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Biology I - Section A 7 All the following plants are pollinated by water

except:
1 Which of the following properties is the reason that 1. Vallisneria
2. Hydrilla
whole plants can be regenerated from explants?
3. Zostera
1. Phenotypic plasticity
4. Eicchornia
2. Cellular totipotency
3. Open growth
4. Open differentiation 8 The two alleles of a gene pair are located on:
1. homologous sites on homologous chromosomes
2 In gymnosperms: 2. homologous sites on heterologous chromosomes
3. heterologous sites on homologous chromosomes
1. gametophytes have an independent free-living
4. heterologous sites on heterologous chromosomes
existence
2. pollen grains are transported by water
3. pollen tubes are not seen 9 Which essential mineral nutrient required by plants
4. seeds are not covered plays an important role in opening and closing of
stomata?
3 The famous aphorism ‘omnis cellula-e-cellula’ was 1. Phosphorus
2. Potassium
added to the cell theory by:
3. Calcium
1. Theodore Schwann
4. Magnesium
2. Matthias Schleiden
3. Robert Hooke
4. Rudolf Virchow 10 In chloroplasts, the water splitting complex:
1. is associated with PS I, which itself is located on the
4 Creation of new varieties of pest-resistant GM inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
2. is associated with PS II, which itself is located on the
crops:
outer side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
1. makes crops more resistant to abiotic stresses
3. is associated with PS II, which itself is located on the
2. reduces reliance on chemical pesticides
inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
3. enhances nutritional value of food crops
4. is associated with PS I, which itself is located on the
4. increases efficiency of mineral usage by plants
outer side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
5 The DNA fragments separated on agar gel by
11 A transverse section of a plant part shows the
electrophoresis can be visualised:
following features:
1. without staining in the visible light
I. Innermost layer of cortex has casparian strips.
2. without staining on exposure to UV light
II. Pericycle has parenchymatous cells.
3. after staining with polyethylene glycol followed by
III. Radially arranged two to four xylem and phloem
exposure to IR radiation
patches.
4. after staining with ethidium bromide followed by
This transverse section must be of:
exposure to UV radiation
1. Dicot root
2. Monocot root
6 Identify the incorrect statement regarding guard 3. Dicot stem
cells in the epidermal tissue system? 4. Monocot stem
1. They enclose stomata.
2. They are bean shaped in grasses. 12 In ecological succession:
3. The outer walls are thin and the inner walls are highly
1. Hydrarch succession leads to xeric conditions.
thickened.
2. Xerarch succession leads to hydric conditions.
4. They possess chloroplasts.
3. Both xerarch and hydrarch successions may lead to
either xeric or hydric conditions.
4. Both xerarch and hydrarch successions lead to mesic
conditions.

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13 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II 16 Antirrhinum majus with pink flowers is crossed
and select the correct match from the codes given: with Antirrhinum majus with white flowers. What is the
COLUMN I COLUMN II expected phenotypic ration in the progeny?
A Zoospores P Sponges 1. 1 [red] : 2 [pink] : 1 white
2. 3 [red] : 1 [white]
B Conidia Q Penicillium
3. 1 [pink] : 1 [white]
C Buds R Chlamydomonas 4. 3 [pink] : 1 [white]
D Gemmule S Hydra
Codes: 17 For DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside
A B C D triphosphates:
1. P S Q R I: act as substrates
2. R Q S P II: provide energy for polymerisation reaction
3. Q R P S 1. Only I
2. Only II
4. S P R Q
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
14 Floridean starch is a form of:
1. stored food in red algae that resembles the structure of 18 All bacterial cells are:
amylopectin and glycogen 1. motile.
2. stored food in brown algae that resembles the 2. enclosed by peptidoglycan cell wall.
structure of agarose and agaropectin 3. prokaryotic.
3. carbohydrate found in cell wall of brown algae that 4. capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen.
resembles the structure of amylopectin and glycogen
4. carbohydrate found in cell wall of red algae that 19 Which of the following will not be applicable for
resembles the structure of agarose and agaropectin
China rose?
1. Alternate phyllotaxy
15 A and B in the given diagram respectively show:
2. Hypogynous flower
3. Valvate aestivation for corolla
4. Monoadelphous stamens

20 Identify the incorrect match:

Angiosperm Economic importance
1. Indigofera Dye
2. Sunhemp Fibre
3. Colchicum Fumigatory
4. Belladonna Medicine

21 Gonyaulax is:
1. a heterotrophic bacteria pathogenic to cereal crops
2. a dinoflagellate responsible for red tides
1. Male thallus of Marchantia and Female thallus of 3. a free living nematode
Marchantia 4. a thermophilic archaebacterium
2. Female thallus of Marchantia and Male thallus of
Marchantia 22 Organisms belonging to the same Class in
3. Male thallus of Funaria and Female thallus of taxonomic hierarchy must also belong to the same:
Funaria 1. Order
4. Female thallus of Funaria and Male thallus of 2. Family
Funaria 3. Genus
4. Phylum

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23 That viruses could be crystallised and crystals 30 All the following are floral characters of members
consist largely of proteins was shown by: of family Solanaceae except:
1. M. W. Beijerinck 1. Zygomorphic flower
2. W. M. Stanley 2. Valvate aestivation
3. Dmitri Iwanowsky 3. Epipetalous stamens
4. Louis Pasteur 4. Endospermous seeds

24 The predominant site for the control of gene 31 The main amino acid, from which the transfer of the
expression in prokaryotes is: amino group takes place and other amino acids are
1. Transcription initiation formed, is:
2. Processing of hnRNA 1. Glutamic acid
3. Translational level 2. Aspartic acid
4. Post translational modification 3. Tryptophan
4. Lysine
25 What percent of the total incident solar radiation is
captured by plants? 32 By studying purple sulphur bacteria and green
1. 1 to 5 sulphur bacteria, who was the first scientist to
2. 2 to 10 demonstrate, in 1931, that photosynthesis is a light-
3. 20 to 30 dependent redox reaction in which hydrogen from an
4. 40 to 60 oxidizable compound reduces carbon dioxide to cellular
materials?
26 What will be true for proportionate number of 1. Robert Hill
species representing global biodiversity? 2. C. B. van Neil
1. The number of lichens is much more than the number 3. Arnon
of algae 4. Jan Ingenhousz
2. The number of mosses is much less than the number
of ferns and allies 33 Which PGR stimulates the closure of stomata and
3. The number of angiosperms is equal to the number of increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of
gymnosperms stresses?
4. The number of fungi is much more than the number of 1. Abscisic acid
algae, ferns and allies, mosses and lichens put together 2. Ethylene
3. Auxins
27 Histones are: 4. Cytokinins
1. positively charged basic proteins
2. negatively charged basic proteins 34 Which enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of the
3. positively charged acidic proteins disaccharide sucrose into glucose and fructose in plants?
4. negatively charged acidic proteins 1. Hexokinase
2. Invertase
28 When water flows into the cell and out of the cell 3. Zymase
and are in equilibrium, the cells are said to be: 4. Aldolase
1. Flaccid
2. Plasmolysed 35 Alexander Fleming first isolated penicillin from:
3. Turgid 1. Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Wilted 2. Penicillium roqueforti
3. Penicillium notatum
29 In the female gametophyte of angiosperms, filiform 4. Penicillium camemberti
apparatus is a part of:
1. Synergids
2. Antipodals
3. Central cell
4. Egg

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Biology I - Section B 40 Consider the given two statements:

Assertion: Recycling, an essential element of e-waste
36 Consider the given two statements: management, must be carried out properly especially in
developing countries.
Assertion: C4 plants more suited to hot climates than C3
Reason: Informally recycling – much of it by hand in
plants. developing countries, exposes workers to hazardous and
Reason: They do not close their stomata in hot, dry carcinogenic substances such as mercury, lead and
weather. cadmium.
1. Assertion is true but Reason is false 1. Assertion is true but Reason is false
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason 2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
correctly explains Assertion correctly explains Assertion
3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason 3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
does not correctly explain Assertion does not correctly explain Assertion
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false

37 DNA does not contain: 41 In facilitated diffusion, membrane proteins:

1. Thiamine I: provide sites at which molecules cross the membrane
2. Adenine against the concentration gradient.
3. Cytosine II: set up a concentration gradient for diffusion to occur.
4. Guanine 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
38 Consider the given two statements: 3. Both I and II are correct
Assertion: The Calvin cycle actually occurs only in the 4. Both I and II are incorrect
dark or during night time.
Reason: The Calvin cycle is also called as ‘Dark’ 42 Consider the given two statements:
reactions. Assertion: The problem of predation is particularly
1. Assertion is true but Reason is false severe for plants than for animals.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason Reason: Plants function as producers in an ecosystem.
correctly explains Assertion 1. Assertion is true but Reason is false
3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason 2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
does not correctly explain Assertion correctly explains Assertion
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true 3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
does not correctly explain Assertion
39 Four genes A, B, C and D are linked to the same 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false
chromosome in an organism. The distance between the
gene pairs is as given below: 43 Consider the two statements:
[a] between A and B = 28 map units, Statement I: Antheridium in bryophytes produces
[b] between B and C = 15 map units biflagellate antherozoids.
[c] between C and D = 25 map units Statement II: Archegonium in bryophytes produces a
[d] between B and D = 10 map units single egg.
[e] between A and D = 38 map units 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
[f] between A and C = 13 map units 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
What is the order of these four genes? 3. Statement II is correct; Statement I is incorrect
1. ABCD 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2. ACBD
3. ABDC
4. BADC

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44 All the following given differences between fungi 47 Consider the given two statements:
belonging to Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes are Assertion: Heterotrophs generally have high energy
correct except: conversion efficiencies when compared to those of
Phycomycetes Basidiomycetes plants.
Branched and Aseptate and Reason: At higher trophic levels the respiratory costs are
1. Mycelium dramatically reduced.
septate coenocytic
1. Assertion is true but Reason is false
Asexual Zoospores or Generally not
2. 2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
spores aplanospores found
correctly explains Assertion
Notable Bread mould and Rust and Smut 3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
3.
examples Albugo fungi does not correctly explain Assertion
Dikaryon 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false
4. Not seen Present
stage
48 Emergent properties at a higher level of
45 The number of correct statements from the given organisation:
statements is: I: are not present in the individual constituent units.
I: In a typical dicotyledonous embryo the portion of II: arise as a result of interactions among the constituent
embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the units.
epicotyl, which terminates with the plumule or stem tip. 1. Only I is correct
II: In a typical dicotyledonous embryo the cylindrical 2. Only II is correct
portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that 3. Both I and II are correct
terminates at its lower end in the radicle or root tip. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
III: In the grass family the cotyledon is called scutellum
that is situated towards one side (lateral) of the 49 Consider the given two statements:
embryonal axis. Assertion: Plant growth is intimately linked to the water
IV: At its lower end, the embryonal axis in monocots has status of the plant.
the radical and root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated Reason: The plant cells grow in size by cell enlargement
sheath called coleorhiza. which in turn requires water.
V. In monocots, the portion of the embryonal axis above 1. Assertion is true but Reason is false
the level of attachment of scutellum is the epicotyl. 2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
1. 2 correctly explains Assertion
2. 3 3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
3. 4 does not correctly explain Assertion
4. 5 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true

46 Consider the given two statements: 50 Asexual reproduction in brown algae is by:
Assertion: Carbon dioxide is not produced in glycolysis. 1. biflagellate biconcave disc shaped zoospores
Reason: Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that does not 2. non-motile spherical aplanogametes
require oxygen. 3. biflagellate pear shaped zoospores
1. Assertion is true but Reason is false 4. non-motile zoospores produced in zoosporangia
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
correctly explains Assertion
3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
does not correctly explain Assertion
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true

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Biology II - Section A 57 For effective contraception, oral contraceptive pills

are started:
51 At puberty 1. within the first five days of menstrual cycle
2. during the proliferative phase of menstrual cycle
1. about 30,000-40,000 primary follicles are left in each
3. around the time of ovulation
ovary
4. anytime in the luteal phase of menstrual cycle
2. about 30,000-40,000 primary follicles are left in both
ovaries
3. about 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each 58 During the contraction of skeletal muscle, the
ovary length of which of the following does not get reduced?
4. about 1,00,000 primary follicles are left in both 1. A band
ovaries 2. Sarcomere
3. H-zone
52 A water vascular system is characteristically seen in 4. I band
animals belonging to the Phylum:
1. Porifera 59 Glandular epithelium has specialised:
2. Ctenophora 1. Squamous or Pseudostratified cells
3. Echinodermata 2. Ciliated or brush bordered columnar cells
4. Hemichordata 3. Stratified squamous or Pseudostratified cells
4. Cuboidal or Columnar cells
53 A ‘sea-horse’ is a:
1. marine bony fish 60 Malignant malaria is caused by:
2. fresh water bony fish 1. Plasmodium vivax
3. cartilaginous fish 2. Plasmodium ovale
4. cyclostome 3. Plasmodium falciparum
4. Plasmodium malariae
54 The abuse of anabolic steroids by human males can
lead to the development of all the following except: 61 Prosthetic groups are distinguished from other
1. A decrease in the size of prostate gland cofactors in that they are:
2. depression 1. tightly bound to the apoenzyme
3. decreased sperm production 2. inorganic compounds
4. kidney and liver dysfunction 3. metal ions
4. vitamins
55 Each half of pectoral girdle consists of:
1. one bone 62 Head of cockroach:
2. two bones 1. is oval is shape.
3. four bones 2. lies anteriorly at right angles to the longitudinal body
4. six bones axis.
3. is formed by the fusion of 10 segments.
56 The posterior pituitary is: 4. does not show any mobility due to absence of neck.
1. under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus
2. under the regulation of the chemicals produced by the 63 The eye ball contains a transparent crystalline lens
hypothalamus which is held in place by:
3. is not under any regulation of the hypothalamus 1. iris anteriorly and choroid posteriorly
4. is regulated directly by the humoral concentrations of 2. vitreous humor
the hormones it secretes 3. sclera
4. ligaments attached to the ciliary body

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64 Which of the following is a heteropolymer? 71 Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles leading to

1. Starch difficulty in breathing is characteristically seen in:
2. Cellulose 1. Bronchial asthma
3. Glycogen 2. Emphysema
4. Insulin 3. Tuberculosis
4. Pneumonia
65 Desert lizards manage to keep their body
temperature fairly constant by: 72 The end of systole is marked on the ECG by:
1. increased sweating 1. Beginning of P wave
2. evaporative cooling from tongue 2. End of the Q wave
3. behavioural means 3. End of the T wave
4. producing a dilute urine 4. Beginning of S wave

66 After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted to 73 All the following hormones are produced in women
a structure called corpus luteum, which secretes mainly: only during pregnancy except:
1. Oestrogen 1. Oxytocin
2. Progesterone 2. Relaxin
3. DHEA 3. hCG
4. Corticosterone 4. hPL

67 If an enzyme catalyses the removal of nucleotides 74 Unmyelinated nerve fibre:

from the ends of DNA, then it should be called as: I: is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a
1. endonuclease myelin sheath around the axon
2. exonuclease II: is commonly found in autonomous and the somatic
3 ligase neural systems
4. reverse transcriptase 1. Only I
2. Only II
68 Darwin’s finches represent one of the best examples 3. Both I and II
of: 4. Neither I nor II
1. Saltation
2. Sympatric speciation 75 Homoiothermy and a four chambered muscular
3. Adaptive radiation heart is seen in:
4. Convergent evolution I: Mammals
II: Crocodiles
69 On an average, roughly what percent of cardiac III: Birds
output is filtered by the kidneys per minute? 1. Only I and II
1. 5 2. Only I and III
2. 10 3. Only II and III
3. 20 4. I, II and III
4. 50
76 The most important cause driving animals and
70 In the human alimentary canal what part of the plants to extinction in contemporary times is:
colon opens into the rectum? 1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
1. Ascending 2. Alien species invasion
2. Transverse 3. Over exploitation
3. Descending 4. Co-extinction
4. Sigmoid

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77 In 1953, S.L. Miller created conditions similar to 83 Which of the following vaccines has been produced
those suggested by Oparin and Haldane in a laboratory by recombinant DNA technology?
where he created electric discharge in a closed flask 1. Oral polio vaccine
containing: 2. Bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccine
1. CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C 3. DPT vaccine
2. CH4, H2, HCN and hydrogen sulphide at 400°C 4. Hepatitis B vaccine
3. CO2, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C
84 Tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322
4. CO2, H2, HCN and hydrogen sulphide at 400°C
carries the recognition sequence for:
1. PstI
78 The incidences of sexually transmitted infections 2. PvuII
are reported to be very high among persons in the age 3. BamH I
group of: 4. EcoR I
1. 15-24 years
2. 26 – 35 years 85 What induces the completion of the meiotic division
3. 35-50 years of the secondary oocyte?
4. above 60 years 1. rupture of the Graafian follicle
2. insemination
79 A plasma membrane: 3. contact of sperm with zona pellucida
1. envelops only the acrosome of sperm 4. entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum
2. envelops only the mid piece of sperm
3. envelops the whole body of sperm
4. does not envelop any part of the sperm at all
Biology II - Section B
80 The plasma of a person has both anti-A and anti-B 86 Consider the two statements:
antibodies. The blood type of this person will be: Statement I: DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
1. Type O modifications that make it more stable.
2. Type AB Statement II: DNA being double stranded and having
3. Type A complementary strands further resists changes by
4. Type B evolving a process of repair.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
81 When compared to the initial filtrate formed, human 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
kidneys can produce urine nearly: 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
1. 2 times concentrated
2. 4 times concentrated 87 Identify the correct statements amongst the
3. 8 times concentrated
4. 10 times concentrated following:
A: All sexually reproducing organisms are diploid.
82 The use of bio-resources by multinational B: The major difference between different cells in the
same organism is that they have different DNA.
companies and other organisations without proper 1. Only A
authorisation from the countries and people concerned 2. Only B
without compensatory payment is called: 3. Both A and B
1. Bioremediation 4. Neither A nor B
2. Biopiracy
3. Bioprospecting 88 A cell has 2 pg DNA at G1 phase. What would be
4. Biofortification
the amount of DNA in this cell at the end of Anaphase I
of Meiosis I?
1. 2 pg
2. 4 pg
3. 6 pg
4. 8 pg

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89 A plasmid has a single recognition sequence for 94 If the adenohypophysis fails to stop producing
EcoRI. When cut with this enzyme, the number of growth hormone (GH) after body growth is completed,
resultant fragments will be: the person may suffer from:
1. 1 1. Cretinism
2. 2 2. Dwarfism
3. 3 3. Acromegaly
4. 4 4. Gigantism

90 Myelin sheath around axons in peripheral nervous 95 Consider the given two statements:
system and in central nervous system is produced Assertion: The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through
respectively by: the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial
1. Schwann cells; microglia pressure is much higher compared to that of O2.
2. oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
Reason: Haemoglobin does not play any role in the
3. Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes
transport of carbon dioxide in human blood.
4. satellite cells; astrocytes
1. Assertion is true but Reason is false
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
91 Consider the two statements: correctly explains Assertion
Statement I: Plant cells possess cell walls, plastids and a 3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
large central vacuole which are absent in animal cells. does not correctly explain Assertion
Statement II: Animal cells have centrioles which are 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
absent in almost all plant cells.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 96 Populations at genetic equilibrium [Hardy Weinberg
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
equilibrium]:
3. Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
1. are very small
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2. are not experiencing any natural selection
3. have individuals frequently going out and coming in
92 The number of times the recognition sequence of 4. are mating randomly
EcoRI is expected to appear in a dsDNA of 10,000 bp
length will be: 97 Consider the given two statements:
1. 1
Assertion: Lipids come under acid insoluble fraction of
2. 2
the cell.
3. 4
Reason: Acid insoluble fraction is the macromolecular
4. 8
fraction and lipids are macromolecules.
1. Assertion is true but Reason is false
93 The number of correct statements in the given 2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
statements is: correctly explains Assertion
I: Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two 3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
types of cells called male germ cells and Sertoli cells. does not correctly explain Assertion
II: Sertoli cells synthesise and secrete testicular 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
hormones called androgens.
III: Leydig cells provide nutrition to the germ cells. 98 Consider the two statements:
IV: The testis is covered by a dense covering.
Statement I: Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to
V: Each testis has about 250 compartments called
decrease urine output.
testicular lobules.
Statement II: A person with uncontrolled diabetes
1. 2
mellitus will have a higher than normal solute
2. 3
concentration in the urine.
3. 4
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. 5
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

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99 Consider the two statements: 102 Which of the following pairs of structures do not
Statement I: Mitosis helps in restoration of nuclear represent resonance forms?
cytoplasmic ratio for effective working of a cell.
Statement II: Mitosis leads to formation of genetically
diverse cells leading to generation of variations.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 1.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

100 Adaptations for evolutionary significance:

2.
1. develop throughout the lifetime of organisms and are
then passed on to their offspring
2. develop after a population encounters a change in
environment
3. are inherited characteristics
4. decrease the chances of the organism surviving until
maturity 3.

Chemistry - Section A
101 Which among the following is pseudo first-order
reaction?
4.
1. Inversion of cane sugar
2. Radioactive decay
3. Hydrogenation of ethene
Decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot
4.
platinum surface at high pressure 103 In which of the following pairs of species does the
vanadium(V), have the same oxidation state?
1. V O and V O
2
−

2. V O and V O
2 2 5

3. V Cl and V O
4
2+

4. V Cl and V O
4
−

104 Green chemistry means such reactions that

1. Produce colour during reactions
Reduce the use and production of hazardous
2.
chemicals.
3. Are related to the depletion of the ozone layer.
4. Study the reactions in plants.

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105 Select the correct option for the structure of 2- 107 Given below are two statements:
Bromo-4-methyl anisole :
At 20 °C molality of KCl solution is 'X' m, and on
S1: decreasing temperature to -10 °C molality remains
unchanged.
S2: On changing temperature mass remains unchanged.
1. 2.
1. Both S1 & S2 are true
2. Both S1 & S2 are false
3. S1 is true & S2 is false
4. S1 is false & S2 is true

108 Select the correct option based on statements

below:
3. 4.
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic
I:
whereas [Fe(CN)6]3− is weakly paramagnetic.
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ has 4 unpaired electrons while
II:
[Fe(CN)6]3− has 5 unpaired electrons.

1. Both I and II are true.

106 Consider the following statements 2. I is true and II is false.
3. Both I and II are false.
Aldehydes which do not have an α− hydrogen atom 4. I is false but II is true.
a. undergoes disproportionation reaction on heating
with concentrated alkali. 109 If 10−4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3
Benzaldehyde and acetophenone in reaction with flask at 300 K, then the total number of moles of water
b. dilute alkali at 293 K give benzalacetophenone as a in the vapour phase (equilibrium is established) are-
major product. (Given: Vapour pressure of H2O at 300 K is 3170 Pa;
Cyclohexanone contains four enolizable hydrogen
c. R = 0.0821 atm L K−1 mol−1; 1 Pa = 9.9 × 10-6 atm )
atoms.
1. 1.26 x 10−3 mol
The correct statement is/are: 2. 5.56 x 10−3 mol
3. 1.53 x10−2 mol
1. (a) and (b) only 4. 4346 x 10-2 mol
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (a), (b) and (c)

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110 The major product A and B in the following 112 One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to:
reaction is - (a) 6 .022× 1023 molecules of oxygen
(b) 6.022 × 1023 atoms of oxygen
(c) 16 g of oxygen molecule
(d) 32 g of oxygen
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a) and (d)
1.
4. (c) and (d)

113 Lanthanoids does not form MO2 among the

following is-[M is lanthanoid metal]
2. 1. Pr
2. Dy
3. Nd
4. Yb

3. 114 The point that represents bond formation condition

as per the graph given below among the following is-

4. None of the above

111 Among the following statements, the correct set of

statements is/are:

a. B H is Lewis acid.
2 6

b. B H has a planar structure.

2 6

c. All B-H Bond lengths are equal in B H .

2 6

d. In B H four 3C − 2e bonds are present.

2 6
− 1. A
B H can be prepared by the reaction of BF and
2. B
e. 2 6 3
3. C
N aBH . 4
4. D
1. a, b, c, d, e 115 Primary valency of cobalt in complex
2. a, e [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Br is
3. a, b 1. 6
4. d, e 2. 2
3. 3
4. zero

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116 The value of K is 64 at 800 K for the reaction

C 120 For the reaction 2A(g) ⇌ B(g) + 3C(g) at a
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) given temperature, K = 16 . What must be the volume
C

The value of Kc for the following reaction is: of the flask, if a mixture of 2 moles each of A, B, and C
exist in equilibrium?
NH3(g) ⇌ 1/2N2(g) + 3/2H2(g)
1.
1

1. 1 4

2.
1
4

2. 1

8
2

3. 1
3. 8 4. None of the above
4. 64
1

121 Match the following drugs with their therapeutic

117 Identify Z in the following series actions:
Drugs Therapeutic actions
(i) Ranitidine (a) Antidepressant
(ii) Nardil (Phenelzine) (b) Antibiotic
1. C H I 2 5 (iii) Chloramphenicol (c) Antihistamine
2. CHI 3
(iv) Dimetapp (Brompheniramine) (d) Antacid
3. CH CHO 3
(e) Analgesic
4. C H OH 2 5
Options:
118 Match the Column (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Column I Column II 1. (e) (a) (c) (d)
Compound Hybridisation 2. (d) (c) (a) (e)
(i) P Cl5 (a) sp d
3 2 3. (d) (a) (b) (c)
(ii) [P t(CN )4 ]
−2
(b) sp d
3 4. (a) (c) (b) (e)
(iii) [Co(N H3 )6 ]
3+
(c) 2
d sp
3

122 In the following reaction, product 'P' is

(iv) BrF5 (d) dsp
2

Correct matching is:

I II III IV
1. b d c a 1. RCOOH
2. RCHO
2. a b c d
3. RCH3
3. b d a c
4. RCH2OH
4. d b a c
123 Consider the following reaction,
119 The maximum covalency of nitrogen is-
XeF6 + 2H2O → X + 4HF
1. 3
2. 5 The product X is-
3. 4 1. XeO2F2
4. 6 2. XeO3
3. XeOF4
4. None of the above

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124 The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell 128 Proteins are found to have two different types of
reaction in kJ mol–1 at 298 K is : secondary structures via α-helix and β-pleated sheet
Zn(s) + Cu
2+
(aq) → Zn
2+
(aq) + Cu(s)
structure. The α-helix structure of a protein is stabilized
Eº(cell) = 2V at 298 K by-
1. Peptide bonds
(Faraday’s constant, F = 96000 C mol–1) 2. Van der waals forces
1. -192 kJ mol–1 3. Hydrogen bonds
2. 192 kJ mol–1 4. Dipole-dipole interactions
3. -384 kJ mol–1
4. 384 kJ mol–1
129
The increase in internal energy (ΔE)
125 The correct order of increasing reducing nature of Assertion (A): for the vapourization of one mole of
the given elements is represented by: water at 1 atm and 373 K is zero.
1. Be < Mg < Ca < Ba Reason (R): For all isothermal processes, ΔE = 0.
2. Ba < Ca < Mg < Be
3. Be < Ca < Mg < Ba Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1.
4. Ba < Mg < Be < Ca explanation of A.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
126 Match the item in column I and in column II. 2.
explanation of A.
3. A is true and R is false.
Column I Column II 4. A and R both are false.
No heat is absorbed by the
system from the surroundings, ∆U = q – w,
a. i.
but work (w) is done on the closed system.
system. 130 Resistance of a decimolar solution between two
No work is done on the system,
∆U = wad, a electrodes 0.02 meter apart and 0.004 m2 in the area
but q amount of heat is taken out
b. ii. was found to be 50 ohms. Specific conductance (k) is :
from the system and given to the wall is adiabatic 1. 0.1Sm −1

surroundings.
2. 1Sm −1

∆U = –q, 3. 10 S m
w amount of work is done by the −1

thermally
c. system and q amount of heat is iii. 4. 4 × 10 S m
−4 −1

conducting
supplied to the system.
walls

1. a = i; b=ii; c=iii
2. a = ii; b=i; c=iii
3. a = ii; b=iii; c=i
4. a = iii; b=ii; c=i

127 Which one of the following is NOT the correct

formula for a lithium compound?
1. Li2S
2. LiCO3
3. CH3CO2Li
4. LiHSO4

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131 The reaction scheme below shows some reaction 135

conversions of organic molecules. Assertion (A): Hydrazine is a neutral ligand.
It has two N as donor atoms and
Reason (R):
behaves as a chelating ligand.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
Which is the correct combination of processes and 2.
explanation of (A).
compounds for this scheme? 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
process T: reduction; compound W: ester; compound 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
1.
X: amide
process T: reduction; compound W: ketone;
2.
compound X: nitrile C hemistry -S
ection B
process T: oxidation; compound W: ester; compound
3. 136 When ZnO is heated then it gives the appearance
X: amide
process T: reduction; compound W: ketone; of yellow colour. It is due to
4. 1. Metal excess defect
compound X: amide
2. Metal deficiency defect
3. Schottky defect
132 Z in the below reaction sequence is:
H2 /N i
4. Frenkel defect
N aCN

CH3 CH2 Cl −−−−→ X −−−

− → Y

Acetic Anhydride 137 Identify the most basic compound in the given
Y −−−−−−−−−→ Z options:
1. CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3
2. CH3CH2CH2NH2 1. N-Methyl aniline
3. CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3 2. Phenylmethanamine
3. Ethanamine
4. CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3
4. N,N-Dimethylaniline

133 Which of the following method is used to prepare 138 Melting point of dichlorobenzene (C6 H4 Cl2 ) are
metal sols only? correctly given as
1. Hydrolysis 1. o − C H Cl > m − C H Cl > p − C
6 4 2 6 4 2 6 H4 Cl2
2. Bredig’s Arc method
2. p − C H Cl > m − C H Cl > o − C 6 H4 Cl2
3. Peptization 6 4 2 6 4 2

4. Oxidation 3. p − C H Cl > o − C H Cl > m − C

6 4 2 6 4 2 6 H4 Cl2

4. o − C H Cl > p − C H Cl > m − C
6 4 2 6 4 2 6 H4 Cl2

134 H-bonding is not present in-

1. Glycerine
2. Water 139 The step growth polymer is
3. Hydrogen sulphide 1. Neoprene
4. Hydrogen fluoride 2. Bakelite
3. PVC
4. Polystyrene

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140 The degree of hydrolysis is highest for (Ka of 146 Acetic acid dimerises in benzene . The value of
CH3COOH = Kb of NH4OH = 1.8 × 10-5 ) Van't Hoff factor (i) for the dimerisation of acetic acid is
0.7. The percetage dimerisation of acetic acid will be-
1. CH3COONH4 1. 30%
2. CH3COONa 2. 60%
3. 70%
3. NH4Cl
4. 90%
4. All of the above have the same degree of hydrolysis
147 For the reaction R → P, the concentration of a
141 Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by: reactant changes from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25 minutes.
1. Electrolytic reduction The average rate of reaction in M sec-1 is-
2. Roasting followed by reduction with carbon
3. Roasting followed by reduction with another metal 1. 6.67×10-5 M s-1
4. Roasting followed by self reduction 2. 5.67×10-5 M s-1
3. 6.67×10-6 M s-1
4. 5.67×10-6 M s-1
142 Calculate the wavelength of the spectral line
obtained in the Li+2 -spectrum, when the transition 148 The reagents used to convert ethanoic acid into
takes place between levels whose sum is 4 and the ethane are-
difference is 2.
1. 11.4 x 10 cm
−6
1. a-SOCl2; b-NH3; c-LiAlH4; d-CH3Cl
2. 1.14 x 10 cm
−6

a-NaOH(aq); b-Sodalime and heat; c-Cl2, hv; d-

3. 0.114 x 10 cm
−6
2.
Na/dry ether
4. 1.14 x 10 cm
−8

3. a-LiAlH4; b-HCl and heat; c-Na/dry ether

143 Which of the following are peroxoacids of 4. None of the above
sulphur?
1. H2 SO5 and H 2 S 2 O8 149 There are 14 elements in the actinoid series. Which
2. H2 SO5 and H 2 S 2 O7 of the following elements does not belong to this series?
3. H2 S2 O7 and H 2 S 2 O8
1. U
2. Np
4. H2 S2 O6 and H 2 S 2 O7
3. Tm
4. Fm
144 Methanol and Acetone are separated by 150 The volume strength of 1.5 M H2O2 will be
1. Fractional distillation
1. 33.6
2. Steam distillation
2. 22.4
3. Vacuum distillation
3. 16.8
4. Azeotropic distillation
4. 8.4
145 The IUPAC name of the following compound is -

1. 4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
2. 2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
3. 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
4. 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid

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Physics - Section A 154 A metal “Slinky” can be used as a solenoid. The

“Slinky” is stretched slightly, and a current is passed
151 In a YDSE setup, if a mica sheet of thickness t and through it. Will the resulting magnetic field cause the
“Slinky” to collapse or to stretch out further?
refractive index μ is inserted in front of one of the slits.
The number of fringes by which the central fringe gets
shifted is: 1. collapse
(Given: λ, D and d are wavelength of light, the distance 2. stretch out further
between slits and screen and slit separation respectively.) 3. neither, the magnetic field is zero outside a solenoid
μt
1. 4. the answer depends on the direction of the current
λ
(μ−1)t
2.
λ
(μ+1)t
3. λ
(2μ−1)t 155 Two particles move with the same uniform angular
4. λ speed around two different circles of radii r, 2r. Their
accelerations are in the ratio:
152 An object of height h is placed in front of a convex 1. 1 : 2
mirror (radius of curvature = 20 cm). The height of 2. 1 : 4
image is: 3. 2 : 1
4. 4 : 1

156 A drop of mercury is divided into 125 drops of

equal radius 10 m each. If the surface tension of
−3

mercury is equal to 0.45 N/m. The magnitude of change

in surface energy is equal to nearly:
1. 1.14 × 10 J −4

2. 7.06 × 10 J −4

3. 8.47 × 10 J −4

4. 5.65 × 10 J −4

157 A particle of mass m is moving under a force

1. h/2 whose delivered power P is constant. The initial
2. h/3 velocity of the particle is zero. The position of a particle
3. h/6 at t = 4 s is:
4. h/4 1.
16

3
√
2P

153 Two identical rectangular strips, one of copper and 2.

4 2P
√
3 m

the other of steel, are rivetted together to form a 3. 2

√
P

bimetallic strip (αcopper > αsteel). On heating, this strip 3 m

4.
3
will:
P
√
10 m

1. remain straight.
2. bend with copper on convex side. 158 The magnitude of the resultant of two forces
3. bend with steel on convex side. A = 8 N and B = 6 N acting at a point angle of 90°

4. get twisted. between them is:

1. 14 N
2. 2 N
3. 10 N
4. 12 N

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159 Correctly match the two lists. 162 If mass of a planet is 9 times that of the earth and
radius is 2 times that of the earth, then the escape speed
List-I List-II from this planet is:
→ dA→ = 0 (v is escape speed from the Earth.)
a. Gauss law (electrostatics) P. ∮ B. e
ve
1.
b. Amperes circuital law → d→l = μ
Q. ∮ B. 0i
√2

inclosed
2.
ve

c. Gauss law (Magnetism) R. → →

∮ E. dA =
q
in 2√2

3ve
ε0
3.
d. Faraday's law S.
dϕB √2
E = − ve
dt 4. 2

1. 𝑎 → 𝑅, 𝑏 → 𝑄, 𝑐 → 𝑆, 𝑑 → 𝑃 163 Bohr’s atomic model can explain:

2. 𝑎 → 𝑅, 𝑏 → 𝑄, 𝑐 → 𝑃, 𝑑 → 𝑆
3. 𝑎 → 𝑅, 𝑏 → 𝑆, 𝑐 → 𝑄, 𝑑 → 𝑃 1. the spectrum of hydrogen atom only
4. 𝑎 → 𝑅, 𝑏 → 𝑆, 𝑐 → 𝑃, 𝑑 → 𝑄 the spectrum of an atom or ions containing one
2.
electron only
160 Potentiometer measures potential more accurately 3. the spectrum of the hydrogen molecule
because: 4. the solar spectrum

1. it measures potential in the closed circuit.

2. it measures potential in the open circuit.
3. it uses a sensitive galvanometer for null detection. 164 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular lamina
4. it uses high-resistance potentiometer wire. of mass m and radius r, about an axis tangent to the
lamina (and in the plane of the lamina) is:
1. mr
1 2

2.
3 2
mr
161 The capacitance of the system of capacitors 3. 4
1 2
mr
connected in the circuit, between A and B, equals: 4

4.
5 2
mr
4

1. 4 μF
2. 2.5 μF
3. 2.4 μF
4. 1.5 μF

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165 A ball of mass 1 kg is hanging from 1 m long 167 A radioactive nucleus X decays to a stable nucleus
inextensible string which can withstand a maximum Y . Then, the graph of the rate of formation (R) of Y

tension of 400 N. The maximum speed u that should be against time will be:
given to the ball is:

1. 2.

1. √390 m/s 3. 4.
2. √410 m/s
3. 20 m/s
4. 22 m/s

166 In a part of the circuit, as shown, it is given that the 168 Across an inductor of 5 mH, an AC source with
current is decreasing at a rate of 1 A/s. Then V A − VB is potential given as 268 sin(200πt) volts is used. The
equal to: value of inductive reactance provided by the inductor is
equal to:
1. 2π Ω
2. Ω π

3. 20π Ω
4. π Ω

169 During a blood transfusion, the needle is inserted

in a vein where the gauge pressure is 2000 Pa. At what
height must the blood container be placed so that blood
may just enter the vein?
1. 18 V (The density of whole blood is 1.06 × 10 kg/m3).
3

2. −18 V 1. 0.163 m
3. 9 V 2. 0.192 m
4. −9 V 3. 0.157 m
4. 0.754 m

170 In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of

all the molecules is halved and their speed is doubled,
then the resultant pressure will be:
1. 2P
2. P
3. P/2
4. 4P

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171 Given below are two statements: 173 Two thin insulating sheets (each having charge
The absorption line observed in the density +σ) are arranged as shown. The net electric field
Assertion (A): spectra of an element is never magnitude in the three regions will be respectively:
completely dark.
The sample used for absorption is thin,
Reason (R): so that all photons corresponding to a
transition may not be absorbed.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

σ σ
1. E1 = ; E2 = 0; E3 =
172 A body has weight W on the surface of earth. ϵ0 ϵ0

2. E1 = E2 = E3 = 0
What is the weight at a height 9 times the radius of the σ σ

earth? 3. E1 = 0; E2 =
2ϵ0
; E3 =
ϵ0

1. W

100 4. E1 =
σ

ϵ0
; E2 = 0; E3 =
σ

2ϵ0

2. W

81

3. W
174 A particle is dropped inside a tunnel of the earth
64

4. W about any diameter. Particle starts oscillating, with time

121
period=
(R = Radius of earth, g = acceleration due to gravity on
earth’s surface).
1. 2π√ R

2. π√ R

3. 2π√ 2R

4. 2π√ 3R

175 A force of 30 N is applied on a block of mass 5 kg.

the block travels a distance of 50 m in 10 s starting from
rest. The coefficient of friction is:

1. 0.5
2. 0.7
3. 0.3
4. 0.8

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176 A uniform rod of mass 10 kg and length 6 m is 179 Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both
hanged from the ceiling as shown. Given the area of the have a cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm2. Each is 1 m
cross-section of rod 3 mm2 and Young’s modulus is long. One rod is of copper with a resistivity of
2 × 10 N/m2. The extension in the rod’s length is:
11
1.7 × 10 Ω − cm the other is of iron with a resistivity
−6

2
(Take g = 10 m/s ) of 10 Ω − cm. How much voltage is required to
−5

produce a current of 1 A in the rods?

1. 0.00145 V
1. 1 mm 2. 0.0145 V
2. 0.5 mm 3. 1.7 × 10 V −6

3. 0.25 mm 4. 0.117 V
4. 1.2 mm
180 Which of the following graphs best represents the
177 Given below are two statements: relation between the square of the time period and the
Assertion (A): Zener diode is used in forward bias. length of a simple pendulum?
When the applied voltage reaches the
Reason (R): breakdown voltage of the zener diode,
there is no change in the current.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 1. 2.
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

3. 4.
178 A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of
radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A bob is
suspended from the roof of the car by a light wire of
length 1.0 m. The angle made by the wire with the
vertical is:
1. π 181 Flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance
10 Ω varies with time t (in seconds) according to the
3

2. π

6 equation ϕ = 6t − 5t + 1. What is the magnitude of

2

3. π

4 the induced current at t = 0.25 s?

4. 0 ∘
1. 1.2 A
2. 0.2 A
3. 0.6 A
4. 0.8 A

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182 The kinetic energy of an electron gets tripled, then Physics - Section B
the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by
a factor: 186 The α of a transistor is 0.99. The base current
ac

1.
1

3 through the transistor changes by 10 μA. The collector

2. √3 current changes by:
3.
1
1. 9.9 μA
√3
2. 1 μA
4. 3 3. 99 μA
4. 990 μA
183 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, each having an
energy of 10 MeV. The increasing order of penetrating 187 If the absolute temperature increases by 1%, the
powers of the radiations is: frequency of an organ pipe will:
1. β > α > γ 1. increase by 1%.
2. α < β < γ 2. decrease by 1%.
3. γ = β < α 3. increase by 0.5%.
4. α < β = γ 4. decrease by 0.5%.

184 The pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal 188 A uniform disc of mass m and radius r is rotating
gas is as shown in the figure. The density of the gas at freely about its own axis, which is kept vertical. There is
point A is ρ . Density at point B will be:
0 a small insect of mass sitting on the periphery of the
m

disc, also rotating with the disc. The initial angular speed
of the disc is ω . The insect moves radially inward and
0

finally reaches the centre. The final angular speed of the

disc is:
1. ω 0

2. 2ω 0

3. ω
3
0
2

4.
5
ω0
2

189 Planck constant has the same dimensions as:

1. force × time
2. force × distance
3. force × speed
1. 3

4
ρ
0 4. force × distance × time
2.
3
ρ
2 0

3. ρ 4 190 A rigid body is rolling without slipping. If the ratio

3 0

4. 2ρ of translational kinetic energy and rotational kinetic

0
energy is 2 : 1, the body maybe:
1. a solid sphere
185 Two sources are called coherent if they produce 2. a ring
waves: 3. a hollow cylinder
1. of equal wavelength 4. a solid cylinder
2. of equal velocity
3. having same shape of wavefront
4. having a constant phase difference

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191 Select correct option based on the statements: 194 The position-time (x − t) graphs for two children
A and B returning from their school O to their homes P
The magnetic field of a circular loop at and Q respectively are shown in the graph. Choose the
very far away point on the axial line incorrect statement.
Statement-I:
varies with distance as like that of a
magnetic dipole.
The magnetic field due to magnetic
dipole varies inversely with the square of
Statement-II:
the distance from the centre on the axial
line.
1. Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
2. Statement-I is incorrect and Statement- II is correct.
3. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
4. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

192 A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per 1. reaches home faster than A.
B

mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic 2. B overtakes A on the road twice.
field strength at the centre of the solenoid is: 3. B walks faster than A.
1. 6.28 × 10 T
−4
4. A lives closer to the school than B.
2. 6.28 × 10 T
−2

3. 12.56 × 10 T 195 A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a

−2

4. 12.56 × 10 T
−4

potential V . The flux of the electric field through a

closed surface enclosing the capacitor is:
280 J heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant
1. CV

193 ε0

pressure. Work done by the gas in the process is: 2. 2CV

ε0

1. 120 J 3. CV

2ε0
2. 200 J 4. zero
3. 180 J
4. 80 J
196 A wave going in a solid,
a. must be longitudinal
b. may be longitudinal
c. must be transverse
d. may be transverse
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (d)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (d)

197 The rays of different colours fail to converge at a

point after going through a converging lens. This defect
is called:
1. spherical aberration
2. distortion
3. coma
4. chromatic aberration

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198 250 N force is required to raise 75 kg mass from a

pulley. If the rope is pulled 12 m, then the load is lifted
to 3 m. The efficiency of the pulley system will be:
1. 25%
2. 33.3%
3. 75%
4. 90%

199 The length, breadth, and thickness of a rectangular

sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005 m, and 2.01 cm
respectively. The volume of the sheet to correct
significant figures is:
1. 0.00856 m3
2. 0.0856 m3
3. 0.00855 m3
4. 0.0855 m3

200 Electric charges are distributed in a small volume.

The flux of the electric field through a spherical surface
of radius 10 cm surrounding the total charge is 25 V-m.
The flux over a concentric sphere of radius 20 cm will
be:
1. 25 V-m
2. 50 V-m
3. 100 V-m
4. 200 V-m

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