NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Part Syllabus 8527521718

Botany - Section A 4 Consider the following statements regarding a

certain plant growth regulator:
1 Select the incorrect statement: I. They are a class of plant growth substances that
promote cell division.
1. In bacteria cell wall determines its shape.
II. They are primarily involved in cell growth,
2. Glycocalyx protects cells from bursting and
differentiation, and other physiological processes.
collapsing.
III. Their effects were first discovered through the use of
3. Loose sheath outermost protecting layer of bacterial
coconut milk by Folke Skoog.
cell envelop is the slime layer.
This plant hormone must be:
4. Glycocalyx differs in composition among different
1. Auxin
bacteria.
2. Cytokinin
3. Giberrellin
2 Older dying leaves export much of their mineral 4. Ethylene
content to younger leaves. Similarly, what is incorrect:
1. Before leaf fall in deciduous plants, minerals are 5 Match the columns with respect to placentation:
removed to other parts.
2. Elements most readily mobilized are phosphorus, Column-I Column-II
nitrogen, and potassium. A. Axile (i) Dianthus, Primrose
3. Some elements that are structural components like B. Parietal (ii) Sunflower, marigold
calcium are not remobilized. C. Free-central (iii) China rose, tomato, lemon
4. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen are observed in D. Basal (iv) Mustard, Argemone
younger parts.
1. A = (iii), B = (iv), C (ii), D = (i)
3 Identify the plant and the structures marked A, B, 2. A = (iv), B = (iii), C (i), D = (ii)
and C: 3. A = (iii), B = (iv), C (i), D = (ii)
4. A = (ii), B = (iii), C (iv), D = (i)

6 Where is the respiratory electron transport system

(ETS) located in plants?
1. Mitochondrial matrix
2. Outer mitochondrial membrane
3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
4. Intermembrane space

7 Which is the incorrect statement regarding fungi?

1. In wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotics.
3. The cell wall of fungi are composed of peptidoglycan.
1. Pinus, A = Long shoot, B = Dwarf shoot, C = Seed 4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
2. Cycas, A = Long shoot, B = Dwarf shoot, C = Seed
3. Ginkgo, A = Long shoot, B = Dwarf shoot, C= Fruits 8 In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious
4. Ginkgo, A = Dwarf shoot, B = Long shoot, C = Seed agent that was smaller than viruses –
I. It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
II. It is free RNA.
III. Molecular wt. of RNA is low.
The above statements are assigned to –
1. Viruses
2. Viroids
3. Virulent
4. Mycoplasma

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

9 Consider the following statements: 14 The term 'bark' includes:

I. Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess I. Phellogen
vascular bundles. II. Phellem
II. Main plant body in pteridophytes is sporophyte which III. Phelloderm
is differentiated into true stem and leaves. IV. Secondary phloem
III. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are 1. I, II and III only
heterosporous. 2. I, II and IV only
Which of the above statements are true? 3. II, III and IV only
1. I and II only 4. I, II, III and IV only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only 15 If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is
4. I, II and III applied to a solution, its water potential:
1. Increases
10 Which one of the following cellular parts is 2. Decreases
correctly described? 3. Remains the same
1. Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis 4. Becomes zero
2. Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80s)
while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s) 16 Agaricus sexually reproduces through:
3. Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about 8.5 1. Somatogamy
4. Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the 2. Endogenously produced non-motile spores
grana of chloroplasts 3. Haploid mitospores
4. Gametangial copulation
11 Why photorespiration does not take place in
C4 plants? 17 How many hydrogen bonds are formed between
1. Do not contain RuBisCo two strands of 272 angstroms long double-stranded
2. Have a mechanism that increases the concentration of DNA with 30% guanine?
CO2 at the enzyme site 1. 80
3. Cells do not allow oxygen to accumulate in them 2. 208
4. Cells are impermeable to oxygen 3. 160
4. 240
12 How many of the following properties are the
defining characteristic of living organisms? 18 Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by
Growth, reproduction, metabolism, cellular organisation, the enzyme:
consciousness 1. Maltase
1. 2 2. Zymase
2. 3 3. Isomerase
3. 4 4. Invertase
4. 5
19 Direct elongation of the radicle leads to the
13 One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension formation of roots in:
of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting 1. Wheat
light through a prism. He observed that bacteria 2. Mustard
accumulated mainly in the region of: 3. Grass
1. Violet and green light 4. Maize
2. Indigo and green light
3. Orange and yellow light 20 CO2 is utilized for the carboxylation of RuBP inside
4. Blue and red light the bundle sheath cells of:
1. Maize, Sorghum
2. Tomato, Bell pepper
3. Cacti, Sedum
4. Rice, Wheat

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

21 How many of the following statements are correct? 25 Select the wrong statement from the following:
(i) In plants each organ receiving some substances & 1. Formative phase of the cells retains the capability of
giving out some others. cell division.
(ii) Water channels are made up of eight different types 2. In elongation, phase development of the central
of aquaporins. vacuole takes place.
(iii) Water is often a limiting factor for plant growth & 3. In maturation, phase thickening and differentiation
productivity in both agricultural & Natural takes place.
environments. 4. In maturation phase, the cells grow further.
(iv) Imbibition is also diffusion.
Options: 26 Assertion: The sum total of all the chemical
1. All the above reactions occurring in our body is metabolism.
2. (i), (ii) & (iv) Reason: All plants, animals, and fungi exhibit
3. (ii), (iii) & (iv) metabolism but microbes do not show metabolism.
4. (iii) & (iv) 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
22 Which one of the following is not true regarding the 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
release of energy during ATP synthesis through not the correct explanation of the assertion.
chemiosmosis? 3. Assertion is true but the reason is false.
It involves: 4. Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side
of the membrane 27 (a) These bacteria oxidise inorganic substances such
2. Breakdown of proton gradient as nitrates, nitrites, and ammonia and produce ATP.
3. Breakdown of electron gradient (b) They also play a great role in recycling nutrients like
4. Movement of protons across the membrane to the nitrogen, phosphorous, iron, and sulphur.
stroma The above statements are true for:
1. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
23 Identify the option where all the columns are not 2. Heterotrophic bacteria
correctly matched: 3. Saprobic bacteria
1. Abrin Secondary metabolite Drug 4. Pathogenic bacteria
Transport
2. GLUT-4 Protein
carrier
28 What percent of water reaching them is used by
leaves in photosynthesis?
Cell
3. Lecithin Phospholipid 1. Less than 1%
membrane
2. About 5 %
4. Thymidylic Acid Nucleotide DNA 3. About 5 % in warm conditions and about 10 % in cold
conditions
24 Match column I with column II and select the 4. About 50 %
correct option:
Column I Column II 29 The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
a. Down's syndrome (i) Bacterial disease malonate is an example of:
b. Diphtheria (ii) Cannot hold I2 1. Non-competitive reversible inhibition
2. Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
c. Cellulose (iii) Congenital disorder 3. Competitive inhibition
d. Starch (iv) Helical secondary structures 4. Allosteric inhibition

1. a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

2. a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
3. a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
4. a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

30 Find out the incorrect statement: 34 Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in
1. Middle lamella is mainly made up of Ca-pectate. the vertical section and choose the correct option:
2. Cell wall is formed from the inner side therefore I. Root hair zone
secondary wall is formed before the primary wall. II. Zone of meristems
3. Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring cells III. Root cap zone
together. IV. Zone of maturation
4. Pits are present in the secondary wall. V. Zone of elongation
Codes:
31 Read the following statements with respect to 1. III, II, V, I, IV
brown algae: 2. I, II, III, IV, V
(i) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous 3. IV, V, I, III, II
or oogamous 4. V, IV, III, II, I
(ii) The gametes are always without flagella
(iii) Gracilaria belongs to brown algae 35 Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
(iv) Common forms are Ectocarpus, Dictyota, 1. Belladonna - Medicine - Solanaceae
Laminaria, Sargassum, and Fucus 2. Asparagus - Vegetable - Liliaceae
(v) The gametes are pyriform (pear-shaped) and bear 3. Trifolium - Ornamental plant - Fabaceae
two laterally attached flagella 4. Tobacco - Fumigatory - Potato family
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Two
2. Three
B -S
otany ection B
3. One
4. Five
36 Select the correct sequence of events occurring
during Prophase-I of Meiosis-I:
32 The incorrect statement for facilitated diffusion is: (a) Nuclear envelope breakdown
(b) Synaptonemal complex formation
1. Special proteins help move substances across
(c) Compaction of chromosomes
membranes without the expenditure of energy.
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
2. Can cause net transport of molecules from a low to a
(e) Crossing over
high concentration.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
3. It is very specific, it allows cells to select substances
given below:
for uptake.
1. (c) → (b) → (e) → (d) → (a)
4. Transport rate reaches a maximum when all of the
2. (c) → (a) → (b) → (d) → (e)
protein transporters are being used.
3. (b) → (c) → (a) → (d) → (e)
33 In C plants, for fixation of 6 CO how many ATP 4. (c) → (a) → (b) → (e) → (d)
3 2

and NADPH are required respectively? 37 Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in
1. 12, 18
recent years. Application of which of the following
2. 18, 12
phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the
3. 10, 16
hormone is known to produce female flowers in plants?
4. 16, 10
1. Cytokinin
2. ABA
3. Gibberellin
4. Ethylene

38 Veins of leaf in addition to acting as channels of

transport of water, minerals, and food materials also
1. Determine the extent of the incision of the lamina
2. Provide rigidity to the leaf blade
3. Hold the leaf blade to light
4. Flutter the leaf in wind thus, helping in cooling of leaf
and bringing fresh air.

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

39 Match List I with List II: 44 Interfascicular cambium is present between:

List I List II 1. Primary xylem and primary phloem
A. Manganese I. Pollen germination 2. Pericycle and endodermis
3. Two vascular bundles
B. Potassium II. Chlorosis in older leaves
4. Secondary xylem and secondary phloem
C. Magnesium III. Necrosis
D. Boron IV. Photosynthesis 45 According to the mass flow hypothesis:
(a) Sucrose is moved into the companion cells and then
Choose the correct answer from the options given into the sieve tube by passive transport.
below: (b) Inside the phloem, an osmotic pressure gradient is
1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II generated that facilitates the mass movement in the
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III phloem.
3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (c) Water in the adjacent xylem moves into the phloem
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I by an active process.
1. (a) and (c) are correct.
40 A protozoan without a locomotory structure is: 2. (b) and (c) are incorrect.
1. Entamoeba 3. (a) and (c) are incorrect.
2. Trypanosoma 4. (a) and (b) are correct.
3. Plasmodium
4. Paramecium 46 What is the number of correct statements amongst
the following regarding the phloem tissue of plants?
41 The useful purpose served by lactate fermentation I. Gymnosperms lack albuminous cells and sieve cells.
is: II. The companion cells are specialized parenchymatous
1. Make lactose available for gluconeogenesis cells.
2. Production of additional ATP in anaerobic conditions III. Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
3. Regeneration of NAD+ monocotyledons.
4. Increased availability of oxygen for the skeletal IV. Phloem fibers are generally absent in the primary
muscle phloem.

42 Beginning with the germination of a moss spore, 1. 0

what is the sequence of structures that develop after 2. 2
germination? 3. 3
i. embryo 4. 4
ii. gametes
iii. sporophyte 47 Read the following statements about green algae:
iv. protonema (i) Vegetative reproduction usually takes place by
v. gametophore fragmentation in unicellular forms.
1. iv →i → iii → v → ii (ii) Zoospore formation is rare.
2. iv → iii → v → ii → i (iii) Sexual reproduction can be isogamous,
3. iv → v → ii → i → iii anisogamous, or oogamous.
4. iii → iv → v → ii → i (iv) Asexual reproduction can occur by flagellated
zoospores produced in zoosporangia.
43 Presence of oxygen is vital in aerobic respiration (v) Chlamydomonas, Chara, Spirogyra, Volvox, and
because: Ulothrix belong to green algae.
1. It drives the whole process by removing hydrogen How many of the above statements are correct?
from ETS. 1. Four
2. Oxygen causes phosphorylation which is light 2. Two
stimulated. 3. Three
3. Oxygen directly stimulates complex V to generate 4. One
ATP.
4. Oxygen is the initial electron acceptor.

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

48 A: Mitosis does play a role in gamete formation. 53 The first heart sound is heard during the:
R: Haploid organisms divide by mitosis. 1. Beginning of ventricular systole
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is 2. End of ventricular systole
the correct explanation of the Assertion. 3. Beginning of atrial systole
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is 4. End of ventricular diastole
not the correct explanation of the Assertion
3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false. 54 Select the incorrect statement:
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements. 1. The pO2 in systemic veins is equal to pCO2 in
systemic arteries and pCO2 in alveolar air in a normal
49 Which of the following complex of mitochondrial
healthy adult individual.
ETS has two copper centers?
2. pO2 of alveolar air is less than pO2 of blood present in
1. Cytochrome b c1 complex
pulmonary veins.
2. NADH dehydrogenase complex
3. In stone-breaking industries workers may suffer from
3. Succinate dehydrogenase complex
fibrosis of lungs.
4. Cytochrome oxidase complex
4. Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles prevents
the delivery of oxygen to the body tissues by forming a
50 Consider the following four statements (I- IV) compound with Hb.
related to cell cycle, and select the correct option stating
them as true (T) and false (F). 55 The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of
I. Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a
bronchioles and fallopian tubes is:-
continuous process.
1. Squamous
II. Interphase is the phase of actual cell division.
2. Cuboidal
III. The number of chromosomes doubles in S-phase.
3. Glandular
IV. The cell that does not divide further exits G1-phase
4. Ciliated
to enter a metabolically inactive stage.
Options:
I II III IV
56 Adipose tissue and areolar tissue are considered as:
1. T F F F 1. Loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue
2. F T T T respectively.
3. F F T T 2. Dense regular and dense irregular tissue respectively.
4. T F F T 3. Both are specialised connective tissue.
4. Both are loose connective tissue.
Zoology - Section A 57 Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in
which antibodies are formed against:
51 Which of the following is not a feature of red 1. Myelin sheath
muscle fibres? 2. Articular cartilage
1. They have plenty of mitochondria. 3. Acetylcholine receptor
2. They have a high content of Myoglobin. 4. Thyroid follicle
3. They have a high amount of Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. They are called aerobic muscles. 58 Which of the following is not an Echinoderm
character?
52 What is the primary function of the large intestine? 1. Exclusively marine
1. to complete the absorption of most nutrients 2. Radial symmetry in adults
2. to house gas-producing bacteria 3. Protostome embryonic development
3. to rid the body of toxins 4. Water vascular system
4. to compact, store, and eliminate feces

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59 Complete the analogy and select the correct option: 65 One set of semi­lunar valves in the human heart
Glenoid cavity: Pectoral girdle:: __________: Pelvic closes when:
girdle 1. the blood pressure in the aorta is greater than in the
1. Acromion process vena cava.
2. Occipital condyle 2. the oxygen level in blood decreases at the respiring
3. Acetabulum tissues.
4. Coracoid process 3. the blood pressure in the right ventricle is less than in
the pulmonary artery.
60 Assertion (A): Humans are advised to take a diet 4. the blood pressure is greater in the left ventricle than
rich in proteins. in the aorta.
Reason (R): Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized
by the human body. 66 The components of the vestibular apparatus are:
In light of the above statements, select the correct 1. Three semicircular canals and the otolith organs
answer from the options given below: 2. Organ of corgi and eustachian tube
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 3. Malleus, incus and stapes
explanation of (A). 4. Saccule and cochlea
2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). 67 Read the following statements carefully.
3. (A) is true, (R) is false. Statement A: NaCl is returned to the ascending limb of
4. (A) is false, (R) is true. the loop of Henle from the descending limb of vasa
recta.
61 Select the incorrect statement: Statement B: The osmolarity of the filtrate increases
1. Na /K ATPase is an electrogenic pump that helps to from 300 mOsmolL–1 to 1200 mOsmol L–1 as it moves
+ +
maintain an electrochemical ionic gradient across down the descending limb of Henle’s loop.
axolemma. Choose the correct option from the following:
2. At rest, axoplasm has lower Na ions concentration 1. Only statement A is correct
+

than K ion concentration.

+
2. Only statement B is correct
3. Brain stem comprises midbrain, pons, and medulla 3. Both statements A and B are correct
oblongata. 4. Both statements A and B are incorrect
4. Thalamus part of the hindbrain is responsible for
emotions like anger and rage. 68 Which of the following is a common feature present
in both chordates and non-chordates?
62 In the human eye, the visual acuity is highest at: 1. Presence of notochord
1. Macula lutea 2. Absence of a post-anal tail
2. Optic disc 3. Presence of central nervous system
3. Fovea centralis 4. Pharynx perforated by gill slits
4. Optic chiasma
69 Cartilaginous fishes differ from bony fishes by :
63 Cell junctions like tight, adhering, and gap junctions 1. presence of gill slits
are mainly present between the neighbouring cells of: 2. absence of operculum
1. Neural tissue 3. presence of pectoral fins
2. Connective tissue 4. presence of scales
3. Muscular tissue
4. Epithelial tissue

64 A non-membrane bound organelle found

exclusively in animal cells is:
1. Sphaerosome
2. Glyoxisome
3. Peroxisome
4. Centriole

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

70 The majority of water and salt filtered into 75 Identify correctly matched (a), (b), (c):
Bowman’s capsule is reabsorbed by:
1. the brush border of the transport epithelia of the
proximal tubule
2. diffusion from the descending limb of the loop of
Henle into the hypertonic interstitial fluid of the medulla
3. active transport across the transport epithelium of the
thick upper segment of the ascending limb of the loop of
Henle
4. selective secretion and diffusion across the distal
tubule 1. Colon, Mesentron, Crop
2. Ileum, Mesentron, Gizzard
71 Which set includes hormones that are involved in 3. Ileum, Mesentron, Crop
4. Colon, Mesentron, Gizzard
carbohydrate metabolism?
1. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, calcitonin
76
2. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol
3. Insulin, glucagon, cortisol, melatonin Which one of the following is NOT true of human hormones?
4. Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine, melatonin 1. They are all released from glands and flow down ducts into the b
2. A hormone may affect one or more structures in the body.
72 The development of secondary sexual characters in 3. They travel at the speed of blood flow.
4. They are all chemicals.
females is primarily controlled by:
1. Estrogen
77 Metameric segmentation is found in
2. Progesterone
3. LH 1. Ascaris
4. FSH 2. Wuchereria
3. Pheretima
73 The solubility of carbon dioxide is about _____ 4. Trichinella
times higher than that of oxygen across the respiratory
78 Vertebrochondral ribs attach to the seventh rib with
membrane.
1. 20-25 the help of:
2. 25-50 1. Elastic cartilage
3. 125-150 2. Hyaline cartilage
4. 200-250 3. Fibrous cartilage
4. White fibrous tissue
74 Which of the following is the incorrectly matched
79 A patch of nodal tissue responsible for initiating the
set of organisms and the type of excretory waste?
rhythmic contractile activity of the heart is present in:
Excretory
Organisms 1. Lower left corner of the left ventricle
waste
2. Upper right corner of the right atrium
Bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, 3. Lower left corner of the right ventricle
1. Ammonia
aquatic insects 4. Upper left corner of the left atrium
Terrestrial amphibians, and
2. Urea
cartilaginous fishes 80 Which of the following glands secretes the hormone
3. Land snails Urea melatonin?
4. Reptiles, birds, and insects Uric acid 1. anterior pituitary gland
2. melanocytes
3. pineal gland
4. suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus

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81 Common bile duct opens into: 87 Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman's
1. Gall bladder capsule, all are likely to happen except:
2. Jejunum 1. Accumulation of fluid in the body
3. Hepato-pancreatic duct 2. Increase in blood pressure
4. Stomach 3. Increase in blood urea level
4. Increase in GFR
82 A person was admitted to the hospital suffering
from a loss of memory. Which part of the central 88 Radially symmetrical animals:
nervous system is most likely to have been affected? 1. Are all triploblastic
1. cerebellum 2. Tend to be sessile and passively floating
2. spinal cord 3. Have a definite head and a brain
3. medulla 4. Have an anterior and a posterior end
4. cerebrum
89 Which one of the following four glands is correctly
83 Select the correct equation from the below options:matched with the accompanying description?
1. Blood = Plasma + RBCs + WBCs – Platelets 1. Thyroid - hyperactivity in young children causes
2. Serum = Plasma + Clotting factors cretinism
3. Agranulocytes = T lymphocytes + B lymphocytes + 2. Thymus - starts undergoing atrophy after puberty
Monocytes 3. Parathyroid - secrete parathormone which promotes
4. Lymph = Plasma + Formed elements movement of calcium ions from blood into bones during
calcification
84 How many of the hormones given below in the box 4. Pancreas - Delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans
interact with the membrane-bound receptors and secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolysis
generate secondary messengers?
Thyroxine, Oestradiol, Cortisol, Insulin, Thymosin, 90 At lungs carbon dioxide diffuses out of the
Calcitonin pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli. As a result
1. Two hemoglobin’s ability to bind to oxygen would:
2. Three 1. be unstable
3. Four 2. stay the same
4. Five 3. decrease
4. increase
85 Match the items given in Column - I with those in
Column - II and choose the correct option: 91 Read the following statement carefully and choose
Column-I Column-II how many of them are incorrect:
(a) Rennin (i) Vitamin B12 A. Afferent neuron transmits a signal to CNS.
B. Choroid layer is bluish in color and is present over
(b) Enterokinase (ii) Facilitated transport the posterior two-thirds of the eyeball.
(c) Oxyntic cells (iii) Milk proteins C. Olfactory bulbs are an extension of the hypothalamus.
(d) Fructose (iv) Trypsinogen D. Medulla oblongata has a center to control excretion,
1. (a) - (iii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i) circulation, and gastric secretion.
2. (a) - (iv), (b)- (iii), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii) 1. one
3. (a) - (iv), (b)- (iii), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i) 2. two
4. (a) - (iii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii) 3. three
4. four
Zoology - Section B
86 Hypocalcemia may lead to:-
1. Kidney stones
2. Cholelithiasis
3. Stronger muscle contractions
4. Tetany

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92 The maximum amount of air that a person can 98 ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical
breathe out after a forced inspiration, under normal activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle in which the
physiological conditions, would be about: end of the T-wave marks:
1. 1600 ml 1. End of ventricular systole
2. 2300 ml 2. End of ventricular diastole
3. 4500 ml 3. Beginning of ventricular systole
4. 5600 ml 4. Both 2 & 3

93 Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) will promote a(n) 99 Persons with Rh ____________ blood never exhibit
________ in the excretion of sodium and water; thus Rh ____________.
________ blood volume and blood pressure. 1. negative; incompatibility
1. decrease, decreasing 2. negative; antibodies
2. decrease; increasing 3. positive; surface antigens
3. increase, decreasing 4. positive; antibodies
4. increase, increasing
100 Which of the following is not a feature of birds?
94 ___A___ is a major coordinating centre for sensory 1. Forelimbs modified into wings
and motor signaling present in the forebrain of the 2. Single occipital condyle
central nervous system. Here ‘A’ is: 3. Ten pairs of cranial nerves
1. Association area 4. Four-chambered heart
2. Thalamus
3. Pons
4. Hypothalamus
C
hemistry - Section A
101 A hydrocarbon having molecular formula
95 How many hormones in the given list are not
C5H10 produced a tertiary alcohol upon treatment with a
produced by the anterior pituitary?
Prolactin(PRL), growth hormone(GH), Oxytocin, few drops of conc. sulphuric acid and water. The same
Thyroid stimulating hormone(TSH), vasopressin, hydrocarbon when reacted with acidic potassium
somatostatin, and Gonadotrophin releasing permanganate(strong oxidizing agent) produced a ketone
hormone(GnRH). and a carboxylic acid. The hydrocarbon is:
1. 6 1. cyclopentane
2. 5 2. 1-pentene
3. 4 3. 2-methyl-2-butene
4. 3 4. 2-pentene

Consider the following reaction taking place in 1L

96 Immediately after an action potential has peaked, 102
which cellular gates open? capacity container at 300 K
1. Sodium A + B ⇌ C + D

2. Chloride If one mole each of A and B are present initially and at

3. Calcium equilibrium 0.7 mol of C is formed, then equilibrium
4. Potassium constant (K ) for the reaction is
c

1. 9.7
97 Find out the correct sequence of substrate, enzyme, 2. 1.2
3. 6.2
and product.
Pepsin
4. 5.4
1. Small intestine: Proteins −−−→ Pepsin + Amino acids
Lipase

2. Stomach: Fats −−
−→ Lipase + Micelles
Trypsin

3. Duodenum: Triglycerides −−
−−→ Trypsin +
Monoglycerides
α − Amylase

4. Small intestine: Starch −−−−−−−→ Amylase + Maltose

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

103 A temporary effect under the influence of an 106

attacking reagent is: SnO is a more reactive toward acid than
1. Inductive effect. Assertion (A): SnO .
2
2. Electromeric effect.
Both SnO and SnO2 are amphoteric
3. Mesomeric effect. Reason (R):
4. All of the above. oxides.

104 1.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Hard water is harmful to boilers because of explanation of (A).
Statement the deposition of salts in the form of scale Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
I: and explanation of (A).
reduces the efficiency of the boiler. 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
During boiling hard water, the soluble 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Statement Mg(HCO ) is converted into insoluble
3 2
II:
MgCO3.
107 The bond order for a species with the
1. Both Statement I and statement II are correct configuration σ1s 2
σ * 1s
2
σ2s
2
σ * 2s
2
σρ
1
x
will be:
1. 1
2. Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect
2. 1

3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 2

4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 3. Zero

4. 3

105 Consider the following reaction

108 The entropy change is -600 J K-1 mol-1 at 300 K
for the given reaction: 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(s) →

The total entropy change of the reaction is:

(Given: Δ H for the reaction is -1800 × 103 J mol-1)
r
⊖

1. 54 kJ mol-1
The major product in the above reaction is:
2. 54 kJ K-1mol-1
3. 5.4 kJ mol-1
4. 5.4 kJ K-1 mol-1
1. 2.
109 Arrange the following in the decreasing order of
covalent bond length:
C − C, C − N, C − H, O − H

1. C−C> C−N > C−H >O−H

3. 4.
2. C−C> C−H > C−N >O−H
3. O−C> C−H > C−C>C−N
4. C−N > C−C> O−H >C−H

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

110 113 The statement, "If two elements can combine to

The value of the equilibrium constant is form more than one compound, the masses of one
Statement element that combine with a fixed mass of the other
dependent on the initial concentration of
I: element are in the ratio of small whole numbers", is
reactant and products.
The equilibrium constant for the forward given by:
Statement reaction is equal to the equilibrium constant 1. Gay Lussac
II: for the backward reaction. 2. Dalton
3. Antoine Lavoisier
4. Joseph Proust
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 114 The enthalpy of combustion of four allotropic
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. forms of element 'X' are given as:
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. Allotropic forms Δcomb H (kJ/mol)
∘

A -270.3
111 Which of the following characteristic correctly B -189.1
describe differences between structural (constitutional) C -390.5
isomers?
D -465.0
these compounds may have different carbon
I. The most stable allotropic form of element 'X' is:
skeletons.
1. A
chemical properties are altered due to differences in 2. B
II.
functional groups. 3. C
functional groups may occupy different positions on 4. D
III. the carbon skeleton.
115 Match list-I with list-II:
List-II (Boiling point in
1. I only List-I (Compound)
K)
2. II, and III only
3. I, and III only (a) (i) 300.9
4. I, II, and III

112 (b) (ii) 282.5

On bringing the two nuclei closer, it
Assertion (A): results in a sudden increase in energy
and stabilization of the molecules.
(c) (iii) 309.1
The electron density between the nuclei
Reason (R): increases because of orbital overlap.

(d) (iv) 341.9

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
1.
explanation of A. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct below:
2.
explanation of A. (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. A is correct but R is not correct. 1. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. A is not correct but R is correct. 2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

116 Which of the following transformations can be 118 Correct statements among the following are:
carried out by using HI as a reducing agent, under acidic
conditions? BCl3 exists as a monomer whereas AlCl3 is
A.
[Given: I2(s) → 2I- ; E°= 0.54 V] dimerized through halogen bridging.
(i) Cu+ → Cu(s) ; E°= 0.52 V The linear shape of CO2 is due to sp3 hybridisation
B.
(ii) Cr3+ → Cr2+ ; E° = -0.41 V of the carbon.
(iii) Fe3+ → Fe2+ ; E° = 0.77 V Graphite is slippery and hard therefore used as a dry
C.
(iv) Fe2+ → Fe(s) ; E° = -0.44 V lubricant in machines.
1. (i) and (iii) Suspension of slaked lime in water is known as milk
D.
2. (ii) and (iv) of lime.
3. only (iii) Ionic hydrides are very good conductors of
4. Only (ii) E.
electricity in a solid state.

117 The correct order of stability of the following Choose the correct answer from the options given
carbocations is: below:
+ + 1. A and B only
CH3 CH2 CH 2 > CH2 = CH − CH 2 > 2. A and D only
1.
+ + 3. A and E only
CH2 = CH CH CH3 > CH2 = CH C(CH3 )2 4. D and C only
+ +

CH2 = CH CH 2 > CH3 CH2 CH 2 > 119 The correct order of bond angles in the following
2.
+ + compounds/species is:
CH2 = CH C (CH3 )2 > CH2 = CH CH CH3 1. H O < NH < NH < CO
2 3
+

4
2

+ + 2. H O < NH < NH < CO

2
+

4 3 2
CH2 = CH C (CH3 )2 > CH2 = CH C H CH3 >
3. 3. H O < NH = NH < CO
2
+

4
3 2

+ +
4. CO < NH < H O < NH
2 3 2
+

4
CH2 = CH CH 2 > CH3 CH2 CH 2

+ +
120 For the reaction,
CH2 = CH − CH CH3 > CH2 = CH C (CH3 )2 >
4. N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2N H3 (g) + 22.2 kcal the effect of
+ +

CH3 CH2 − CH 2 > CH2 = CH CH 2

increasing temperature and pressure on the equilibrium
will be:

On increasing temperature, the reaction will go

A.
backward.
On decreasing pressure, the reaction will go
B.
backward.
On the increasing temperature, the reaction will go
C.
forward.
On increasing pressure, the reaction will go
D. backward.

Choose the correct pair of statements from the above.

1. C, D
2. A, B
3. A, D
4. B, C

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

121 H2O2 acts as an oxidant as well as reductant. The 127 Metal halide that is soluble in organic solvents is:
conversion that cannot be done by H2O2 is: 1. BeCl2
1. M n to M n2+ 4+
2. MgCl2
2. M nO to M n−

4
2+
3. CaCl2
3. O to O
2 3 4. SrCl2
4. P bS to P bSO 4

128 What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to

122 The most harmful air pollutant produced by
neutralize 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the
automobiles is following reaction?
1. H N O 2
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
2. N O X

3. SO [Calculate upto the second place of decimal point]

2

4. CO 1. 9.50 g
2. 1.25 g
123 A vessel contains 3.2 g of dioxygen gas at STP 3. 1.32 g
4. 3.65 g
(273.15 K and 1 atm pressure). The gas is now
transferred to another vessel at constant temperature,
129
where pressure becomes one third of the original
pressure. The volume of new vessel in L is: In the photoelectric effect, the number of
Statement
(Given - molar volume at STP is 22.4 L) electrons ejected is proportional to the
I:
1. 6.72 intensity of light.
2. 2.24 Statement The kinetic energies of ejected electrons are
3. 22.4 II: independent of the frequency of light used.
4. 67.2
Choose the correct answer.
124 In the Castner-Kellner process, the solution of 'A'
is electrolyzed using a cathode of metal 'B' and anode of 1. Statement I is true but statement II is false.
element 'X'. Identify 'A','B' and 'X' respectively: 2. Both statements I and II are true.
1. NaCl, Mercury, Carbon 3. Both statements I and II are false.
2. NaOH, Zinc, Carbon
4. Statement I is false but statement II is true.
3. NaCl, Zinc, Carbon
4. NaOH, Mercury, Zinc
130 Which of the following statement regarding pure
125 Benzene exhibits resonance. The carbon-carbon water is correct?
bonds of benzene are: 1. At 90 °C, the water will be acidic.
2. At 90 °C, the water will be neutral pH < 7.
1.
shorter and stronger than the double bond of an 3. At 90 °C, the ionic product of water (Kw) = 10-16
alkene.
4. At 90 °C, pH + pOH = 14
2. longer and weaker than the double bond of an alkene.
longer and stronger than the carbon-carbon bond of
3.
an alkane.
longer and weaker than the carbon-carbon bond of an
4.
alkane.

126 For which reaction enthalpy change will be equal

to the enthalpy of formation?
1. H (g) + Cl (g) → 2H Cl(g)
2 2

2. H (g) + Br (l) → 2H Br(g)

2 2

3. H (g) + l (g) → 2H l(g)

2 2

4. C(graphite) + O (g) → CO 2 2 (g)

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

131 Match List-I with List-II : 135 A hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C5H8 .
List-I List-II On ozonolysis, it gives formaldehyde & 2-ketopropanal
(a) Biochemical oxygen only. The name of hydrocarbon is-
(i) Oxidising mixture 1. 2-Methylbuta-1,3-diene
demand
2. 3-Methylbut-1-yne
(ii) Polar stratospheric
(b) Photochemical smog 3. 3-Methylbuta-1,2-diene
cloud
4. 2-Methylbut-2-ene
(iii) Organic matter in
(c) Classical smog
water
(d) Ozone layer depletion (iv) Reducing mixture
C hemistry -S ection B
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: 136 Match the species given in column I with their
(a) (b) (c) (d) respective colour given in column II.
1. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Column I Column II
2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
a. [Fe(CN)5NOS] 4- (i) Blood red
3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) b. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.xH2O (ii) Black
c. [Fe(SCN)]2+ (iii) Prussian blue
132 0.1 M, 10 ml of an acid 'A' neutralize completely d. PbS (iv) Violet
by 0.05 M, 20 ml of base M (OH ) , then the basicity of
2

acid 'A' is: 1. a=(i), b=(iv), c=(ii), d=(iii)

(here M is metal) 2. a=(iv), b=(iii), c=(i), d=(ii)
1. 4 3. a=(iv), b=(iii), c=(ii), d=(i)
2. 3 4. a=(iii), b=(iv), c=(i), d=(ii)
3. 2
4. 1 137 The number of moles of carbon and oxygen
133 The correct increasing order of metallic character required to produce 6.023 × 10 molecules of CO :
23
2

1. 0.01 mol and 0.01 mol

among' the following elements is ;
2. 0.5 mol and 0.1 mol
Si, Be, Mg, Na, P.
3. 10.0 mol and 5.0 mol
1. P < Si < Be < Mg = Na.
4. 1.0 mol and 1.0 mol
2. P < Si > Be < Mg < Na
3. P > Si > Be >Mg > Na
4. P < Si < Be < Mg < Na.
138 The work done when 1 mole of gas expands
reversibly and isothermally from pressure of 5 atm to 1
134 On the basis of the Maxwell-Boltzmann atm at 300 K is
-1 -1
distribution of molecular speed identify the (Given log 5=0.6989 and R=8.314 J K mol )
incorrect statement in the following : 1. zero J
2. 150 J
At the same temperature, N2 molecules move faster 3. +4014.6 J
1. 4. -4014.6 J
than the Cl2 molecules.
The maximum in the Maxwell-Boltzmann curve
2.
represents the most probable speed.
The average speed of CO2 molecules is more than
3.
CH4 molecules.
At a particular temperature the individual speed of
4. the molecules keeps changing but the
distribution of speed remains the same.

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

139 The solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 x 143 Incorrect statement related to the quantum
10-13. The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass mechanical model of the atom is:
taken as 120 g mol −1 ) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M
solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr 1. The Schrodinger equation cannot be solved exactly
is- for multielectron atom.
1. 5.0 x 10 −8 g The quantum mechanics predict all aspects of the
2.
hydrogen atom spectrum.
2. 1.2 x 10 −10 g
3. It obeys the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
3. 1.2 x 10-9 g
The wave function is a mathematical function and has
4. 6.2 x 10−5 g 4.
physical meaning.

140 Among the following elements the most

electropositive element is: 144 Match List I with List II
1. Mg
List I List II
2. Zn
3. Fe A. Ionic I. NH3.BF3
4. Sn B. Covalent II. HCl
C. Hydrogen bond III. LiF
141 The following resonating structures for nitrogen(I) D. Coordinate bond IV. HF
oxide are suggested :
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. B.
1. A - (II); B - (III); C - (IV); D - (I)
2. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV)
C. D. 3. A - (III); B - (II); C - (IV); D - (I)
4. A - (II); B - (III); C - (I); D - (IV)

Correct resonating structure/s is: 145 Consider this ionic equation in an aqueous
1. A and C
solution:
2. Only A
3. A and B CH3O– + H2O → CH3OH + OH–
4. C and D Which statement about this reaction is correct?

142 The INCORRECT statement about the dissolution 1. CH3OH is the conjugate acid of CH3O-.
of an alkali metal in liquid ammonia is:
2. The CH3O– ion is a Lewis acid.
1. It produces a blue coloration of the solution. The final mixture of solutions would have a pH
3.
The blue coloration occurs due to ammoniated below 7.
2. 4. Water is acting as a Bronsted–Lowry base.
electrons that absorb in the visible region of light.
3. On standing, the blue solution liberates hydrogen gas.
4. The blue solution is diamagnetic.

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

146 150
Statement Addition of Cl in the presence of CCl
2 4 Statement I: KMnO4 acts as a self-indicator.
I: with alkene will give geminal dichloride
Statement II: K2Cr2O7 is not used as a self-indicator.
Statement The addition of two moles of HCl with
II: alkyne will give vicinal dichloride
Choose the correct option:
1. Statement I is true and statement II is false.
1. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is false and statement II is true.
2. Statement I and statement II both are correct.
3. Both statements I and II are true.
3. Statement I and statement II both are incorrect
4. Both statements I and II are false
4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
1. Statement I is true and statement II is false
2. Statement I is false and statement II is true Physics - Section A
3. Both statements I and II are true
4. Both statements I and II are false 151 A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic
process ABCA as shown in the figure. It absorbs, 40 J of
147 Match List I with List II heat during the part AB, no heat during BC and rejects
List I List II 60 J of heat during CA. A work 50 J is done on the gas

A. H2 and during the part BC. The internal energy of the gas at A is
I. Used in the name of perhydrol. 1560 J. The work done by the gas during the part CA is:
O2
B. D2O II. Can be used in cutting and welding.
C. H2O2 III. Atomic reactor.
IV. Produced from the electrolysis of
D. H
water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1. A - (II); B - (III); C - (IV); D - (I)
2. A - (IV); B - (III); C - (I); D - (II)
3. A - (IV); B - (III); C - (II); D - (I)
4. A - (II); B - (III); C - (I); D - (IV)

148 50 ml nitrogen gas collected over water at 300 K 1. 20 J

2. 30 J
and 740 mmHg pressure then find out the mass of
3. −30 J
nitrogen evolved if aqueous tension at 300 K is 25
4. −60 J
mmHg ?
1. 50.75 g
2. 53.47 mg 152 Match column-I with column-II for ideal gas.
3. 26.38 g Column-I Column-II
4. 26.38 mg A. Isobaric expansion (P) ΔW = −ΔU
B. Isochoric cooling (Q) ΔW < ΔU
149 Which of the following is the correct statement? C. Adiabatic expansion (R) ΔQ = ΔU
1. Ga+ is more stable than ln+. D. Isothermal expansion (S) ΔQ = ΔW
+ +
2. Al is more stable than ln .
3. Ga+ is more stable than Al+. 1. A(Q), B(S), C(R), D(P)
4. Al+ is more stable than Ga+. 2. A(P), B(S), C(R), D(P)
3. A(S), B(P), C(R), D(Q)
4. A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

153 A particle executes SHM with a frequency of 20

158 The velocity of a particle at any instant is given by
Hz. The frequency with which its potential energy the equation → v = (2t i + 3t j ) m/s, and the radius of
^ ^2

oscillates is:
1. 5 Hz the curvature of the path is 2 m. The centripetal
2. 20 Hz acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s will be:
3. 10 Hz 1. 80 m/s2
4. 40 Hz 2. 160 m/s2
3. 40 m/s2
154 A wooden sphere is at rest at the bottom of a lake.
4. 100 m/s2
When it is released then it will: (Consider viscous
effects)
159 A beaker contains 1000 g of a liquid that is stirred
1. sphere will move up with constant acceleration. at its boiling point. A 100 W electric heater is completely
2. sphere will move up with constant velocity. immersed in the liquid. The heater provides the liquid
with thermal energy, and 200 g of the liquid changes to
sphere will move up with variable acceleration and vapour in 1600 s.
3.
finally, it may attain a terminal speed. What is the specific latent heat of evaporation of the
4. sphere will remain at rest. liquid?
(Assume that no thermal energy is transferred to or from
155 Two bodies A, B having masses of 1 kg, 2 kg the surroundings, and no vapour condenses.)
respectively are slid on a horizontal surface (μ = 0.2) 1. 12.5 J/g
with the same initial speed 5 m/s. If they come to a stop 2. 160 J/g
after sliding distances of S , S then:
A B
3. 3200 J/g
1. S = 2S
A B
4. 800 J/g
2. S = 2S
B A

3. 4S = S
A B
160 A vertical wire 5 m long and 8 × 10 cm2 cross
−3

4. S = S
A B sectional area has Young's modulus = 200 GPa (as
shown in the figure). What will be the extension in its
156 What is the value of linear velocity, if length, when a 2 kg object is fastened to its free end?
→ ^ ^ ^
ω = 3 i − 4j + k and r→ = 5^i − 6^j + 6k
^
?
1. −18 i − 13 j + 2k
^ ^ ^

2. 18^i + 13^j − 2k
^

3. 6^i + 2^j − 3k
^

4. 6^i − 2^j + 8k
^

157 Water fall from a 40 m high dam at the rate of

9 × 10
4
kg per hour. Fifty percentage of gravitational
potential energy can be converted into electrical energy.
Using this hydroelectric energy number of 100 W bulbs,
that can be lit, is:
(Take g = 10 ms-2)
1. 25
1. 0.625 mm
2. 50
2. 0.65 mm
3. 100
3. 0.672 mm
4. 18
4. 0.72 mm

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

161 If the period of a satellite in a circular orbit of 166 A block of wood floats in a liquid with four-fifths
radius R is T , then the period of another satellite in a of its volume submerged. If the relative density of wood
circular orbit of radius 2R is: is 0.8. What is the density of the liquid in units of
1. 2T kg/m3?
2. T /2
(density of water= 10 kg/m3) 3

3. T /√8 1. 750
4. √8T 2. 1000
3. 1250
162 A particle moving initially with a speed of 3 m/s 4. 1500
around a circle accelerates so as to increase its speed by
3 m/s every half-revolution. If its initial kinetic energy is 167 A tuning fork of frequency 200 Hz produced 10
E, its kinetic energy after a complete revolution will be: beats/sec when sounded with a vibrating sonometer
1. 2E wire. If the tension in the wire is slightly increased the
2. 3E number of beats becomes 9 beats/sec. What was the
3. 9E original frequency of the vibrating sonometer wire?
4. 16E 1. 210 Hz
2. 209 Hz
163 The ratio of specific heats ( ) in terms of degree 3. 191 Hz
Cp

Cv
4. 190 Hz
of freedom (f ) is given by:
168 A closed water-containing vessel at 30 C is open
f ∘
1. (1 + ) 3

on the surface of the moon. Then:

2. (1 + 2
)
f
1. the water will boil.
f
3. (1 + 2
) 2. the water will come as a spherical ball.
3. the water will freeze.
4. (1 + 1
)
f
4. the water will decompose into hydrogen and oxygen.

164 A 2.0 g bullet (specific heat of the metal of the

169 The determination of the value of acceleration due
bullet 400 J kg C ) moving at 160 m/s hits a wall.
−1 −1
∘
to gravity (g) by simple pendulum method employs the
What is the temperature change of the bullet if all its formula,
kinetic energy converts to heat energy of the bullet? g = 4π
2 L

1. 40 C ∘ T
2

2. 32 C ∘ The expression for the relative error in the value of g is:

Δg
3. 16 C ∘
1. g
=
ΔL
+ 2(
ΔT

T
)
L

4. 8 C
∘
Δg
2. g
= 4π [
2 ΔL
− 2
ΔT
]
L T

165 A moving steel ball of mass m collides elastically 3. Δg

= 4π [
2 ΔL
+ 2
ΔT
]
with another steel ball of mass 2m at rest. If the kinetic
g L T

Δg
energy of the moving ball before the collision is 100 J 4. =
g
− 2(
ΔL
)
L
ΔT

T
then after the collision it will have a kinetic energy of:
1. J
100

3 170 The angular momentum about the origin for a

2. J
100

9 particle of mass 5 kg moving with a velocity, v→ = 10^j

3. J ms-1 and at a position given by, r→ = 2^i m is:
200

4.
800

9
J 1. 10k
^
kg-m2s-1
2. 50^j kg-m2s-1
3. 100k^
kg-m2s-1
4. 200^i kg-m2s-1

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Part Syllabus 8527521718

171 One mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with three 174 A block of mass 2 kg is moving with 10 m/s. It is
moles of a diatomic gas. The molecular specific heat of connected to a string wound over a pulley (disc) of mass
2 kg and radius 0.1 m as shown in the figure. Angular
2

mixture at constant volume is R J/mol −K then the

α

4
speed of pulley is: (consider no slipping)
value of α will be:
(Assume that the given diatomic gas has no vibrational
mode.)
1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2

172 A block of mass m is attached to a spring having

1. 10 rad/s
spring constant k. The block is now pulled to x and 2. 100 rad/s
m

released. The maximum speed it will attain will be: 3. 0.1 rad/s
1. √ x k

m
m
4. 0.01 rad/s

2. √ m
xm
175 A curved in a level road has a radius of 75 m. The
k

3. k
xm maximum speed of a car turning this curved road can be
m
30 m/s without skidding. If the radius of the curved road
4. m
xm
k
is changed to 48 m and the coefficient of friction
between the tyres and the road remains the same, then
173 Consider two identical particles shown in the given the maximum allowed speed would be:
figure. They are released from rest and can move 1. 12 m/s
towards each other under the influence of their mutual 2. 24 m/s
gravitation forces. The speed of each particle, when the 3. 32 m/s
separation reduces to half of the initial value equals: 4. 44 m/s

176 Given below are two statements:

The moment of inertia of any body
about an axis passing through its centre-
Assertion (A):
of-mass is smaller than any other axis
parallel to it.
1. √
GM
The moment of inertia (I ) of any body
a
d
about any axis (a) not passing through
2. √ 2GM

d
its centre-of-mass is related to the
corresponding moment of inertia (ICM )
3. √
GM

2 d Reason (R): about a parallel axis through its centre-

4. none of these of-mass by the relation:
2
Ia = ICM + md ,

where m is the mass of the body and d

is the distance between the two axes.

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
3.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
4.
explanation of (A).

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 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

177 A uniform rope of mass 0.1 kg and length 2.45 m 181 At time t = 0, a particle starts travelling from a
hangs from the ceiling. The time taken by the transverse height of 7z^ cm in a plane keeping the z-coordinate
wave produced at the bottom of the string to reach at the constant. At any instant of time, its position along the x
top of the rope is: and y-directions are defined as 3t and 5t respectively.
3

(Take g = 9.8 m/s2) At t = 1 s, the acceleration of the particle will be:

1. 1 s 1. −30y^
2. 1.4 s 2. 30y^
3. 2 s 3. 3x
^ + 15y^

4. 1.9 s 4. 3x
^ + 15y^ + 7z ^

178 A book of mass 0.40 kg rests on a horizontal 182 A particle moves in a circle with a uniform speed
surface with which it has a coefficient of dynamic of 3 m/s and its acceleration is 6 m/s2. The time period
friction of 0.50. If this book is now pushed by an of its motion is (in seconds):
external horizontal force of 10 N, what will be its 1. 4π
acceleration immediately after it has started to move? 2. 2π
(Assume the gravitational field strength is 10 Nkg , −1
3. π
that air resistance is negligible and that the orientation of 4. π

the book does not change.)

1. 25.0 ms −2
183 A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental
2. 12.5 ms −2
note of 412 Hz. It is cut into two pieces of equal length.
3. 50.0 ms −2
The fundamental nodes produced by the two pieces are:
4. 20.0 ms −2
1. 206 Hz, 412 Hz
2. 412 Hz, 824 Hz
179 In a vertical capillary of height 3h, water rises 3. 206 Hz, 824 Hz
upto height h. If the capillary is tilted at 30 with 4. 824 Hz, 1648 Hz
∘

horizontal, then the height upto which water will rise

becomes: 184 A particle starts from its origin at t = 0 along the
1. 3h x-axis. The acceleration time graph is as shown. The
2. 2h corresponding displacement-time graph is:
3. h
4. 3h

180 A ball is spinning on a horizontal surface, about the

vertical axis passing through its center. Its angular
velocity decreases from 2π rad/s to π rad/s in 10 s. If the
moment of inertia of the ball is 0.5 kg-m2, the torque
acting on the ball is:
1. − π
N-m
100

2. − N-mπ 1. 2.
50

3. − N-mπ

20

4. − N-mπ

10

3. 4.

Page: 21
 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

185 A ball is thrown up at an angle with the horizontal. 188 The displacement of a particle is represented by
Then the total change of momentum by the instant it the following equation s = (3t + 7t + 5t + 8) where
3 2

returns to the ground is: s is in metre and t in second. The acceleration of the

1. acceleration due to gravity × total time to flight particle at t = 1 second is:

2. weight of the ball × half the time of light 1. zero
3. weight of the ball × total time of flight 2. 14 m/s2
4. weight of the ball × horizontal range 3. 18 m/s2
4. 32 m/s2
Physics - Section B
189 Given below are two statements:
186 An ideal gas is taken reversibly around the cycle a- The centre of mass of a system of
b-c-d-a as shown on the T (temperature) -S (entropy) Statement I: particles lying on a straight line must lie
diagram. between the two extreme particles.
The centre of mass of a system of bodies
Statement II: moving with different velocities, cannot
be moving with constant velocity.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

190 The time period of a simple pendulum in a

g

The most appropriate representation of the above cycle stationary lift is T . If the lift accelerates with 6

on a U (internal energy) -V (volume) diagram is: vertically upwards, then the time period will be:
(Where g = acceleration due to gravity)
1. √
6
T
5
1. 2.
2. √
5
T
6

3. √ 6

7
T

4. √ 7

6
T

3. 4. 191 Which one of the following is not an example of

simple harmonic motion?
the motion of the Moon around the Earth as observed
1.
from Mars.
the ripples produced when a stone is dropped into a
2.
187 Consider a raindrop of water of mass 2.0 g falling tank of water.
from a height of 1.0 km. After sometime it attains 3. a weight moving up and down at the end of a spring.
terminal velocity of 40 ms-1 due to viscous force of air. 4. the motion of a ball on the floor.
Then the magnitude of work done by viscous force as
the water drop hits the ground is: (Take g = 10 ms-2)
1. 8.4 J
2. 12.4 J
3. 16.4 J
4. 18.4 J

Page: 22
 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

192 Which, among the pairs of quantities, has the same 195 Given below are two statements:
dimensions? Given that the magnitude of the
force Statement I: acceleration of a body is constant, the
1. , surface tension
volume force acting on it must be constant.
2. torque, pressure × volume Newton's second law leads to the
3. specific heat × mass, energy statement that the acceleration of a body
pressure Statement II:
4. , density is directly proportional to the net force
acceleration acting on it.

193 Consider the following relations with respect to 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
propagating waves. (Symbols have their usual meaning.) 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2

a.
∂y
= (
ω
)
∂y
3. Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.
∂t k ∂x

2 2 2
4. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
∂ y ∂ y
b. = (
ω
)

196 The platelets are drifting with the blood flowing in

2 2
∂t k ∂x

Choose the correct option:

a streamlined flow through a horizontal artery as shown
below. The artery is contracted in region II.
1. only (a) is correct.
2. only (b) is correct.
3. (a) and (b) both are correct.
4. (a) and (b) both are incorrect.
Chooses the correct statement.
194 Two wires (A, B) of identical lengths have
breaking stresses in the ratio 1 : 2, while their cross- as the platelets enter a constriction, the platelets get
sectional areas are the same. When a block of mass M is 1. squeezed closer together in the narrow region and
placed on the horizontal light rod, it is observed that hence the fluid pressure must rise there.
wire A breaks if M is placed slightly to the left, while B as the platelets enter a constriction, pressure is lower
breaks if M is placed slightly to right. 2.
there.
the artery's cross-section area is smaller in the
3. constriction and thus the pressure must be larger there
because pressure equals the force divided by area.
4. pressure is the same in all the parts of the artery.

197 If an ideal gas is compressed isothermally, which

of the following statements is true?

1. energy is transferred into the gas by heat.

2. work is done by the gas.
Then,
x1

x2
= 3. pressure of the gas decreases.
1. 1
4. the internal energy of the gas remains constant.
2

2. 1

3. 2

4.
4

Page: 23
 NEET Level Test (12-Mar-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Part Syllabus 8527521718

198 A rigid ball rolls without slipping on the surface

shown below. Fill OMR Sheet*
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
for the questions in the test.

Which one of the following is the most likely

representation of the distance travelled by the ball versus
the time graph?
CLICK HERE to get
FREE ACCESS for 2
1. 2.
days of ANY
NEETprep course

3. 4.

199 A spring pendulum is on the rotating table. The

initial angular velocity of the table is ω and the time
0

period of the pendulum is T . Now the angular velocity

0

of the table becomes 2ω , then the new time period will

0

be:
1. 2T 0

2. T √2
0

3. remains same
T0
4.
√2

200 A solid and a hollow cylinder of the same mass and

external diameter are released from the same height
simultaneously on an inclined plane. Both roll down
without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first?
1. hollow cylinder
2. both together
3. solid cylinder
4. one with a higher density

Page: 24