02-06-2024

9610WMD801017240005 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The numerical ratio of distance to magnitude of displacement is :-

(1) Always equal to one

(2) Always less than one
(3) Always greater than one
(4) Equal to or more than one

2) A body moves 6m north, 8m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is the resultant displacement
from initial position :-

(1)
(2) 10 m

(3)

(4) 40 m

3) A body is moving according to the equation x = at + bt2 + ct3 then its instantaneous speed is given
by :-

(1) a + 2bt+3ct2
(2) a + 2b + 3ct
(3) a + 2b – 3ct
(4) None of these

4) A ball having initial velocity as , calculate time of flight?

(1) 4 sec
(2) 8 sec
(3) 16 sec
(4) 5 sec

5)

The position of a particle is given as :-

x = 2 – 5t + 6t2. What is the initial velocity of the particle ?

(1) –5 m/s
(2) –3 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

6) A particle starts from rest and moves along a straight line with constant acceleration. The
variation of velocity v with displacement S is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Choose the wrong statement.

(1) Zero velocity of a particle does not necessarily mean that it acceleration is zero.
(2) Zero acceleration of a particle does not necessarily mean that its velocity is zero.
(3) If speed of a particle is constant, its acceleration must be zero.
(4) None of the above.

8) A body is thrown upwards and reaches maximum height. At that position its :-

(1) Velocity is zero and acceleration is also zero

(2) Velocity is zero but acceleration is maximum
(3) acceleration is minimum
(4) Velocity is zero and acceleration is equal to g.

9) A train covers the first half of the distance between two station with a speed of 40 km/h and the
other half with 60 km/h then its average speed is :-

(1) 50 km/h
(2) 48 km/h
(3) 52 km/h
(4) 100 km/h
10) The displacement time graph of a moving particle is shown then the instantaneous velocity of the
particle is negative at the point :

(1) D
(2) F
(3) C
(4) E

11) A ball is released from top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the ground.
What is the position of ball in T/3 seconds:-

(1) h/9 meters from the ground

(2) 7h/9 meters from the ground
(3) 8h/9 meters from the ground
(4) 17h/18 meters from the ground

12) Person travels along path OAB then average velocity of person in OAB trip :–

(1) 2ms–1
(2) 3ms–1
(3) 1ms–1
(4) 4ms–1

13) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last ‘t’
seconds of its ascent is :–

(1) ut

(2)
gt2

(3)
ut – gt2
(4) (u + gt)t

14) Which of the following velocity-time graphs represent uniform motion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the acceleration is

(1) is in horizontal direction

(2) vertically upward
(3) zero
(4) vertically downward

16) A stone is released from the top of a tower. If its velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s, then
height of the tower is (g = 10 ms–2):-

(1) 8 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 16 m

17) A car accelerates from rest at constant rate for t second and covers a distance x. The distance
covered by it in next t second will be :-

(1) x
(2) 2x
(3) 3x
(4) 4x

18) A body is projected vertically upward from the surface of the earth, its velocity-time graph is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A ball is thrown upward with such a velocity v that it returns to the thrower after 3 s. Take g =
10 ms–2. Find the value of v :-

(1) 15 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

20) Assertion :- Doubling the initial velocity, the stopping distance of moving object increases by a
factor of 4 (for the same deceleration)
Reason :- For the same deceleration stopping distance is proportional to the square of the initial
velocity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s
towards north. The average acceleration of the body is :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 7 m/s2
(3)
(4) 5 m/s2

22) During one dimensional motion on x-axis, the velocity-time graph for particle is given
Total distance during (t = 0 to t = 6sec) is :-

(1) 6m
(2) 10m
(3) 8m
(4) 2m

23) Velocity (v) versus time (t) graph of a particle moving in a straight line is shown in figure.
Corresponding acceleration (a) versus velocity (v) graph will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v1 and rest half distance with speed v2. Its
average speed during complete journey is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 8 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop
at that instant ?

(1) 6 m
(2) 2.50 m
(3) 3.75 m
(4) 4.00 m

26) The resultant of two equal forces is double of either forces. Angle between them is :

(1) 120°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 0°

27) In a triangle, shown in figure :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28)

Resultant force is :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 5 N
(4) None of these

29) The expression is a :-

(1) Unit vector

(2) Null vector
(3) Vector of magnitude
(4) Scalar

30) The angle between the vectors and will be :-

(1) 90°
(2) 0°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

31) A body is at rest under the action of three forces, two of which are and the third
force is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) The unit vector along is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Position of a particle in a rectangular-co-ordinate system is (3, 2, 5). Then its position vector will
be–

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
34) A particle is moving westward with a velocity . Its velocity changed
to northward . The change in velocity vector ( ) is:

(1) m/s towards north east

(2) 5 m/s towards north west
(3) zero
(4) m/s towards north west

35)

In a projectile motion, when particle projected with u velocity making angle θ with horizontal,
velocity at maximum height is?

(1)

(2) u cos θ

(3)

(4) None of these

SECTION-B

1) If velocity of a particle is given by v = (2t + 3) m/s, then average velocity in interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 1s is:

(1)
m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

2) Initial velocity of a particle is u(t = 0) and its acceleration is given by z = bt, then which of the
following relation is valid for velocity ? (b is constant)

(1) v = u + bt2

(2)
v=u+
(3) v = u + bt
(4) v = u

3) The acceleration time graph for a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. The
velocity of particle at time t = 0 is 2 m/s. The velocity after 2 s will be :

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

4) A particle is moving with a constant speed v in a circle. What is the magnitude of average velocity
after half rotation?

(1) 2v

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The initial velocity of a particle is 10 m/sec and its retardation is 2 m/sec2. The distance covered in
the fifth second of the motion will be

(1) 1 m
(2) 19 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 75 m

6) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 20 seconds, it covers a distance of
:-

(1) 20 m
(2) 400 m
(3) 1440 m
(4) 2980 m

7) A car moving with a speed of 50 km/h, can be stopped by brakes after at least 6 m. If the same car
is moving at a speed of 100 km/h, the minimum stopping distance is ?

(1) 12 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 24 m
(4) 6 m
8) A body starts from rest at t = 0 and undergoes an acceleration as shown in the graph. Which
velocity time graph represent the motion of the body in 4 second ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A balloon starts rising from the ground with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 after 8 sec, a stone is
released from the balloon. The stone will (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) Have initial speed 16 m/s.

(2) Begin to move up after being released
(3) Have net displacement in downward direction.
(4) All of these

10) A ball is thrown upwards. It takes 4 sec to reach back to the ground. Its initial velocity is :-

(1) 30 m s–1
(2) 10 m s–1
(3) 40 m s–1
(4) 20 m s–1

11) A particle is thrown vertically up with velocity 20 m/s. The distance travelled in first 3 second is
:-

(1) 15 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 30 m

12) A stone, dropped from the top of a tower, travels 35 m in the last second of its journey. The
height of the tower is :

(1) 20 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 80 m

13) A stone is thrown upwards with a speed 'u' from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a
velocity '4u'. The height of the tower is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The acceleration of particle is given by a = 4t m/s2. Then find the velocity of the particle at t = 5
second, if it is given that the particle starts from rest :-

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 50 m/s

15) The position -time relation of a particle moving along the x-axis is given by :
x = a – bt + ct2
where a, b and c are positive numbers. The velocity-time graph of the particle is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) An isotone of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(1) (ii) & (iii)

(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) & (iii) & (iv)

2)

The radius of a shell for H-atom is 4.761A°. The value of n is :-

(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 5
(4) 4

3) The velocity of electron in third excited state of Be3+ ion will be :–

(1)
(2.188 × 108) ms–1

(2)
(2.188 × 106)ms–1
(3) (2.188 × 106) Kms–1
(4) (2.188 × 103) Kms–1

4) The ratio of minimum wavelengths of Lyman & Balmer series will be :–

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25
(3) 5
(4) 10

5)

If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H atom, the no. of spectral lines emitted is equal to :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

6) For a valid Bohr orbit, its circumfrence should be

(1) = n λ
(2) = (n – 1)λ
(3) > n λ
(4) < n λ

7) Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength, moving with same speed ?

(1) e–
(2) p
(3) CO2
(4) SO2

8) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function ψ420 :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 4pz
(4) 4s

9)

Any nf–orbital can accomodate upto :–

(1) 14 electron
(2) Six electrons
(3) Two electrons with parallel spin
(4) Two electrons with opposite spin

10)

The quantum number of 20th electron of Fe(Z = 26) would be :–

(1) 3, 2, – 2, – ½
(2) 3, 2, 0, ½
(3) 4, 0, 0, + ½
(4) 4, 1, – 1, + ½

11) Which group of elements follow triad rule?

(1) H, F, Cl
(2) Li, Na, K
(3) Cl, Br, I
(4) All

12) Which of the following set of atomic numbers belongs to group 16 ?

(1) 8, 16, 32, 54

(2) 16, 34, 54, 86
(3) 8, 16, 34, 52
(4) 10, 16, 32, 50

13) The law of triads is applicable to :

(1) Na, Mg, Ca

(2) C, N, O
(3) H, O, N
(4) Li, Na, K

14) 4d6 5s2 configuration belongs to which group :-

(1) 2nd
(2) 6th
(3) 8th
(4) 10th

15) According to Newland's law of octaves, the properties of Li were similar to :-

(1) Na
(2) Ca
(3) Mg
(4) Al
16) Which of the following is the incorrect set of elements to Dobereiner's triads ?

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Cl, Br, I
(3) Cr, Mn, Fe
(4) Ca, Sr, Ba

17) Which is not anomalous pair of element in the mendeleev's periodic table :-

(1) Ar, K
(2) Ti, P
(3) Te, I
(4) Co, Ni

18)

Atomic no. is the base of–

(1) Lothar Meyer curve

(2) Newland's octave
(3) Modern periodic table
(4) Dobereiner triad

19) Whose atomic weight was corrected by Mendeleev ?

(1) B
(2) I
(3) In
(4) Na

20) Which of the following set of atomic numbers represent representative elements ?

(1) 5, 13, 30, 53

(2) 5, 17, 31, 54
(3) 11, 33, 58, 84
(4) 9, 31, 53, 83

21) General electronic configuration of normal elements :-

(1) ns1–2np0–6
(2) ns1–2np1–5
(3) ns1–2np0–5
(4) ns1–2np1–6

22) Atomic weight of an element X is 40 and that of element Z is 60. Atomic weight of their
intermediate element Y, as per Dobereiner's triad will be :
(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 60
(4) 100

23) Which of following is Not transition element ?

(1) Fe
(2) Hg
(3) Tc
(4) V

24) Identify the block for 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2. :-

(1) s-Block
(2) p-Block
(3) d-Block
(4) f-Block

25) Which is not incorrect for Mendeleev's P.T.?

(1) Total no. of subgroups = 8

(2) Total anomalous pair = 4
(3) Atomic wt. (Mass) corrected only for Be and Pt
(4) Inert gases were present in his P.T.

26) Difference of electrons between ‘Uub’ element and ‘Uuo’ element is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

27) The elements with atomic number 117 and 120 are yet to be discovered. In which group would
you place these elements when discovered ?

(1) 17, 2
(2) 16, 4
(3) 15, 3
(4) 18, 2

28) The most electropositive element possesses the electronic configuration :

(1) [He]2s1
(2) [Ne]3s2
(3) [Xe]6s1
(4) [Xe]6s2

29) The element having electronic configuration [Ar]3d24s2 belongs to :

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

30) An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium (Uut), belongs to :

(1) s-block element

(2) p-block element
(3) d-block element
(4) Transition element

31) The ionic radii of Li+, Be2+ and B3+ follow the order :

(1) Be2+ > B3+ > Li+

(2) Li+ > B3+ > Be2+
(3) Be3+ > Be2+ > Li+
(4) Li+ > Be2+ > B3+

32) Which of the following is arranged in decreasing order of size ?

(1) Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2–

(2) O2–> Mg2+ > Al3+
(3) Al3+ > Mg2+ > O2–
(4) Al3+ > O2– > Mg2+

33) The first, second and third ionisation energies (E1, E2 and E3) for an element are 7eV, 12.5 eV
and 42.5 eV respectively. The most stable oxidation state of the element will be :

(1) +1
(2) +4
(3) +3
(4) +2

34) Element having highest I.P. value is :

(1) Ne
(2) He
(3) Be
(4) N

35) The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol–1. The number of
valence electrons in the element are :

(1) Na < Mg < Al < Si

(2) Na < Al < Mg < Si
(3) Na < Al < Si < Mg
(4) Na > Mg > Al > Si

SECTION-B

1)

Which is correct for any H like species :-

(1) (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)

(2) (E2 – E1) < (E3 – E2) < (E4 – E3)
(3) (E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)
(4) (E2 – E1) = 1/4 (E3 – E2)=1/9 (E4 – E3)

2)

The ratio of minimum frequency of Lyman & Balmer series will be :–

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25
(3) 5.4
(4) 10

3)

The first emission line in the H-atom spectrum in the Balmer series will have wave number :-

(1)
cm–1

(2)
cm–1

(3)
cm–1

(4)
cm–1

4)

Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for the 19th electron of Chromium :-
n ℓ m s
(1) 3 0 0 1/2
(2) 3 2 –2 1/2
(3) 4 0 0 1/2
(4) 4 1 –1 1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) The atomic number of the element having maximum number of unpaired 3p electrons is (in
ground state):-

(1) 15
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 8

6) Which two elements are in same period as well as same group of modern periodic table ?

(1) Z=23, Z=31

(2) Z=65, Z=66
(3) Z=52, Z=87
(4) Z=58, Z=46

7) Group no., Period no. and Block of element having atomic no. 64 :-

(1) 4, 6 d-Block
(2) 6, 3, f-Block
(3) 6, 6, p-Block
(4) 3, 6, f-Block

8)

Identify A, B and C respectively in the given curve?

(1) Li, F, Be
(2) Be, Li, F
(3) Li, Mg, Cl
(4) F, K, Ca

9) Which one of the following species possesses maximum size ?

(1) Na+
(2) F–
(3) Ne
(4) O2–

10) Which of the following order of ionization energy is correct ?

(1) In < Tl
(2) Sn > Pb
(3) Ga < Al
(4) O > N

11) The ionization energies for B. Tl and In are x, y and z kcal mol–1 respectively. Choose the correct
relationship between them.

(1) z > x = y
(2) x > y > z
(3) x > y > z
(4) x < y < z

12) Statement I : Electron affinity of third period elements is larger than that of second period
elements.
Statement II : Size of second period elements elements are smaller than third period elements.

If both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
(1)
Statement I.
If both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation for
(2)
Statement I.
(3) If Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) If both Statement I and Statement II are false.

13) Which of the following is the incorrect match for the position of element in periodic table?

(1) [Ar]3d54s1 → 4th period, 6th group

(2) [Kr]4d10 → 5th period, 12th group
(3) [Rn]6d27s2 → 7th period, 3th group
(4) [Xe]4f145d26s2 → 6th period, 4th group

14) Ionization enthalpy of an atom is equal to :

(1) electron gain enthalpy of the cation

(2) electronegativity of the ion
(3) ionization enthalpy of the cation
(4) none of these

15) Position of noble gases in long form of periodic table according to IUPAC :-

(1) Zero group

(2) 18th group
(3) VIII A
(4) Absent in long form of periodic table
 BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) The accompanying diagram shows a chromsome, in which A is :-

(1) Centromere
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Chromosome
(4) Chromocentric

2) The mitochondria contain :-

(1) Site for photophosphorylation

(2) Site for aerobic respiration
(3) Pigment located at their cristae
(4) ds DNA in their outer compartment

3) Organelles not found in Prokaryotes ______.

(1) Membrane bound nucleus

(2) Inclusion bodies
(3) Gas vacuoles
(4) Ribosomes

4) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:

A-telocentric; B-acrocentric;
(1)
D-submetacentric; D-metacentric
A-acrocentric; B-submetacentric;
(2)
C-metacentric; D-telocentric
A-acrocentric; B-metacentric;
(3)
C-submetacentric; D-telocentric
 A-metacentric; B-submetacentric;
(4)
C-telocentric; D-acrocentric

5) Choose the correct option with respect to stroma part of chloroplast :-

(1) It concerned with light reaction

(2) It contain chlorophyll pigment
(3) It contain 80S ribosome
(4) It contain enzyme for synthesis of carbohydrate and protein

6) The concentration of Mg++ ion required for association of sub units of ribosome is

(1) 0.01 M
(2) 0.001 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 0.1 M

7) On the basis of ease of extraction from plasma membrane which of the following is classified into
integral and peripheral ?

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Lipid
(3) Protein
(4) Cholesterol

8) The 'Power house' of cell :-

(1) Is bound by a single membrane

(2) Posses cristae which are extension of its outer membrane
(3) Are sites of formation of 'energy currency' of the cell
(4) Is found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells

9) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesises :-

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins
(3) Steroids and lipids
(4) All of these

10) Lysosomes are ______ vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the ___.

(1) membrane bound, Golgi apparatus

(2) non-membrane bound, Golgi apparatus
(3) membrane bound, ER
(4) non-membrane bound, ER
11) Select the option with correct labelling of given structure of Golgi apparatus.

A B C D

(1) Cisternae Vesicle trans face cis face

(2) Cisternae Vesicle cis face trans face

(3) Vesicle Cisternae cis face trans face

(4) Tubules Vesicle trans face cis face

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) An improved model of the structure of cell membrane was proposed by_____ widely accepted as
____:-

(1) Singer and Nicolson (1959), mosaic model

(2) Singer and Nicolson (1972), fluid mosaic model
(3) Davson and Danielli (1935), Trilamellar model
(4) Robertson (1959), unit membrane model

13) An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures which helps in the maintenance of
cell shape is called

(1) Plasmalemma
(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Thylakoids

14) Larger subunit of prokaryotic ribosome is

(1) 30 S
(2) 40 S
(3) 50 S
(4) 60 S

15) Water soluble pigment present in cell vacuole is :-

(1) Anthocyanin
(2) Carotene
(3) Xanthophyll
(4) Chlorophyll

16) Which of the following is not a part of endomembrane system ?

(1) Golgi-complex
(2) Vacuole
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

17) ............... is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. Various
chemical reactions occur in it to keep the cell in the living state.

(1) Nucleus
(2) Cell membrane
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Mitochondria

18) The cell wall of algae is made of :-

(1) Peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharide, cellulose

(2) Cellulose, galactans, mannans, CaCO3
(3) Cellulose, hemicellulose, mannans, CaCO3
(4) Mucopeptide, xylan, galactan, CaCO3

19) Microtubular arrangement in axoneme of cilia is :-

(1) 9 (doublets) + 0
(2) 9 (doublets) + 2
(3) 9 (triplets) + 0
(4) 9 (triplets) + 2

20) Polysome is formed by :-

(1) A ribosome with several subunits

(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

21) Difference in gram +ve and gram –ve bacteria is due to :-

(1) Cell wall
(2) Cell membrane
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cytoplasm

22) Inulin is a polymer of:-

(1) Glucose
(2) Galactose
(3) Fructose
(4) Arabinose

23) Pentoses and hexoses are the common :-

(1) Oligosaccharides
(2) Monosaccharides
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) Disaccharides

24) In a polysaccharide (like glycogen), the right end and left end are called :-

(1) N–Terminal and C–Terminal respectively.

(2) C–Terminal and N–Terminal respectively.
(3) Reducing and Non reducing end respectively.
(4) Non reducing and reducing end respectively.

25) Palmitic acid is an example of :–

(1) Essential amino acid.

(2) Non essential amino acid.
(3) Saturated fatty acid.
(4) Unsaturated fatty acid.

26) Hydrolysis of lipid yields :-

(1) Fats.
(2) Fatty acids and glycerol .
(3) Mannose and glycerol.
(4) Maltose and fatty acids.

27) Which of the following statements about carbohydrate is not correct ?

(1) It is main source of energy fuel.

(2) Simple carbohydrates which are insoluble in water and sweet in taste are called sugars.
(3) Monosaccharides can’t be further hydrolysed.
(4) Generalised formula of carbohydrates is Cx(H2O)y.

28) Arachidic acid has how many double bonds between C–C atoms ?

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) zero

29) In DNA, how many hydrogen bonds are present between G and C bases.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

30) Assertion :- Most biomolecules which are found in the acid insoluble fraction are
macromolecules.
Reason :- Most biomolecules found in acid insoluble fraction have molecular weight more than 1000
Dalton.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Lecithin is :-

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Protein
(4) Amino acid

32) ICBN is :-

(1) Name of an organisation

(2) Name of a book of Botanical nomenclature
(3) Name of a committee of scientists
(4) Annual magazine, which was first time published by Linnaeus.

33) Which of the following will have more specific characteristics in comparison to others ?

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Genus
(4) Family
34) Suffix phyte is used for taxon :-

(1) Class
(2) Division
(3) Family
(4) Order

35) Petunia is a :

(1) Variety
(2) Subspecies
(3) Species
(4) Genus

SECTION-B

1) Find the correct labelling ?

A B C D E F

(1) SER Lysosome Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

(2) Lysosome RER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

(3) Lysosome RER Vacuole Cell wall Nucleus Cytoplasm

(4) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Peroxisome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2)
Identify the cells given in above diagram :-

(1) A - Mesophyll cells, B - White blood cells, C - Nerve cell, D - Tracheid

(2) A - Red blood cells, B - Nerve cell, C - White blood cells, D - Tracheid
(3) A - Red blood cells, B - White blood cells, C - Mesophyll cells, D - Nerve cell
(4) A - White blood cells, B - Tracheid, C - Red blood cells, D - Nerve cell

3) The accompanying diagram represents a chromosome. Identify the structure A, B & C :-

(1) A–Satellite, B–Primary constriction, C–Acrocentric

(2) A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction, C–Metacentric
(3) A–Satellite, B–Centromere,C–Telocentric
(4) A–Satellite, B–Centromere,C–Submetacentric

4) The vacuole is bound by 'A' membrane called 'B' . In plants 'B' facilitates the transport of ions
and other materials 'C' into the vacuole.

A B C

(1) Single Tonoplast Along concentration gradient

(2) Double Tonoplast Against concentration gradient

(3) Single Tonoplast Against concentration gradient

(4) Double Tonoplast Along concentration gradient

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
5) Which pair is correct for diagram ?

Diagram is Involve in

1 Nuclear membrane DNA synthesis

2 E.R. Steroid synthesis

3 Golgi complex Glycoprotein formation

4 E.R. Protein synthesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) According the fluid mosaic model, the ___A___ nature of lipids enables lateral movement of
___B___ within the bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its ___C___ .

(1) A-Solid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity

(2) A-Quasi-Fluid, B-Lipids, C-Fluidity
(3) A-Quasi Fluid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity
(4) A-Fluidity, B-Lipids, C-Quasi Fluid

7) Assertion : In animal cells, lipid like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER.
Reason : The smooth ER is the major site for synthesis of lipid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8) Which of the following option is correct regarding the given figure ?

Number of Number of Number

centromere kinetochore of arms

(1) 2 1 4

(2) 1 2 4

(3) 2 2 4
 (4) 1 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Nuclear DNA exists as a complex of protein called ____ that condenses into____ during ___.

(1) Chromatids, Chromosomes, Interkinesis.

(2) Chromosomes, Chromatin, S-phase.
(3) Chromatin, Chromosome, Interphase.
(4) Chromatin, Chromosome, Cell division.

10) Exoskeleton of arthropod animal is made up of :-

(1) Hyaluronic acid

(2) Chitin
(3) Heparin
(4) Hemicellulose

11) Which of the following is alkaline amino acid:-

(1) Glycine
(2) Valine
(3) Alanine
(4) Arginine

12) Most abundant protein in animal body is :-

(1) Collagen
(2) Hb
(3) RuBisCo
(4) Insulin

13) Which of the following amino acid is involved in formation of disulphide bonds ?

(1) Valine
(2) Cysteine
(3) Proline
(4) Lysine

14)

Most abundent element in human body is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Carbon

15) Quaternary structure is present in:-

(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Histone
(3) Globulin
(4) Elastin

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1)

Which of the following category has fewer characters in common ?

(1) Order
(2) Family
(3) Phylum
(4) Class

2) Panthera leo, Panthera pardus and Panthera tigris represent :-

(1) They are member of same species.

(2) They are species of different genus.
(3) They are different species of same Genus .
(4) Panthera is a name of species while leo, pardus and tigris represent variety

3) Which of the following is a correct name ?

(1) Solanum tuberosum

(2) Solanum Tuberosum
(3) Solanum tuberosum Linn.
(4) All the above

4) Number of obligate taxonomic categories are:-

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 4
5) Each genus :-

(1) Always has one specific epithet.

(2) May have one or more specific epithets.
(3) Is a group of many families.
(4) Is always monotypic.

6) Class is placed between :-

(1) Kingdom and division.

(2) Order and family.
(3) Division and order.
(4) Family and species.

7) Which of the following categories of taxonomic hierarchy will have minimum number of common
characters?

(1) Genus
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Division

8) Silk is :-

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Fat
(3) Protein
(4) Nucleic acid

9) Which of the following groups contains all polysaccharides ?

(1) Maltose, lactose and fructose.

(2) Sucrose, glucose and fructose.
(3) Glycogen, cellulose and starch.
(4) Glycogen, sucrose and maltose.

10) The sugar present in milk is :-

(1) Fructose
(2) Glucose
(3) Lactose
(4) Sucrose

11) Maximum amount of cellulose occurs in :-

(1) Cotton
(2) Coir
(3) Hemp
(4) Flax

12) In which form the extra Sugar is stored in the body ?

(1) Glucose monosaccharide

(2) Sucrose Disaccharide
(3) Glycogen polysaccharide
(4) Fatty acid and glycerol

13) Alanine is a :-

(1) Nucleotide
(2) Non-essential amino acid
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Storage carbohydrate

14) Which of the following is not a secondary metabolite of plant cell?

(1) Rubber
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) Essential oil
(4) Tannins

15) Which types of monosaccharide are more abundant in blood and grapes?

(1) α–Fructose
(2) Galactose
(3) Glucose
(4) β–Fructose

16) For the chemical analysis of a tissue, it is generally ground in which acid ?

(1) Trichloroacetic acid

(2) Tridobenzoic acid
(3) Sulphuric acid
(4) Acetic acid

17) Choose the odd one :-

(1) Deoxyribose
(2) Ribose
(3) Galactose
(4) Ribulose
18) Read the given statements :-
I. Amino acids are linked by peptide bond.
II. Monosaccharides are linked by glycosidic bond.
III. Only DNA work as a genetic material.
IV. Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world.
Which of the given statement are correct ?

(1) I, II, III & IV

(2) I, & II
(3) I, II & III
(4) I, II & IV

19) Which of the following is a heteropolymer ?

(1) Starch
(2) Pectin
(3) Inulin
(4) Cellulose

20) Cane sugar is made of :-

(1) 2 glucose molecules.

(2) 2 fructose molecules.
(3) One glucose and one fructose molecule.
(4) Chain of glucose molecules.

21) A triglyceride is formed by esterification of :-

(1) One molecule of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acids.

(2) One fatty acid molecule and three molecules of glycerol.
(3) Three molecules of fatty acids and three molecules of glycerol.
(4) Two molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol.

22) Proteins present in protoplasm are very important because:-

(1) They provide definite shape to cell.

(2) They function as biocatalyst.
(3) They yield energy.
(4) They are stored food.

23) The binomial nomenclature was given by

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) Lamarck
(4) Cuvier
24) Choose the correct taxonomic hierarchy in the descending order–

(1) Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
(2) Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species
(3) Species-Genus-Family-Order-Class-Phylum-Kingdom
(4) Species-Genus-Family-Class-Order-Phylum-Kingdom

25) In the name Panthera leo and Solanum melongena, the words leo and melongena represent–

(1) Generic name

(2) Name of sub-species
(3) Specific epithet
(4) Family

26)

The group of organisms which are capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offsprings is
called:-

(1) Taxonomic species

(2) Biological species
(3) Specific epithet
(4) Subspecies

27) Systematics deals with :-

(1) Classification
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Identification
(4) All of these

28) Taxonomically known number of species is :

(1) 1.7 billion

(2) 1.7 lakh
(3) 5- 20 million
(4) 1.7 million

29) Which of the statements regarding nomenclature is correct?

(1) Generic name always begins with capital letter whereas specific epithet with small letter.
(2) Scientific name is printed in Italics.
(3) Scientific name when handwritten should be underlined together.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

30) In the names Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum and Panthera leo, the words indica,
tuberosum and leo represent :-
(1) Generic Name
(2) Generic epithet
(3) Specific name
(4) Specific epithet

31)

In the following which is not a correct match for classification of Mango :-

(1) Family - Anacardiaceae

(2) Genus - Mangifera
(3) Class - Monocotyledonae
(4) Order - Sapindales

32) The process that are basic to taxonomy include :

(1) Characterisation
(2) Identification
(3) Classification and nomenclature
(4) All of the above

33) Which of the followings is a smallest category:-

(1) Family
(2) Phylum
(3) Order
(4) Class

34) Solanum, Pentunia and Datura belongs to :-

(1) Same family

(2) Three family
(3) Two family
(4) Same species

35) Biodiversity means :-

(1) Number & types of plants on earth.

(2) Number & types of animals on earth.
(3) Number of organism on earth.
(4) Number & types of organisms on earth.

SECTION-B

1) Read the following 4 statement i–iv

(i) Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex polysaccharide called chitin.
(ii) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(iii) Cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence hold I2.
(iv) Starch gives blue colour with iodine.
How many statement are correct?

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, ii, iii
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) Only i

2) Assertion : Human diet should compulsorily contain Methionine and Threonine.

Reason : Essential amino acids can not be synthesized in human body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Which of the following bond is/are found in tertiary structure of protein?

(1) Peptide bond & hydrogen bond

(2) Disulphide & hydrophobic bond
(3) Ionic bond
(4) All the above

4) Arachidonic acids & Palmitic acid are respectively :-

(1) Saturated, unsaturated fatty acid

(2) Unsaturated, saturated fatty acid
(3) Saturated, saturated fatty acid
(4) Unsaturated, unsaturated fatty acid

5) The relation of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in:-

(1) Felidae and canidae with Carnivora

(2) Primata and Carnivora with Mammalia
(3) Amphibia and reptilia with Chordata
(4) Solanum and Petunia with Solanaceae

6) Group of organisms that closely resemble each other and freely interbreed in nature, constitute a
:-

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Family
(4) Taxon

7) Order of housefly is :-

(1) Primata
(2) Diptera
(3) Poales
(4) Sapindales

8) ICZN stands for ?

(1) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature.

(2) Intergovernmental Committee for Zoological Naming.
(3) International congress for Zoological Nomenclature .
(4) Indian Code of Zoological Names.

9) The smallest unit of taxonomical hierarchy is :-

(1) Kingdom
(2) Family
(3) Species
(4) Genus

10) Order of Homo sapiens is : -

(1) Primata
(2) Diptera
(3) Mammalia
(4) Chordata

11) Who wrote "Sytema Naturae" and provided a basis for nomenclature of animals ?

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Charles Darwin
(3) Aristotle
(4) Leeuwenhoek

12) Second word of an organism's biological name represents:-

(1) Genus
(2) Family
(3) Specific epithet
(4) Order

13)

Two organisms of same division but of different order will be kept under the same :-
(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Species
(4) Class

14) 'indica' is a particular species or species epithet of which genus among these ?

(1) Solanum
(2) Brassica
(3) Panthera
(4) Mangifera

15) Poales represents :-

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Family
(4) Division
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 1 4 2 1 1 4 1 4 3 4 3 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 4 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 1 2 1 2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 2 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 1 2 3 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 2 2 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 4 4 3 4 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 1 4 2 1 1 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) distance ≥ |displacement|

2)

3)

x = at + bt2 + ct3

= a + 2bt + 3ct2

4)

T=
T = 8s

5)

X = 2 – 5t + 6t2

at t = 0 ν = – 5 m/s

6) u = 0, a = Constant = k (let)
From equation of motion;
V2 = u2 + 2as

V2 = (O)2 + 2ks
V2 = 2 ks
This equation shows a parabola with S–axis as its axis. Hence, its graph can be shown as

i.e., "2"

7)

If speed, that is magnitude of velocity is constant whereas the direction of velocity changes; we
cannot say that velocity constant. Therefore, the particle has non-zero acceleration.
 8)

At highest position, v = 0 and a = –g

9)

Speedavg. =
= 48 km/hr

10)

Velocity will be negative where slope is negative

So at point E slope is negative

11)

After seconds

=
From tap position of ball from ground

12) Avg. vel. = = 1 m/s

13)

Let time of flight be T then T =

Let h be the distance covered during last ‘t’ second of its ascent
Velocity at point B = vB = u – g(T – t)

= u–g = gt

⇒ h = vBt – gt2

⇒ h = gt2 – gt2 = gt2

 14)

uniform motion means constant velocity

15) Acceleration due to gravity is always acting uniformly.

16)

v2 = 0 + 2g

h= = 10m

17) x = at2 or a=

s2t = a(2t)2 = × 4t2 = 4x

∴ distance covered = 4x – x = 3x

18)

a = constant & negative = slope of v - t curve

Hence correct option (2)

19)

Using
Since the displacement is zero,

0 = uT – gt2 ⇒ u =

⇒u= = 15 m/s

20) v2 = u2 – 2as
if v = 0

s=
s ∝ u2 (a1 = a2)

21) aav = = 5 m/s2

22) Dist.= ×4×4+ ×2×2

= 8 + 2 = 10m
 23)

Slope of v-t graph

24)

Vavg =

25)

Height of 2nd drop = 3x

26) R = 2A Given
So, = 0°

27)

If initial and final position is same result will be zero

Using triangle law

28)

R = 2A cos

⇒ R = 2 × 20 × = 20 N

29)
 30)

= 9 + 16 – 25 = 0
θ = 90°

31)

32)

33)

34)

35) In a projectile motion at maximum height body possess only horizontal component of
velocity i.e. u cos θ.

36)
 37) = bt
dv = bt .dt

v=u+

38) v – u = at = Area under a – t graph

⇒v–2= × 4 × 2 ⇒ v = 6 m/s

39)

Let R be the radius of a circle.

Displacement = AB = 2R

Time taken to go from A to B,

Average velocity,

40) Sn = U + (2n –1)

= 10 – (2 × 5–1) = 10 – 9 =1m

41)

v = 144 × = 40 m/s

a= = 2 m/s2

s = at2 =
 42)

From the first equation of motion,

v2 = u2 + 2as

⇒ 0=
or a = –16 ms–2 (Q a is retardation)
Again v2 = u2 + 2as

⇒ 0= – 16 × 2 × s

or
or s = 24.1 = 24 m

43) Area of a – t graph gives change in velocity

u=0
area = 10 (for t = 0 to 2 sec)
So, velocity increases from 0 to 10 in 2 sec, linearly.

44)

v = u + at
v=0+2×8
v = 16 m/s

45)

time for one side t =

0 = u – gt ⇒ u = gt = 10 × 2 = 20 m/s
or

time of flight T =

46)

S = SO → 2 + S2 → 3
S = 20 + 5
S = 25 m.

47)

Let t; time of journey

35 = 0 + × 10 (2t –1) ⇒ t = 4 s

48)

v2 = u2 + 2as
16u2 = u2 + 2(–g)(–h)

h=

49)

a = 4t

= 4t

V=2×5×5
= 50 m/s

50)

x = a – bt + ct2

v-t graph
y = – b + 2 cx, straight line
y = C + mx
Slope m = 2c, +ve
Intercept, C = –b, –ve

CHEMISTRY

51)

Same number of neutrons → Isotone

⇒ 76 – 32 = 44 = no. of n
no. of n of ⇒ 77 – 33 = 44
no. of n of ⇒ 78 – 34 = 44

52) r = 0.529 × A°
n2 = =9
n=3

53) v = 2.188 × 106 × m/s

= 2.188 × 106 × ms–1

= 2.188 × 10³ × Kms–1

54)

55)
e¯ will reach in 2nd orbit it we supply min. 10.2eV energy. So here no spectral line will be
formed as energy supplied according to question is 9.9eV

56) 2πr = nλ
Circumference = 2πr
= nλ

57)

λ∝
SO2 has maximum mass so it will have least de-Broglie wavelength.

58) Ψnℓm = Ψ420

59)
nf–orbital has 2e¯ with Opposite spin.

60) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6

n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0
 s=+ ,–

61) All follow Triad rule

62) Z = 8 (Oxygen), Z = 16 (Sulphur)

Z = 34 (Selenium), Z = 52 (Tellurium)

63) Atomic wt. of Li → 7, Atomic wt. of K → 39

Atomic wt. of Na → → 23

64) Group no.: - (n–1)d e¯ + nse¯

6+2=8

65) Properties of every 8th element was similar to the 1st element

66) Not following Doberenier's Triad rule

67) Anomalous pairs :- Ar K, Te I, Th Pa, Co Ni

68) Modern periodic table

69) U, Be, In, Au, Pt

70)

Only s & p-block elements except noble gas, d-block, f-block.

71)

Electronic configuration of normal elements is ns1–2np0–5

72) Atomic wt. of Y = = 50

73) Zn, Cd, Hg, Cn are not transition elements

74) last e– is entering in 'd' subshell.

75) Anomalous pairs :- Ar K, Te I, Th Pa, Co Ni

 76)

Uub Uuo
112 118
Difference 118–112 = 6

77)

The element with atomic number of 117 is placed in 17th group. The element with atomic number
120 is placed in 2nd group.

78)

Alkali metal [Xe]6s1 is the most electropositive element in the periodic table.

79)

The element having electronic configuration [Ar]3d24s2 belongs to d-block element is Ti.

80)

Ununtrium for atomic number = 113; for Z > 86, Pd. no. = 7
113[Rn]7s2, 5f14, 6d10, 7p1
p-block

81)

Li+, Be2+ and B3+ are isoelectronic species. As ; Size decreases.

Ionic radius order :
B3+ < Be2+ < Li+

82)

Al3+, Mg2+ and O2– are isoelectronic species.

Ionic radius order : O2– > Mg2+ > Al3+

83)

There is large gap (> 11 eV) between second and third ionisation energies. So, most stable oxidation
state of the element will be +2.

84)

He has highest I.P. value in periodic table.

85)
There is large gap between third and fourth ionisation energies of an element (>11 eV). So, the
number of valence electrons in the element are three.

86) E2 – E1 = 10.2ev
E3 – E2 = 1.89ev
E4 – E3 = 0.66ev
[E2 – E1] > [E3 – E2] > [E4 – E3]

87)

= 5.4

88) = Rz2

= R(1)2

89) 24Cr ⇒ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

4s1 ⇒ n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0

s=+ ,–

90) maximum 3 unpaired e¯

15e¯ → 1s 2s 2p 3s2 3p3
2 2 6

91)

65, 66 (Lanthanides)
period = 6, group = III B

92) Atomic no. :- 64 (Gadolinium) is an f-block element belongs to 3rd/III B group and is a part
of 6th period.

93) Peak position :- Alkali metals

Ascending position :- Halogens
 Descending position :- Alkaline earth metals

94) Zeff , Radius↓

95)

Correct order of I.E.

96)

I.E. B Tl In
↓ ↓ ↓
x y z
Correct order B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
x>y>z

97)

N O F order of E.A.
^ ^ ^
P S Cl

98)

(1) [Ar]3d54s1 → Cr(24) → 4th period, 6th group

(2) [Kr]4d10 → Pd(46) → 5th period, 12th group
(3) [Rn]6d27s2 → Th(90) → 7th period, 3th group
(4) [Xe]4f 5d 6s → Hf(72) → 6th period, 4th group
14 2 2

99)

I.E. of X(g) = E.A. of X+(g)

100) 18th group

BIOLOGY-I
 101)

NCERT XI Pg. # 139, fig. 8.11

102)

NCERT Pg. # 135

103)

NCERT - Pg. # 128

104)

NCERT XI (E); Pg. # 139; Fig.-8.12

105)

NCERT XI (E); Pg. # 136; Para-8.5.5

107)

NCERT Pg # 131, Para-8.5.1

108)

NCERT Pg.# 134, 8.5.4

109)

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