KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK

KCSE 2024 EXAMS

ALL SUBJECTS
Series 1 of the Bright-Mind Mock Examinations for All Schools interested with the
Joint Evaluation Test. A Standard KCSE Model Set of Exam Designed by the
Mwalimu Consultancy Examiners Panel.

SUBJECTS EXAMINED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography,
History, Business Studies, IRE, Agriculture, Home-science &Computer Studies.

SERIES 1

For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000

MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

Candidates Score

Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. a) State the benefits of learning Christian Religious education in secondary schools.(8 marks)

b) Explain the differences between Biblical causes of sin and Traditional African understanding of

evil. (7 marks)

c) Identify Ways in w h ich the Bible is misused in Kenya today. (5 marks)

2. a) Explain seven characteristics of the covenant between God and Abraham. (7 marks)

b) Outline the activities carried out by the Israelites on the night of the Passover. (6 marks)

c) What do Christians learn about the nature of God from the Exodus? (7 marks)

3. a) Explain four factors that led to the spread of idolatry in Israel during the time of Elijah.

(8 marks)

b) How did God manifest his power during Prophet Elijah’s ministry? (6 marks)

c) Give six reasons why Christians build churches. (6 marks)

4. a) Explain the role of prophets in the Old Testament. (7 marks)

b) Identify the social injustices condemned by prophet Amos in Israel. (7 marks)

c) How is the church promoting justice in the society today? (6 marks)

5. a) What did the Jews promise before Ezra the priest during the renewal of the covenant?

(7 marks)

b) Identify final reforms carried out by Nehemiah to restore worship of God in Judah. (6 marks)

c) Identify seven ways in which Christians observe the day of worship. (7 marks)

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6. a) Explain the roles performed by ancestors in traditional African communities. (8 marks)

b) Outline six requirements for a sacrifice to be offered. (6 marks)

c) Give three changes that have taken place in the traditional African understanding of property

(6 marks)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

Candidates Score

Answer any five questions

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1 a) outline Isaiah’s prophecy about the messiah on the suffering servant in Isaiah 53. (8mks).

b) Describe the message of angel Gabriel to Mary according to Luke 1:26-38 (6mks)

c) Outline six lessons on family relationships drawn from the incident when Jesus accompanied

his parents to the temple at the age of twelve (6mks)

2 a) with reference to Luke 5:17-26, describe the healing of the paralytic man (8mks).

b) State seven teachings of Jesus on true discipleship from the sermon on the plain (7mks).

c) Give reasons why modern Christians should accept to suffer in Christ’s name (5mks).

3a Describe the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman in Luke 7:36-50. (8mks)

b) Give six reasons why Jesus chose the twelve Disciples. (6mks).

c) Identify six ways in which Christians prepare themselves for the coming of God’s kingdom

(6mks).

4a) Describe the New Testament teachings on unity of believers based on the image of the bride

(8mks).

b) How was the life of Peter transformed on the day of Pentecost? (6mks).

c) Outline Saint Paul’s teaching on how the gifts of the Holy Spirit should be used in the church

(6mks).

5.a) Explain the traditional African understanding of marriage. (7mks)

b) List six forms of abuse that children go through in child labour. (6mks)

c) Give seven criteria that Christians use to evaluate the use of leisure. (7mks)

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6.a) Identify eight reasons why people engage in corrupt practices in Kenya today. (8mks)

b) In which ways are people punished in Kenya for causing social disorders? (6mks)

c) How can Christians today help to improve the Environment? (6mks)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of three sections A,B,C
 Answer all questions in section A, choose three questions in section B and two questions in
section C
 Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidates should answer questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION A SECTION B SECTION C
1-17
18 19 20 21 22 23 24

SECTION A-25 MARKS

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 Answer all questions from this section
1. Identify the branch of history that deals with control systems in the society. (1mk)
2. Identify one community in Kenya which belongs to the Southern Cushitic group. (1mk)
3. State one political function of the Oloibon among the Maasai during the 19th century. (1mk)
4. Apart from Fort Jesus, name the other monument built by the Portuguese at the Kenyan coast.
(1mk)
5. State two ways in which Christianity undermined African culture. (2mks)
6. Identify the main reason for the formation of the inter-party parliamentary group (I.P.P.G) of
1997. (1mk)
7. Identify two education commissions established in Kenya before independence. (1mk)
8. Mention the treaty that brought to an end the scramble for and partition of East Africa.(1mk)
9. State one way in which national integration has promoted economic development in Kenya.
(1mk)
10. State two ways in which the rule of law is maintained in Kenya. (2mks)
11. Highlight two reforms that resulted from the Lyttleton constitution of 1954. (2mks)
12. Identify two pillars of Nyayo philosophy. (2mks)
13. Identify two situations when the office of the president may become vacant in Kenya. (2mks)
14. Identify two types of land ownership in Kenya. (2mks)
15. State the composition of the County Executive Committee. (2mks)
16. State one function of the supreme court of Kenya. (1mk)
17. Give two functions of the commission on revenue allocation in Kenya. (2mks)

SECTION B (ANSWER ANY THREE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION 45MKS)

18. (a) Give five reasons for the migration of the Luo from their original homeland into Kenya.
(5 marks)
(b) Describe the political organization of the Somali in Kenya during the pre-colonial period.
(10 marks)
19. a) Give three reasons why the early visitors came to the Kenyan coast before 1500A.D. (3mks)
b) Explain six factors that contributed to the development of trade between the Kenyan coast
and outside world by 1900. (12mks)

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20.a) Give five grievances of the Kikuyu Central Association which were presented by Jomo
Kenyatta to the colonial secretary in 1929. (5mks)
b) Explain five reasons why the MAUMAU movement was able to last for a long time.
(10mks)

21. a) State five features that characterized African socialism in Kenya. (5marks)
b)Explain five ways in which the Harambee philosophy has promoted the development of
education in Kenya. (10 marks)

SECTION C
(Answer Any Two Questions In This Section 30mks)
22. (a) State five characteristics of the human rights. (5marks)
b) Discuss the five methods used by the international community to solve conflicts. (10marks)

23. (a) State five reforms which have been introduced to improve the conditions of Correctional
Services. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five factors which undermine free and fair elections in Kenya. (10 marks)

24. (a) Name three types of constitutionally established funds in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b) Discuss six challenges facing devolved governments in Kenya. (12marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of three sections A,B,C
 Answer all questions in section A, choose three questions in section B and two questions in
section C
 Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidates should answer questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION A SECTION B SECTION C
1-17
18 19 20 21 22 23 24

SECTION A-25 MARKS

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 Answer all questions from this section
1) Identify two sources of information which can complement oral traditions in studying history and
government (2mks)
2) Give the makers of Oldowan tools. (1mk)
3) State the main reason that made the early man to set up permanent settlement (1mk)
4) State two ways in which agrarian revolution in Britain affected the lives of small farmers.
(2mks)
5) State two ways through which political instability has contributed to food shortage in Africa.
(2mks)
6) Name two parts in Africa that developed as a result of the Trans-Atlantic trade. (2mks)
7) What was the invention of the Wright brothers. (1mk)
8) State the symbol of unity of the provincial Asante in the 19th century (1mk)
9) Name two African leaders in the maji maji rebellion. (2mks)
10) Name one administrative method used by French to administer her colonies. (1mk)
11) Name one nationalist party that fought for independence of Mozambique. (1mk)
12) Name two systems of alliances formed during the First World War. (2mks)
13) Give the main cause of the cold war. (1mk)
14) Give two founders members of Non-Aligned movement. (2mks)
15) Give the main political challenge faced by Congo after independence. (1mk)
16) Name two past presidents of Tanzania. (2mks)
17) Name the body that determines the election of the president of the united state of America.
(1mk)
SECTION B (45MARKS)
Answer Any Three Questions)
18) (a)State three reasons why early man moved from forests to settle in grass land in the pre-
colonial era. (3mks)
(b)Describe the way of life of early man during the Old Stone Age period. (12mks)

19) Give three reasons why African slaves were preferred during the Trans-Atlantic trade. (3mks)
(b)Explain six challenges encountered by Trans-Saharan traders. (12mks)

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20) (a)Name three chartered companies that ruled European territories in Africa during the 19th
century. (3mks)
(b)Explain six economic impacts of the partition of Africa among the European powers.
(12mks)
21) State five methods used by South Africa nationalists in the struggle for independence.
(5mks)
(b)Explain five factors that favoured the success of FRELIMO nationalists during the struggle
for independence in Mozambique. (10mks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer Any Two Questions)
22) State five functions of the Lakiiko of the Buganda kingdom during the pre-colonial period.
(5mks)
(a) Describe the political organization of the Buganda during the pre-colonial period. (10mks)

23) (a)State five features of commonwealth. (5mks)

(b)Explain five causes of cold war. (10mks)

24) Give three conditions that one should fulfill in order to be elected president of India. (3mks)
(b)Explain six functions of the British parliament. (12mks)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
GEOGRAPHY
312/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
(a) Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A.
(e) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from Section B.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section.
1) a. Name three components of the solar system (3mks)
b. Give two weakness of the nebular cloud theory (2mks)
2) a. What is lunar eclipse (2mks)
b. Give the two dates of the year when equinoxes is experienced (2mks)
3) a. What is a sea breeze? (2mks)
b. Give the four main zones of the earth’s atmosphere (4mks)
4) a. Name three man-made lakes in Kenya (3mks)
b. State two reasons why some Rift valley lakes in Kenya have saline water (2mks)
5) a. Define the term climate (2mks)
b. Mention any three consequences of climate changes (3mks)

SECTION B
Answer questions 6 and any other two questions in this section.
6.a. Study the map of Kisumu East (1:50,000) Kenya sheet 116/2 provided and answer the
following questions.
i) What is the title of the map? (1mk)
ii) identify two types natural vegetation in the area covered by the map. (2mks)
iii) Identify three man made features in grid square 0494. (3mks)
b. i) draw a rectangle to represent the area enclosed by Eastings 04 to 07 and Northings 85 to 87.
Enlarge it twice marking and naming following features; (5mks)
- road c544
-ditch
-swamp
-footpath
ii) Give the new scale of the enlarged section. (2mks)
c. i) Calculate the bearing of Ranjira school from the air Photo principal point (04) at grid
reference 0986. (2mks)
d. Identify four drainage features in the area covered by the map. (4mks)
e. Citing evidence from the map, explain three human factors that are likely to favour agriculture in
the area covered by the map. (6mks)

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7. (a) (i) Apart from surface run off, give two other processes in the hydrological cycle. (2 marks)
(ii) State three factors that determine the amount of surface run off. (3 marks)
(b) Explain three factors that influence the transportation of materials by a river. (6 marks)
(c) (i) What is river rejuvenation? (2 marks)
(ii) Explain three conditions that lead to rejuvenation of a river. (6 marks)
(d) Explain three negative effects of rivers to the human environment. (6 marks)

8. (a) Name one fold mountain in:

(i) Asia (1mk)
(ii) North America (1mk)
(iii) South Africa (1 mk)
(b) (i) Apart from fold mountains, name three other features resulting from folding. (3mks)
(ii) With the aid of labeled diagrams, describe the formation of an over thrust fold (5mks)
(c) Explain four effects of fold mountains on human activities . (8mks)
(d) Students are planning to carry out a field study on landforms in their conty.
(i) State three ways in which the students would prepare themselves for the field study.(3mks)
(ii) Give three advantages of studying landforms through field work (3mks)

9. The diagram below represents zones of natural vegetation on a mountain use it to answer
questions

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(a) (i) In your answer booklet, name the zones marked X,Y and Z (3mks)
(ii) Describe the characteristics of tropical Savannah vegetation (5mks)
(iii) State two reasons why the mountaintop has no vegetation (2mks)
(b) Explain three factors that have led to a decline of the natural grassland in Kenya. (6mks)
(c) Suppose you were to carry out a field study on the relationship between vegetation and altitude
(i)State three hypotheses you would formulate for your study (3mks)
(ii)State four methods you would use to record the information collected during the field study
(4mks)
(iii)Name the type of map you would draw to present your findings. (2mks)

10(a)Name two types of submerged coasts (2mks)

(b) Explain how the following factors determine the effectiveness of wave erosion along a coast
(i) Nature of the material transported by waves (3mks)
(ii) Nature of the coastal rocks (3mks)
(c) With the aid of labeled diagrams, describe the process through which a stack is formed (7mks)
(d) (i) State four conditions that favour the growth of coral. (4mks)
(ii) Explain three ways in which coral contributes to the economic development of Kenya.(6mks)
.

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
GEOGRAPHY
312/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
(a) Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A.
(e) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from Section B.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score

SECTION A
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 Answer all the questions in this section.
1) a) Give three reasons why we study Geography in secondary schools. (3mks)
b) Explain the relationship between geography and Agriculture. (2mks)

2) a) Give two underground mining methods. (2mks)

b) State three negative effects of mining on the environment. (3mks)

3) a) What is Agro-forestry? (2mks)

b) State three reasons why Agro-forestry is encouraged in Kenya. (3mks)

4) Name three legislations made by the government of Kenya governing environmental management
and conversation. (3mks)
b) Give two major causes of noise pollution. (2mks)

5) Study the map of the Ruhr Industries region and use it to answer the question that follows.

Name the River marked X. (1mk)

Name the canal marked Y. (1mk)
Apart from Iron and steel industries, name three other industries in the Ruhr regions. (3mks)

SECTION B. Answer question 6 and any other two.

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6) The table below shows crop production in Kenya from 1970 to 1973 in 000 tonnes.
1970 1971 1972 1973
Tea 160 170 175 220
Coffee 50 60 30 40
Wheat 25 75 40 25
Pyrethrum 10 20 25 35
ai) Which crop had the highest increase in tonnage between 1972 and 1973. (1mk)
ii) Calculate the percentage increase in tonnage from Tea between 1972 and 1973. (2mks)
iii) Using the scale of 1cm represent 50000 tonnes. Draw comparative/multiple bar graph to
represent the above data. (8mks)
bi) State three advantages of comparative bar graph. (3mks)
ii) Give the disadvantages of the comparative Bar graph. (2mks)
ci) State four physical conditions that favour growing of coffee in Kenya. (4mks)
ii) Describe the processing of coffee. (6mks)

7) ai) What is open cast mining? (2mks)

ii) Describe how shaft method is carried out. (5mks)
b) Explain four significance of mineral in Kenya. (8mks)
ci) Give three minerals that occur in veins. (3mks)
ii) Name two main areas where gold mining takes place in South Africa. (2mks)
iii) Describe the procedure of processing of gold. (5mks)

8) a) What is meant by population growth? (2mks)

b) Study the age-sex pyramids below and answer the questions that follow.

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c) What terms are used to describe the populations of Kenya and German based on the shapes of the
pyramids. (2mks)
d) Describe the population structure of German based. (5mks)
e) Give the reasons for the large witnessed in the Kenyan population in the first three age cohorts.
(4mks)
f) State the effects of the population structure showing by age-sex pyramid in Germany. (4mks)
g) Explain four factors that result to a slow population growth. (8mks)

9) ai) What is forestry? (2mks)

ii) Apart from tropical hardwood forest name two other types of natural forest. (2mks)
iii) State the problems experienced in exploitation of tropical hardwood forest. (2mks)
b) List five characteristics of planted forests in Kenya. (5mks)
c) Explain three factors that favour forestry in Canada. (6mks)
Give five measures that the government has taken to conserve and manage forests in Kenya.
(5mks)
Form four students in your school carried out a field study on forestry within the county.
Give three reasons they had to prepare a working schedule. (3mks)
What are the problems likely to be encountered during the field study? (2mks)

10) ai) Distinguish between a National Park and a Game Reserve. (2mks)
ii) State five reasons for establishment of National park and Game reserve. (5mks)
bi) Explain four problems facing the conservation of wildlife. (8mks)
ii) Give three positive effects of tourism. (3mks)
c) Explain four reasons why Switzerland receives more tourist than Kenya. (8mks)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
ENGLISH
101/1
PAPER 1
(Functional Writing, Close Text and Oral Skills)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, index number and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
c) Answer all the questions in this paper
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
20
10
30
Total Score 60

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20marks)
1. Kabwana, a public company that has been in transport business for many years, is to hold their
Annual General Meeting on 10/08/2024. As the company secretary;
(a) Write a notice of the meeting to be sent to members (8 MARKS)
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(b) Write the minutes of the meeting (12 MARKS)

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2. CLOZE TEST (10 MARKS)

Juveniles are very often ........1...........victims and perpetrators of rape. While rapists
.........2.......from all age groups and economic...............3........., studies show that...........4...........
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 rapists are males between ages of 15 and 24. It is no surprise, ................5............, that females in
that age group..........6...... frequently sexually assaulted and...........7....…..... The young
males............8............. commit these crimes do not.............9.......... that 'no' means 'no'. Our
society..............10...........the idea that anything goes, that nothing is forbidden. Many children
have never been told that certain types of behaviour cannot be tolerated.

3. (a) ORAL SKILLS (MARKS)

Harlem
What happens to a dream deferred?
Does it dry up?
Like a raisin in the sun?
Or fester like a sore--
And then run?
Does it stink like rotten meat?
Or crust and sugar over
Like a syrupy sweet?

May be it just sags

Like a heavy load
Or does it explode?
( A Poetry Course for KCSE, EAEP, 2001)
(i) Identify and explain two uses of repetition in the poem above. (4 marks)
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(ii) Explain two uses of alliteration in the above poem. (4 marks)

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(b). For each of the following words, provide another word pronounced the same. (6 marks)
(i) sun ..................... (iv) know...................
(ii) mean................. (v) two.......................

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 (iii) sweet................... (vi) ail ....................
(C) underline the stressed part in each of the words in bold. (3 marks)
(i) The production of coffee in Kenya has steadily gone down

(ii) We must arrive in time to catch our flight.

(iii) The most beautiful girl passed here.

(D) You are scheduled to attend an interview, mention three things you would do as part of your
preparation. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(E) Below is a telephone conversation between friends. Fill in the missing part. (10marks)
(i) Lucy: Hallo, may I speak to Judy?
Judy: ....,........................... ..........................................,..................................
Lucy: Oh, how are you? How have you been?
Judy:.............................................................................. ................................
Lucy: I am very sorry, where was the accident?
Judy: .................................................................................................................
Lucy: Good to hear that your injuries were not too serious. You will pull through.
Judy: .....................................................................................................................
Lucy: We will visit you as soon as we can. Bye for now and I wish you a quick recovery.
Judy: .....................................................................................................................

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
ENGLISH
101/2
PAPER 2
Comprehension, Literary appreciation, and Grammar
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL the questions in this question paper.
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
e) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
f) Candidates must answer all the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 20
2 25
3 20
4 15

TOTAL SCORE
1. Read the passage and then answer the questions that follow
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 We are constantly being reminded that this is the century of the common man. Among the rights
the common man may be expected to claim is that of a share in moulding his mother tongue. In
that agreeable essay "Grammar without Tears," written with so pleasant a blend of good sense and
whimsicality that it is not always easy to be sure whether the author's tongue is in his cheek, Mr
Hugh Sykes Davies invites us to pay our tribute to the common man of the past ----the "Lowly
man", he calls him------ who throughout the centuries has defied the grammarians and, by insisting
on going his own way, has rid our language of tiresome and useless things like inflections and
genders and brought it to its present state of ease and flexibility and what Brandley called its "
noiseless grammar". Mr Sykes Davies advocates that the Lowly man should be free to continue
his work: as no doubt he will, speaking no longer with the accent of the English countryside but
with that of the citizen of the United States. Whether there his influence will still be beneficent
only time can show. What seems certain is that we cannot do much about it. All experience goes
to show that in the long run popular taste decides our vocabulary, and in the past has done so not
too badly. When we feel depressed about what is happening now we must get what consolation
we can out of the thought, not wholly fantastic, that posterity may look back on the two Elizabeth
ages as the eras of greatest in word-making, and find that on each occasion the result was an
enrichment of the language to suit the needs of the time.

A worse danger threatens our language than its corruption by the undiscriminating absorption of new
words. That is the way we are using the words we already have, especially, the growing habit of
speakers and writers of both countries concealing their thoughts " even from themselves", as
George Orwell says, under resounding generalities and pseudo-scientific jargon. "Will the next
translation of the Bible", asks an English man, Ivar Brown, “be allowed to 'heal the sick"? No, it
will have to ‘rehabilitate those who are suffering from psychophysical maladjustment.’ “A spectre
haunts our culture," says an American, Lionel Trilling. " It is that people will eventually be unable
to say, 'We fell in love and married,' let alone understand the language of Romeo and Juliet, but
will, as a matter of course, say 'Our libidinal impulses being reciprocal, we integrated our
individual erotic drives, and brought them within the same frame of reference.' A combined
operation to exorcise this spectre would be an enterprise more worthwhile than competing with
each other for the future control of a vocabulary which is unlikely to submit to dictation by anyone.
(The Complete Plain Words, David Gordline Publishers, 2002)
QUESTIONS

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(a) Which one right is the common man expected to demand this century? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) How has the 'Lowly Man ' affected the English language? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) What is the writer's attitude towards the introduction of new words? Explain. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Why does the writer object to jargon? (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) In a paragraph of about 80 words, summerize the writer's views on the future of the
English language. (5 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) Explain the meaning of the following words and expressions as used in the passage.

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 (i) moulding...........

(ii) whimsicality.........

(iii) tongue is in his check........

(iv) noiseless grammar...........

(v) undiscriminating..............

2. Read the following excerpt and then answer the questions that follow.
"And young they'll still be the day I die,"Mr Walomu added. "Karanja, you know the saying: 'A real
bull dies with green grass in its mouth."
Then why do you want to steal my wife? She is old. Not the green grass you want in your mouth.'
"l just told you why: Old is gold. Anyway, 'stealing' - to use your word - is not all that uncommon,
you know. My Texas guy says thirty percent of the British 'steal' married spouses from their
partners. Repeat: thirty percent! That is a lot of spouse stealers there, wouldn't you say?"
Professor Kimani refused to bite the man's bait. Still, the man continued. "Now take the Americans.
Contrary to what everyone thinks, Karanja, Americans are not great spouse stealers at all. They
check in at a mere seventeen percent, way behind the British. In fact, to cut a long story short,
only the Greeks are greater spouse stealers than the British. Boy, do the Greeks know this spouse
stealing business! They come in at a whole forty percent."
The man was now toying with Professor Kimani.
Unable to tolerate it anymore, Professor Kimani moved to end it. "You, you, you greedy fat baboon!"
he shouted, closing in.
The man stood up. "Stop where you are, Karanja!" he said.
Professor Kimani kept coming. When he was near enough, he swung a fist. He missed. "First you
steal my wife," he said. He swung another. He missed again. "Now you mock me as well. "He
swung yet another. This time, he lost his balance and fell.
Mr Walomu pounced at once. "Now you die, Karanja!" he said.
A clumsy scuffle, as between bull elephants, followed. It ended only when the police came and
arrested the two angry men.
Professor Kimani was charged with assaulting a Member of Parliament. His university followed
suit by demoting him from his current rank as full professor back to his starting rank as senior
lecturer. This, it said, was his 'due punishment for disgracing the university in the eye of the
Public. Six months of jail followed. Then he was set free. As he walked back to his house,
dejectedly Putting foot ahead of foot, his career was all he could see. And it was
QUESTIONS
a) What happened immediately before this excerpt. (2 marks)
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 ................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
b) "And young they will be the day I die," who was walomu referring to? (2 marks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
c) Discuss two themes evident in this excerpt. (4 marks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

d) Identify and illustrate three styles used in this excerpt. (6 marks)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

e) Explain how each of the following character has been brought out in this excerpt. (4 marks)
(i) Newborn

(ii) Karanja

f) Rewrite the following sentence in reported speech. (1 mark)

"Stop where you are, Karanja!" he said.

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 g) What happens immediately after this excerpt. (2 marks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

h) Give the meaning of the following words as used in the excerpt.

(i) Tolerate

(ii) Scuffle

(iii) Pounced

(iv) Doomed

3. Read the following oral narrative and answer the questions that follow.
WHY RHINO SCATTERS ITS DUNG
In days long ago, when animals could talk, Elephant used to tease Rhino about nearsightedness
and bad temper (which was not very fair, since Elephant himself has not got the world's best
eyesight, nor is he the most sweet-tempered of Africa's animal characters). Anyway, elephant
was teasing Rhino and sure enough, after a while, Rhino could not help himself --he lost his
temper. He challenged Elephant to a contest. (Rhino was quite sure he could win, and so prove
that he was better than Elephant in at least one way.) The contest was to see who could produce
the largest dung--heap.
Now, both animals are large. They both eat vast quantities of vegetation each day, and of course,
they both make a lot of dung. But Rhino made by far the the largest heap, as old Elephant soon
found out.
Rhino's pride at beating Elephant was short--lived, however. Elephant was a poor loser, and he flew
into a jealous rage that was worse than anything even Rhino had been known to have. On his
fury, he attacked Rhino and beat him savagely with his trunk, goring him with his tusks until
Rhino begged for mercy.

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"O Elephant," pleased Rhino, “Stop! I was mistaken. You are the greatest creature. You win. Only
stop!" Poor Rhino lay on his back in the dust, wailing in fear.
Gradually, Elephant's great fury began to wear off, and he made Rhino beg and plead and promise
never again to challenge the might of the Lord of Beasts, namely, himself, Elephant. At last he
was satisfied and let Rhino escape.
Rhino never forgot that dreadful beating. He is afraid he may receive another one, so he makes
sure that his dung--heap always looks smaller than that of the Elephant. And this is why he kicks
at it, scattering it until it is quite flat.

(a) Classify this oral narrative giving reason for your answer. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What features, typical of oral narratives, do you find in this story? (6 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Identify and illustrate two character traits of Elephant. (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) State two themes in this story. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Why are animal characters used in narrratives such as this? (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

GRAMMAR
4. Rewrite the following sentences according to instructions. (4 marks)
(a) He shut the door, immediately, he heard a knock from behind. (Begin: No sooner......)
......................,........................................................................................
(b) The teacher told us that studying is necessary before we achieve success. (Write in
in direct speech)
.....................................................,........................................................................................
(c) Mrs Kimani is teaching Agriculture. (Begin: Agriculture....)
...............................................................................................................................................
(d) Somebody took the key from my desk. (Rewrite as a question)
...............................................................................................................................................
(ii) Complete the following sentences using the appropriate form of the word in brackets. (4
marks)
(a) Swiss watches are known for....................................(Precise)
(b) Such ..............................(repeat) is boring.
(c) The ..................................(clear) of the speech was appreciated by all.
(d) The police said it was a strange......................................(occur)

(iii) Fill the blank in each sentence with an appropriate preposition. (4 marks)
(a) The electorate want no one ....................me.
(b) The carpenter made a shelf ...............wood

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 (c) After a delicious lunch, they left ................the game park
(d) I dropped the extra change..............my phone's purse.

(iv) Fill each blank space with the most appropriate pronoun from the choices given.
(a) Is that......................(he/him) sitting on top of a pick up?
(b) Mukunga writes faster than ....................(I/me)
(c) The winners are Aredi and ..................(her/she

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
ENGLISH
101/3
PAPER 3
(Creative Composition and Essays Based on Set Texts)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDINDATES
a) Answer three questions only
b) Question one and two are compulsory
c) In question three, choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on.
d) Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first to appear will
be marked.
e) Each essay should not exceed 450 words.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1.Imaginative Composition 20
2.The Compulsory Set Text 20
3.The Optional Set Text 20
TOTAL 60

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 Answer three questions only.
l. Imaginative Composition (Compulsory) (20 marks)
a) write a story to illustrate the proverb, "Hurry has no blessing.
Or

b) Write a story beginning, "Screams of sirens rented the air...

2. The Compulsory Set Text (20 marks)

Betrayal causes pain and strain society. Using John's Lara's play, The Samaritan, for examples, write
an essay to validate this assertion.

3. The Optional Set Texts (20 marks)

a) An Artist of the Floating World
How does Ishiguro distinguish the atmosphere of the “floating world” from that of the regular world
using imagery and figurative language?

Or

b) A Silent Songs and Other Stories

Ninema is a short story about challenges of women in life. By referring to the life of
Ninema, support this assertion.

Or

c) Parliament of Owls by Adipo Sidang

Nothing good comes easy. Support the statement by closely referring to the play Parliament of
Owls by Adipo Sidang

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
102/1

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 1
INSHA
MUDA: SAA 1¾

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

a) Andika jina lako na nambari ya usajili kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
d) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
e) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
f) Kila insha ina alama 20.
g) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
h) Insha zote sharti ziandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa kwenye kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

UPEO ALAMA
SWALI
1 20
20

JUMLA 40

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MASWALI

1.Rafiki yako anayesomea katika shule jirani amefukuzwa shule kwa sababu ya ukosefu wa
nidhamu.Mwandikie barua ukimshauri kuhusu umuhimu wa kuwa nanidhamu shuleni.

2.Teknolojia ya kisasa ina faida na madhara kwa vijana wetu.

Jadili.

3.Andika kisa kitakachoonyesha ukweli wa methali : Asiyesikia la mkuu huvunjika guu.

4.Andika insha itakayoishia kwa:

…Ilinichukua muda mrefu kuyaamini niliyoyaona.

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
102/1

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 1 (LUGHA)
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Jibu maswali yote.
c) Majibu yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
d) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
e) Watahiniwa wote lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
JUMLA 80

UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)

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Shule yangu ya upili
Majio yangu katika shule hii ya upili haya kutokea kwa bahati nasibu bali kwa mipango kabambe
niliyoianza tangu nikiwa shule ya vichekechea.Nikiwa sitetereki hata kwa wazazi wangu
waliponisihi nijiunge na shule nyingine za karibu nikawa sisikii la mwadhini wala la mteka maji
msikitini.Nikawa na ragba ya mkanja nikingoja siku ya kujiunga na shule yenyewe.Kweli majuto
ni mjukuu na huja kinyume.
Nilizaliwa katika aila yenye na fasi iliyotopea na kubobea katika ukwasi uliodhihirika kutokana na
mitaa tulikoselelea kwa muda kabla ya baba kuaamua kununua nyumba yake mwenyewe huko
upande wa Karen hivyo tukagura kutoka Lunda.Wakatiwa likizo tukawa tunaruka hadi pwani
ambako mama yangu alikuwa amemiliki jumba lililokuwa katika ufuo wa bahari lililojengwa
katika kipande kisichopungua ekari tatu alilotunukiwa wakati wa nikahi yao na wakwe wa baba
yangu.
Wavyele wangu wakawa wanaendesha magari meusi ya kifahari ingawa sikuwahi kumwona mama
akichangamka kuendesha magari yake ya maana,kila macheo ya siku za kazi gari lililoendeshwa
na dereva ambaye alimstahi mama hadi akawa anamfungulia mlango wa gari na kuufunga baada
ya mama kujitoma katika tumbo la gari lilimjia na kumrejesha kwa wakati.Nikajiunga na shule
ya msingi ya kibinafsi ambako nilishughulikiwa kama kikembe.Wengi wa wale tuliosoma nao
walikuwa wa tabaka langu na walikuwa wametoka katika kila sehemu nchini Kenya.
Hayawi hayawi huwa na siku ya kuripoti ikafika.Alfajiri,dereva mmoja akatumwa kwenda hadi
Kisumu ili atulaki na kutusafirisha kutoka uwanja wa ndege hadi shule ya upili ambayo ilikuwa
yangu ya rohoni.Nasi tukaelekea hadi uwanja wa ndege ili turuke hadi Kisumu.Safari yetu kutoka
kitongoji cha kifahari hadi Airport ilikuwa njema,safari yetu tulipoabiri ndege ilikuwa bila
bughudha,safari yetu kutoka Kisumu mjini haikuwa na kasoro na tulienda kulingana na
mpango.Safari yetu ilikuwa mufti hadi tulipofika katika lango la shule ya kitaifa!Tulipotia
ozitu!!....jamani......jamani nikafa moyo.Labda mama aliweza kubaini mabadiliko ya hisia
zangu,nilitamauka, nikawa mchege na kusema kweli niliyoyaona sikuamini.Mvua iliyokuwa
imepasua hapo awali ilikuwa imeacha vitua vya maji kwenye vijia vya kutembea vilivyochakaa
na kubomokabila yeyote kuja likuvikarabati.Mjengo yalikuwa makongwe yaliyojengwa miaka
mia moja iliyopitana yalistahili kuitwa makafadhi badala ya pahali pa kumkaribishia mwanafunzi
aliyepita kwa alama mia nne na thelathini na tano.Asiye na wake ana Mungu,nikapiga moyo
konde lazima nisajiliwe katika shule ya ndoto langu.Ningewezaje kughairi wazo langu baada ya
siku hizo zote za maandalizi tena mbele ya wanuna walioniona kama kielelezo chao tangu
walipozaliwa.Nikasajiliwa!
Sikujua,haki kasi kujua,sikujua shule ya upili ya kitaifa yaweza kuwa hivi.Kweli mwanafunzi aweza
kukosa viatu na hatakushindwakununuarangiyakupakaviatu hivyo iwapo amenunuliwa na
wahisani?Nilimlaumu nina maana hakunieleza kuwa mtu anaweza kula chakula ambacho mbwa
wetu hawezi hata kukiangalia.Nilipoingia katika ukumbi wa chakula nilihisi kitefutefu nusura
nichafukwe na moyo,makapi ya mboga na uchafu usioelezeka ulinikumba,kisha nikapewa
kisahani cha plastiki na kupakuliwa kipande cha ugali ambacho bado kilikuwa na unga na
kuachiwa hiari ya kukila au kukitupa.Wenzangu wakawa wanakirambatia chakula kwa kasi huku
mmoja wao alipoona jinsi nilivyokiangalia changu akanihisi nimpe chote na kukimaliza fyu.Wote
walikuwa na furaha kemkem na kuajabia utukufu wa shule iliyotukuka ya kitaifa ila mimi. Baada
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 ya mlo‘rojorojo’,tukaelekea darasani nilikopigwa na mghuma mkubwa. Tulikuwa wanafunzi
hamsini na watano katika darasa moja tu! Mwalimu mmoja akaja na kutukaribisha shuleni kisha
akatuarifu kuwa atakuwa mwalimu wa darasa letu.Nilipomsikia akinena nusura niishiwe na
stahamala,kimombo chake kilinishangaza,hasa matamshi yake yalipungukiwa na kudhirisha
athari za lugha ya asili.Nilihisi kana kwamba ningemrekebisha lakini sikudhubutu.
Tukafululiza hadi bweni na nikajilaza kitandani chembamba huku mwingine nisiyemjua lakini
asiyejua kuwa kuna nguo maalum za kulala akalala uchi katika ghorofa ya juu ya kitanda
chetu.Mgeni njoo mwenyeji apone maana baada ya muda wadudu ambao sikuwahi kuwaona
aushini mwangu wakaanza kunishambulia. Nikaamka baada ya kumnasa mmoja wa wadudu hawa
nakuuliza mmoja wa wenzangu ni wapi wadudu hawa na kwa kutojali hata kidogo,akanieleza
kuwa hawana neno bali ni kunguni tu,sikujua na kwa kweli mama hakuniambia kuwa kuna
wadudu wanaotafuna mtu na hunuka fye! Sikulala kwa hofu huku wenzangu wakiforota kwa njia
ya kunighasi.Sikuwahi kudhani kuwa watu wengi wanaweza kulala chumba kimoja huku change
kikiwa na hamamu na vifaa vyote muhimu kikibaki bila mtu! Tulisomeshwa na walimu wasiojali
kana kwamba tunaelewa au la.
Hawakushughulika iwapo tulifanya kazi za ziada aula,ndio,hakujali chochote. Kilichonishangaza ni
kuwa wanafunzi waliojiunga nasi kutoka shule za umma wenye alama duni waliwapenda na
kuelewa haraka walichosomeshwa na hawakujali matamshi yao,labda hawakuyatambua.
Hatimaye tukafanya mtihani wa mwisho wa muhula wa kwanza.Nilishangaa ghaya iliponibainikia
kuwa aliyetuongoza alikuwa ghulamu mmoja mshamba niliyempuuza tu mvulana kutoka kijijini
ambacho singetambua katika ramani ya nchi ambaye hata vitu vya kimsingi vilimpiga
chenga.Nikafanya uchunguzi nikatambua mwenzangu alikuwa na alama mia mbili hamsini na tatu
akitoka katika darasa la nane, nilifanikiwa kuwa nambari mia mbili hamsini na tatu kwa jumla ya
wanafunzi mia tatu! Tulipofunga kwa likizo ya Pasaka nikaamua kuchukua hatua nyingine
sitawahi kuhama kutoka shule hii ya upili wala kuwa zaidi ya nambari kumi!
Maswali
a) Thibitisha kauli kuwa msimulizi ana msimamo thabiti. (alama2)
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b) Tofautisha jinsi mwandishi alivyofunzwa katika shule ya kibinafsi na shule ya upili. (alama 3)
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c) Taja mambo matatu yanayotuonyesha kuwa msimulizi alilelewa katika aila ya kikabaila
kulingana na aya ya pili. (alama3)
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d) Andika masuala matatu yaliyomshangaza katika shule ya upili. (alama3)

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e) Andika tamathali mbili zilizotumika katika kifungu. (alama2)

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f) Eleza maana ya msamiati huu kama ulivyotumika katika kifungu. (alama3)

Alimstahi……………………………………………………………………………………
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SEHEMUB:UFUPISHO (Alama15)
Soma kifungu kisha ujibu maswali.
Ripoti za kila mara kuhusu uharibifu wa pesa za umma katika serikali za kaunti ni za kusikitisha.Kuna
mabilioni ya pesa za kulipa ushuru ambazo hufujwa katika serikali kuu,na hivyo basi wananchi
wanakosewa sana wanapoona mtindo huu ukiendelea pia katika serikali za kaunti.Wakati katiba
ilipopitishwa mwaka wa 2010,Wakenya wengi walikuwa na matumaini mno kwamba ugatuzi
ungewatatulia matatizo ambayo walikuwa wakipitia katika tawala zilizotangulia,hasa katika
maeneo yaliyotengwa kimaendeleo.
Miaka tisa baadaye,kuna mafanikio ambayo yamepatikana ila hatua kubwa zaidi inaweza kupigwa
katika kuboresha maisha ya aina raia kama mianya inayotumiwa kufuja pesa za umma
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 itazibwa.Wizi huu unaojumuisha pia jinsi magavana wanavyobuni nafasi za kazi zisizo na maana
ambazo wakati mwingi hupeanwa kwa jamaa na marafiki wao,ni sharti ukomeshwe mara moja.
Kuna wananchi wengi ambao tayari wameanza kufa moyo kuhusu umuhimu wa ugatuzi ilhali ukweli
ni kwamba hatungependa kurejelea utawala uliochini ya serikali kuu pekee.Changamoto za
ugatuzi zinazosababishwa na ulafi wa viongozi wachache zinatoa nafasi kwa wakosoaji wa
mfumo huu wa uongozi kushawishi wananchi na hata wahisani wasishughulike kuchangia katika
maendeleo ya kaunti zao.
Juhudi zozote zile za maendeleo haziwezi kufanikishwa bila ushirikiano kutoka kwa wananchi na
wahisani na hivyo basi ni jukumu la viongozi kuonyesha nia ya kutumia mamlaka walizopewa
kwa manufaa ya raia.Tume ya maadili ya kupambana na ufisadi (EACC) kufikia sasa imeonekana
kufanya kazi nzuri kwa kuwasaka na kuwashtaki magavana walio mamlakani na wengine
walioondoka,kwa kushukiwa kufuja mali za umma.Tungependa asasi zote zinazohusika na
masuala ya kupambana na uhalifu, pamoja na wadau wengine katika jamii wenye nia njema kwa
wananchi wasifumbie macho maovu yanayotendwa katika kaunti zetu.
Nchi hii inatawaliwa kwa misingi ya kisheria na hivyo basi hakuna sababu kumhurumia kiongozi
yeyote anayekiuka sharia anapokuwa mamlakani kwa msingi wa mamlaka aliyoshikilia.Nikupitia
adhabu kali za kisheria pekee ambapo tutafanikiwa kukomesha uongozi mbaya kwani kama
wananchi watakuwa wakisubiri kuwaadhibu wahusika kwa kuwaondoa mamlakani
pekee,watakuwa wametoa nafasi ya ufujaji kwa viongozi wapya kila miaka mitano.
(Kutoka gazeti la Taifa Leo)
(a)Fupisha ujumbe wa aya tatu za kwanza kwa maneno 80. (alama8,1yamtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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(b)Fupisha aya mbili za mwisho kwa maneno70. (alama7,1yamtiririko)

Matayarisho
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Jibu
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SEHEMU YA C: MATUMIZI YA LUGHA. (ALAMA 40)

a) Andika neno lenye muundo ufuatao; (alama 2)
Kikwamizo sighuna cha mdomo meno,irabu ya mbele juu,nazali ghuna ya midomo,kipasuo
ghuna cha mdomo na irabu ya nyuma wastani.
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b) Tunga sentensi kwa kutumia kiwakilishi huru cha nafsi tatu umoja. (alama 2)
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c) Tambulisha vipashio vitatu vya sarufi ya kiswahili. (alama 3)

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d) Tumia neno ‘vibaya’ kama; (alama 2)

Kivumishi
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Kielezi
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e) Tunga sentensi moja katika wakati ujao hali endelevu. (alama 2)

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f) Eleza matumizi ya ‘ni’ katika sentensi hii. (alama 2)
Ingieni darasani mara moja ili niwape zoezi ambalo ni rahisi.
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g) Ainisha vielezi vya namna katika sentensi hii. (alama 2)

Mzee huyu mkongwe alicheka kijinga huku akila haraka haraka.
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h) Tambua miundo mitatu ya ngeli ya LI-YA. (alama 3)

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i) Bainisha shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 3)

Kimani aliukata mti kwa kisu jana asubuhi.
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j) Andika kwa usemi wa taarifa: (alama 2)
Karani: Njoo nikutume kwa baba yangu.
Kamau: Sitaki kupita njia ya kwa babu.
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k) Nimenunua dawa ili iwamalize wadudu wanaotusumbua hapa kwetu nyumbani. (alam 2)
Anza: Wadudu
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l) Andika kwa ukubwa hali timilifu. (alama 2)

Mtego ulimnasa ndovu huyo.
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m) Bainisha vishazi katika sentensi fuatayo. (alama 2)

Ingawa alitia bidii masomoni,alifeli mtihani.
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n) Tambua aina mbili za sentensi ukizingatia uamilifu na utoe mfano mmoja kwa kila moja. (ala 2)
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o) Taja na utolee matumiz mawili ya mkwaju. (alama 2)

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p) Changanua sentensi hii kwa kutumia kielelezo cha visanduku. (alama 4)

Waswahili husema chema chajiuza kibaya chajitembeza.

q) Andika sentensi moja ukitumia kitenzi ulichopewa katika kauli ya kutendewa. (alama 1)
Ja
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r) Bunda ni kwa noti ,na bumba ni la nyuki ilhali _______________ ni kwa karatasi. (alama 1)

s) Kamilisha methali hii. (alama 1)

t) Mfa maji………………………………………………………………………………….....

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 SEHEMU YA D: ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)
Kibiko: Hujambo dada Cheupe?
Cheupe: (akikohoa) Sijambo ndugu Kibiko.
Kibiko: Unaendelea namna gani?
Cheupe: Niko poa isipokuwa maumivu kidogo ya chest.
Kibiko: Usijali nitakupa pain relievers utakuwa sawa.
Cheupe: Asante sana,nashukuru.

Maswali.
a) Eleza muktadha wa mazungumzo haya. (alama 2)
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b) Taja na ueleze sifa za lugha iliyotumika katika mazungumzo haya. (alama 8)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
102/3

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 3
FASIHI
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako, nambari ya usajili, mkondo, sahihi na tarehe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo
juu.
b) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
c) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
d) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki Riwaya, Ushairi,
Tamthilia na Fasihi Simulizi.
e) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
f) Maswali yote ni sharti yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1 20
20
20
20
JUMLA 80

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 SEHEMU A: Riwaya
1. LAZIMA
Clara Momanyi: Nguu ya Jadi
1) Fafanua jinsi Mtemi Lesulia amepalilia ukabila katika jamii yake. (al.20)

SEHEMU B: Tamthilia
Bembea ya Maisha; Jibu swali la pili au la tatu
2) Wewe unajua vote yalivosemwa. hadharani na faraghani. Si makanisani, si magweni. leo
nikiviona vitoto hivi vilivyochekwa na kusimangwa jana, vikijiendeshea mambo yao ninaridhika"
(a) Bainisha matokeo ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari (alama6)
(b) Eleza sifa za mwanawe msemewa (alama4)
(c) Kwa hoja kumi, jadili namna suala la malezi lilivyoangaziwa katika (alama10)
tamthilia.

3) Fafanua mabadiliko yanayojitokeza katika tamthilia ya Bembea ya maisha (alama20)

SEHEMU C: Hadithi Fupi

Mapambazuko ya Machweo; Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. "...iwapo penzi hili litatia doa, basi nirudishie mfuko huu kama ishara ya kulitupa penzi langu
kama )ongoo na mti wake...
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Fafanua mbinu mbili ambazo zimetumika katika dondoo hili. (ala 4)
c) Eleza sifa sita za msemaji wa maneno haya. (alama 6)
d) EIeza umuhimu wa msemewa wa hadithi hii katika kujenga ploti. (al 6)
5. Kwa kurejelea hadithi ya Ahadi ni Deni, fafanua namna Uwajibikaji umejitokeza.
(alama 20)

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 SEHEMU D: Fasihi Simulizi
2. Soma utungo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali
Heri ujue mapema
Nasaba yetu haina woga
Woga haumei kwetu, humea kwa kina mamako.
Tulichinja jogoo na fahali ili uwe mwanaume.

Ah! Kisu cha ngariba ni kikali ajabu. Iwapo

utatikisa kichwacho. Uhamie kwa wasiotahiri,
Ama tukwite njeku.

Mpwangu kumbuka hili,

Wanaume wa mlango wetu
Si waoga wa kisu
Wao hukatwa mchana hadi usiku Wala hawalalamiki.

Siku nilipokatwa
Nilisimama tisti
Nikacheka ngariba kwa tashtiti Halikunitoka chozi.

Iwapo utapepesa kope

Wasichana wa kwetu na wa mbali Wote
watakucheka Ubaki ukinuna.

Sembe umepokea
Na supu ya makongoro ukabugia
Sema unachotaka
Usije kunitia aibu

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Maswali;
(a) Taja na uthibitishe shughuli zozote za kiuchumi za jamii ya wimbo huu
(alama 4)
(b) Ni nani mwimbaji wa wimbo huu na anawaimbia nani? (alama 2)
(c) Huu ni wimbo wa aina gani? Thibitisha (alama 2)
(d) Mwimbaji wa wimbo huu ana taasubi ya kiume. Thibitisha kauli hii. (alama 2)

(e) Eleza wajibu wa nyimbo katika jamii (alama 6)

(f) Ijapokuwa nyimbo ni nzuri, zina ubaya wake. Thibitisha kauli hii (alama 4)

SEHEMU E: Ushairi (alama 20)

Jibu swali la 7 au la 8
7. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali
Kama dau baharini, duniya
inavyoyumba, Limeshamiri tufani,
kila mmoja lakumba, Viumbe tu
hali gani!

Duniya yatishika, utahisi kama

kwamba, Vilima vyaporomoka,
na kuvurugika myamba, Viumbe
tu hali gani!

Tufani hilo la kusi, languruma na

kutamba, Linapuliza kwa kasi, hapana
kisichoyumba, Viumbe tu hali gani!

Mujiwe ni kubwa sana, mfanowe kama

nyumba, Yazuka na kugongana, wala
hatuna la kwamba, Viumbe tu hali gani!

Mibuyu hata mivule, kama usufi na

pamba, Inarusha vilevile, seuze
hiyi migomba Viumbe tu hali
gani!

Ni kipi kilotuliya, tuwazeni na

kudumba, Mandovu kiangaliya,
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 yagongana na masimba, Fisi wako
hali gani!

Hata papa baharini, tufani

limewakumba, Walioko
mikondoni, kila mmoja asamba,
Dagaa wa hali gani!

Mashehe wa mdaduwa, kwa ubani na uvumba,

Tufani hilo kwa kuwa, kusoze kwake kutamba,
Itokee afueni!
(Shairi la ‘Tufani’ la Haji Gora Haji, katika Tamthilia ya Maisha, uk 62)

Maswali;
(a) Taja na ueleze mikondo ya shairi hili (alama 4)
(b) Eleza dhamira ya shairi hili (alama 2)
(c) Taja tamathali za usemi zilizotumiwa katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
(d) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili (alama 4)
(e) Eleza ujumbe unaojitokeza katika ubeti wa tano. (alama 3)
(f) Onyesha matumizi ya idhini ya kishairi . (alama 3)
(g) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kwa mjibu wa shairi hili (alama 2)
(h) (i) Mdaduwa :
(ii) Kutamba :

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8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali
Daima alfajiri na mapema
Hunipitia na jembe na kotama
Katika njia iendayo Kondeni
Kama walivyofanya babuze zamani;
Nimuonapo huwa anatabasamu
Kama mtu aliye na hamu Kushika mpini na
kutokwa jasho Ili kujikimu kupata malisho.

Anapotembea anasikiliza
Videge vya anga vinavyotumbuiza
Utadhani huwa vimemngojea
Kwa usiku kucha kuja kumwimbia
Pia pepo baridi kumpepea
Rihi ya maua zikimtetea
Nao umande kumbusu miguuni;

Na miti yote hujipinda migogo

Kumpapasa, kumtoa matongo;
Na yeye kundelea kwa furaha Kuliko yeyote
ninayemjua
Akichekelea ha ha ha ha ha ha …….

Na mimi kubaki kujiuliza

Kuna siri gani inayomliwaza? Au ni kujua au
kutojua?
Furaha ya mtu ni furaha gani? Katika dunia
inayomhini?
Ukali wa jua wamnyima zao
Soko la dunia lamkaba koo;

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Dini za kudhani zamsonga roho Ayalimia matumbo ya
waroho.
Kuna jambo gani linalomridhisha? Kama si kujua
ni kutojua Lait angalijua, laity angalijua!
Maswali:
a) Eleza hali ya mzungumziwa katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
b) Huku ukitoa mifano, onyesha aina mbili za uhuru wa kishairi uliotumiwa katika shairi hili
(ala. 4)
c) Fafanua aina tatu za taswira ukirejelea ubeti wa pili (alama 3)
d) Maswali ya balagha katika shairi hili yanasisitiza maudhui yapi? (alama 2)
e) Kwa kutoa mifano, bainisha vipengele vitatu vya Kimtindo katika shairi hili
(alama 3)
f) Eleza toni ya shairi hili (alama 2)
g) Bainisha nafsineni katika shairi hili (alama 1)
h) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili (alama 3)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
AGRICULTURE
443/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
2. Sign and write the date or the examination in the spaces provided.
3. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C
4. Answer all questions in Section A and B in the spaces provided
5. Answer only two questions in section C in the spaces provided after question 24.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX.SCORE CANDIDATE
SCORE
A 1-17 30
B 18-21 20
C 22 20
23 20
24 20
TOTAL SCORE 90
 SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. List two types of production functions. (1 marks)
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2. State two causes of blossom-end rot in tomatoes. (2 marks)

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3. List three factors that lead to successful grafting. (1 ½ marks)

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4. State two ways of overcoming the problem of hardpan in crop production. (2 marks)
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5. State two disadvantages of persistent use of pesticides in crop production. (1 mark)

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6. Outline two ways of increasing land productivity per hectare. (1 mark)

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7. Give four benefits of ridging in pyrethrum establishment in the field. (2 marks)

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8. List two deficiency symptoms of magnesium in crop production. (2 marks)
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9. In which two situations would a farmer prefer sexual propagation to asexual propagation(2
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10. Give four factors that determine the choice of a farming system practiced by a farmer.(2
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11. State four ways carried out to obtain an even and vigorous stand of sorghum production.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. State four properties of soil that are influenced by its texture. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Explain the difference between liquid capital and working capital in agricultural production
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Outline four activities that may be undertaken in organic farming. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State three factors influencing demand of fruits in a market. (1 ½ marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Outline four conditions where shifting cultivation is favourable. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. List four implements used in carrying out secondary cultivation. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
 SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided. All working must be shown
clearly where necessary
18. The diagrams below represents two weeds

a)Identify the weeds marked A and B in the diagrams above. (2 marks)

A ………………………………………………………………………………………
B ………………………………………………………………………………………

b)State one harmful effects of each of the weed marked A and B in livestock production
(2 marks)
A
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
B
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State one observable common feature in weed A. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. The diagrams below illustrates a field management practice carried out in crops.

Identify the practices illustrated as C and D. (2 marks)

C …………………………………………………………………………………
D …………………………………………………………………………………

Name the most likely crop managed as illustrated in C above. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Give two reasons for carrying out the practice illustrated in C above. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. The diagram below illustrates a final seedbed after a tertiary operation done during land
preparation. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow
Name the tertiary operation carried out on the seedbed (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Describe how the tertiary operation named in (i) above is carried out. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Give three advantages of planting crops on the final seedbed illustrated above. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. A farmer wanted to grow either wheat or sugarcane. Study the information provided below
about the two crops and answer the questions that follow.

WHEAT
Yield per hectare=3000Kg
Labour requirement per hectare=100 man-day
Cost of labour=Kshs. 25 per man-day
Cost of seed=Kshs 100 per hectare
Cost of Tripple super phosphate=Kshs 3000 per hectare
Cost of Ammonia(S.A)=KShs. 1500 per hectare
Cost of Spray=Kshs. 500 per hectare
Price=Kshs. 20 per hectare

SUGARCANE
Yield per hectare=3500Kg
Labour requirement per hectare=50 man-day
Cost of labour=Kshs. 25 per man-day
Cost of seed=Kshs 1000 per hectare
Cost of single super phosphate=Kshs 1500 per hectare
Cost of Spray=Kshs. 100 per hectare
Price=Kshs. 18 per hectare
Calculate the gross margin of each of the crops. (4 marks)

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 24
22. Discuss rice production under the following subheadings
i) Ecological requirement (4 marks)
ii) Land preparation (6 marks)
iii) Weed control (4 marks)
Fertilizer application (4 marks)
Harvesting (2 marks)

23. a)A farmer has 30 hectares of arable land, 20 hectares of which is planted with maize and 10
hectares with grass hay. He wishes to replace 10 hectares of maize with irish potatoes next
year. The fertilizer rate will have to be increased from 2 bags per hectare for maize to 4 bags
per hectare for potatoes. As a result of the change extra 40 men days of casual labour per
hectare will be necessary at the rate of Kshs. 100 per man a day. The average yield per
hectare of maize is 35 bags and for potatoes 120 bags. The price paid is Kshs. 1000 per bag
of maize and Kshs. 600 per bag of potatoes. Maize seeds cost Kshs. 750 per hectare and
potatoes cost 8000 per hectare. Fertilizer costs is 650 per hectare. Draw up a partial budget
and advice the farmer accordingly. (10 marks)
b)Outline the marketing functions in an agricultural market. (10 marks)

24. Describe the physical and cultural measures employed in the control of pests in crop
production (20 marks)
 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
AGRICULTURE
443/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
2. Sign and write the date or the examination in the spaces provided.
3. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C
4. Answer all questions in Section A and B in the spaces provided
5. Answer only two questions in section C in the spaces provided after question 24.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX.SCORE CANDIDATE
SCORE
A 1-18 30
B 19-22 20
C 23 20
24 20
25 20
TOTAL SCORE 90
 SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1) State four qualities of colostrums which make it suitable for feeding newly born calves.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2) State four advantages of using concrete in building farm structures (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3) Give two functions of a footbath in a plunge cattle dip (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4) Give two maintenance practices carried out on a tractor trailer. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5) State four factors that would affect the digestibility in livestock. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6) State four roles played by the engine oil in a tractor engine. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7) Name four diseases transmitted by ticks. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8) State four advantages of using Biogas as a source of power in the farm. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9) State four ways in which incubator should be managed for higher hatchability. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10) State four factors that would determine the use of a jembe instead of a disc plough in primary
cultivation. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11) Give four management practices that should be carried out during mating season in sheep.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12) State the difference between a vector and intermediate host in livestock production.(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13) Give two factors that contribute to the depreciation of farm equipment. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14) Give four microbial activities that take place in the Rumen of a cow. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15) State four factors that should be considered while siting the apiary for the bees.(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16) State four factors that may influence the pulse rate of a sheep. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17) Give two reasons for taking birth weight of piglets. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18) Give two reasons for holding animals for a short period in the outlet crush after dipping
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided. All working must be shown
clearly where necessary
19) The diagrams B, C, D, E illustrate some structures used by a bee farmer. Use them to answer
the questions that follow.

a) Identify the tools M, N, P and Q. (2 marks)

M …………………………………………………………………………………
N …………………………………………………………………………..……..
P ………………………………………………………………………………….
Q ………………………………………………………………………………….
 b) Give the use of each of the tools named in (a) above. (2 marks)
M
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
N
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State two maintenance practices on the tool marked M. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20) The diagram below shows a poultry rearing system. Study it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
 Identify the poultry rearing system. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

List two advantages of this system of rearing layers (2 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

How is suffocation and death of chicks avoided in such a system? (2 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21) The diagram below represents an implement.

Identify the implement. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Name the parts labeled U and V and give one function of each. (2 marks)
U
V
 State two ways of adjusting the depth of ploughing using the implement. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22) Study the diagram below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

a) Name the livestock routine practice illustrated above. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Name one tool that may be used in carrying out the operation in (a) above. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c)Study the diagram below and then give an interpretation of the individual number and litter
number of the animal. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
 SECTION C (40 MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 25
23. a)Describe the procedure of harvesting honey from a top bar hive. (9 marks)
b)Describe the extraction of honey from combs using the heat method. (6 marks)
c)Outline the reasons why bees swarm. (5 marks)

24. Describe the production of beef cattle from time of selection of breeding gestation to calving
(20 marks)
25. a)Describe the life cycle of two host tick (7 marks)
b)Explain the measures used to control external parasites in livestock production.(6 marks)
c)Outline the factors considered in ensuring efficient working by oxen. (7 marks)
 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS
a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions.
d) All answers should be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
e) Candidates should answer all the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Marks

Question 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
marks

Total marks
 INSTRUCTIONS:Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. List four external factors that may influence the operations of a business. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Outline four features of labour as a factor of [production. (4 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. State whether the commodity or service given in the table below would satisfy a basic human
want or a secondary human want. (4 mks)
Commodity Service Class of human want
Education
Housing
A packet of rice
Entertainment
Hair cut
Green Grains
A car
Shirt

4. The information given below was extracted from the books of Birika Traders on 31 st
December 2023.
Debts Amount (Kshs)
Furniture & fittings 234,000
Debtors 67,500
Capital 157,900
Commission earned 13,200
Creditors 34,750
Drawings 21,800
5 years Bank loan 114,400
Discount received 3000
Required: Prepare Birika Traders Trial Balance as at 31st December, 2023

5. State any four money transfer facilities offered by commercial banks. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Highlight four circumstances under which a firm may be located near the source of raw
materials. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Outline four channels for distributing locally manufactured products to local consumers.
(4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Apart from the forces of demand and supply, list four other ways in which the price of a
product may be determined. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Outline four difficulties that a country with a young population may experience.(4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Identify the source documents from which the information posted in the following journals
would be extracted.
Journal Source document
Sales journal
Purchases journal
Cash receipt journal
Sales journal

11. State four sources of government revenue. (4 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Outline four features of money that enable it to facilitate the exchange of goods and
services. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. Apart from trains and motor vehicles, state four other means of transporting goods and
people on land. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. List four sources of business ideas. (4 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Identify the retailers described in the statements given below.

Statement Retailer
Sells goods by displaying them along
the streets
Moves from one place to another on
foot selling their goods
Dispenses goods to the use of an
operated machines
Meet on designated days in open
grounds to sell their goods
16. The following transaction was extracted from the books of Kuria business on 31 st March
2022
Stock (01/04/2023) 8000
Stock (31/03/2024) 9000
Purchases 4500
Sales 21000
Calculate:
(i) Margin (2 mks)

(ii) Rate of stock turnover (2 mks)

17. Outline four reasons for the popularity of WhatsApp as a trend in communication.(4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. State four circumstances under which an insured may not be compensated. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. State four reasons for privatizing public corporations. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Outline four qualities of a successful sales person. (4 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. The table below shows general changes over a period of five years. (4 mks)
Year Price(Ksh) C.P.I.
2010 90.00 100
2011 100.80
2012 103.50
2013 105.30
2014 108.00
Using year 2010 as the base year, determine the consumer price index for the years 2011,
2012, 2013 and 2014.
22. Outline four functions of World Bank. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Highlight four benefits of national income statistics to the government. (4 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. State four basic features of a market. (4 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. The following is a format of the debit side of a three column cashbook.
Dr
Date V W X Y

Name the columns labeled; V, W, X and Y. (4 mks)

V–
W–
X–
Y-
 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of 6 questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the spaces provided.
e) All questions carry equal marks
f) Non –programmable silent electronic calculator may be used.
g) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
20
20
20
20
20
TOTAL
 QUESTIONS
1) (a) Explain five factors that promote entrepreneurship in Kenya, (10mks)
(b) Explain five principles that would lead to effective use of government resources. (10mks

2) (a) There has been a decline in the demand for wooden furniture, Explain five factors that
may have caused this trend. (10mks)
3) (b) Explain five differences between a sole proprietorship and a public limited company.
(10mks)

4) The following information relates to Bahati enterprises.

Details shs
Stock 1st January 2024 430,000
Purchases 930,000
Sales 1,155,000
Carriage outwards 25,000
Carriage inwards 10,000
Returns outwards 20,000
Returns inwards 30,000
General expenses 100,000
Insurance 25,000
Stock 31st Dec 2024 470,000

Calculate:
Turn over (1mk)
Rate of stock turn over (3mks)
Mark up (2mks)
Margin (2mks)
Net profit (2mks)
b) Outline five benefits of a business to the society. (10mks)

(a) Describe five accounting documents used in home trade (10mks)

(b) Using a diagram explain the circular flow of income in a two sector economy.10mks)
5) (a) Explain five trends in office management. (10mks)
(b) Explain five circumstances under which a producer may sell goods directly to the
consumer. (10mks)

6) On 1st September 2015 Gondi had sh 55,000 in hand and 250,000 at bank, during the month
the following transactions took place.
September 2: Cash sales banked sh 35,260
3 September: Bought ribbons in cash sh 4,500
8 September: Paid Wangala a creditor 94,000 by Cheque in full settlement of his account after
deducting 6% cash discount.
12 September: Received a cheque of shs 58800 from Wetu after allowing her a cash discount
of shs 1,200
15 September: paid salaries sh 34,000 cash
28 September: Anyango a debtor paid her account of 75000 by cheque less 10% cash discount.
30 September deposited all the cash into the bank except.

Required. Prepare a three column cash book and balance it off (10mks)

Explain five merits of direct taxes to the government (10mks)

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
232/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:

a) Write your Name,Index Number and Signature in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer all the questions both in section A and B in the spaces provided below each
question
c) All workings must be clearly shown; marks may be awarded for correct steps even if the
answers are wrong.
d) Let g = 10m/s2
FOR EXAMINER’S USE

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S

SCORE SCORE
A 1-10 25
B 11 09
12 14
13 11
14 10
15 11
TOTAL 80
 SECTION A 25 MARKS:
Attempt all the questions in this section
1. The figure below shows a piece of metal stuck in a hollow glass pipe. .Explain how temperature
change may be used to separate them (2mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Form four students were playing football game during which the ball got deflated. Explain what
happened to its density (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Micrometer screw gauge A has a zero error of – x mm. Micrometer screw gauge B has a zero
error of x mm When used to measure the diameter of a tube the difference between their
readings is 0.04mm. If the actual diameter of the tube is 5.56mm determine x hence state the
reading of micrometer screw gauge A (3 marks)
4. A car of mass 1000kg travelling at a constant velocity of 40m/s collides with a stationary metal
block of mass 800kg. The impact takes 3s before the two move together. Determine the
impulsive force (3marks)

5. The figure below shows a drop of water about to fall from a pipette and after falling. Explain
why the shapes of the drop are different (2 marks)

6. Figure shows a liquid manometer. The gas pressure is 755mmHg and that of the surround is
760mmHg. The height h is 80mm. Determine the density of the liquid. (Take density of mercury
= 13600kgm-3 and g =10Nkg-1) (3 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

7. A student balances a V - shaped uniform wire on a tight string as shown in A and B. With reason
state the one which is easier to do (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. The figure below shows a Bunsen burner. Explain how air is drawn into the burner when the gas
tap is opened. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. The figure shows a uniform metal bar of length 10m and weight W = 200N held at equilibrium
by a light chain fixed at the cog and tethered on the floor using a light chain. Determine the
tension of the chain (3marks)

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10. A student set up the apparatus as shown below. The boiling tube was heated in the middle as
shown

a. State the role of the lead shot in the experiment (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. With reason, state the wax that will melt first (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B 55 MARKS Attempt all the questions in this section

11. Marble A is projected horizontally from the top of a cliff at a velocity of 50m/s. The height of
the cliff from its foot is 31.25m. At the same time another marble B is projected horizontally
from the same point. The figure below shows the trajectories taken by the marbles

Determine
a. The distance of marble A from the foot of the cliff as it hits the ground (3marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

b. Vertical velocity of marble A as it hits the ground (2marks)

c. Horizontal velocity of marble B as it hits the ground (2marks)

d. The shortest distance between the marbles upon hitting the ground (2marks)

12. The figure below shows two identical light springsand other apparatus used in an experiment

After the data was collected the following graph was obtained

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a. State two measurements taken in the experiment (2mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

b. Explain how the measurements can be used to come up with the graph (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
c. Explain the graph in sections
i. AB (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. CD (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

d. Determine the spring constant of each spring (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

e. Determine the work done in section CD (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
f. On the same axes sketch the graph expected when the experiment is repeated using one of the
springs only (1mark)

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13. The figure below shows an inclined plane on which a trolley of mass 30kg is pulled up a slope
by a force of 100N, parallel to the slope. The trolley moves so that its centre of mass travels
from points A to B.

(i) Determined the work done on the trolley against the gravitational force in moving from A to B.
(2 marks)

(ii) Determine the work done by the force in moving the trolley from A to B. (3 marks)

(iii) Determine the percentage of the work input that goes to waste (3 marks)

(iii) Determine the frictional force. (1 mark)

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(v) Determine the mechanical advantage of the system. (1 mark)

(vi) Find the velocity ratio (1 mark)

14. a. The figure below shows a set-up that can be used to determine the specific heat capacity of a
metal block.

I) Other than temperature and current, state two measurements that should be taken in the
experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of the block. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

II) Describe how the method can be used to determine the specific heat capacity of the metal block.
(3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

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III) State the purpose of oil in the set-up. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) A well lagged copper can together with a copper stirrer of total heat capacity 60JK -1 contains
200g of water at 200C. Dry steam at 1000C is passed in while the water is stirred until the content
reach a temperature of 500C. Determine the mass of condensed steam. (Specific latent heat of
vaporization of water is 2.26 X 106 J/kg and specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kgK)
(4marks)

15. a) A uniform metal strip is 3.0cm wide 0.6cm thick and 100cm long. The density of the metal is
2.7g/cm3.
I. Determine the weight of the metal strip. (2marks)

The strip is used to support two masses in equilibrium by applying force F as shown below.

II. Determine the value of F (3 marks)

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III. Determine reaction R due to the pivot (2 marks)

b) The Figure belowshows a set up that may be used to verify a gas law.

I. State the law being verified (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
II. State two functions of the concentrated Sulphuric acid in the experiment (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

III. State one assumption in the experiment (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
232/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS
a) Write your name and your Index number in the spaces provided.
b) This paper consists of two sections, Section A and B. Answer ALL the questions in both
section in the spaces provided in this paper.
c) ALL working must be clearly shown.
d) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY.

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATES
SCORE SCORE
A 1 - 12 25
B 13 13
14 12
15 09
16 09
17 12
80

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 SECTION A (25MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. Figure (1) below shows two rays of light from an object reflected on a plane mirror

Fig 1.
Using proper ray construction, show the object position (2marks)
2. The fig 2 below shows a ray of light incident on a glass prism

Fig2
Given that the critical angle for the grass is 390, sketch on the diagram the path of the ray
through the prism. (2 marks)
3.The diagram on figure 3 shows the National Grid system.

Fig3.
(a) What type of transformer is;
X………………………………………… (1mark)
Y…………………………………………. (1mark)
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4. State one advantages of using circuit breakers in the consumer unit than using fuse wire.
(1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The figuresbelow shows two waveforms representing the same wave motion.

Determine the velocity of the wave. (3mks)

6. Figure 4. Below shows a 6V battery connected to an arrangement of resistors. Determine

the current flowing through the 2Ω resistor. (3marks)

Fig 6.

7. The figure 7 below shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

Radio Infra-red AA ultraviolet B Gamma
waves B rays
(a)Identify A (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………….

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(b)State one industrial use of B (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………..

8. The diagram (Fig 8) shows a positively charged acetate strip and a negatively charged
polythene strip that are freely suspended.

Fig8.
Two rods X and Y are brought up in turn to these two strips. Rod X attracts the acetate strip
but repels the polythene strip. Rod Y does not repel either the acetate strip or the
polythene strip.
State the type of charge is on each rod. (2mks)
X……………………………………………………………………………………….
Y………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State two advantages of an alkaline accumulator over lead acid accumulator. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Figure 9 below show a concave lens and object.

Fig 9.

© UCLES 2005 5054/01/M/J/05 [Turn over

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
Sketch the rays to show the image formed. (2marks)

11. Two similar razor blades were placed on a wooden block and the other on an iron block
as in figure 10.

Fig 10.
It was observed that the razor blade on the wooden block is attracted by the magnet while
that on the iron block was not.Explain. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

12. The figure 11 below shows water waves about to pass through a gap. One wave front is
shown after it has passed through the gap.

Fig 11
(i) On the diagram, draw two more wave fronts that have passed through the gap. (1mark)

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(ii)State two changes which would each make the wave fronts become more curved after
passing through the gap. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (55MARKS)
Answer All The Questions In This Section.
13.(a) State what is meant by refractive index of a material. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Figure 12 represents a ray of light falling normally on the curved surface of a semi-
circular plastic block at X, meeting the opposite face at an angle of incidence of 30 0 and
emerging into the air at an angle of 400.
Fig 12

(i) State and explain what happens to the ray as it moves from:
I) Air to glass at X. (1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

II) From glass to air at O. (1marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) Calculate refractive index of the plastic. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) State the conditions to be satisfied for total internal reflection to occur. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Describe how the apparatus above could be used to find the critical angle
experimentally. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(v)Calculate the critical angle for this plastic. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………

14. (a) State what is meant by the term capacitance. (1marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………

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(b) Distinguish between a paper capacitor and an electrolyte capacitor. (1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State two factors that determine capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Figure 10 below shows a network of capacitors in series.

c1 c2 c3

12V
Fig 10.
(i) Derive an expression for their effective capacitance CE from first principles. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Given that C1=10.5µF, C2 =2µF and C3= 3µF.

Calculate effective capacitance CEin (2) above and hence
Determine the charge stored on each capacitor. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

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(e) State two applications of capacitors. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

15.(a) Use the figure 11 below to answer the questions that follows.

Fig.11
(i) Show the direction of the current on the turns when the switch S is closed. (1marks)

(ii) State the polarity at P (1marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Explain using domain theory what happens on the soft iron bar. (1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv). If steel bar was used instead, what could be the difference? (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) The following diagram (figure 12), shows a part of an electric d.c motor.

Fig 12.
(i) On the diagram above show the direction of rotation of the coil. (1marks)
(ii) State the effect of increasing the number of turns of the rotating coil of an electric
motor. (1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Sketch the magnetic field pattern around the conductor carrying current on figures 13
and 14 shown below. (2marks)

Fig 13. Fig 14

16(a) Distinguish between real image and a virtual image. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………

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(b) The distance between an objectand itsupright image produced by a curved mirror is
40cm. the image is 3 times as tall as the object
(i) State the type of mirror used. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Determine the object distance (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Determine the radius of curvature of the mirror (3 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………

(iv) State one application of the mirror as used in (b) above (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………….………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

17(a) State Ohm’s Law. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………

(b) Explain why a 12V car battery is able to start the motor car engine while eight dry cells
of 1.5 v each connected in series will not. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………

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 (c) In figure 15 the current in the circuit is 1.80A

4Ω 2Ω

2Ω
X Y
6Ω 3Ω
Fig 15
(i)Find the effective resistance between X and Y. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)The p.d of the source. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii)Current through the 3Ω resistor (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv)Give two differences between a primary and a secondary cell (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

Confidential
The information contained in this KCSE Physics Prediction paper is to enable the head of the
school and the teacher in charge of Physics to make adequate preparations for the 232/3 Physics
Practical examination.
No one else should have access to this information either directly or indirectly.
Each candidate will require the following.
 A milliammeter.
 A voltmeter (0 – 3V) or (0 – 5V).
 A wire mounted on a mm scale (Nichrome wire SWG 32)
 A switch.
 A long wire with a crocodile clip at one end (crocodile clip to be used as a slider or
jockey).
 A micrometer screw gauge (may be shared).
 5 connecting wires, two with crocodile clips at the end.
 One new dry cell size D.
 Cell holder.

QUESTION 2
EACH STUDENT REQUIRES
 Micrometer screw gauge (shared between 4 students)
 Vernier callipers
 Masses
 10g
 2 – 20g
 50g
 100g
 Helical spring (K = 0.08N/cm)
 Metre rule or half metre rule
 Complete retort stand

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper.
b) You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hrs allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
c) Marks will be given for clear record of the observations actually made, their suitability,
accuracy and the use made of them.
d) Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
e) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAX. SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1 20
2 20

TOTAL 40

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

QUESTION 1 (20 MARKS)
You are provided with the following
-Two dry cell
-One bulb
-Voltmeter (0 – 3V)
-Ammeter (0 – 1A)
-Amounted nicrome wire mounted on a millimeter scale
-Switch
-Seven connecting wire at least two with crocodile clips
-Micrometer screw gauge
Proceed as follows:
a) i). Set up the circuit as shown in the figure 1 below.

ii) With the crocodile clip at p, take the voltmeter reading and ammeter reading. Record v
and 1 repeat the readings for L=80, 60, 40, 20 and 0cm respectively and complete the
table below.
(5mks)
Length, L(cm) 100 80 60 40 20 0
Voltage, V(V)
Current, I (A)

iii). What changes do you observe on the bulb as L decreases from p? (1mrk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………

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iv).Plot a graph of ammeter reading (y=axis) against voltmeter readings. (5mrks)

v). Determine the slope of the graph at V=1 volt. (2mrks)

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vi). What physical quantity is represented by the slope of the graph at any given point?
(1mk)

b. (i) Given the apparatus in a (i) above, draw a diagram of the circuit you would use to
determine the current through the resistant wire and the potential difference across.
(1mrk)

ii).Set up the circuit you have drawn. Record the ammeter reading I and the wire reading V
when L=100cm
(2mks)
V=…………………… I=………………………………………..

iii). Using a micrometer screw gauge, measure the diameter of the wire. (1mrk)

d=……………………………………………m

iv). Calculate the quantity:

(𝐕) 𝐝𝟐
p= 0.785 and give its units, where L is one meter. (2mrks)
𝐈 𝑳

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Question 2
You are provided with the following:-
 Vernier callipers
 Micrometer screw gauge
 Masses; 10g, 20g, 50g and 100g
 A helical spring
 Metre rule or half metre rule

Proceed as follows
(a) Determine the number of complete turns of the helical spring.
N = _______________________ (1 Mark)

(b) Measure the external diameter of the spring using the vernier callipers
D = _______________________ m (1 Mark)

(c) Use the micrometer screw gauge to determine the diameter of the wire of the spring.
d = ______________________ m (1 Mark)

(d) Determine the value of m (2 Marks)

0.4𝐷
N= 𝑑𝑚

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………

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(e) Suspend the helical spring vertically alongside the clamped half metre rule as shown in
figure 1 below. Determine the length L0, of the spring before loading it.
L0 = __________________ cm

Half metre rule

Stand

Figure 2
(f) Load the spring with a mass of 20g and determine the new reading on the metre rule. (L)
Record this in the table below.

(g) Calculate the extension e = L – L0 due to the mass of 20g and record the value in the table
given below. Repeat step f for other masses and complete the table.

Mass (g) 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Weight (N)
Reading (L)
(cm)
Extension e
(cm)
1
(cm-1)
𝑒

(6 Marks)
1
(h) Plot a graph of weight (N) against 𝑒 (cm-1) (4 Marks)

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(i) Determine the slope (s) of the graph at a mass of 45g (2 Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………
−255𝑇
(j) Given that m = (𝑆+60)2

Determine the value of T where (S) is the slope at 45g (3 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
233/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions To Candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided
c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
d) Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.
e) ALL working MUST be shown clearly where necessary
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing

For Examiner’s Use Only

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORES
1 – 25 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 QUESTIONS
1. The table below gives information about ions of A and B
Ion A+ B2-
Electron arrangement 2.8 2.8.8
Number of Neutrons 12 16

a) Write the electrons arrangement for the atom of B (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Draw the atomic structure of A showing the composition the nucleus (2mks)

c) Write the formula of the compound formed when A and B reacts (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Sodium metal was warmed until it began burning. The burning sodium was lowered in a gas
jar of oxygen as shown below.

(a) State the expected observations. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Some water was added to the product of this reaction and the resulting solution tested with
blue and red litmus papers. State and explain the observations made. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(c)Write a chemical equation for the reaction of
(i) Sodium with oxygen. (1mk)

(ii) Product with water. (1mk)

3. The melting point of phosphorous trichloride is -91oC while that of sodium chloride is 801oC.
In terms of structure and bonding. Explain the difference in their melting point (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Using dots (.) and crosses (x), show bonding in

(i) Sodium oxide. ( Na = 11, O = 8) (1mk)

(ii) Hydroxonium ion, H3O+ (H=1, O=8) (1mk)

4. When solid Q1 was heated, a gas which formed a white precipitate when passed through lime
water was produced. The residue was dissolved in dilute nitric (V) acid to form a colourless
solution Q2. When dilute hydrochloric acid was added to solution Q2 a white precipitate
which dissolved on warning was formed.
(a)Write the formula of the;
I. Cation in solid Q1 (1 mark)

II. Anion in solid Q1 (1 mark)

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(b) Write an ionic equation for the reaction between the residue and dilute nitric (V) acid
(1 mark)

5. (a) Using electrons only, distinguish between oxidation and reduction (2mks)

(b) Identify the oxidizing agent in the reaction below and explain your answer (2 mk)
CuSO4 (aq) + Mg(s) MgSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. 200g of a radioactive substance was reduced to 12.5g in 20.8 years. Calculate the half-life
of the substance (2 mks)

7. (a) Define graham’s gas law. (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Two containers, one with Nitrogen (IV) oxide and other with bromine simultaneously
develop leaks, after 30 minutes, the smell of Nitrogen (VI) oxide is detected. How much
longer will it take before bromine is detected. (N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80) (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

8. In the Haber process, the optimum yield of ammonia is obtained when a temperature of
4500C, pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst are used. Equation for the reaction is
shown below.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)  H= -92kJ.
How would the yield of ammonia be affected if:
i) Temperature raised to 6000C (1mk)

ii) Pressure raised to 250 atmospheres. (1mk)

iii) The amount of catalyst doubled Explain. (2mk)

9. a) The ability of temporary hard water to conduct electricity falls when water is boiled but it
is not much affected when the temporary hardness is removed by addition of washing soda
(Sodium carbonate). Explain. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Diagram (I) below is simple representation of a detergent material. Complete the diagram in
(II) to show the orientation of the detergent in the grease and water occurs. (1 mk)

(I) Detergent Ionic head (II)

Grease
Covalent tail

10. Describe how you would prepare crystals of sodium nitrate starting with 200 cm3 of 2M
sodium hydroxides. (3 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

11. (a)Using equations only, differentiate the bleaching effect of Chlorine and Sulphur (iv)
oxide (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Study the diagram below and answer questions that follow.

Identify solid A. (1mk)

(i) Give a reason why warm water is used. (1mk)

(ii) What observation would be made if hydrogen Sulphide gas was bubbled into a solution of
lead (II) nitrate. (1mk).

12. An oxide of copper in a porcelain boat was reduced by a stream of hydrogen. The results
obtained were as follows;
Mass of porcelain boat = 4.5g
Mass of boat + Oxide = 6.40g
Mass of boat + Copper = 6.02 g
(i)Determine the empirical formula of the oxide. (3 mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(ii). If the relative formula mass of the oxide is 80, determine its chemical formula. (Cu = 64, O
= 16) (1 mk)

13. (a) The table below shows the number of drops of soap solution needed to lather with 10cm3
of water.
Sample Cold water Heated water
A 5 5
B 6 2
C 2 2

b) Identify the anions likely to be in:

A…………………………………………………………… (1mk)
B…………………………………………………………… (1mk)

c) State TWO methods used in removing permanent hardness of water. (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. The formula given below represents a portion of a polymer.

n
a) Give the name of the polymer (1mk)

b) Give one industrial use of the polymer (1mk)

c) One disadvantage of the continued use of this polymer. (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

15. A piece of cover slip was weighed before and after a student made a circle on it using a
pencil lid of pure graphite. The masses were as shown below;
Mass of cover slip before = 1.804g
Mass after drawing the circle = 1.9053g
Determine the number of carbon atoms used to draw the circle. (C =12, L=6.00 x 10 23)(3mks)

16. A mass of 40g of a saturated solution of potassium chlorate at 25 0C yields 14g of potassium
chlorate when evaporated to dryness. Calculate the solubility of potassium chlorate at 25 0C.
(3mks)

17. A mixture of kerosene, methylbenzene and water were shaken and left to separate out as
shown in the diagram below.

(i)Identify liquids A and B (2mks)

A………………………………………………….
B…………………………………………………

(i) A part from density, state one other property that makes it possible to separate them using the
set up above? (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

18. Volume of liquids can be measured using a pipette; measuring cylinder or burette. Which one
would be best for measuring exactly 29.1cm3 of liquid. (1mk)

19. The third number of the alkenes is converted to its corresponding saturated hydrocarbon by
hydrogenation. Using the bong energy values given below, answer the questions that follow.
Bond Bond energy kJ/Mol
H-H 432
C=C 610
C-C 346
C-H 413
Determine the enthalpy change for the conversion of the 4th member of the alkenes to its
corresponding saturated hydrocarbon by hydrogenation. (3mks)

20. The set up below was used to electrolyze molten lead (II) bromide.

Carbon
electrode

Crucible
Molten lead
(ii)bromide

Heat

a) Explain why the bulb lights brightly at the beginning of the experiment and becomes dim
after sometime (2mks)

b) Write ionic equation for the reaction that took place at the cathode (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

21. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow:

Solution K NaOH(aq) White Step (i) Colorless

precipitate L Solution M
Drop wise Excess
Step III excess NH3 (aq)
Step II HCl (aq) NaOH (aq)

White White
precipitate L precipitate

(a) Identify
(i) The cation present in solution K (1mk)

(ii) The white precipitate L (1mk)

(b) Write down the formula of the complex ion present in the colorless solution M (1mk)

22. The diagram below is a section of a model of the structure of element T.

(a) State the type of bonding that exists in T. (1 mark)

(b) In which group of the period table does element T belong? Give a reason. (2 mks)

23. (a). Describe how carbon (IV) oxide can be distinguished from Carbon (II) Oxide using
calcium hydroxide solution. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)What is the role of carbon (IV) oxide in fire extinguishing? (1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

24. During extraction of iron in the blast furnace, state the uses of the following from the furnace.
a. Molten slag (1 mark)

b. Waste gases leaving the furnace. (1 mark)

c. Limestone (1 mark)

25. Hydrogen has can be prepared by passing steam over heated magnesium ribbon as
shown in the figure below

(a) Write an equation for the reaction that produces hydrogen gas. (1mk)

(b) Explain why the delivery tube must be removed from beneath the water before heating is
stopped. (1 mark)

(c) Explain why sodium metal is not suitable for this experiment. (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
233/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:-

 Write your Name and Admission number in the spaces provided.
 Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
 Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
 All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

For Examiners Use Only

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 11
2 11
3 9
4 11
5 8
6 7
7 12
8 11
Total 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

1. The table below shows some elements in the periodic table. Use it to answer the questions
that follow. The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements.

1.

F
A G E B D

(a) Show the electron arrangement of ions of elements: (1mk)

A ………………………..
B……………………..
(b) Show on the grid above the position of an element Y whose ion Y2- has an electron
configuration of 2.8.8. (1mk)

(c) Compare the following with explanation.

i) The reactivity of A and C. (2mks)

ii) Atomic radii of elements A and B. (2mks)

iii) The melting point of the oxide of element G and the oxide of D. (2mks)

(d) Name the type of bond formed when E and D react. Explain your answer. (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(e) The ionic radius of element D is bigger than its atomic radius. Explain. (2mks)

2. The following are some standard electrode potentials of some elements. Use them to answer
the questions that follow:

Eθ volts

A 2+ (aq) + 2e A(s) -0.28V

B2+ (aq) + 2e B(s) -0.40V

(a) Write the overall equation when the two half cells are combined (1mk)

(b) In the space below draw a diagram showing electrochemical cell when A and B are
combined (3mks)

(c) During electrolysis of a divalent element G a current of 0.06 amperes was passed for 99
minutes. Determine the amount of metal G deposited at the cathode. (If =96500C, G=184)
(2 mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(d) Give one uses of electrolysis (½mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Below is a diagram of a dry cell.

Carbon rod

Powdered carbon +
Manganese (IV) oxide Ammonium
chloride paste

(i) State the use of manganese (iv) oxide (½ mk)

(ii) Write an ionic equation for the reaction at the:

Anode- (½ mk)

Cathode- (½ mk)

(iii) Why is aluminum chloride used as a paste rather than a dry solid? (1 mk)

(iv) Draw a diagram to show how an aluminium spoon can be electroplated with copper.
(2 mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

3. A state of equilibrium between dichromate (VI) and chromate ions is established as shown
in the equation below.
Cr2O7(aq) + 2OH-(aq) 2CrO4(aq) + H2O(l)
Orange Yellow
(a) (i)What is meant by dynamic equilibrium? (1mk)

(ii) State one characteristics of dynamic equilibrium (1mk)

(b) State and explain observation made when a few pellets of potassium hydroxide are added to
the equilibrium mixture (2mks)

(c) An experiment was done using magnesium ribbon and dilute hydrochloric acid of different
concentrations. The time needed to produce 50cm3 of the gas for every experiment was
recorded in the table below.
Concentratio 2. 1.7 1.5 1.2 1.0 0.7 0.5 0.2
n Of HCl 0 5 0 5 0 5 0 5
in
mol/Litre
Time in Sec 8. 10. 11. 13. 17. 22. 35. 70.
(s) 8 0 7 5 5 7 5 0
1/ Sec -1
t

(i) Complete the table above (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 (ii) Plot a graph of rate (1/time) against concentration (3mks)

(iii) Determine from your graph the concentration needed to produce 50cm3 of hydrogen gas,
when time is 15 seconds (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

4. Use the flow chart below to answer the questions that follow.

HBr
J CH2CH2 Polymer K
Step I High temperature
Ni/H2 High pressure

Conc H2SO4

SubstanceNa
M(s) Gas P

H+/KMnO4

Gas S
Na2CO3(s) Substance N

Step II NaOH
R

Sodalime + Heat
Q CH3Cl
Step III

(a) Name the following: (1 mk)

(i) Gas P ………………………………………………
(ii) Gas J ……………………………………………….

(b) Name the process involved in the following step. (1mk)

(i) Step II …………………………………………….
(ii) Step III …………………………………………….

(c) Draw the possible structure of compound L. (1 mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(d) Write equation for;
(i) The complete combustion of substance M (1 mk)

(ii) Formation of substance R. (1 mk)

(e) Name the condition and reagent in step III. (1mk)

Reagent
Condition

(f) Draw the structural formula of compound N. (1 mark)

(g) Chlorine is used to prepare vinylchloride(CH2 = CHCl).

(i) State why chloroethene, undergoes addition polymization. (1mk)

(ii) Name one use the polymer formed (1mk)

(h) Draw the structures of the following compounds. (2mks)

i) 3,4 dibromo-1- chloro-2-methylbut-2-ene

ii) hexan-1,6-dioic acid

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

5. Study the flow chart below starting from iron metal.

Compound B
Solid A+ H2 gas
Chlorine gas
Step 1 Steam

Fe2O3.3H2O Air Fe(s) Hot conc. H2SO4 Fe2(SO4)3+H2O+gas D

Moisture Step 3
Step 2
Step 4 Sulphur

heat
Compound T

Step 5 dil. HCl(aq)

Step 6 FeCl2 gas L

Solid x (i) NaOH (aq)
(ii) Filter

step 7
H2O2(aq)

Step 8 step 9
Brown solution (i) NaOH Solid V heat Solid
(ii) Filter C

(a) Name gases (1mk)

D……….………………………………………………………………
L……….………………………………………………………………
(b) Identify the following substances. (3mks)
(i) CompoundB……….………………………
(ii) Compound T……….……………………………
(iii) SolidA……….…………………………
(iv) SolidV……….…………………………
(v) SolidX……….………………………………
(vi) Solid C ………………………………………………..

(c) What name is given to the reaction in step 2? (1mk

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
(d) Write balanced equations for the reactions that occurred in
(i) Step 1 1mk

(ii) Step 5 1mk

(e) What property of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is indicated in step 7 of the flow chart? 1mk

6. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.
Residue

Na OH (s) Step (i) Solution x

Ore N Q

Step (ii)

Molten Electrolysis Molten Step (iii) Al2O3

Aluminium mixture
(iv)

(a) Name two Ores of N. (1mk)

(b) Explain why the ore is first dissolved in excess sodium hydroxide solution (1mk)

(c) Give the formula of the aluminium compound present in solution X (1mk)

(d) Explain how to obtain aluminium hydroxide from solution X (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(e) (i) Write an equation of the reaction that takes place in (d) above (1mk)

(ii)What is the role of cryolite (Na3Alf6) in the extraction of Aluminium (1mk)

(iii) Explain why Na+ and F – ions are not discharged during electrolysis in step (iv) (1mk)

7. (a)In an experiment 10.6g of a mixture of a anhydrous Sodium Carbonate and Sodium

chloride were dissolved in water to make 100cm3 of solution.25cm3of this solution required
20cm3 of 1M Hydrochloric acid solution for complete neutralization.
(i) Calculate the number of moles of Hydrochloric acid used (1mk)

(ii) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs. (1mk)

(iii) Calculate the mass of Sodium Carbonate in 25 cm3n of this mixture. (1mk)

(iv) Determine the moles of Sodium Carbonate in 100cm3 of the mixture. (1mk)

(v) What is the mass of sodium carbonate in the mixture? (2 mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(vi) Calculate the percentage of Sodium Chloride in the mixture. (2mks)

(b). A gaseous compound P contains 55% Carbon, 9.1 % Hydrogen and the rest is Oxygen.
(i) Determine the empirical formula of P.(C=12, H=1, O=16) (2mks)

(ii) Given that 0.262g of P occupies a volume of 67cm3 at s.t.p

I: Calculate the relative formula mass of P. (1mk)

II: Determine the molecular formula of P. (1mk)

(Molar gas volume at s.t.p.=22.4 dm3)

8. a)The diagram below show the preparation and properties of chlorine gas .Study it and
answer the questions that follows.
Aluminium Solid D
Liquid A metal

Solid C
Heat

Conc. H2 SO4
Potassium Liquid B
manganate (VII)

i) Name liquids A and B

A……. (1mk)
B…… (1mk)
ii) Suggest a suitable reagent that can be used as solid D. (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

iii) State the role of solid D. (1mk)

iv) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction in the conical flask. (1mk)

v) Explain why solid C collects further away from the heated aluminium metals. (1mk)

vi) In the combustion tube above, 0.675g of aluminium metal reacted completely with 1800cm3
of chlorine gas at room temperature. Determine the molecular formula of solid C, given that
its relative formula mass is 267.(Al = 27.0,Cl = 35.5, molar gas volume at r.t.p.= 24.0 litres)
(3mks)

b) The reaction between hot concentrated sodium hydroxide and chlorine gas produces sodium
chlorate (V) as one of the products.
i) Write the equation of the reaction. (1 mk)

ii) Give one use of sodium chlorate (V). (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

CONFIDENTIAL
INSTRUCTIONS TO ALL SCHOOLS
Requirements:
Apart from the common laboratory apparatus and chemicals, each candidate will require the
following:-
 About 100cm3 solution A
 About 100cm3 solution B
 A 6cm long piece of magnesium ribbon
 A 30cm ruler
 One 250ml volumetric flask
 Means of heating
 50ml measuring cylinder
 One 10ml measuring cylinder
 2 dry conical flasks
 One 100ml beaker
 Stop watch
 About 500cm3 distilled water supplied in a wash bottle
 One boiling tube
 6 test tubes in a rack
 About 0.1g of sodium carbonate
 0.5g Solid K
 Means of heating
 1g Solid N
 One burette 0 -50ml
 One pipette 25ml
 One filter paper and filter funnel
 Six label

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ACCESS TO:
 Bunsen burner
 Methyl indicator
 2M aqeous sodium hydroxide
 2M aqeous potassium iodide
 2M nitric acid
 Bromine water
 Universal indicator and pH chart
 Acidified potassium manganate (vii) solution

NOTES:
 Solution A is prepared by dissolving 110cm3 of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid in 500cm3 of
distilled water and making one litre of solution using distilled water and labelled solution A
 Solution B is made by dissolving 10.4g of potassium carbonate (K 2CO3) in 500cm3 of distilled
water and making to one litre of solution using distilled water and labelled solution B
 Magnesium ribbon should be cleaned with sand paper before issuing to students. Each student
requires 6cm long piece.
 Solid K (maleic acid)
 About 1.0g of solid N (mixture of Pb(NO3)2 and PbCO3 in equal parts)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
 Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
 You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2 ¼
hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make
sure you have all the chemicals and apparatus you need.
 All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
 Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 17
2 14
3 9
TOTAL 40

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

1. You are provided with:
i) Aqueous Sulphuric (VI) acid labeled solution A.
ii) Solution B containing 10.4g per litre of potassium carbonate.
iii) A clean piece of magnesium ribbon.
iv) Methyl orange indicator.

You are required to determine the:
i) Concentration of solution A
ii) Rate of reaction between magnesium and Sulphuric (VI) acid – solution A, at different
concentration
Procedure A
i) Using a measuring cylinder, place 25.0cm3 of solution A into a 250ml volumetric flask.
ii) Add distilled water to make 250cm3 of solution. Label this solution C.
iii) Place solution C in a burette.
iv) Using a pipette and pipette filler place 25.0cm3 of solution B into a conical flask.
v) Add 2 drops of methyl orange indicator provided and titrate with solution C.
vi) Record your results in table I below.
 Repeat the titration two more times and complete table I.

Table I.
I II III
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading
(cm3)
Volume of solution C used
(cm3)
(3 mrks)
a) Calculate:
i) Average volume of solution C used . (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ii) Concentration of potassium carbonate in solution B (C = 12.0, O = 16.0, K = 39.0) (1 mk)

iii) Concentration of Sulphuric (VI) acid in solution C. (1½ mks)

iv) Concentration of Sulphuric (VI) acid in solution A (1½ mks)

Procedure B
 Label five test tubes 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
 Empty the burette wash and rinse. Fill it with solution A.
 From the burette, place 10cm3 of solution A into test tube number 1. From the same burette,
place 9cm3 of solution A into test tube number 2. Repeat the process for test tube numbers 3,
4 and 5 as shown in table II below.
 Using a 10ml measuring cylinder, measure 1cm3 of distilled water and add it to test tube number
2. Repeat the process for test-tube numbers 3, 4 and 5 as shown in table II below.
 Cut out five pieces exactly 1cm long of the magnesium ribbon.
 Transfer all the solution in test tube number 1 into a clean 100ml beaker provided. Put one piece
of the magnesium ribbon provided. Put one piece of the magnesium ribbon into the beaker and
immediately start a stopwatch.
 Swirl the beaker gently to ensure the magnesium is always inside the solution.
 Record in table II below the time taken in seconds for magnesium ribbon to disappear.
 Pour away the final contents of the beaker and rinse it with water.
 Repeat the procedure from (iv) for each of the remaining test tube numbers 2, 3, 4 and 5 and
complete the table II

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

b) Table II
Test tube number 1 2 3 4 5
Volume of solution A 10 9 8 7 6
added cm3
Volume of water added 0 1 2 3 4
cm3
Time taken (seconds)
1
Rate of reaction ( )
time

(4 marks)
i) Plot a graph of volume of solution A added (y –axis) against rate of reaction 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
1
(3mks

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ii) What is the relationship between the concentration of solution A and the rate of reaction?
Explain. (2 marks)

2. You are provided with mixture N. You are required to:-

i) Carry out tests on mixture N
ii) Record your observations and inferences accordingly.

Procedure
i) Place a spatulaful of mixture N in a test tube.
ii) Add 8cm3 of distilled water and shake well
iii) Filter and retain the residue
a) Divide the filtrate into five portions.
Observations Inferences

1mk
1mk

b) Add sodium hydroxide to the first portion drop wise while observing till in excess.
Observations Inferences

1mk 1mk

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

c) Add ammonia solution to the second portion of the filtrate drop wise, until in excess.
Observations Inferences

1mk 1mk

d) Add 1cm3 dilute hydrochloric acid to the third portion.

Observations Inferences

1mk 1mk

e) Add a few drops of potassium iodide solution to the fourth portion.

Observations Inferences

1mk 1mk

f) Add a few drops of lead (ii) nitrate solution to the fifth portion.
Observations Inferences

1mk 1mk

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

g) Remove the residue from the filter paper and place it in a test tube, add 5cm3 of dilute nitric
(V) acid.
Observations Inferences

1mk 1mk

3. You are provided with solid K. Carry out the tests below. Write your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
a) Place about a third of solid K on a metallic spatula and ignite using a non – luminous flame.
Observation Inference

(1 mark) (½ mark)
b) Place the remaining of solid K into a test tube. Add 10cm3 of distilled water and shake the
mixture well. (Retain the mixture for use in c).
Observation Inference

(1 mark) (½ mark)
c) i) To about 2cm3 of the mixture, add 3 drops of universal indicator.
Observation Inference

(½ mark) (½ mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ii) To about 2cm3 of the mixture, add a small amount of sodium carbonate.
Observation Inference

(1/2 mark) (1/2 mark)

iii) To about 2cm3 of the mixture, add 2 drops of acidified potassium manganate (VII).
Observation Inference

(1 mark) (1 mark)

iv) To about 2cm3 of mixture, add 2 drops of bromine water.

Observation Inference

(1mark) (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
231/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, Index number and name of your school in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORES CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 – 26 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 Answer ALL the questions
1. State the functions of the following cell structures during cell division: (2 mks)
(i) Centriole -
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Centromere –
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The diagram below represents a transverse section through a plant organ.

(a) From which plant organ was the section obtained ? (1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State two structural differences between ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic
acid (DNA). (2 mks)
RNA DNA

(i) (i)

(ii) (ii)

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4. Explain what would happen when a marine amoeba is transferred to a fresh water
environment. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. A small amount of chemical A was put on one side of maize coleoptiles. After some days, it
was noted that the coleoptiles curved away from the side to which the chemical was applied.

(a) Suggest the possible identity of chemical substance A. (1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Explain how this chemical might have caused the coleoptiles to curve. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State name given to the study of:-

(a) Blood –
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Classification of living things –

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. (a) Name the products of complete hydrolysis of sucrose. (1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What happens to the products named in (a) above, when they are excess to the body.
(2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

8. (a) Give the formula for calculating linear magnification of a specimen when using a hand
lens. (1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give one functional advantage of each of the following parts of a microscope. (2 mks)
(i) Light microscope –
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Electron microscope –
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. An investigation was set up as shown in the diagram below

After 30 minutes, starch suspension had turned to blue-black while iodine solutions retained
its colour
(a) Name the physiological process that was being investigated in the experiment.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Account for the results observed after 30 minutes. (2 mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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10. (a) Name the respiratory surface in insects. (1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State any one feature that adapts the structure named in (10 a) above to its function.
(1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Name the hormone involved in the following stages of insect metamorphosis. (2 mks)
(a) (i) Formation of the larval cuticle –

(ii) Moulting in insects leading to the laying of adult cuticle

(b) Outline the stages of metamorphosis in:- (2 mks)

(i) A cockroach –
(ii) A butterfly -

12. The diagram below shows a bone that was obtained from a mammal.

(a) Identify the bone. (1 mk)

(b) (i) Name the type of joint formed at the part marked P. (1 mk)

(ii) State one characteristic of the joint named in (b) above. (1 mk)

(c) What is the function of the part labeled Q. (1 mk)

13. When setting up a photometer; explain why the leafy shoot is cut under water. (1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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14. (a) In view of modern gastric; explain why Lamarck’s theory of evolution is inacceptable.
(2 mks)

(b) A cow produced a calf with five legs. What is the genetic term used for such a calf.
(1 mk)

15. Name the hormone produced to the human body when:- (3 mks)
(i) Blood glucose level is low –

(ii) Amount of sodium ions in blood is below normal

(iii) One is facing imminent danger.

16. A process that occurs in some organisms is represented by the equation below,.
C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + Energy
(a) Name the process. (1 mk)

(b) State the names of compound K. (1 mk)

(c) State the economic importance of the above reaction in Kenyan industries. (1 mk)

17. The diagram below represents a summary of the main phases of human menstrual cycle.

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 (a) Name process labeled X. (1 mk)

(b) Name the hormone responsible for the process that takes place in day 14. (1 mk)

(c) State two secondary sexual characteristics in female. (2 mks)

18. A form one student observed a cell under a light microscope which had a field of view of
4.2mm. This length was occupied by 7 cells. Work out the appropriate length of such cell
in micrometers. (2 mks)

(b) Explain why microscope sections are required to very thin. (1 mk)`

19. The diagram below shows the position of an image formed in the human eye.

(a) Name the defect. (1 mk)

(b) Explain how the defect named in (a) above can be corrected. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

20. Distinguish between guttation and transpiration. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. (a) Two species in an ecosystem cannot occupy the same niche. Explain. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Define the term discontinuous variation. (1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State two examples of discontinuous variation. (2 mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. (a) State two uses of ATP energy in living organisms. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What do you understand by the term Oxygen Debt? (1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State the significance of respiratory quotient. (2 mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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23. State three differences between endocrine system and nervous system. (3 mks)
Endocrine System Nervous System
(i) (i)
(ii) (ii)
(iii) (iii)

24. (a) Distinguish between a hinge joint and a ball and socket joint. (1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name the cartilage found between the bones of the vertebral column. (1 mk)

(c) State the function of the cartilage named in (b) above. (1 mk)

25. In an experiment, it was observed that when termites are exposed to light, they move to
darker ends.
(a) Name the type of response exhibited by termites. (1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What are the survival values of the type of response exhibited by the termites. (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. (a) State where the following processes occur during photosynthesis:-
(i) Light stage (1 mk)
(ii) Dark stage (1 mk)

(b) State two importance of light during photosynthesis. (2 mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
231/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided
c) Answer all questions in section A
d) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
SECTION A
1. 8
2. 8
3. 8
4. 8
5. 8
SECTION B
6. 20
7. 20
8. 20
TOTAL 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 SECTION A:
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. A biological washing powder contains an enzyme. The enzyme removes stain such as blood
from clothes by digestion when the clothes are soaked in water with no powder.
(a) What is an enzyme? (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Identify two possible enzymes that are found in the washing powder above. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Would the stains be removed faster with the powder in water at 30oC or 150C.(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Explain your answer in (c ) above (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Why would boiling the clothes socked with the washing powder do not remove the stains?
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. A couple had three children, the mother had blood group A and the father had blood group B.
While one of the children had blood group O
a)(i) What were the genotypes of the parents. (1mks)

(ii) What was the genotype of the child with blood group O (1mk)

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b) Work out using genetic crosses the genotypes of the other children. (4mks)

c) Which child can receive blood from any member of the family? (1mk)

d) State the percentage of children who can donate blood to al blood groups. (1mk)

3. Distinguish between pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) From an ecological study, students formed the following food web.

Hawk

Small birds

Lizard

Caterpillar small insects’ large insects

Earthworm
Green plants

Recycling leaves

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From the food web, construct two food chains with lizard as a tertiary consume. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

c)(i) Which organism has the least biomass in the ecosystem. (1mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Give reasons for your answer (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Examine the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the parts labelled A- D. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State the type of germination exhibited by the seedling above (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State two roles of water during germination. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
(d) Explain how the part labelled x would strengthen. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The diagram below shows the internal arrangement of muscles in the eye.

(a) How is the pupil affected by contraction of ;

(i) Circular muscles (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Radial muscles (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Where are light sensitive cells located in the eye. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(c) What is short sightedness? (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Explain why cones have a higher visual acuity as compared to rods. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B:
Answer question 6 and either question 7 or 8.
6. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of reaction
catalyzed by an enzyme. The results are as shown below.
Rate of reaction in mg of
Temperature (o) product
per unit time
5 0.2
10 0.6
15 0.9
20 1.2
25 1.6
30 2.2
35 3.1
40 3.8
45 3.5
50 2.9
55 2.2
60 1.2

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a) Draw a graph of rate of reaction against temperature. (6mks)

b) Determine when the rate of reaction is 2.5mg of product per unit time. (2mks)

c) Account for the shape of the graph between:

(i) 5oC- 40oC (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) 45oC – 60oC (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Other than temperature give two other ways of increasing the rate of reaction between 5 oC
and 40oC. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) (i) Identify a digestive enzyme in human that requires acidic conditions for its working.
(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Explain how the acidic conditions above is achieved (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Enzyme in region of alimentary canal below the stomach requires alkaline conditions.
i) Name substances responsible for neutralization. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name the part of the alimentary canal where neutralization take place. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
g) (i) What are enzyme cofactors? (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Identify one metallic element used as enzyme cofactor. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. (a) How is the human ear adapted to perform its functions? (20mks)
8. (a) Describe how the following supports the theory of evolution. (4mks)
(i) Geographical distribution of organisms
(ii) Comparative anatomy
(b) Describe how hormones regulate the menstrual cycle in human beings. (16mks)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

CONFIDENTIAL
BIOLOGY PAPER 3

REQUIREMENTS:

1. Onion bulb with aerial leaf and shoots label Q

2. Iodine solution
3. Benedict solution
4. Test tubes each student
5. Source of heat
6. Mortar and pestle

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1.

2.

3.

TOTAL 40

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. You are provided with a specimen labeled Q.
(a) Examine the outer and inner leaves of the bulb
(i) Record the differences between them. (1 mk)

(ii) Give reasons for the differences in a(i) above. (1 mk)

(b) Separate the roots and aerial leaves from the bulb. Crush the roots, aerial leaves and the
bulb separately. To each crushed material, add 1ml of water. Put the extract from the
material into separate test tubes and label them. Using the reagents provided, test for the
food substances in each of the extracts. Record the procedure, observations and
conclusions in the table below. (9 mks)

Extract Procedure Observations Conclusions

Roots

Bulb

Aerial
leaves

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(c) Account for the results obtained in (b) above.
(i) Roots (2 mks)

(ii) Bulb (2 mks)

(iii) Aerial leaves (2 mks)

2. Below are photographs of some observable features of leaves.

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 Using the features in the order given below, construct a dichotomous key that can be used to
identify the specimens.

 Simple or compound leaves

 Leaf variation
 Leaf margin
 Arrangement of leaves on the stem.

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3. The photographs below represent three mammalian bones labeled E, F and G.

(a) With reasons, identify the bones. (6 MKS)

Bone Identity Reason(s)

(b) Name the joints formed at the anterior and posterior ends of F.
(i) Anterior end (1 mk)

(ii) Posterior end (1 mk)

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(c) State the type of movement facilitated by the joint at the anterior end of specimen
labeled F. (1 mk)

(d) (i) Name the substance found inside the living tissue of the specimen represented in
photograph F. (1 mk)

(ii) State the function of the substance named in d(i) above. (1 mk)

(e) (i) Name the muscle bundle usually attached onto the front of the specimen represented
in photograph F. (1 mk)

(ii) State the function of the muscle bundle named in (e) (i) above. (1 mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
MATHEMATICS
121/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

INSTRUCTIONS TO DANDIDATES
1. Write your name, index number and class.
2. The paper contains two sections: Section I and II
3. Answer ALL questions in section I and ONLY FIVE questions from section II.
4. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
5. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

GRAND TOTAL
SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 TOTAL

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 SECTION 1 (50 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. Simplify the expression (3mks)
12𝑥 2 − 27
4 − (2𝑥 + 1)

𝑥−1 2𝑥−1 1
2. Solve the equation − = . (3mks)
𝑥 3𝑥 4

3. A flag post 10m long is mounted on top of a pillar. The angle of depression from the top of the
flag post to a point A on the horizontal ground is 600 while the angle of depression to the same
point A from the bottom of the flag post is 400. Calculate the height of the pillar. (3mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

4. The exchange rates of currencies in a certain bank in Kenya on a certain day were as follows;
Currency Buying Selling (Ksh)
(Ksh)
1 US dollar 104.37 105.42
1 Euro 121.51 122.62

John exchanged 27,520 US dollars into Ksh in this bank.

a) How much Ksh did he receive? (2mks)

b) After spending Ksh. 973,289 he converted the remainder to Euros. How many Euros did he
finally have? (Give your answer to the nearest Euro). (2mks)

5. An irregular polygon has two of its interior angles as 135 0 and 1050. The remaining interior
angles are all equal to 1500. Calculate the sum of its interior angles. (3mks)

6. A fruit juice dealer sell the juice in packet of 300ml, 500ml and 750ml. find the size of the
smallest container that can fill each of the packets and leave a remainder of 200ml. (3mks)

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7. In a fundraising committee of 45 people, the ratio of men to women is 7:2. Find the number
of women required to join the existing committee so that the ratio of men to women is
changed to 5: 4. (3mks)

8. Jemima’s team entered a contest where teams of students compete by answering questions
that earn either 3 points of 5 points. Jemima’s team scored 44 points after answering 12
questions correctly. How many five-point questions did the team answer correctly? (3mks)

9. The figure below shows a trough which is 40 cm wide at the top and 25 cm wide at the
bottom. The trough is 20cm deep and 4.5 m long. Calculate the capacity of the trough in
litres. (3mks)

40 cm

4.5 m

25 cm

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10. Using compass and ruler only construct a triangle ABC such that AB= 6cm, BC = 5cm and
angle ABC = 67.5o measure the length of AC. (3mks)

11. The two sides of a triangle are given 6 cm and 5 cm. the angle between them is 130 o.
Calculate the area of the triangle (giving your answer to 2 decimal places) (3mks)

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12. The length of a rectangular mat is 1.5 m longer than its width; Find the length of the mat if
its area is 6.5m2(give your answer to 4 significant figures) (3mks)

13. State the amplitude, period and the phase angle of the curve Y= 2 sin (1.5X - 300) (3mks)

14. (a) Using line AB given below, construct the locus of point P such that angle APB =90 o.
(2mks)

A B

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 (b) On the same diagram locate two possible positions of point C such that point C is on the
locus of P and is equidistant from A and B. (2mks)

15. Given that OA= 2i + 3j and OB=3i- 2j. Find the magnitude of AB to one decimal place.
(3mks)

16. Determine the quartile deviation for the following distribution. (3mks)
3,4,9,5,4,7,6,2,1,6,7,8,9

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 SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer ONLY FIVE questions in this section.
17. A point A is (-1, 8) and B is (8, 2).
a)
i. Find ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑨𝑩. (2mks)

⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ |
ii. Find |𝑨𝑩 (2mks)

b) Given that a point P divides ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

𝑨𝑩 in the ratio 1:2, find the position vector of point P. (2mks)

c) Another point R has co-ordinates (11, 0). Show that points A, B and R are collinear. (4mks)

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18. The table below shows marks obtained by 40 students in an examination.
Marks 5 - 14 15 - 30 - 35 - 45 – 49
29 34 44
Frequency 2 12 7 15 X
a) Find the value of x. (1mk)

b) Calculate the mean mark. (3mks)

c) On the grid provided, draw a histogram to represent the data above. (4mks)

d) Draw a straight line on the graph above to determine the median mark. (2mks)

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19. A wooden stool is in the form of a frustum of a cone with slant edge 40cm, the top diameter
is 30cm and the bottom diameter is 50cm.
a) Calculate the perpendicular height of the stool to2 d.p. (3mks)

b) Calculate the total surface area of the stool in terms of π. (2mks)

c) Calculate the volume of wood used to make the stool in terms of π to 2 d.p. (3mks)

d) Given that the density of the wood used to make the stool is 0.8g/cm3, calculate the mass of
the stool to 2 d.p. using π as 22/7. (2mks)

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20. Two circles of radii 3.5 and 4.2 cm with centres O1 and O2 respectively intersect at points A
and B as shown in the figure below. The distance between the two centres is 6 cm.

3.5 cm 4.2 cm

B

O2
O1
Calculate
(a) The size of  AO1B ( to the nearest degree) ( 3mks)

(b) The size of  A O2 B ( to the nearest degree) ( 3mks)

(c) The area of quadrilateral O1AO2B, correct to 2 decimal places. (2mks)

(d) The shaded area correct to 2 significant figures. ( take 𝜋 22⁄7) ( 2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

21 (a) Complete the table below for the function y = 2 x 2 + 4 X -3 (2mks)
X -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2
2x2 32 8 2 0 2
4x-3 -11 -3
Y -3 3 13
(b) Draw the graph of the function y = 2x2 + 4x – 3 on the grid provided. (3mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(c) Use your graph to estimate the roots of the equation 2x2 + 4x – 3 = 0 (1mk)

(d) Use your graph to obtain the roots of the equation 2x2 + x – 5 = 0 to 1 decimal place. (3mks)

(e) Draw the line of symmetry to pass through the turning point of this curve. (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

22. A line L passes through (-2, 3) and (-1, 6) and is perpendicular to a line P at (-1, 6).
a) Find the equation of L (2mks)

b) Find the equation of P in the form ax + by = c,where a, b and c are constants. (2mks)

c) Given that another line Q is parallel to L and passes through point (1, 2) find the x and y
intercepts of Q (3mks)

d) Find the point of the intersection of lines P and Q (3mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

23. The vertices of quadrilateral OPQR are O (0, 0), P (2, 0), Q (4, 2) and R (0, 3). The vertices
of its image under a rotation are O’ (1, -1), P'(1, -3) Q'(3, -5) an R'(4, -1).
(a) (i) On the grid provided, draw OPQR and its image O'P'Q'R' (2mks)

(ii) By construction, determine the centre and angle of rotation. (2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(b) On the same grid as (a) (i) above, draw O''P''Q''R'', the image of O'P'Q'R' under a reflection
in the line y = x (2mks)

(c) From the quadrilaterals drawn, state the pairs that are:
(i) Directly congruent; (2mks)

(ii) Oppositely congruent (2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

24. The figure below represents a speed time graph for a cheetah which covered 825m
in 40 seconds.

(a) State the speed of the cheetah when recording of its motion started (1mk)

(b) Calculate the maximum speed attained by the cheetah (3mks)

(c) Calculate the acceleration of the cheetah in:

(i) The first 10 seconds (2mks)

(ii) The last 20 seconds (1mk)

(d) Calculate the average speed of the cheetah in first 20 seconds (3mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
MATHEMATICS
121/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO DANDIDATES
1. Write your name, index number and class.
2. The paper contains two sections: Section I and II
3. Answer ALL questions in section I and ONLY FIVE questions from section II.
4. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
5. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

GRAND TOTAL
SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 TOTAL

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.
1. Given that (2x+a) (x+1)= 2x2 + bx – 3 determine the values of a and b. (2 mks)

2. A bag contains 5 white balls, 3 black balls and 2 green balls. A ball is picked at random from
the bag and not replaced. In three draws find the probability of obtaining white, Black and
Green in that order. (2mks)

3. Christine deposited Kshs. 50,000 in a financial institution in which interest is compounded

quarterly. If at the end of the second year she received a total amount of Kshs. 79,692.40,
calculate the rate of interest per annum. (3mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

4. Given that 2√3 - √3 = a + b √c find the values of a, b and c. (4mks)
1 +√3 1-√3

5. Three quantities P,Q and R are such that P varies jointly with Q and the square of R. find the
percentage decrease in P if Q is increased by 50% and R decreased by 20%. (3mks)

6. Solve for Ѳ (3mks)

8cos2 Ѳ – 2 cos Ѳ = 3
For 0o≤0≤180

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

7. Find the percentage error in the perimeter of a regular pentagon whose side is 15.0cm.
(3mks)

8. a) Show that the circle with equation (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2= 25 passes through the origin.
(1mk)

b)Find the coordinates of another point (not the origin) where the circle cuts x-axis. (3mks)

9. A survey carried out in a rural town on the number of young people who went for HIV test
was shown in the table below:
% infected 36-39 40-43 44-47 48-51 52-55 56-59
No. of 6 5 3 3 2 1
people

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

Calculate the quartile deviation of the data. (4mks)

10. Given that y b-bx2 make x the subject. (3mks)

cx2-a

11. Shopping centres X, Y and Z are such that Y is 12km south of X and Z is 15km from X,Z is
on a bearing of 330o from Y. calculate the bearing of Z from X. (3mks)

12. a) Expand (1 + ½ x)7 up to the term in x3. (2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

b) Hence find the value of (0.96)7 correct to 3 decimal places. (2mks)

13. Solve for x given that log(5x-10) – log x = log 40 – log x where x is not equal to zero.
15 20 (3mks)

14. There are two grades of tea, grade A and Grade B. Grade A costs sh 80 per Kg while Grade
B costs sh 60 per kg. in what ratio must the two be mixed in order to produce a blend costing
sh 75 per kg? (3mks)

15. Use logarithm tables to evaluate. (3mks)

13.4 x 9
12 x log 4.82

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 16. The graph below shows the linear relation between two variable X and Y connected by the
expression Y = pX2 + qx.

Y
X

80

60

40

20

0
1 2 3 4 5 6
X

Using the graph, estimate, to the nearest whole number, the value of:
i. P (2mks)

ii. q (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 SECTION B
ANSWER ANY FIVE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION IN THE SPACES PROVIDED.
17. Two towns A(60oN, 25oW) and B(60oN, 155oE) are both on the same parallel of latitude and
also on the same great circle. A pilot can fly from A to B along the parallel of latitude or
along the great circle over the North pole.
a) Giving your answers to the nearest kilometer, determine which route is shorter and by how
long (Take earth’s radius = 6370km and π=22/7) (6mks)

b) The average speed of the aircraft is 600km/hr. calculate to the nearest minute the time taken
by the pilot using either route) (4mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

18. ABCDV is a rectangular based pyramid with AB = 8cm, BC=6cm and VA
=VB=VC=VD=13cm.

V
13cm

13cm 13cm C
D

6cm
A B
8cm
a) Draw the net of the solid. (2mks)

b) Calculate the height of the pyramid. (2mks)

c) A line is drawn from V through the mid points of BC and AD to V. Calculate the length of
this line. (3mks)

d) Determine the angle the plane VBC makes with plane VAD. (3mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

19. A particle moves in a straight line and passes a point Q when t=0 sec but velocity V= 5m/s, it
accelerates at the rate of a m/s2 given by the formula a = 6t+ 4 when t is time taken.
a) Express the velocity of the particle at t seconds in terms of t. (2mks)

b) What is the velocity at t= 3 sec? (2mks)

c) Calculate the distance covered between t =1 and t=4. (4mks)

d) Find the acceleration when t = 2 seconds. (2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

20. a) Complete the table below for the functions y = cosx and y = 2 cos (x+ 30 o) for O0≤x≤360o
(2mks)
x 0o 30o 60o 90o 120o 150o 180o 210o 240o 270o 300o 330o 360o

Cos x
2cos (x+30o)
b) On the same axis, draw the graph of y = cos x and y=2 cos (x+ 30) for 0 o ≤x≤360o. (4mks)

c) State the amplitude of the graph y = cosxo. (1mk)

ii) State the period of the graph y = 2 cos (x+ 30o) (1mk)

d) Use your graph to solve (2mks)

Cos x = 2 cos (x + 30o)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

21. Two tanks of equal volume are connected in such a way that one tank can be filled by pipe A
in 1 hour 20 minutes. Pipe B can drain one tank in 3 hours 36 minutes but pipe C alone can
drain both tanks in hours. Calculate:
a) The fraction of one tank can be filled by pipe A in one hour. (2mks)

b) The fraction of one tank that can be drained by both pipes B and C in one hour. (4mks)

c) Pipe A closes automatically once both tanks are filled. Assuming that initially both tanks are
empty and all pipes opened at once, calculate how long it takes before pipe A closes. (4mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

22. The table below shows income tax rates.
Monthly income in the Kenya Tax rates percentage (%) in each
shillings shilling
Up to 10164 10
From 10165 to 19740 15
From 19741 to 29320 20
From 29321 to 37040 25
From 37041 and above 30
In one year, Mr. Kamau’s monthly earning was as follows:
Basic salary 20,000
House allowance 12,000
Medical allowance 2,808
Transport allowance 1,764
a) Calculate:
i. Mr. kamau’s taxable income. (2mks)

ii. Tax charged on Mr. Kamau’s earning (4mks)

b) Mr. Kamau was entitled to the following tax reliefs:

i. Monthly personal relief at the rate of 15% of the premium paid. If Mr. Kamau paid a monthly
premium of Kshs. 2,500 and cooperative shares of Kshs. 5,000 per month, calculate his net
salary. (4mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

23. The second, third and fourteenth terms of arithmetic progression are the three consecutive
terms of a geometric progression. The 10th term of the arithmetic progression is 18. Find:
a) The first term and the common difference of the progression. (4mks)

b) The sum of the first 10 terms of the Arithmetic progression. (2mks)

c) The sixth term f the G.P. (4mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

24. A certain uniform supplier is required to supply two types of shirts: one for girls labeled G
and the other for boys labeled B. the total number of shirts must not be more than 400. She
has to supply more of type G than of type B. however the number of type G shirts must not
be more than 300 and the number of type B shirts must not be less than 80. By taking x to be
the number of type G shirts and y to be the number of type B shirts.
a) Write down in terms of x and y all the inequalities representing the information above.
(4mks)

b) On the grid provided below draw the inequalities and shade the unwanted regions. (4mks)

c) Given that type G costs shs. 500 per shirt and type B costs shs. 300 per shirt use the graph
above to determine the number of shirts of each type that should be made to maximize the
sales. (2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
● Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above
● This paper consists of two sections A and B.
● Answer ALL questions in section A.
● .Answer question 11 and any other THREE questions from section B.
● All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper.

For Examiners Use Only

Section Questions Candidates Score
A 1-15
16
17
18
19
B 20
TOTAL SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 SECTION A
Answer All questions in this section
1. Suggest two disadvantages of a notebook computer when compared with a desktop
Computer. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. (a)What is a software suite? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Suggest two advantages of using a software suite. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. (a) Explain the two major types of software. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give an example of each of the above (2 Marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. (a) Explain the term Process Control. (1 Mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State two areas where process control is used in industry (2 Marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

5. (a) Give one advantage of serial connection over parallel connection. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give one advantage of parallel connection over serial connection. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. (a) Explain the term pipelining as used in CPU (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Explain How parallel processing work (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Give two advantages and two disadvantages of display devices (e.g., monitors). (4 marks)
Advantages:
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
Disadvantages:
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. (a)Explain briefly why increasing the main memory may improve the performance (e.g.,
speed) of a computer system. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Explain the term memory address as used in primary memory (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
9. Explain the following as used in word processing (3 Marks)
i. Spell-check
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Thesaurus
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Macros:
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Explain the following spreadsheet concepts:

i. Automatic Recalculation. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. What if analysis (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Suggest two advantages of using presentation graphics software over the traditional
chalk-and-talk approach in a school environment (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. (a) Explain the term workstation as used in a networked environment (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)What is a server? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
13. (a)Explain briefly identification and authentication in computer access control. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)What is a personal identification number (PIN)? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. (a)Explain the term ergonomics. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Suggest two possible causes of eyestrain due to prolonged use of computers. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State Three benefits of telecommuting. (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B
Answer question 16 (compulsory) and any other three questions from this section
16. (a)(i) State and describe three types of error can occur in programming: (3 Marks)
(ii) When is a programming language considered structured? (2 marks)
(b)(i) The Global Science Museum is not large and can become over-crowded when more than
300 people are in the building. They would like a program that will stop visitors from
entering when more than 300 visitors are in the building.
Design a Pseodocode segment for this problem using a REPEAT loop. You do not have to
worry about visitors who leave the building, just those who have entered. (3 Marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(ii)Indentify Three aspects of a good HCI? . (3 Marks)
(c)(i)Give one advantage of compliers over interpreters (1 mark)
(ii)Give one advantage of interpreters over compliers (1 mark)
(iii)Explain briefly why the source codes must be translated again if the programmer wants
to use the program on a computer with a different platform. (1 mark)
(iv). Explain why a programmer may prefer to write code for device drivers using low level
languages. (1 Mark)

17. (a) (i) With the aid of examples, explain number complements in the Binary number systems
(2 marks)
(ii) Outline the benefits of using binary number complementation in computers. (2 marks)
(b) (i) Why is binary number system best suited for use in computers? (2 marks)
(ii) Convert the following base two number into base ten. (2 marks)
11.01
(iii)Convert the following base sixteen number into base two. 2 marks)
DEF=
(c) Carry out the following binary arithmetic:
(i) 11 + 10 (1 mark)
(ii) 101 X 11 (1 mark)
( iii) 101/11 (1 mark)
(iv) 101 – 11 (1 mark)

18. Describe briefly the three data processing modes (3 marks)

i. Batching Processing Mode
ii. Real-time Processing Mode
iii. Interactive Processing Mode
(b)(i)Suggest two possible reasons for data preparation errors. (2 marks)
(ii) Suggest two possible reasons for data input errors. (2 marks)
(c) (i)Distinguish between data validation and data verification. (1 mark)
(ii)Give two examples of data verification techniques. (2 marks)
(d) Describe briefly the following data validation techniques
i. Presence Check (1 mark)
ii. Type Check (1 mark)
iii. Range Check (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

iv. Control Total Check (1 mark)
v. Parity Checks (1 mark)
19. (a) (i) Explain the term search engine (1 mark)
(ii) Peter and Mary use the same keyword to search for information. Suggest two reasons
why their search results are different. (2 marks)
(iii)State one disadvantage of using an e-mail account provided by the Internet service
provider (ISP). (1 mark)
(b) (i) Explain the term URL (1 mark)
(ii) For the URL http://www.csklsc.net/pe/calendar.htm,
http stands for (1 mark)
The domain name is (1 mark)
The top-level domain (TLD) is (1 mark)
pe stands for (1 mark)
(c) (i) Explain the term communication protocol (1 mark)
(ii)Explain the following types of communication protocol
Ethernet (1 mark)
Token Ring (1 mark)
TCP/IP (1 mark)
(iii)Give Two examples of wireless-based communications channels. (2 marks)

20. (a).Describe the role of the systems analyst. (2 Marks)

(b).Describe Two techniques used by the systems analyst in requirements elicitation. (2 Mks)
(c)What is a requirements specification and what does it contain? (5 Marks)
(d) Software development is often said to be an iterative process.
Describe Two events that might spark an iterative process in software development.(2 Mks)
(e) (i) Describe briefly the three basic e-commerce models. (3 Marks)
(ii) Apart from parental control, state one other ways of Internet censorship. (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/2
PAPER 2 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Indicate your name and index number at the right hand corner of each printout
b) Write your name and index number on the CD/removable storage medium provided
c) Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer
sheet provided
d) Answer all the questions
e) All questions carry equal marks
f) Passwords should not be used while saving in the CD/removable storage Medium
g) Marked printout of the answers on the sheet
h) Arrange your printouts and staple them together
i) Hand in all the printouts and the CD/removable storage medium used
j) All the work should be saved at the desktop of your computer in a folder named with our
name and index number. All the work in your folder should be burned to the CD/WR
provided

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

1. The Management of a company owning a chain of hotels intend to use a spreadsheet program
to compute the revenues in thousands of Kenya Shillings for the hotels during the 1 st, 2nd, 3rd
and 4th quarters. The hotels are rated as 2 star, 3star, 4 star and 5 star. Figure 1 below shows
an extract of the worksheet.

HOTEL STAR 1ST 2ND 3RD 4TH TOTAL REVENUE

CATEGORY
City Inn 4 174,400 177,400 127,900 180,800
Forkland 2 173,700 111,300 194,900 103,700
Highway 4 182,900 136,300 143,900 144,600
Hiltop 5 188,500 124,700 173,500 171,200
Membley 5 187,800 118,700 115,900 195,500
Voyager 3 139,100 178,400 109,600 179,700
Eden 2 200,000 112,200 109,100 117,200
Palm 4 169,800 163,000 173,000 148,300
The Shaza 5 163,900 106,800 107,100 150,500

Total Quaterly Revenue

Administrative cost
Percentage 30%

(a) Open a spreadsheet program and create the worksheet extract as it appears in Figure 1.
Save the workbook as Task 1 (11 marks)
(b) Use a function and cell addresses to calculate:
(i) Total revenue for each quarter; (2 mark)
(ii) Total revenue for each hotel.(2 marks)
(c) (i) Insert two rows above row I and type the title "MBALAMBALA GROŒ
HOTELS" in cell Al (2 marks)
(ii) Merge the cells in the range Al I. (l mark)
(iii) Apply bold and font size 15 to the title. (1 mark)
(d) Using cell addresses only, compute the administrative cost for each quarter given that the
cost is a percentage of total revenue and the percentage rate IS In cell B18. (34)
(e) Apply thick outside borders and regular inside borders to cells in the range A3:
(f) (i) Copy all the contents of the current worksheet to a new worksheet. (2 marks)
(ii)Rename the old worksheet as original and the new worksheet as formatted
(2 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(g) (i) Change the page layout orientation of the formatted worksheet to landscape and the page
size scaled to 80%. (2 marks)
(ii) Enter the values 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the cell range B20: B23 respectively representing the hotel
star category ratings. (1 mark)
(iii)Using a function and cell references:
Icompute the total revenue for each hotel references;
II compute the total revenue for each hotel category in the 1st quarter using reference values
in the range B20: B23 in cells C20: C23. (5 marks)
(iv) Sort the revenues from the hotels in descending order of hotels. (2 marks)
(h) (i) Create a column chart that compares the revenues of the hotels in star category 4 for the
1st and 2nd quarter. (4 marks)
(ii) Format the chart created as follows:
I. Chart title"FIRST AND SECOND QUARTER REVENUES"(2 marks)
II. Move the chart to a new sheet and rename the sheet as FourStar Revenues. (2 marks)
(i) Save the changes and print later each of the following:
(i) original worksheet showing the column and row headings; (2 marks)

(ii)formatted worksheet; (l mark)

(iii)FourStar Revenues chart. (1 mark)
2. Popo City planners intend to use a Desktop Publishing program to draw a plan for a
section of a city. Assume you have been given the task.
(a) (i) Open a desktop publishing program and set the page layout orientation to portrait and
and paper size to A4. (2 marks)
(ii) Save the publication as Task 2 (l mark)
(b) Create the city plan as it appears In Figure 2 ensuring that the design covers the entire
printable area of the page. (46
marks)

(c) Save the changes and print the publication later. (l mark)
142
POPO CITY PLAN

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 Figure 2

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
HOME SCIENCE
441/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the space provided
3. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
4. Answer all questions in Section A and B and any TWO questions from section C
5. Answers to all questions must be written in this booklet
6. This paper consists of 10 printed pages.
7. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
A 1 – 41 40
B 41 20
C 42-44 40
TOTAL 100

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 SECTION A: (40 MARKS)
Attempt ALL questions in this section. Write answers in the spaces provided.
1. Name the two layers of the skin. (1 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Identify two kitchen plans categorized as wall based (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Give two reasons why steamed food is best for invalids (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Mention two career opportunities for a Home science graduate that stem from Hotel and
Hospitality services (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. List any two vegetable fibres used for making brooms. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Give two groups of permanent stitches (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. Salt is a multipurpose substance in a home. Give two points in support of the

Statement (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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8. List two products of dough (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. Mention two functions of stiletto in a Home science laboratory (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. Give any two classification of kitchen equipment under plastics (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State two undesirable properties of asbestos as roofing material (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. State any two basic instructions on the use of medicine (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. Give two reasons for draining wastewater from a house (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. What are the signs of food poisoning?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. List down two cases of under nourishment (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. Give two examples of decorative seams (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. With an example, define the term beverage (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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19. A wise consumer can obtain useful information from; (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. DPT is a combination vaccine against infectious diseases. Name any two of the diseases
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. List two laundry processes done on dirty clothes before they are put in water (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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22. Name two breast-feeding reflexes (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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23. Give two reasons for labeling a product (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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24. State two health related importance of a child’s growth monitoring card. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
25. Name any two types of cuts in repair of clothes (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. State two characteristics of pre-eclampsia in pregnancy (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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27. Define the following terms;

(i) Substitute products
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Comparative shopping

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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28. Outline two precautions to take when laundering a patient’s clothes. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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29. Identify any two dangers of poor ventilation in a room. It can cause;
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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30. Give any two uses of Wood Ash to a homemaker

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

31. Give two functions of candles in a home. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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32. Name the two groups of hard furnishings (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
33. Identify two traditional methods of preserving meat (1 mark)
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34. List two disadvantages of using convenience foods (1 mark)
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35. Identify two ways of ensuring left over foods remains in good condition (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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36. Highlight two possible meanings of the term wardrobe (1 mark)

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37. Mention any two shortcomings of abrupt weaning (1 mark)

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38. Identify two problems faced by an ignorant consumer (1 mark)

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39. List two symptoms of Hepatitis B. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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40. Give any two points to bear in mind when storing clothes on hangers (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 SECTION B: (20 Marks)
Compulsory- Answer question 41 in the spaces provided
41. You are helping your elder sister to prepare for her farewell party coming up next weekend.
Red being her theme color.
a) (i). Pick and store fresh flowers to await the florist. (4 marks)
(ii). Launder her silk party dress (6 marks)

b) Thorough clean the top of her Formica dressing table with a mirror (10 marks)

SECTION C: (40 Marks)

Answer any TWO questions from this section in the spaces provided at the end of this section.
42. a) Describe how to take measurement of the following body parts. (4 marks)
(i) Inner trouser length
(ii) Hips
(iii) Crotch length
(iv) Wrist measurement
b) Mention four points to consider when planning meals for young children. (4 marks)
c) Give four importance of habit training (4 marks)
d) Outline four roles of advertisement (4 marks)
c) Briefly state the uses of the following alkalis in the home (4 marks)
(i) Sodium hydroxide
(ii) Ammonia
(iii) Sodium bicarbonate
(iv) Borax

43. a)Describe four methods of disposing household refuse (4 marks)

b) Give four points to observe when laying pattern pieces onto a prepared fabric before cutting
out (4 marks)
c) List four contents of a First Aid kit and their uses respectively (4 marks)
d) Outline four advantages of mortgaging as a way providing shelter ((4 marks)
e) Explain four factors, which may affect the eating habits of a community (5 mks)

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44. a)Explain four factors that determine the repair method to be used on an article. (4 marks)
b)Explain four points on the care of a lactating mother (4 marks)
c) A bodice block of a blouse is given below. Indicate four possible pattern markings and their
uses respectively. (4 marks)

d) Explain four mechanical ways of introducing air into flour mixtures (4 marks)
e) List and explain four factors that may affect family savings (4 marks)

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

441/2
HOME SCIENCE
CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION
Paper 2

CONFIDENTIAL

Each student should be provided with the following;

1. Plain light weight cotton fabric 55 cm by 90 cm.
2. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
3. Button
4. 1 large envelope.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2 (CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)

TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ensure
that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

A pattern of a girl’s blouse is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and
the layout carefully before you begin the test.
MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern pieces
A - FRONT BODICE
B - BACK BODICE
C - SLEEVE
D - COLLAR
E - SCALLOPED FRILL
F -POCKET
G - SLEEVE BINDING

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2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 55 cm by 90 cm.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. Button
4. 1 large envelope.

THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make up the RIGHT HALF of the girl’s blouse to
show the following.
1. Cutting out. (16mks)
2. Making of the shoulder dart on the sleeve (5mks)
3. Preparation and attachment of the pocket (101/2mks)
4. Making the underarm seam and side seam using open seam. (51/2mks)
5. The joining of the front bodice to the sleeve using French seam (6mks)
6. Joining the back bodice to the sleeve using plain seam. Do not trim, do not neaten.

(51/2mks)
7. a) Preparation of gathers at the lower edge of the sleeve. (2mks)
b) Managing the lower edge of the sleeve by binding (41/2mks)
8. Preparation and attachment of the collar using self-neatening method. Finish the
using hemming stitches. (10mks)
9. Attaching of the scalloped frill to the lower edge of the blouse using overlaid seam.

(9mks)
10. Making the buttonhole at the collar. (61/2mks)
11. Fixing the button to be used together with the buttonhole at the collar (31/2mks)
12. Presentation. (6mks)

NOTE:
At the end of the test, firmly sew on to your work on a single fabric a label bearing your name,
class and admission number. Remove needles and pins from work. Then fold your work
carefully and place it in the envelope. DO NOT PUT SCRAPS OF MATERIALS IN THE
ENVELOPE.

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 LAYOUT – NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

B A
C
BACK FRONT
SLEEVE
Selvedge

CUT CUT
CUT

55 cm
D D
E

CB

CF
F
CB

CB

90 cm
VIEWS

FRONT BACK

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 KCSE BRIGHT-MIND MOCK
KCSE 2024 SERIES 1 EXAM
HOME SCIENCE
441/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

441/3
HOMESCIENCE (FOOD AND NUTRITION)
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
1HR 15 MINUTES

PLANNING SESSION 30 MINUTES

PRACTICAL TEST SESSION IHR 15MIN
Instruction to candidates
a) Read the test carefully.
b) Write your name and index number on every sheet of paper.
c) Textbooks and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials.
d) You will be expected to keep your order of work during the practical session.
e) You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning
session.
f) This paper consists of 2 pages.
g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

THE TEST
You are at home for midterm break with your brother. Using ALL the ingredients listed below
plan, prepare and present a full breakfast including two carbohydrate items for the two of
you.

Ingredients;
 Millet/maize flour
 Plain wheat flour
 Milk
 Sugar
 Salt
 Tea leaves/cocoa
 Oil/fat
 Baking powder (optional)
 Eggs
 Sausage
 Arrow roots/sweet potatoes
 Fruit in season

PLANNING SESSION; 30 minutes

For each task listed below, use separate pieces of paper and make duplicate copies using carbon
paper. Proceed as follows;
1. Identify the dishes and write down their recipes.
2. Write down your order of work.
3. Make a list of food stuffs and equipment you will require.

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 THE END

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