CSAT Test (10th May 2020)

Answer Key & Explanation

Q1. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The passage describes the effects of the price war in crude and the subsequent increase in
production due to disagreements over production cuts. It describes how this has already
created a positive trade balance and is likely to boost the economy and remove the current
account deficit. Also, it is expected to reduce inflation. Hence, the overall inference is that,
disagreement over production cuts is helping to boost our economy. Hence, option a is valid.
Option b is invalid because the scenario described above cannot be generalised to all
economies in all oil price war scenarios.
Option c is invalid because there is no data to support the assumption that crude prices will
keep falling over the course of the price war.
Option d is invalid because the trade balance has just been described in terms of the GDP.
The relation between the two has not been given.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q2. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
The passage focuses on two plausible reasons for a defection – quest for power or ideological
differences strengthened by the temptation of power. It then goes on to negate the second
possibility by saying that there has been no sign of ideological differences. Hence, this clearly
infers, as given in option c, that the quest for power was one of the driving forces behind the
defection.
Option a is invalid because the passage mentions that ideological reflection can work in
tandem with the temptation of power, thereby leading to a defection.
Option b is invalid because the passage simply speculates that the defections were due to a
greed for power than ideology. There is no evidence to categorically prove it.
Option d is invalid because it contradicts the gist of the passage. If a person runs after power,
no amount of ideological persuasion will convince him.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.

Q3. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The hypothesis of the passage is that most politicians defecting to the other party have done
so for power.
Now, if 90% of them have been rewarded with ministerial berths within three months of joining,
it strengthens the doubts that they had been promised lucrative options and were rewarded
with these positions as quid pro quo. This supports the hypothesis.

Prelim Test Series (2020) – CSAT Test (10th May 2020)

If two-thirds of the party members who left had been opposing their party over critical issues
over a year, then there are clear indications that they were not happy in the party due to
ideological reasons. This goes against the hypothesis of power being the main driver of
defections.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q4. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The passage indicates the opinion of the author towards social media and his relief at having
escaped from it. From the passage, the author seems to be a person who likes to be left alone,
which social media does not allow. He describes his initial experience with social media and
what he is not missing by moving out. He also balances this out by saying that this tool has
changed the life of millions of people. However, there is a negative connotation here because
he also compares riches through social media to riches through opium trade. The whole gist
of the passage is that the author is happy that he does not have to share small details of his
life on social media, just as other people do. Hence, the most important corollary here is that
social media allows people to share their lives. This validates option b.
While the author has a negative opinion of social media, he does not consider it a total waste
of time – since he mentions that people have become richer through it. Hence, option a is
invalid.
Option c is invalid because it is an exaggerated version of what the passage says. While people
do have opinions on various topics, everyone having opinions on everything is far-fetched.
Option d is again invalid because it exaggerates the importance of social media w.r.t.
happiness of people.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.

Q5. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
According to the passage, the number of people interested in how the author lived has fallen
to one or two because the author is not engaging with social media. Thus, their interest in the
author was directly linked to his social media presence. Hence, assumption 1 is valid.
Assumption 2 is invalid because the author is actually happy and relieved, rather than lonely
by not engaging with social media.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q6. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The passage talks about gender equality in the defence forces. It starts by explaining the
principle behind this inequality, the mindset of people in the forces and the need for having the
same physical fitness standards for both men and women. It uses the case of the earlier
demand of lower physical standards being perceived negatively (for different reasons) by both
men and women to make its point.
Overall, the main theme of the passage is the requirement of gender equality in defence forces.
This validates option a.
The mindset of the military hierarchy is just one part of the discussion and used as reason to
explain the point. Hence, option b is eliminated.
Option c is invalid because fitness standards have only been used as a tool to show how
differing standards make it difficult for women to be accepted in the military.
Option d is invalid because of its generic nature and because it misses out discussing the
military.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q7. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The passage works on the premise of there being no free products. If we do not pay for a
product with money, the cost of that product is being recovered in some other way. In case of
the internet, this cost is being recovered through capture and monetization of user data. Thus,
the gist is that no so-called “free service” is ever free. Thus validates option b.
Option a is incorrect as it clearly contradicts the passage. Option c is a simplistic and literal
interpretation of the passage. The question is not really about paying in a certain manner but
about the understanding of how a free service works.
Option d is again a simplistic understanding and is hence, eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.

Q8. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The last line of the passage explains that service providers track and analyse user data and
make money out of it. This clearly assumes that there are marketers and product designers
ready to buy this data in order to create tailored products and services. This, by extension, has
to assume that there exist tools to analyse this behaviour to identify preferences. Hence, both
assumptions are valid.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.

Q9. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Consider MOHAMMED and NQICNOFF.
M + 1 = N; O + 2 = Q; H + 1 = I; A +2 = C; M + 1 = N; M + 2 = O; E + 1 = F; D + 2 = F
Similarly, consider MUSTAFA and NWTVBHB.
M + 1 = N; U + 2 = W; S + 1 = T; T + 2 = V; A + 1 = B; F + 2 = H; A + 1 = B
Similarly, for FARHEEN:
F + 1 = G; A + 2 = C; R + 1 = S; H + 2 = J; E + 1 = F; E + 2 = G; N + 1 = O
Hence, FARHEEN is coded as GCSJFGO.
Hence, option c.
Q10. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The squares range from size 1*1 to 5*5.
Number of 1*1 squares = 9 + 2(7) + 2(5) + 2(2) = 37
Number of 2*2 squares = 4 + 6 + 6 + 4 = 20
Number of 3*3 squares = 3 + 5 + 3 = 11
Number of 4*4 squares = 2 + 2 = 4
Number of 5*5 squares = 1
∴ Number of squares = 37 + 20 + 11 + 4 + 1 = 73
Hence, option c.

Q11. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The number of images across books remains constant.
∴ Number of books × number of pages/book × number of images/page = constant
∴ 20 × 56 × 65 = n × 65 × 70
∴ n = 16
Hence, number of books decreases by 4.
∴ Percentage reduction = (4/20) × 100 = 20%
Hence, option a.

Q12. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Ɵ = 6|5h – 11m/12|
Here, h = 8 and m = 15
∴ Ɵ = 6[5(8) – 11(15)/12]
= 240 – 82.5 = 157.5°
Hence, option d.

Q13. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
The given statements can be represented as shown below:
 Berry

Red
Jam

Grapes

Since all Jam is Red and all Red is Berry, it can be concluded that all Jam is Berry.
Hence, conclusion I follows.
Some Grape is Jam and all Jam is Red. Hence, every Grape that is Jam has to be Red. Hence,
some Red is Grape. Hence, conclusion II follows.
Since it is concluded that some Grape is Red and it is known that all Red is Berry, it can be
said that some Grape is Berry. Hence, conclusion III follows.
Hence, all three conclusions follow.
Hence, option c.

Q14. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Since 2024 is a leap year, it will have 366 days i.e. 52 weeks + 2 days.
Hence, there can be either 52 Saturdays or 53 Saturdays in this year.
∴ P(at least 52 Saturdays) = 1
Since any two consecutive days will be present twice, there can be seven possibilities: Sat-
Sun, Sun-Mon, Mon-Tue, Tue-Wed, Wed-Thu, Thu-Fri or Fri-Sat. Of these 7, only 2 have a
Saturday i.e. Fri-Sat and Sat-Sun.
∴ P(exactly 53 Saturdays) = 2/7
∴ P(exactly 52 Saturdays) = 1 – (2/7) = 5/7
Hence, option c.

Q15. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Let the required number be x.
Since x leaves a remainder of 7 when divided by 9, 11 and 12; (x – 7) is divisible by 9, 11 and
12.
Hence, (x – 7) is a multiple of the LCM of 9, 11 and 12.
LCM (9, 11, 12) = 396
Since x is a multiple of 13, x is of the form 13k.
∴ (13k – 7) = multiple of 396
The minimum value is 396 + 7 = 403
403 is also a multiple of 13.
Hence, the required value is 403.
Hence, option c.

Q16. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Let there be 100 students in all.
Students selected for cricket = (2/5) × 100 = 40
∴ Students selected for football = 100 – 40 = 60
Now, students shifted from cricket to football = 15% of 40 = 6
Students shifted from football to cricket = 25% of 60 = 15
∴ Number of students in cricket = 40 – 6 + 15 = 49 and number of students in football = 60 –
15 + 6 = 51
∴ Difference between cricket and football = 51 – 49 = 2
The actual difference is 400.
Hence, actual number of students = 100 × (400/2) = 20000
Hence, option d.

Q17. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Cost of 40 bananas = Cost of 50 apples
∴ Cost of 20 bananas = Cost of 25 apples
Since Manoj spends equal amounts on apples and bananas – and he buys 20 bananas – he
has to buy 25 apples.
Hence, option b.

Q18. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Let the numerator be x and denominator of the fraction be y.
∴ (x + 1)/y = 7/19
∴19x – 7y = −19 … (i)
Also: x/(y + 1) = 1/3
∴ 3x = y + 1 … (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii): x = 13 and y = 38
∴ Original fraction = 13/38
Hence, option a.

Q19. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Let the price (in Rs.) of each chickoo, banana and lemon be x, y and z.
∴ 3x + 7y + z = 285 ... (1)
and 4x + 5y + z = 245 ... (2)
The amount paid by Harish = x + 11y + z
Multiplying equation (1) by 3 and equation (2) by 2; you get
9x + 21y + 3z = 855 ... (3)
and 8x + 10y + 2z = 490 ... (4)
Equation (3) – (4) gives:
x + 11y + z = 365
Hence, Harish has to pay Rs. 365.
Hence, option b.

Q20. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The given statements can be represented as shown below:

Four

One Two Three

From the above figure, neither conclusion I nor conclusion III follows.
Since some Two is Three and all Three is Four, there are definitely some Two that are Four.
Hence, some Two is definitely Four. Hence, conclusion II follows.
Hence, option b.

Q21. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The passage describes flaws in India’s policies in managing the onion supply chain. Due to
lack of scientific warehouses and a political priority assigned to onions, India exports far fewer
onions than it should. The passage also explains how nearly 30% onions are lost due to lack
of suitable warehousing. Thus, while managing domestic demand is not a problem, this
wastage affects India’s ability to export.
Option d becomes the most suitable inference in this case. If storage loss is controlled, the
saved onions can be exported as domestic demand is being met even now.
Option a is incorrect because farmers getting low prices for onions has not been attributed to
lack of appropriate warehousing but due to a combination of factors.
Option b is incorrect because urban markets have been shown to be a political driver of the
domestic onion demand. There is no evidence to suggest that they benefit the most.
Option c is incorrect because India’s problem is not about managing domestic stock but about
reducing wastage and exporting more.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.
Q22. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The gist of the passage is that despite being the second largest producer of onions and
producing more onions than we consume, we don’t export enough. This is due to faulty policies
and a weak supply chain. Hence, the authors feels that we do not know how to manage our
surplus onion crop. This makes option a valid.
Option b is incorrect as onions being in the list of essential commodities is only one reason for
it being exported less. There are other factors mentioned that can solve this problem.
Option c is invalid because there is no supporting data in the passage.
Option d is invalid because the farmers not getting a remunerative price has been linked to a
number of factors.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q23. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The passage describes the situation of terminally-ill and comatose patients and their
helplessness and their lack of dignity. This is also highlighted by the fact that most doctors
treating such patients could not visualise themselves in that situation.
Both assumptions are invalid because the passage attributes the reluctance to be hospitalised
in such a situation to the lack of dignity and misery of seeing the patients in those conditions –
surrounded by equipment and subject to experimentation. There is no indication that the
hospital conditions are poor or inconducive.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.

Q24. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The passage contrasts the manner in which each generation could influence political decisions
of their time. It says that previous generations lacked the direct mechanism for influencing
political system, thereby directly encouraging revolutions to overthrow the political order.
Today’s generation has the power to influence decisions through social media. However, the
passage also cautions that this might make the current generation simply armchair experts
who can only give advice.
Thus, the effect of social media in influencing political systems has led to fewer revolutions, as
mentioned in option a.
Option b is incorrect because revolutions have actually been mentioned as a tool of political
change.
Option c is incorrect because the passage emphasizes on converting the voice of youth to
actions.
Option d is incorrect because social media has been considered the preferred tool for this
generation. This does not make it the primary tool.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q25. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The passage describes the rationale behind social distancing measures and why they might
be useful. It also cautions against treating them as fail-safe measures as these are based on
models rather than solid evidence. Hence, the overall view of the author is that social
distancing, while useful, is a hit-or-miss measure in order to engineer a delay of the spread of
the virus. Hence, option a is valid.
Option b is invalid because there is no evidence to prove this.
Option c is invalid because ‘social distancing’ is very different from ‘social mixing’ of the
population.
While work-from-home strategies may have been implemented because of absence of
vaccines, the reverse may not necessarily be true. The presence of vaccines does not mean
elimination of need of work-form-home strategies.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q26. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The passage indicates that though road safety incidents have decreased, the number of
fatalities or injuries have not decreased significantly. However, this does not register as sharply
as, say, a pandemic. These are ignored as they do not happen as acutely as events like
pandemics. Hence, governments show indifference towards such incidents. Hence, the most
important implication is that governments are not doing enough to increase road safety. Hence,
option d is valid.
Option a is invalid because governments not being concerned about certain causes of deaths
is not the same as not being concerned about the life of individuals.
While the passage alludes to pandemics being damaging, the loss due to pandemics has not
been compared to road safety incidents. This eliminates options b and c.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.

Q27. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The passage is talking mainly about the key to happiness. The passage starts by telling us
what was happiness for Greeks. Towards the end, the passage tells us that what was right for
the Greeks is also true for us. Hence, the main idea is the key to happiness, as given in option
a.
Option b is incorrect because it misses out the last implication i.e. the key of happiness right
now.
Options c and d are both incomplete and cover only part of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q28. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
According to the passage, moral behaviour was not the same as that of a holy man. It was
good for a ruler (role) to engage in violence but wrong for those engaged in learning (role), i.e.
the morality depended on the role. This validates option c, while eliminating the rest.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.

Q29. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Since F is third to the right of C, C and F are at the extreme left and extreme right respectively.
Also, G is opposite H.
___ ___ G ___ or ___ G ___ ___
C B H F C H B F
Now, B is opposite the person who is to the immediate left of D. This condition is not possible
in the second case. Hence, the final arrangement is:
D A/E G A/E
C B H F
The statements in options a, c and d may or may not be true.
The statement in option b is definitely true.
Hence, option c.

Q30. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Consider the solution to the previous question.
Either A or E is to the immediate left of D.
Hence, option d.

Q31. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Let the terms be a, b, c and d; such that a is the required term.
∴ a + b + c + d = 120
Also, a = (b + c + d)/3 i.e. b + c + d = 3a
∴ a + 3a = 120 i.e. a = 30
Hence, the required number is 30.
Hence, option c.

Q32. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Let the quantity of pure flour be 100 kg.
Now, Rajbir adds 20 kg of white cement to it.
Now, the quantity is 120 kg and 10% white cement is added.
Hence, Rajbir has 1.1 × 120 = 132 kg of mixture, which has only 100 kg actual flour.
∴ Total C.P. = 100 × 20 = Rs. 2,000
and total S.P. = 132 × 22 = Rs. 2,904
∴ Profit = 2904 – 2000 = Rs. 904
∴ % profit = (904/2000) × 100
= 45.2%
Hence, option d.

Q33. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
S.I. paid by Puja = (P × R × 2)/100
∴ 100 = 2PR/100
∴ PR = 5000 … (i)
C.I. received by Puja = P[1 + (R/100)]2 – P = P + 2PR/100 + PR2/10000 – P = 2PR/100 +
PR2/10000
∴ 110 = 2(5000/100) + (5000R/10000)
∴ 110 = 100 + 0.5R
∴ 0.5R = 10 i.e. R = 20
∴ P = 5000/20 = Rs. 250
Hence, option a.

Q34. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Let there be 100 employees.
Hence, there are 40 men and 60 women.
Number of employees earning more than Rs. 30,000 per year = 45% of 100 = 45
Number of men earning more than Rs. 30,000 per year = 75% of 40 = 30
∴ Number of women earning more than Rs. 30,000 per year = 45 – 30 = 15
∴ Number of women earning at most Rs. 30,000 per year = 60 – 15 = 45
∴ Required ratio = 45/60 = 3/4
Hence, option a.

Q35. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Let the maximum marks be x.
Varsha gets 42% marks, which is 12 percentage points more than the passing marks.
Hence, the passing marks correspond to 30%.
Hence, Sharmila gets 0.2x while the passing marks are 0.3x.
Also, Sharmila fails by 15 marks.
∴ 0.3x – 0.2x = 15
∴ x = 150
Hence, option d.

Q36. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Let the total work correspond to 56 units.
Let Vinay, Pradeep and Rohit individually do a, b and c units of work.
∴ a + b = 56/14 = 4; b + c = 56/8 = 7; c + a = 56/7 = 8
∴ c = 5.5, a = 2.5, b = 1.5
Since b is the least, Pradeep is the least efficient.
∴ Time taken by Pradeep alone = 56/1.5 = 37.33 days
Hence, the least efficient person takes approximately 38 days.
Hence, option a.

Q37. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The serial number has to be a unique four-digit even number using the digits 0-4 without
repetition and ignoring 0 as the starting digit.
The units place can be occupied by 0, 2 or 4.5
Case I: Units digit is 0.
Hence, the thousands, hundreds and tens place digit can be chosen from 1-4 in 4, 3 and 2
ways respectively.
∴ Number of ways = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24
Case II: Units digit is2 or 4.
Hence, units digit can be selected in 2 ways.
Since the thousands digit cannot be 0, this digit can be selected 1, 3, (2 or 4) in 3 ways.
The remaining 2 digits can be selected in 3 and 2 ways.
∴ Number of ways = 3 × 3 × 2 × 2 = 36
∴ Total unique serial numbers = 24 + 36 = 60
Hence, option a.

Q38. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
n(S) = number of possible outcomes when three dice are thrown = 63 = 216
Let A’ be the event that no dice shows a five. Hence, each dice can show one of five possible
outcomes i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 or 6.
∴ n(A’) = 53 = 125
∴ n(A) = 216 – 125 = 91
∴ Required probability = 91/216
= 0.42
Hence, option a.

Q39. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Total length = 131 + 119 = 250 m
Since the trains are travelling in opposite directions,
Relative speed = 42 + 48 = 90 kmph = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s
∴ Time taken = total length/relative speed = 250/25 = 10 seconds
Hence, option b.

Q40. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Observe that the number of students remains constant at 20.
Hence, if the average drops by 4 marks, the total marks should have fallen by 20 × 4 = 80
marks
Hence, the new student should have scored 80 marks less than the topper.
∴ Marks scored by new student = 90 – 80 = 10
This student fails by 30 marks.
∴ Passing marks = 10 + 30 = 40
Hence, option b.

Q41. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
The passage focuses on the link between food habits and mental health. It discusses the
increasing prevalence of food-related issues and eating disorders. It also laments the current
emotional disconnect with the food being eaten and the absence of thought being put in
towards the kind of food we are eating. This clearly infers, as given in option c, that eating
habits influence our mental health.
While option a may be true in reality, the passage focuses on the unhealthy aspects of mental
health and their link with food. Unhealth food is not being discussed here. Hence, option a is
incorrect.
Option b is incorrect because loss of life has been linked in the passage to mental health issues
rather than unhealthy eating habits.
Option d is incorrect because the emotional disconnect has been mentioned more in context
of urban Indian while body image issues have been discussed as a generic problem.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.

Q42. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
The passage revolves around the idea of mental health being affected by food habits. It points
out the increase in such cases, the identification of such issues even without diagnosis and
the current emotional disconnect with food. Thus, the overall main idea is the relationship
between eating and health. Hence, option c is valid.
Option a is incorrect because the actual psychological concerns are not being discussed.
However, the existence and prevalence of such psychological issues is being pointed out.
Option b is incorrect because healthy eating trends are not discussed at all.
Option d is incorrect because the emotional connect with food is only part of the overall
discussion.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.
Q43. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The passage makes a case for the introduction of smart meters considering the current
technology available with discoms. Since smart meters can detect theft, they are beneficial but
this is not enough to prove their viability. However, two other conditions need to be satisfied
for it to detect all kinds of thefts – vigilance and analytics. Vigilance requires political will and
analytics have to be incorporated in regular business practices, irrespective of the status of
meters. Hence, it logically follows that political will is a necessary condition for ensuring viability
of smart meters. This makes option b valid.
Option a is invalid because the viability of smart meters is being considered, rather than the
viability of discoms themselves.
Option c is invalid because the passage just says that discoms need to make analytics a
regular part of their business. It does not compare of businesses using different levels of
analytics.
Option d is incorrect because the passage clearly mentions that it is nearly impossible to
pinpoint all forms of theft even with smart meters.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.

Q44. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The passage clearly mentions that smart meters need to be accompanied by high vigilance
levels and usage of data analytics to detect all kinds of theft. Based on this, option a
undermines the premise of the passage while option b strengthens it.
If states with and without smart meters have similar theft meters, then states having high
vigilance and smart meters are not benefitting. This weakens the case for smart meters.
If theft cases have dropped by close to 50% due to usage of analytics, the case for smart
meters with analytics becomes stronger.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q45. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
The passage describes the ill-effects of high stress levels in the workplace on the physical and
mental health of employees. It starts by first claiming that some amount of stress is possibly
beneficial as well as desirable. However, once stress increases beyond a point, it affects a
person’s work efficiency, productivity and physical health. It finally recommends that standards
for mental health and safety may control stress levels.
Hence, it can be said that managing stress levels at the workplace is important to manage the
productivity and efficiency therein. This validates option c.
Option a is incorrect as the passage does not put the onus on coping with stress on individuals.
Option b is incorrect because the passage argues against excess stress at the workplace.
Option d is incorrect as it contradicts the premise of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.

Q46. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The passage focuses on the impact of distrust in the times of this epidemic. It claims that while
trust at multiple levels is most required at this stage, the reverse is happening. This is partially
due to the spreading of fake and racist news on social media. Hence, it puts the responsibility
on governments and opinion makers among people to keep a check on fake news and take
actions that allow for an increase in trust levels. All of these support option b as the correct
inference.
Option a is incorrect because the passage puts the blame of the trust gap on people’s misuse
of social media, government’s lack of control on it and some amount due to mental issues
cause by the pandemic. The pandemic alone cannot be blamed.
Option c is incorrect because the role of social media in handling epidemics has not been
discussed in the passage.
Option d is incorrect because it reverse the cause-effect relationship of the two factors
mentioned. Increasing distrust is an outcome of fake news.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.

Q47. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The whole passage revolves around the issue of trust gap and the need for reducing it while
facing an epidemic. This supports option a.
Option b is incorrect because the exacerbating health situation has just been mentioned as
one possible cause of the mistrust. It is not the main point.
Option c, while partially true, is not the ideal answer as the passage puts the onus of decreasing
the trust gap on both public authorities and individual influencers.
Option d is incorrect because it contradicts the idea of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q48. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Consider the difference between consecutive terms: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49.
This forms a series of consecutive squares.
Hence, the next difference has to be 64 and the next term is 140 + 64 = 204
Hence, option c.

Q49. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Since the watch gains 6 seconds every 3 minutes, it gains 2 minutes per hour.
Actual time elapsed from 7:00 am on Tuesday to 7:00 am on Wednesday is 24 hours.
∴ Time gained by watch = 2(24) = 48 minutes
∴ Time shown by watch = 7:48 am
Hence, option a.

Q50. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Ajay’s contribution = 1 – (1/3 + 1/6) = 1/2
∴ Ratio of contribution of Vijay : Sanjay : Ajay = 1/3 : 1/6 : 1/2 = 2 : 1 : 3
Also, Vijay and Ajay withdraw their investment after 6 months and 4 months respectively.
∴ Ratio of profits for Vijay : Sanjay : Ajay
= (2 × 6) : (1 × 12) : (3 × 4)
= 12 : 12 : 12 = 1 : 1 : 1
Hence, the profit of Rs. 15,000 is equally shared between them. Hence, Sanjay gets Rs. 5,000
as profit.
Hence, option d.

Q51. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Consider the difference between consecutive terms: 42, 84, __, __
Thus, the difference is a multiple of 42. Hence, the next two differences have to be 126 and
168 respectively.
Hence, the next term is 361 – 126 = 235 and it can be verified that 235 – 168 = 67 i.e. last
term.
Hence, option b.

Q52. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Colors = Only Colors + Only Colors and Zee + Only Colors and Star + All three channels
Only Colors = 2 (all three channels) + 5
= 2(30) + 5 = 65
∴ Only Colors and Star = Only Colors = 65
∴ 180 = 65 + Only Colors and Zee + 65 + 30
∴ Only Colors and Zee = 180 – 160 = 20
Hence, option b.

Q53. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Seven times (7).
Step 1. Farmer crosses the river with the goat.
Step 2. Goat stays. The farmer returns
Step 3. Farmer crosses the river with the wolf.
Step 4. The wolf stays. The farmer returns with the goat.
Step 5. The farmer crosses the river with the cabbage.
Step 6. Cabbage stays. Farmer returns
Step 7. Farmer crosses the river with the goat. Everyone including the farmer, the goat, the
cabbage and the wolf is on the other side of the river.

Q54. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Three times (3). Refer to Steps 1, 4 and 7 of the previous explanation.

Q55. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Observe that:
9 = 8 × 1 + 12
22 = 9 × 2 + 22
75 = 22 × 3 + 32
9666 = 1605 × 6 + 62
Hence, required term = 75 × 4 + 42 = 300 + 16 = 316
You can verify that 316 × 5 + 52 = 1580 + 25 = 1605
Hence, option a.

Q56. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
In Simple Interest, if the time period doubles, the interest also doubles.
In the second case, since the interest has increased by Rs. 1,500 (after doubling); the original
interest also has to be Rs. 1,500.
In the first case, Rs. P yields an interest of Rs. 1,500 while Rs. (P + 250) yields an interest of
1500 + 150 = Rs. 1,650.
∴ P/(P + 250) = 1500/1650 = 10/11
∴ 11P = 10P + 2500 i.e. P = 2500
Hence, option c.

Q57. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The position of all the people w.r.t. each other is as shown below:
 Mahesh 7 km Kunal

Harish

6 km 8 km

18 km

Suresh 10 km Gautam

Vicky

Consider Gautam and Kunal.

Horizontal distance = 7 km
Vertical distance = 8 km
∴ Shortest distance = √[(8)2 + (7)2] = √(64 + 56) = √120 = 11 km (approx)
Consider Suresh and Vicky
Horizontal distance = 10 + 7 = 17 km
Vertical distance = 18 – 8 = 10 km
∴ Shortest distance = √[(17)2 + (10)2] = √289 + 100 = √389 = 20 km (approx)
∴ Required distance = 20 – 11 = 9 km
Hence, option a.

Q58. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Consider the position of all the people w.r.t. each other.
Harish is to the north-west of Vicky.
Hence, option c.

Q59. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Original quantity of oil and water is 24 litres and 16 litres.
Let the final quantity of water be a.
10 litres is being removed from 40 litres twice.
∴ a/16 = [1 – (10/40)]2 = 9/16
∴a=9
Hence, the final solution has 9 litres of water and 31 litres of oil.
∴ Required ratio = 9 : 31
Hence, option c.

Q60. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Let Ganesh travel x hours at 20 kmph and (8 – x) hours at 70 kmph.
∴ 20x + 70(8 – x) = 400
∴ 20x + 560 – 70x = 400
∴ 50x = 160 i.e. x = 3.2
Hence, he travelled at 20 kmph for 3 hours and 12 minutes
Hence, option a.

Q61. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The passage emphasises on the increasing importance of the internet and its increasing
inclusion in the fundamental right to speech and expression. It also mentions that governments
are prone to impose restrictions on the internet for extraordinary circumstances of state
security and public order. Hence, the logical corollary is that such that restrictions on internet
usage are only justifiable in extraordinary circumstances. This supports option b.
Option a is incorrect because the passage just emphasises on the importance of information
dissemination using the internet as a tool. It does not consider the process of information
dissemination as fundamental to existence.
Option c is incorrect because it considers the government’s intervention in select cases as a
general reluctance to encourage freedom of expression.
Option d is incorrect because it expands the given point to a much larger discussion on
domination of digital connections.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.

Q62. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
The passage is talking about how the expansion of infrastructure is creating problems instead
of solving them. It then gives examples of the same for both electric companies and ports as
well as railways. It also shows the different nature of problems at the macro and micro levels
and then shows the twin effect of the same on wastage and lack of amenities. Using the
example of ports and trains, the passage explains how lack of capacity is affecting expansion
of mining. This supports option c.
Option a is incorrect because the rate of demand is not covered in the passage.
Option b is incorrect because incompetence and corruption have been mentioned as problems
under micro infrastructure rather than macro infrastructure.
Option d is incorrect because the expansion of infrastructure, rather than lack of it, is a problem
at macro and micro levels.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.

Q63. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The passage links the evolution and spread of TB to the then existing social conditions in
Britain. It explains how Britain and France faced similar social problems. While Britain initiated
social reforms and resolved them, France had to face a revolution. This also gave Britain
another major benefit i.e. it could manage to control TB. However, since it ruled other nations
then, those nations were impoverished and could not handle TB. Hence, the passage shows
the indirect link between Britain and the spread of TB in poorer countries. Hence option a is
valid.
Option b is clearly incorrect because the French Revolution has been called a result of France
ignoring social deprivation.
Option c is incorrect because it extrapolates Britain’s example to other countries. This is not
necessarily true.
Option d is incorrect because the advent of TB in poorer countries is attributed to Britain’s
methods.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q64. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The passage explains how a lockdown affects various people and that certain sections like
daily wage workers, small traders, roadside vendors etc are affected much worse than
economically stable people. It explains how they lose their savings, jobs and even capacity to
earn due to hunger, weakness and potential illness. As such, they also do not have alternatives
to survive during the crisis. This supports option b.
Option a is incorrect as the passage indicates that economically better-off people may not be
dependent on salaries for regular survival. The link with income is not established.
Option c, while possibly true in reality, is not appropriate here as it considers a generalised
scenario of economic disruptions compared to the more specific lockdown.
Option d is incorrect as it contradicts the passage by saying that the breadwinner of the low-
income families is not susceptible to diseases.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.

Q65. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The overall theme of the passage is that the poor and low-income groups are affected far more
by the lockdown than the well-off. Its causes and effects are both explained. This is best
supported by option d.
Option a is incorrect because the passage is only concerned with the impact on two groups of
people. The interaction between the two is not considered.
Option b is incorrect because the role of the government has not been covered in the passage.
Option c is incorrect because the passage just mentions lack of physical strength post such a
lockdown as reason for the increasing troubles of the poor.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.

Q66. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The passage shows the early usage of the internet by the author and highlights the use of a
specific app called Highlight Status. It also shows how this app allowed users to post witty
slogans to look smarter and how the author understood the application of authenticity by editing
statuses available on Highlight Status. This editing was done because direct use of the app
would get caught easily and editing these statuses made the author look original. Hence, the
clear implication is that it was important for the author to look original during school days.
Hence, option a is correct.
Option b is incorrect because originality, more than just social media, was an essential aspect
of the author’s identity during school days.
Option c is incorrect because the author just mentions one example when her status was
possibly related to some incident in school. This does not mean that all her statuses reflected
the ongoing drama at school.
Option d is incorrect because the pink icon is just mentioned as a giveaway identifying the
source of the status. The author’s opinion is not mentioned.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.

Q67. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The status ‘Always forgive your enemies…nothing annoys them so much!’ is just one of the
statuses used by the author. This cannot be assumed as a general truth.
The passage just mentions that the author tried to manufacture authenticity while using social
media. Again, this cannot be assumed to believe that all authenticity manufacturing requires
social media.
Hence, neither assumption is valid.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.

Q68. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The letter that is seventh to the left of the letter that is thirteenth from the extreme right end is
equivalent to the (7 + 13) i.e. 20th letter from the extreme right end.
This letter is F.
Hence, option b.

Q69. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
SFJVSPEWJSSFSFKFGEGWCAFFJFFOWWFNG
No vowel satisfies the given condition.
Hence, option c.

Q70. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The following males and females are known:
Females: A, J and Males: D, P
J is the sister of R and daughter of Q. Also, D is the father of R.
Hence, D-Q have to be a couple such that D is the husband and Q is the wife.
This also means that Q is the third female while R and C are males.
D is the brother of C and A is the mother of C. Hence, A is the mother of both D and C.
J is the daughter of Q and P is the father-in-law of Q. Hence, P-A have to be a couple such
that P is the husband and A is the wife.
Finally, J is the sister of R.
Hence, the final family tree is:

A P

C D Q

R J

C, R and J can either be engineers or accountants.

Based on this, all three statements may or may not be true.
Hence, option d.

Q71. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Consider the solution to the earlier question.
P and D are definitely lawyers.
Now, C and R have to be engineers or lawyers; and can’t be accountants.
Since there has to be at least one accountant, J is the accountant.
Hence, J – Accountant is the correct pair.
Hence, option d.

Q72. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Consider the solution to the first question.
Options a and b may or may not be true.
Option c is definitely false.
Option d is definitely true.
Hence, option d.

Q73. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The four lectures for the first day can be selected in 8P4 ways i.e. 8!/4! ways.
Now, only four lectures are left for the second day. These can be scheduled among themselves
in 4! ways.
∴ Total ways = (8!/4!) × 4! = 8!
Hence, option b.

Q74. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The following pairs satisfy the given condition: UO, NE, ND, UT, ED.
Hence, there are five such pairs.
Hence, option b.

Q75. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
n(S) = total ways to draw a ticket from 1 to 50 = 50
Number of multiples of 4 up to 50 = 12
Number of multiples of 6 up to 50 = 8
LCM of 4 and 6 = 12
Number of multiples of 12 up to 50 = 4
∴ n(A) = number of tickets with a multiple of 4 or 6 on it = 12 + 8 − 4 = 16
∴ Required probability = 16/50 = 8/25
Hence, option d.

Q76. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Observe that 5, 2, 1 and 6 are all next to 3. Hence, 4 is opposite 3.
Hence, 3-4 form one pair of opposite faces. This eliminates options b and c.
If you rotate the second dice such that 3 becomes the right face, then 1 becomes the bottom
face and 6 becomes the back face.
In this case, 2-1 and 5-6 are opposite each other. Hence, 5 and 6 could be opposite each
other.
Hence, option d.

Note: If 1 was opposite 5, then 3 would be the right face and 6 would be the top face. This
would contradict the existing data that 3 is right face and 2 is top face. Hence, 1 and 5 cannot
be opposite each other.
Q77. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Figure I is incorrect as it directly contradicts the first figure given i.e. 1 on the right face instead
of 3.
Figure II is incorrect as 3 and 4 cannot be on adjacent faces.
Figure III is obtained by first rotating the first figure to the right and then taking the face with 3
to the top.
Hence, option c.

Q78. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Since all six teams play their first match on the first Sunday, there are three matches that day.
Similarly, there are three matches every Sunday.
The schedule of matches that is directly given is as shown below:

Match Match
Match 2
1 3
Pune
Mumbai Chennai –
Sunday 1 –
- Jaipur Bangalore
Delhi
Mumbai
Sunday 2
- Delhi
Chennai -
Sunday 3
Pune
Sunday 4
Sunday 5
Observe that, on the second Sunday, Chennai cannot play its second match against Mumbai
or Delhi (as they play against each other), Pune or Bangalore (as it plays against them on
other Sundays).
Hence, on the second Sunday, Chennai plays against Jaipur and Bangalore plays against
Pune.
Hence, option b.

Q79. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Consider the set of fixtures obtained for the first two Sundays (from the previous solution).
Match
Match 2 Match 3
1
Mumbai Chennai – Pune –
Sunday 1
- Jaipur Bangalore Delhi
Mumbai Chennai - Pune –
Sunday 2
- Delhi Jaipur Bangalore
 Chennai -
Sunday 3
Pune
Sunday 4
Sunday 5
Now, Mumbai has already played Jaipur and Delhi; and cannot play Chennai or Pune on the
third Sunday (as they are playing each other). Hence, Mumbai plays Bangalore and Delhi plays
Jaipur on the third Sunday.
Hence, option a.

Q80. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Consider the set of fixtures obtained for the first three Sundays (from the earlier solutions).
Match 1 Match 2 Match 3
Sunday 1 Mumbai - Jaipur Chennai – Bangalore Pune – Delhi
Sunday 2 Mumbai - Delhi Chennai - Jaipur Pune – Bangalore
Sunday 3 Mumbai - Bangalore Chennai - Pune Jaipur – Delhi
Sunday 4
Sunday 5
Since Mumbai - Pune is on Sunday 5, Mumbai – Chennai (only combination left) is on Sunday
4. Hence, Chennai – Delhi is on Sunday 5.
Now, Delhi has already played against Pune, Mumbai, Jaipur and Chennai (on Sunday 5).
Hence, Delhi-Bangalore is on Sunday 4 and Bangalore-Jaipur is on Sunday 5.
Hence, the final schedule is:
Match 1 Match 2 Match 3
Chennai –
Sunday 1 Mumbai - Jaipur Pune – Delhi
Bangalore
Pune –
Sunday 2 Mumbai - Delhi Chennai - Jaipur
Bangalore
Mumbai -
Sunday 3 Chennai - Pune Jaipur – Delhi
Bangalore
Mumbai - Bangalore –
Sunday 4 Jaipur - Pune
Chennai Delhi
Jaipur –
Sunday 5 Mumbai – Pune Chennai - Delhi
Bangalore
Hence, option d.