3p6 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
9. The element with atomic number Z = 118 will be :
(1) noble gas (2) transition metal (3) alkali metal (4) alkanline earth metal

10. What is the position of the element in the Modern periodic table satisfying the electronic configuration
(n – 1) d1 ns2 for n = 4 :
(1) 3rd period and 3rd group (2) 4th period and 4th group
(3) 3rd period and 2nd group (4) 4th period and 3rd group
DPP No. : 01
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)
DPP No. : 02
1. On going down a main sub-group in the periodic table (example Li to Cs in IA or Be to Ra in IIA), the
expected trend of changes in atomic radius is a
(1) Continuous increases
(2) Continuous decrease
(3) Periodic one, an increase followed by a decreases
(4) A decrease followed by increase
2. Which one is the correct order of the size of the iodine species.
(1) I > I+ > I– (2) I > I– > I+ (3) I+ > I– > I (4) I– > I > I+

3. In third row of periodic table the atomic radii from Na to CI


(1) Continuously decreases (2) Continuously increases
(3) Remains constant (4) Increases but not continuously

4. Which statement is correct


(1) For potassium, the atomic radius < ionic radius ; but for bromine, the atomic radius > ionic radius
(2) For potassium and bromine both, the atomic radii > ionic radii
(3) For potassium and bromine both, the atomic radii < ionic radii
(4) For potassium, the atomic radius > ionic radius but for bromine, the atomic radius < ionic radius

5. When a neutral atom is converted into cation, there is


(1) Decrease in the atomic number (2) An increase in the atomic number
(3) A decrease in size (4) An increase in size

6. In the isoelectronic species, the ionic radii (Å) of N3–, O 2– and F– are respectively given by :
(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40 (3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

7. Which of the following correct order of size :


(1) V < Nb < Ta (2) V < Nb < Ta (3) V < Nb = Ta (4) V = Nb < Ta

8. Which of the following element has highest size :


(1) W (2) Y (3) Zr (4) Fe

9. Which of the following statement is correct :


(1) Due to lanthanide contraction size of 3d series elements  4d series element .
(2) Due to lanthanide contraction size of 4d series elements  5d series element.
(3) Due to lanthanide contraction size of 3d series elements < 5d series element.
(4) Due to lanthanide contraction size of 5d series element > 4d series elements.

10. The first four ionisation energy values of an element are 191, 578, 872 and 5962 kcal. The number of
valence electrons in the element is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
DPP No. : 02
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3)
DPP No. : 03
1. The correct order of second ionization potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is :
(1) C > N > O > F (2) O > N > F > C (3) O > F > N > C (4) F > O > N > C

2. For an element 'A', the first ionisation energy will be numerically equal to :
(1) EA of A+ (2) EA of A2+ (3) E of A2+ (4) None of these

3. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative
sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl ?
(1) O < S < F < Cl (2) F < S < O < Cl (3) S < O < Cl < F (4) Cl < F < O < S

4. Among the elements C,N, K and Mg, Which would show the greatest difference in first and second
ionisation enthalpies?
(1) K (2) N (3) C (4) Mg
5. Increasing order of magnitude of electron affinity is :
(1) N<O<CI<AI (2) O<N<AI<CI (3) N<AI<O<CI (4) CI<N<O<AI

6. The elecrton affinity value of halogens are F = 329, CI = 349, Br = 324, I = 295kJ mol–1. The higher value
for CI as compared to that of F is due to :
(1) Less electron-electron repulsion in CI as compare to F
(2) Higher atomic radius of F
(3) Smaller electronegativity of F
(4) More vacant P-subshell in CI

7. Electron affinity is the :


(1) Energy absorbed when an electron is added to an isolated atom in the gaseous state
(2) Energy released when an electron is added to an isolated atom in the gaseous state
(3) Energy required to take out an electron from an isolated gaseous atom
(4) Power of an atom to attract an electron to itself

8. Which element has the highest electronegativity :


(1) F (2) He (3) Ne (4) Na
9. The tendency of atom in a compound to attract a pair of bonded electrons towards itself is known as :
(1) Electron affinity (2) Electronegativity (3) Ionisation energy (4) Valence
10. Among AI2O3,SiO2,P2O3 and SO2 the correct order of acid strength is :
(1) AI2O3< SiO2< SO2< P2O3 (2) SiO2< SO2< AI2O3< P2O3
(3) SO2< P2O3 < SiO2< AI2O3 (4) AI2O3< SiO2< P2O3 < SO2
DPP No. : 03
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4)
Part – 2 (Atomic Structure) (DPP 04 – 06)
DPP No. : 04
1. A species of an element X has a net charge of – 1 and it has 18 electrons and 20 neutrons. Then the
correct statement is :
(1) Atomic number of X is 18. (2) Mass number of X is 38.
(3) Number of protons is 17. (4) None of these.

2. Which of the following are isoelectronic :


(I) CH3+ (II) H3O+ (III) NH3 (IV) CH3–
(1) I and III (2) III and IV (3) I and II (4) II, III and IV

3. Which of the following are isobars :


(i) Atom, whose nucleus contains 20p + 15n (ii) Atom, whose nucleus contains 20p + 20n
(iii) Atom, whose nucleus contains 18p + 17n (iv) Atom, whose nucleus contains 18p + 22n
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)

4. Which of the following is an arrangement of increasing value of e/m (wrt magnitude only) :
(1) n <  < p < e (2) e < p <  < n (3) n < p < e <  (4) n < p <  < e

5. Bohr's model can explain :


(1) The spectrum of hydrogen atom only. (2) Spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only
(3) The spectrum of hydrogen molecule (4) The solar spectrum

6. When an electron revolves in a stationary orbit then :


(1) It absorbs energy (2) It gains kinetic energy
(3) It emits radiation (4) Its energy remains constant

7. If the radius of the first Bohr orbit of the H atom is r, then radius of 2nd orbit of He+ is:
(1) 3r (2) 9r (3) 2r (4) r/9

8. The velocity of electron in the ground state of H atom is 2.18 × 108 m/sec. The velocity of electron in
the 3rd orbit of Li2+ ion in cm/sec would be :
(1) 3.27 × 108 (2) 2.18 × 108 (3) 4.91 × 108 (4) 1.63 × 108

9. The de-Brogile equation applies :


(1) To electrons only (2) To neutrons only
(3) To protons only (4) All the material object in motion.

10. Which one of the following explains light both as a stream of particles and as wave motion:
(1) Diffraction (2)  = h/p (3) Interference (4) Photoelectric effect
Part – 2 (Atomic Structure) (DPP 04 – 06)
DPP No. : 04
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (4)

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