ALART UPRT Essential Knowledge Quiz

1. The predominant number of aircraft upsets are caused by:

a. Environmental factors.
b. Aircraft system anomalies.
c. Pilot-induced factors.

2. Most of the multi-engine turbo-jet loss-of-control incidents that are caused by environmental
factors are because of:
a. Microbursts.
b. Windshear.
c. Aircraft icing.
d. Wake turbulence.

3. Technology in modern aircrafts reduces the flight crew workload. Therefore, while initiating
the recovery from an aircraft upset, the pilot should:
a. Verify that the autopilot and auto-throttles are still engaged.
b. Engage the autopilot and auto-throttles, if disengaged.
c. Reduce the level of automation by disengaging the autopilot and auto-throttles.
d. Ask the other pilot “What is it doing now?”

4. Which of the following statements regarding energy is true?

a. Kinetic energy decreases with increasing airspeed.
b. Potential energy is approximately proportional to airspeed.
c. Chemical energy remains constant throughout a flight.
d. Kinetic energy can be traded for potential energy, and potential energy can be traded
for kinetic energy.

5. The objective in manoeuvering the aircraft is to manage energy so that:

a. Kinetic energy stays between limits (stall and placards).
b. Potential energy stays between limits (terrain to buffet altitude).
c. Chemical energy stays above certain thresholds (not running out of fuel).
d. All of the above.

6. The aircraft angle of attack is the angle between the aircraft longitudinal axis and the
oncoming air.
a. True.
b. False.

7. Exceed the critical angle of attack and the surface will stall, and lift will decrease instead of
increasing. This is true:
a. Unless the aircraft is in a nosedown pitch attitude.
b. Only if the airspeed is low.
c. Only if the aircraft is in a nose-high pitch attitude.
d. Regardless of aircraft speed or attitude.

8. The angle of attack at which a wing stalls reduces with _ Mach.

a. Decreasing.
b. Increasing.

9. Aircraft stall speeds are published in the Approved Flight Manual for each aircraft model.
These speeds are presented as a function of aircraft weight. Therefore, if a pilot maintains
airspeed above the appropriate speed listed for the aircraft weight, the aircraft will not stall.
a. True.
b. False.
10. Large downward aileron deflections:
a. Could induce air separation over that portion of the wing at very high angles of attack.
b. Should never be used when recovering from an aircraft upset.
c. Are more effective at high angles of attack.

11. Dihedral is the positive angle formed between the lateral axis of an aircraft and a line that
passes through the centre of the wing. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Dihedral contributes to aircraft lateral stability.
b. The term “dihedral effect” is used when describing the effects of wing sweep and
rudder on lateral stability.
c. A wing with dihedral will develop stable rolling moments with sideslip.
d. If the relative wind comes from the side of an aircraft that has dihedral-designed wings,
the wing into the wind is subject to a decrease in lift.

12. Rudders on modern jet transport aircrafts are usually designed and sized to:
a. Create large sideslip capability during recovery from stall.
b. Counter yawing moment associated with an engine failure at very low takeoff speeds.
c. Counter rolling moment created by ailerons and spoilers.

13. While already at high speed, what happens if Mach is allowed to increase?
a. Airflow over parts of the aircraft begins to exceed the speed of sound.
b. Shock waves can cause local airflow separation.
c. Characteristics such as pitchup, pitchdown, or buffeting may occur.
d. All of the above.

14. Positive static stability is defined as the initial tendency to return to an initial undisturbed
state after a disturbance.
a. True.
b. False.

15. Movement about the aircraft lateral axis is called:

a. Yaw.
b. Roll.
c. Pitch.
d. Sideslip.

16. Which of the following statements is always true?

a. Weight points 90 deg from the aircraft longitudinal axis.
b. Lift must always be aligned with the centre of gravity.
c. Weight always points to the centre of the Earth.
d. The centre of gravity never changes in flight.

17. If the engines are not aligned with the aircraft centre of gravity, a change in engine thrust
will:
a. Have no effect on pitching moment.
b. Be accompanied by a change in pitching moment.

18. To maintain altitude in a banked turn, the lift produced by the aircraft must be:
a. Greater than the aircraft weight, and the amount is a function of bank angle.
b. Greater than the aircraft weight, and the amount is a function of altitude.
c. Equal to the weight of the aircraft.

19. During lateral manoeuvering, aileron and spoiler effectiveness:

a. Increases with increasing angle of attack.
b. Decreases with increasing angle of attack.
c. Is a function of the aircraft’s inertia about its vertical axis.
20. Which of the following statements about recovering from large aircraft bank angles is true?
a. The effect of up-elevator is to tighten the turn.
b. The bank should be reduced to near level before initiating aggressive pitch
manoeuvering.
c. The lift vector should be oriented away from the gravity vector.
d. All of the above.
e. Only answers a and b.

21. If a pilot inputs full rudder in a normal symmetric aircraft situation, it will result in very large
sideslip angles and large structural loads.
a. True.
b. False.

22. Stability in the vertical axis tends to drive the sideslip angle toward zero. The most dynamic
stability about the vertical axis on modern jet transports is from:
a. The vertical fin.
b. The rudder.
c. An active stability augmentation system/yaw damper.
d. Pilot roll input.

23. With insufficient aerodynamic forces acting on the aircraft (aircraft stalled), its trajectory will
be mostly ballistic and it may be difficult for the pilot to command a change in attitude until:
a. Full noseup elevator is applied.
b. Full rudder input is applied.
c. Gravity effect on the aircraft produces enough airspeed when the angle of attack is
reduced.
d. Arriving at a lower altitude.

24. During a situation where the high-speed limitation is exceeded, recovery actions should be
careful and prompt and may include:
a. Orienting the lift vector away from the gravity vector.
b. Reducing thrust.
c. Adding drag.
d. All of the above.

25. Which of the following statements regarding recovering from an aircraft upset are correct?
a. The actions should be correct and timely.
b. Troubleshooting the cause of the upset is secondary to initiating recovery.
c. Regaining and maintaining control of the aircraft is paramount.
d. All of the above.

26. A good analysis process of an aircraft upset should include:

a. Locating the bank indicator.
b. Determining the pitch attitude.
c. Confirming attitude by referring to other indicators.
d. Assessing the aircraft energy.
e. All of the above.

27. During recovery from an aircraft upset:

a. Pilots must be very careful to maintain at least 1-g force.
b. Altitude should always be maintained.
c. Training and experience gained from one aircraft may always be transferred to another.
d. Pilots must be prepared to use full control authority.

28. A stall is usually accompanied by a continuous stall warning, and it is characterised by:
a. Buffeting, which could be heavy.
b. A lack of pitch authority.
c. A lack of roll authority.
d. The inability to arrest descent rate.
e. All of the above.
29. Which of the following statements is true?
a. A stall is a controlled situation.
b. An approach to stall warning is an uncontrolled situation.
c. Recovery from approach to stall warning is the same as recovery from a stall.
d. To recover from a nose-low stall, angle of attack must be reduced.

30. When initiating recommended aircraft upset recovery techniques, the first two techniques
are:
a. Maintain altitude and apply additional thrust.
b. Reduce the angle of attack and manoeuvre toward wings level.
c. Recognise and confirm the situation and disengage the autopilot and auto-throttles.
d. Determine the malfunction and disengage the autopilot and auto-throttles.

31. In a nose-high, wings-level aircraft upset, after accomplishing the first two recommended
techniques:
a. Apply up to full nose-down elevator and consider trimming off some control force.
b. Immediately roll into a 60-deg bank.
c. Maintain at least 1-g force.
d. Immediately establish sideslip in order to maintain at least 1-g force.

32. In a nose-high, wings-level aircraft upset, when it is determined that rudder input is required
because roll input is ineffective:
a. Only a small amount should be used.
b. Do not apply rudder too quickly.
c. Do not hold rudder input too long.
d. Improper use of rudder may result in loss of lateral and directional control.
e. Extreme caution must be used because of the low-energy situation.
f. All of the above.

33. During recovery from a nose-low, wings-level, high-airspeed aircraft upset:

a. The aircraft cannot be stalled.
b. Use of stabiliser trim is always optional, but never required.
c. The recovery is completed by establishing a pitch, thrust, and aircraft configuration that
corresponds to the desired airspeed.

34. During recovery from a nose-low, high-bank-angle aircraft upset:

a. If 90 deg of bank is exceeded, continue the roll to wings level.
b. It may be necessary to unload the aircraft by decreasing backpressure.
c. Increase elevator backpressure while beginning to roll toward wings level.

35. When should an upset recovery be initiated?

a. Only when pitch or bank reaches specified limit values.
b. Only when the airspeed is rapidly decreasing (increasing).
c. Whenever an unintentional excessive divergence from the intended flight path and/or
airspeed occurs.

36. Pilot induced oscillations are:

a. Oscillations due to cyclic actions on the controls by the pilot, with an immediate
reaction of the aircraft in the same direction.
b. Oscillations due to cyclic action on the controls by the pilot, with an out-of-phase
aircraft response.
c. Oscillations due to a rudder and aileron out-of-trim condition.

37. In the event of thrust asymmetry at takeoff:

a. The pilot must know how much rudder trim is needed in advance.
b. The pilot must react with a predefined amount of rudder.
c. The pilot must apply an amount of rudder determined by the yawing moment in order to
eliminate the sideslip.
38. The rudder is used:
a. To control yaw.
b. To damp dutch roll in case of a yaw damper system failure.
c. To induce roll if normal roll control is lost/ineffective.
d. a and c

39. Cyclic abrupt rudder pedal inputs can:

a. Cause structural damage above VA.
b. Cause structural damage below VA.
c. Not cause structural damage below VA.
d. a and b

40. The role of rudder limiters is:

a. To allow full rudder pedal input in one direction regardless of speed, while ensuring
required rudder efficiency.
b. To allow any succession of rudder inputs below VA.
c. To ensure structural consideration, but limits the required rudder efficiency at high
speed (above VA).

41. Configuration manoeuvering speed:

a. Provides a structural protection to slats/flaps while flying for extended periods.
b. Defines the minimum speed that the aircraft can be flown at in a given configuration.
c. Defines the minimum speed that ensures a 1.2VS margin.

42. When operating at a constant airspeed with constant thrust setting at high altitude (typically
above FL250) in slow flight below L/D max airspeed, any disturbance causing a decrease
in airspeed will result in a further decrease in airspeed unless thrust is increased. High
altitude recovery from slow flight while turning is best accomplished by:
a. Increasing thrust to arrest the slowdown.
b. Increasing thrust to accelerate to airspeed above L/D max speed.
c. Increasing thrust to maximum available thrust and reducing bank angle while
accelerating to airspeed above L/D max speed. In a thrust limited situation, exiting slow
flight will require an immediate descent as an aerodynamic stall is imminent.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

43. Maximum Altitude is the highest altitude at which an aircraft can be operated. In today’s
modern aircrafts it is determined by basic characteristics unique to each aircraft model.
Maximum Altitude for an aircraft is:
a. Maximum Certified Altitude – the altitude determined during certification set by the
pressurisation structural load limits on the fuselage.
b. Thrust Limited Altitude – the altitude at which sufficient thrust is available to provide a
specific minimum rate of climb.
c. Buffet or Manoeuvre Limited Altitude – the altitude at which a specific manoeuvre
margin exists prior to buffet onset.
d. The highest of the above listed altitudes.
e. The lowest of the above listed altitudes.

44. At high altitude, an aft loaded aircraft will:

a. Be more responsive to control pressures since it is less stable than a forward loading.
b. Be less responsive to control pressures as there is a longer moment arm from the
centre of gravity to the tail assembly.
c. Just as sensitive to control pressures as a forward loaded aircraft. Centre of gravity
positioning is insignificant to handling qualities in modern jet aircraft.