Jimma University, Physics department

Exit exam support questions for 2023/24 Academic calendar

Table of Contents
I. Mechanics ............................................................................................................................................. 1
II. Classical Mechanics ............................................................................................................................... 4
III. Electromagnetism ............................................................................................................................. 6
IV. Electronics ......................................................................................................................................... 9
V. Statistical Physics ................................................................................................................................ 12
VI. Heat and thermodynamics.............................................................................................................. 15
VII. Nuclear Physics ............................................................................................................................... 19
VIII. Quantum Mechanics ....................................................................................................................... 22
IX. Condensed matter/Solid State Physics ........................................................................................... 26
X. Electrodynamics .................................................................................................................................. 29
XI. Modern Physics ............................................................................................................................... 29

I. Mechanics
1. An experiment measures a quantity to be 8.05 ± 0.02 m. What does the uncertainty value
of 0.02 m represent in this measurement?
A. Absolute error B. Relative error C. Significant figures D. Precision
Answer: A. Absolute error
2. What type of energy is associated with light phenomena?
B. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Thermal energy D. Radiant energy
Answer: D. Radiant energy
3. Sound waves are an example of ___________ waves.
A. Transverse B. Longitudinal C. Electromagnetic D. Mechanical
Answer: B Longitudinal
4. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be _______ or__________.
A. Created, destroyed B. Transformed, transferred

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 C. Stored, released D. Absorbed, emitted
Answer: A Created, destroyed
5. Which of the following is not a type of mechanical wave?
A. Sound wave B. Light wave C. Water wave D. Seismic wave
Answer: Light wave
6. Which of the following is an example of a contact force?
A. Gravitational force B. Magnetic force C. Electrostatic force D. Frictional force
Answer: D. Frictional force
7. Newton's first law of motion states that an object:
A. At rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by a net external force
B. Will accelerate in the direction of the net external force
C. Will experience an equal and opposite reaction force
D. Will conserve its total energy
Answer: A.
8. Newton's second law of motion relates the net force on an object to its:
A. Acceleration B. Velocity C. Position D, Mass
Answer: A
9. The work-energy principle states that the work done on an object is equal to the change in its:
A. Force B. Velocity C. Mass D. Kinetic energy
Answer: D
10. The conservation of momentum states that the total momentum of an isolated system:
A. Decreases with time B. Increases with time C. Remains constant
D. Depends on the frame of reference
Answer: C
11. The force required to maintain an object's motion in a circular path is:
A. Centripetal force B. Gravitational force C. Frictional force D. Normal force
Answer: A
12. The torque on an object is a measure of its:
A. Linear momentum B. Angular acceleration C. Kinetic energy D. Potential energy
Answer: B
13. The law of universal gravitation states that the force of gravity between two objects is proportional to
their:
A. Masses product and inversely proportional to the distance square between them

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 B. Velocities and directly proportional to the time of interaction
C. Energies and inversely proportional to the force of attraction
D. Momenta and directly proportional to the angle between them
Answer: A
14. The Hooke's law relates the force applied to a spring to its:
A. Deformation B. Density C. Length D. Stiffness
Answer: A
15. The coefficient of kinetic friction is defined as the ratio of the force of kinetic friction to the:
A. Centripetal force B. Gravitational force C. Tension force D. Normal force
Answer: D
16. The angular momentum of an object is conserved when no net external torque acts on the object,
according to:
A. Newton's third law
B. The work-energy principle
C. The law of universal gravitation
D. The principle of conservation of angular momentum
Answer: D
17. The impulse-momentum theorem states that the impulse acting on an object is equal to the:
A. Force acting on it B. Change in its momentum
C .Time of interaction D. Acceleration it experiences
Answer: B
18. The principle of moments, or torque, relates an object's force to its:
A. Mass B. Radius C. Center of mass D. Acceleration
Answer: B
19. The law of inertia was first described by which scientist?
A. Galileo Galilei B. Albert Einstein C. Isaac Newton D. Nikolai Ivanovich Lobachevsky
Answer: C
20. Two vectors are added together. If both vectors have equal magnitudes but are in
opposite directions, what can be said about the magnitude of the resultant vector?
A. It will be zero
B. It will be double the magnitude of the original vectors
C. It will have the same magnitude as the original vectors
D. It will be in the direction of the larger vector
Answer: B

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21. A stone is thrown horizontally off a cliff. Which of the following statements is true about
its acceleration?
A. It accelerates downward only
B. It has no acceleration
C. It accelerates horizontally only
D. It accelerates both horizontally and vertically
Answer: A
22. A mass on a spring system undergoes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 0.2m
and a maximum velocity of 4 m/s. What is the total mechanical energy of the system?
A. 2 J B. 3 J C. 8 J D. 6 J
Answer: C
23. A car weighing 1500 kg climbs a hill with a height of 50 meters. If the efficiency of the
car engine is 25%, how much energy is wasted as thermal energy during this climb?
A. 18.75kJ B. 30.00k J C. 0.55. k J D. 75.00 J
Answer: C
24. A roller coaster starts at a height of 30 meters. Ignoring any friction, what is the velocity
of the roller coaster at the bottom of the track?
A. 19.6 m/s B. 22.4 m/s C. 25.0 m/s D. 28.4 m/s
Answer: C
25. If a pendulum swings back and forth, what can be said about its total mechanical energy
throughout the motion (neglect air resistance)?
A. It remains constant B. It decreases with each swing
C. It increases with each swing D. It fluctuates unpredictably
Answer: A
26. Two billiard balls with masses of 0.2 kg and 0.3 kg collide with each other. If the lighter
ball was initially at rest and the heavier ball was moving at 5 m/s, what is the velocity of
the lighter ball after the collision? A) 2 m/s B) 3 m/s C) 4 m/s D) 5 m/s

II. Classical Mechanics

1. What is the relationship between the moment of inertia and the distribution of mass in a
rigid body?

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 A. Moment of inertia is independent of mass distribution
B. Moment of inertia increases with mass concentrated closer to the axis of rotation
C. Moment of inertia decreases with mass concentrated farther from the axis of rotation
D. Moment of inertia is directly proportional to the total mass of the body

2. The parallel-axis theorem is used to calculate the moment of inertia of a rigid body when:
A. The body is rotating at a constant speed
B. The body is rotating about its center of mass
C. The axis of rotation is parallel to the axis through the center of mass
D. The body has a uniform mass distribution
𝑑2 𝑥
3. The force given by 𝑚 𝑑𝑡 2 = 𝐹(𝑥)is _____ type of force.
A. Time dependent force B. Position dependent force C. Constant force D. all

4. In plane polar coordinate the angular component velocity is _____.

A. 𝑟̇ B. 2𝑟̇ 𝜃̇ C. 𝑟𝜃̇ D. 𝑟𝜃̈

5. The angular velocity of small oscillation of solid sphere of mass M and radius R about a
2
point on the surface is ____. (𝑢𝑠𝑒 𝐼 = 5 𝑀𝑅 2 )
2𝑔 2𝑅 5𝑔 5𝑅
A. √7𝑅 B. √7𝑔 C. √7𝑅 D. √7𝑔

6. Which one is the equivalent electrical circuit equation for having mass-spring (𝑚𝑥̈ +
𝑘(𝑥 − ℎ) = 0) at time dependence of charge 𝑞 in system?
𝑞 𝑞 𝑞 𝑞 𝑞 𝑞 𝑞
A. 𝑞̈ + 𝐶 = 𝐿𝐶1 B. 𝑞̈ + 𝐿 𝐶 = 0 C. 𝐿𝑞̈ + 𝐿𝐶 = 𝐿𝐶1 D. 𝑞̈ + 𝐿𝐶 = 𝐿𝐶1

7. Consider the series RLC circuit shown from fig. driven an alternating emf of the value
𝐸0 sin 𝜔𝑡. The voltage around the circuit became ___.
𝑞 𝑞
A. 𝐿𝑉̈ + 𝑅𝑉̇ + 𝐶 = 𝐸0 sin 𝜔𝑡 C. 𝐿𝑞̈ + 𝑅𝑞̇ + 𝐶 = 𝐸0 sin 𝜔𝑡
𝑞 𝑞
B. 𝐿𝐸̈ + 𝑅𝐸̇ + = 𝐸0 sin 𝜔𝑡 D. 𝑞̈ + 𝑞̇ + = 𝐸0 sin 𝜔𝑡
𝐸 𝑅𝐶𝐿

8. From the first integrals of motion the Lagrangian may expressed in plane polar
coordinate is ____.
1 1
A. 2 𝜇(𝑟̇ 2 + 𝑟 2 𝜃̇ 2 ) − 𝑈(𝑟) C. 2 𝜇(𝑟̇ 3 + 𝑟 2 𝜃̇ 2 ) + 𝑈(𝑟)
B. (𝑟̇ 2 + 𝑟 3 𝜃̇ 2 ) + 𝑈(𝑟) D. 𝜇(𝑟̇ 3 + 𝑟 5 𝜃̇ 2 ) − 𝑈(𝑟)

9. The path of the particle is given by 𝒓(𝒕), the areal velocity swept by the particle
1 1 1
expressed as_____. A. 2 𝜇𝑟 2 𝜃̇ 2 B. . 2 𝜇𝜃̇ 3 C. . 2 𝑟 2 𝜃̇ 2 D. . 𝑟 2 𝜃̇ 3
1. The force law for a central-force field that allows a particle to move in a logarithmic
spiral orbit given by 𝑟 = 𝑘𝑒 𝛼𝜃 , where k and 𝛼 are constants, is ___.
𝑑2 1 1 𝜇𝑟 2 𝜇𝑟 2
A. (𝑟 ) + 𝑟 = − 𝐹(𝑟) C. 𝐹(𝑟) = − (𝛼 2 + 1)
𝑑𝜃2 𝑙2 𝑙2
𝜇𝑟 2 𝑑2 1 1 𝜇𝑟 2
B. 𝐹(𝑟) = − (𝛼 5 + 1) D. 𝑑𝜃2 (𝑟 ) + 𝑟 3 = − 𝐹(𝑟)
𝑙2 𝑙2

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 10. From question number (27) 𝑟(𝑡) is given byfor any constant c ____
1 1 1 1
1 2𝛼𝑙 2𝛼𝑙 1
A. [𝜇 𝑡 + 𝑘 2 𝑐]5 B. [ 𝑡 + 𝑘 5 𝑐]2 C. [ 𝑡 + 𝑘 2 𝑐]2 D. [𝜇 𝑡 + 𝑘 2 𝑐]2
𝜇 𝜇

11. From question number (28) 𝜃(𝑡) is given by for any constant c ____
1 2𝛼𝑙 1 1 𝛼𝑙 2𝛼𝑙
A. 2𝛼 ln(𝜇𝑘 2 𝑡 + 𝑐) B. 2𝛼 C. 2𝛼 ln(𝜇𝑘 2 𝑡 + 𝑐) D. ln(𝜇𝑘 2 𝑡 + 𝑐)

12. The total energy from question number (27) is ________

2𝛼𝑙 𝜇𝑟 2
A. ln(𝜇𝑘 2 𝑡) B. 0 C. -1 D. = − (𝛼 5 + 1)
𝑙2

13. The Seasonal variation is the physical consequence of ____ Kepler’s law.
A. First law B. second law C. third law D. law of harmony

14. Using (𝑥, 𝑦) coordinate system to find the kinetic energy T, the potential energy U and
the Lagrangian L for a simple pendulum (length𝑙, mass𝑚 if the angle𝜃) moving in the 𝑥𝑦
plane. What is the equation of motion?
𝑙 𝑔 𝑙
A. 𝜃̈ = 𝑔 sin 𝜃 B. 𝜃̈ = 𝑙 cos 𝜃 C. 𝜃̈ − 𝑔 sin 𝜃 = 0 D.
𝑔
𝜃̈ + 𝑙 sin 𝜃

III. Electromagnetism
1. Gauss law is related to _____ law?
A. Coulomb's law
B. Charles law
C. Ohm's law
D. Farads law
2. The amount of electric force exerted on a unit positive test charge in an electric field is
_________
A. Electric Field Intensity
B. Electric Flux
C. Electric Potential
D. Electric Lines of Force
3. The direction of an electron in an electric field created by parallel metal plates is

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 _____________
A. Away from the positively charged plate
B. Towards the negatively charged plate
C. Away from the negatively charged plate
D. Follows a trajectory path
4. Electric field inside hollow conducting sphere is ________________
A. Increases with distance from the center of the sphere
B. Decreases with distance from the center of the sphere
C. Zero
D. May increase or decreases with distance from the center of the sphere
5. Two positive point charges 2q and 8q are kept at a distance 30cm from each other. At which
point between them , the electric force on a test charge inserted becomes zero?
A. 15 cm away from the 8q charge
B.20 cm away from the 8q charge
C.7.5 cm away from the 2q charge
D.5 cm away from the 2q charge
6. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinite distance to a point at distance x
from a positive charge Q is W. Then the potential at that point is____________
𝑊𝑄 𝑊
A. B.W C, 𝑋 D.WQ
𝑋

7. Consider a uniform electric field in the z-direction. The potential is a constant

A. For any x for a given z
B. For any y for a given z
(C. On the x-y plane for a given z
D. All of these
8. Equipotential surfaces
A. are closer in regions of large electric fields compared to regions of lower electric fields.
B. will be more crowded near sharp edges of a conductor.
C. will always be equally spaced.
D. both (a) and (b) are correct.
9. A test charge is moved from lower potential point to a higher potential point. The potential
energy of test charge will

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A. remain the same
B. increase
C. decrease
D. become zero
10 If a conductor has a potential V ≠ 0 and there are no charges anywhere else outside, then
A. there must be charges on the surface or inside itself.
B. there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
C. there must be charges only on the surface.
D. both A and B are correct.
11. In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacity increases if
A. area of the plate is decreased.
B. distance between the plates increases.
C. area of the plate is increased.
D. dielectric constantly decreases.
12. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel, charged to a potential V, separated and then
connected in series; the positive plate of one is connected to the negative of the other. Which of
the following is true?
A. The charges on the free plate connected together are destroyed.
B. The energy stored in the system increases.
C. The potential difference between the free plates is 2V.
D. The potential difference remains constant.
13. A capacitor has some dielectric between its plates, and the capacitor is connected to a dc
source. The battery is now disconnected and then the dielectric is removed, then
A. capacitance will increase.
B. energy stored will decrease.
C. electric field will increase.
D. voltage will decrease.
14. Two spherical conductors each of capacity C are charged to potential V and -V. These are
then connected by means of a fine wire. The loss of energy is
A. Zero
1
B. 2C𝑉 2
C. C𝑉 2
D. 2 C𝑉 2

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15. An electric heater is connected to the voltage supply. After few seconds, current gets its
steady value then its initial current will be
A. equal to its steady current
B. slightly higher than its steady current
C. slightly less than its steady current
D. zero
16. In the series combination of two or more than two resistances
A. the current through each resistance is the same.
B. the voltage through each resistance is the same.
C. neither current nor voltage through each resistance is the same.
D. both current and voltage through each resistance are the same.
17. If n cells each of emf e and internal resistance r are connected in parallel, then the total emf
and internal resistance will be
𝑟 𝑟
A. ε,𝑛 B. ε, nr C. nε,𝑛 D. nε , nr

IV. Electronics
1. What type of charge carries in a hole?
A. Negative B. Normal C. Positive D. has no charge
2. Which one of the following is not donor?
A. Phosphorus B. Arsenic C. Antimony D. gallium
3. Which one of the following is contained in rectifier?
A. transformer B. diode C. load resistor D. All
4. Full wave rectifier cannot contain
A. One diode B. two diodes C. more than two diodes D. four diodes
5. A typical accepter atom in N-type semiconductor. How many valence electrics?
A. Three B. Five C. One D. Four
6. Which element has the biggest size in transistor?
A. emitter B. collector C. base D. all
7. What happened when the voltage applied on the p-n junction diode is further increased?
A. more number of free electrons and holes are generated
B. only more number of holes are generated

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C. less number of free electrons and more number of holes are generated
D. more number of free electrons and less number of holes are generated
8. What happened when a p-n junction is reversed biased?
A. The positive terminal of the battery attracts the free holes in the p-typetowards itself
B. The negative terminal of the battery attracts the free electrons in n-typetowards itself
C. The positive terminal of the battery repel the free electrons in n-typetowards itself
D. The negative terminal of the battery attracts the free holes in the p-type towards itself
9. How much doped semiconductors does transistor has?
A. Three B. Five C. One D. Four
10. Which one of the following is not true about n-channel junction field effecttransistor?
A. Have greater conductivity than p-channel field effect transistor.
B. Electrons have higher mobility though conductor compere to holes.
C. Flow of current though channel is negatives.
D. Arrow in symbol points outwards from the p-type.
11. Which one of the following is the use of application of junction field effecttransistor?
A. as amplifier B. as buffer C. as switch D. all
12. Which one of the following is not the use of application of metallic oxidesemiconductor field
effect transistor?
A. Control conductivity
B. Control low current in circuit.
C. To store a binary bit.
D. To turn off or on other circuit
13. A semiconductor device used to amplify or switch electrical signals andpower is known as
A. transistor B. rectifier C. transducer D. transformer
14. When temperature increases in conductor, then
A. Conductivity increase B. Conductivity decrease
C. Resistivity increase D. Resistivity remain constant
15. When temperature increases in semi-conductor, then
A. Conductivity decrease B. Resistivity increase
C. Resistivity decrease D. Conductivity remain constant
16. At what temperature does the electron dislodged from covalent bondunder intrinsic

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semi-conductorA. above absolute zero B. at absolute zero C. at 00 𝐾 D. at -2730C
17. Which one of the following is not true about filter circuit?
A. Convert pulsating DC into pure DC B. Remove AC present in the rectifier`s out put
C. convert DC to AC circuit D. All are correct
18. Which one of the following is the application of light emitted diode?
A. light emitted diode used as optical sources B. light emitted diode used as remote control
C. light emitted diode used as seven segment display D. All are correct
19. The ratio of minority and majority carrier in the intrinsic semiconductor is
A. Unity B. not unity C. greater than one D. less than one
20.How does a p-n junction become reversed biased? When the
A. positive terminal of the battery attached with the p-type p-n junction
B. negative terminal of the battery attached with the n-type p-n junction
C. negative terminal of the battery repel the free electrons in n-type
D. negative terminal of the battery attracts the free holes in the p-type towards itself

21. Which one of the following semiconductor device used to control current?
A. Field effect transistor
B. bipolar junction transistor
C. Zener diode
D. PN-junction diode
22. How many terminal layers are in a metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
23. Is metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor be a bipolar?

A. Yes, used both carrier type (electrons or holes) in its operation.

B. Sometimes used one carrier type but, on the other time used both in its operation.
C. Sometimes used electrons and holes in its operation.
D. No, used as only one carrier type (electrons or holes) in its operation.
24.Which one of the following is true about sequential logic circuit?
A. has no feedback B. has no memory C. Possibility of memory D. A & B
25. Which one of the following basic type of gates has one input and one output?

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 A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NOR gate D. AND gate

V. Statistical Physics
1. Which of the following is the property of system?

a. P and T b. internal energy c. V and P d. All of the above

2. Mixtures of ice and water form a

a. closed system b. open system isolated system d. Heterogeneous system

3. Which one of the following process is irreversible?

a. Slow compression of an elastic spring b. slow evaporation of substance in an isolated

system c. slow compression of a gas d. A chemical explosion

4. Which of the following set of parameters is only intensive variable?

a. Magnetization, free energy, density b. Number of particle, temperature, volume

c. chemical potential, pressure, density d. Volume, Entropy, internal energy

5. Entropy of the system in a reversible process

a. Increases b. decreases c. remains constant d. fluctuate with time

6. Probability of an event is

a. Total number of cases b. Total number of events c. The ratio of number of cases in

which an event occurs at the cases d. None of the above

7. Suppose we toss a coin, then probability of the head may come is

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2/3 d. 1/2

8. Consider a case of n particles and two compartment, if n1 is the number of particles in one

compartment and remaining n2=n-n1, particles in the other compartment, then the number of

microstates in the macrostate (n1, n-n1) or thermodynamic property is

𝑛! 𝑛!
a. 𝑊(𝑛1, 𝑛 − 𝑛1) = 𝑛1!(𝑛−𝑛1)! b. 𝑊(𝑛1, 𝑛 − 𝑛1) = 𝑛1!(𝑛+𝑛1)!

𝑛!(𝑛−𝑛1)! 𝑛!(𝑛+𝑛1)!
c. 𝑊(𝑛1, 𝑛 − 𝑛1) = d. 𝑊(𝑛1, 𝑛 − 𝑛1) =
𝑛1! 𝑛1!

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9. If the energy of a particle can be either 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6 units with the Probability

1⁄ ,2⁄ ,3⁄ ,4⁄ , 5⁄ , 6⁄ respectively, what will be the mean energy of the
21 21 21 21 21 21
particle?
a. 4.3 b. 5.2 c. 6.4 d. 3.5
10. Consider that the probability of color blindness in the America male population is estimated

to be about P=0.08. Suppose a random sample size is 25. What is the probability that exactly
five individuals in the random sample are non- color blind?
a. 0.967 b. 0.852 c. 0.033 d. 0.196
11. Number of microstates in macrostate may be

a. equal b. greater or equal to c. less than or equal to d. greater

12. . Fundamental postulate of equal apriori probabilities states that

a. An isolated system in equilibrium is equally likely to be in any of its accessible state
b. All accessible microstates corresponding to possible macrostates are not equally probable
c. All the cells in phase space are equal site
d. The equilibrium state of a gas corresponds to the macrostae of maximum probability
13. The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called

a. total energy b. phase energy c. system energy d. internal energy

14. Which of the following is fixed in micro-canonical ensemble?

a. number of particles, volume and energy b. number of particles, volume and temperature
c. chemical potential, volume and temperature d. energy, temperature and chemical potential
15. Which of the following is relates the microscopic properties with macroscopic properties?

a. Canonical ensembles b. Partition function

c. Entropy d. Planck’s quantum theory

16. Entropy change depends on

a. heat transfer b. mass transfer c. change of temperature d. thermodynamic state

17. For a system of 4 distinguishable particles to be distributed in two similar compartments, the

total number macrostate is

a. 5 b. 2 c. 6 d. 8

18. Work done is positive when

a. Vf < Vi b. Vf > Vi c. Vf ≥ Vi d. Vf = Vi

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19. system which neither exchange energy nor matter with its surrounding is refers to:

a. Open system b. isolated system c. closed system d. Undetermined

20. The adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas is described by the equation P𝑉 𝛾 =C, where 𝛾 and C

are constants. The work done by the gas in expanding adiabatically from the state (𝑉𝑖 , 𝑃𝑖 ) to

(𝑉𝑓 , 𝑃𝑓 ) is equal to

𝑃𝑖 +Pf 𝑉𝑓 Pf −Vi Pi 𝑃𝑖 (𝑉𝑓 1+ 𝛾 −𝑉𝑖 1+𝛾 )

𝑎. 𝑉𝑓 𝑃𝑓 b. (𝑉𝑓 - 𝑉𝑖 ) c. d.
2 1−𝛾 1+𝛾

21. Difference between two specific heat Cp - Cv for ideal gas is equal to
a 2R b. RT c. R d. R2.
22. What will be the change in entropy of ice when 1kcal heat is supplied to convert it in to
water at zero degree celcius?

a. 3.66 kcal/k b. 3.66 cal/k c .0.36 cal/k d. 0.035 cal/k

23. Calculate the amount of work done for expansion of the gas if total heat given to the

system is 500 cal and increase in internal energy is 340 cal..

a. 20 cal b. 100 cal c.160 cal d.140 cal

24. Which one of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function?

a. Gibbs free energy b. enthalpy c. work d. internal energy

25. The root mean square speed of gas molecules in a container is ‘v’. If the pressure in

container is quadrupled while keeping the temperature constant, the root mean square
speed will be:
a. Increase by four time’s b. Decrease by half
c. Increase by eight times d. remains unchanged
26. In canonical ensemble___________.

a. The energy and temperature are constant b. Temperature is constant

c. Density is constant d. b and c both are correct

27. Maxwell-Boltzmann law is for the__________.

a. distinguishable particles b. Indistinguishable particles

c. particle with half integral spin d. particles with integral spin

28. In canonical ensemble, a system A of fixed volume is in contact with a large heat reservoir

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 B. Then

a. A can exchange neither energy nor particles with B

b. A can exchange both energy and particles with B

c. A can exchange only energy with B

d. A can exchange only particles with B

29. The wave function for identical fermions is anti-symmetric under particle interchange.

Which of the following is a consequence of this property?

a. Bose-Einstein condensation b. Bohr correspondence principle
c. Heisenberg uncertainty principle d. Pauli exclusion principle

30. If the partition function of a microscopic system is Z, its mean pressure given as
𝑑Z 1 𝑑 ln 𝑍
a. 𝑃̅= 𝑑𝑉 b. 𝑃̅= 𝛽 𝑑𝑉

VI. Heat and thermodynamics

1. Which law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only
transformed from one form to another?
A) Zeroth law B) First law C) Second law D) Third law
2. What is the SI unit of heat?
A) Joule B) Watt C) Calorie D) Kelvin
3. Which process involves the transfer of heat through direct contact of particles?
A) Conduction B) Convection C) Radiation D) Transmission
4. Which law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at constant
temperature?
A) Boyle's law B) Charles's law C) Gay-Lussac's law D) Dalton's law
5. The process of heat transfer that occurs due to the motion of fluid particles is known as:
A) Conduction B) Convection C) Radiation D) Diffusion
6. The area under the curve on a pressure-volume (PV) diagram of a gas represents:
A) Work done by the gas B) Change in internal energy

15
 C) Change in temperature D) Change in entropy
7. Which substance has the highest specific heat capacity?
A) Water B) Iron C) Aluminum D) Mercury
8. Heat transfer in a vacuum occurs primarily through:
A) Conduction B) Convection C) Radiation D) Advection
9. The internal energy of a system is determined by:
A) Temperature only B) Pressure only C) Temperature and pressure D) Volume only
10. The entropy of an isolated system tends to:
A) Remain constant B) Decrease C) Increase D) Fluctuate
11. How is the specific heat capacity defined as?
A) Heat absorbed per unit mass per unit temperature change B) Total heat absorbed
C) Heat absorbed per unit volume D) Heat absorbed per unit time
12. The Stefan-Boltzmann law relates the total energy radiated by a blackbody to its:
A) Temperature B) Mass C) Volume D) Pressure
13. Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to:
A) Decrease in volume with temperature B) Maintain constant volume with temperature
C) Increase in volume with temperature D) Not be affected by temperature changes
14. In adiabatic processes, what happens to the heat exchanged with the surroundings?
A) Increased B) Decreased C) Zero D) Variable depending on system
15. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is associated with which concept?
A) Entropy B) Enthalpy C) Internal energy D) Specific heat
16. A 100g copper block and a 200g aluminum block are at the same temperature. Which one
has more thermal energy?
A) Copper block B) Aluminum block C) Both have the same
D) Cannot be determined without specific heat values
17. A sample absorbs 200 J of heat and its temperature increases by 10°C. What is its specific
heat capacity?
A) 20 J/°C B) 10 J/°C C) 0.2 J/°C D) 2 J/°C
16
18. An ideal gas undergoes adiabatic expansion, then:
A) Its pressure increases B) Its internal energy decreases
C) Its temperature increases D) Its volume remains constant
19. What is the change in entropy for a reversible process at constant temperature?
A) Zero B) Positive C) Negative D) Indeterminate
20. The Clausius statement of the Second Law of Thermodynamics refers to:
A) Heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder body to a hotter body
B) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
C) The entropy of an isolated system tends to increase
D) The internal energy of a system remains constant
21. Thermal conductivity is highest in which of the following materials?
A) Glass B) Air C) Copper D) Wood

22. The process in which a substance changes from a gas to a liquid is called:
A) Condensation B) Evaporation C) Sublimation D) Fusion
23. The absolute zero temperature on the Kelvin scale is equivalent to:
A) 0°C B) 273.15°C C) -273.15°C D) 100°C
24. Which of the following is an example of an irreversible process?
A) Isothermal expansion of an ideal gas B) Adiabatic compression of a gas
C) Melting of ice D) Heat flow from hot to cold
25. What is the relationship between enthalpy (H), internal energy (U), and work (W) for a
closed system at constant pressure?
A) H = U + W B) U = H + W C) W = H – U D) W = Q - U
26. In a thermodynamic cycle, the net work done by the system equals:
A) Change in internal energy B) Heat added to the system
C) Heat removed from the system D) Zero
27. Which law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero is
zero?
17
 A) Zeroth law B) First law C) Second law D) Third law
28. The process in which a substance changes directly from a solid to a gas without passing
through the liquid phase is called:
A) Sublimation B) Condensation C) Evaporation D) Fusion
29. What does the term "adiabatic" mean in thermodynamics?
A) No heat exchange with the surroundings B) Constant pressure
C) Constant volume D) Constant temperature
30. What is the specific heat of water during latent heat processes (e.g., vaporization)?
A) Zero B) Very large C) Equal to its specific heat capacity
D) Dependent on temperature and pressure
31. A sample absorbs 200 J of heat and its temperature increases by 10°C. What is its specific
heat capacity?
A) 20 J/°C B) 10 J/°C C) 0.2 J/°C D) 2 J/°C
32.A 100g copper block and a 200g aluminum block are at the same temperature. Which one has
more thermal energy?
A) Copper block B) Aluminum block C) Both have the same
D) Cannot be determined without specific heat values

33. The thermodynamic variable that is a measure of disorder or randomness in a system is:
A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Entropy D) Internal energy
34. A process in which there is no exchange of heat between a system and its surroundings is
called:
A) Isothermal process B) Isobaric process C) Adiabatic process D) Isochoric process
35. The efficiency of a heat engine is always less than:
A) 100% B) 50% C) 75% D) It depends on the temperature
36. The area under the curve on a pressure-volume (PV) diagram of a gas represents:
A) Work done by the gas B) Change in internal energy
C) Change in temperature D) Change in entropy

18
37. Heat transfer by radiation occurs through:
A) Waves B) Conduction C) Fluid motion D) Contact
38. The process of heat transfer through a material without any apparent motion of the material
itself is called:
A) Conduction B) Convection C) Radiation D) Insulation
39. The phase transition from gas to solid is called:
A) Condensation B) Sublimation C) Deposition D) Evaporation
40. The process where a substance changes from a liquid to a gas at temperatures below its
boiling point is called:
A) Evaporation B) Sublimation C) Condensation D) Boiling

VII. Nuclear Physics

1. From the following energies, which one is required to remove surface nucleon from
the nucleus?
A. Proton separation energy B. Binding energy
C. Neutron separation energy D, A and C
2. A free neutron decays spontaneously in to proton, -------------------and-------------------
A. an electron , a neutrino B. an electron ,an antineutrino
C. a neutrino D. an antineutrino
3. What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope if a 500.0g sample decays to 62.5g in
24.3 hours?
A. 8.1 hours B. 6.1 hours C. 5 hours D.24 hours

4. Which of the following combinations of quarks flavors resulted with thecharge of

proton within the nucleus?
A. Two up quarks and three down quarks B. One up quark and two down quarks
C. Tow up quarks and one down quark D. Two down quarks and one up quark
5. Binding energy is :
A. The amount energy required to break a nucleus in to its components.
B. The amount energy required to break a nucleus in to protons and electrons.
19
 C. The amount energy required to break a nucleus in to neutrons and electrons.
D. The amount of energy released when neutrons change energy level.
6. The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 minutes. If one had 100.0 g at the beginning, how many
grams would be left after 7.2 minutes have elapsed?
A. 3 g B. 12.5g C. 4g D. 25g
238
7. If U nucleus spontaneously splits in to two identical parts,the twonuclei so
produced will be:
A. Radioactive B. Stable C. Isotope D. Isobar
8. Charge on α - particle is how many times of that of the charge on proton?
A. 4times B. 2 times C.3 times D. equal
9. An isotope with a high binding energy per nucleon:
A. will decay in the short period of time B. is very unstable
C. is very stable D. has very few electrons
10. Who proposed that atoms are the smallest building block of matter
A. J.J. Thomson B. Ancient Greeks and Dalton C. Nielsen Bohr D. Rutherford
11. How long does it take a 100.00g sample of As-81, with a half-life of 33 seconds, to decay
to 6.25g?
A. 122 seconds B. 101 seconds C. 132 seconds D. 22 seconds
12. A nuclear weapon derives its destructive force from -----nuclear reactions?
A. Fission B. fusion C. both D. None of the above
13. Which statement best describes the structure of an atom?
A. A positive core surrounded by electrons packed tightly around it
B. A particle comprised of a mixture of protons, electrons and neutrons.
C. A tiny nucleus of protons and neutrons with electrons orbiting around it
D. A negative core surrounded by electrons packed tightly around it.
14. A nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei collide at very high speed and
join to form a new type of atomic nucleus is:
A. Fusion B. fission C. both D. none of the above
15. If target nuclei strip off some nucleon/s from the projectile and release the other, then
this nuclear reaction is :
A. nucleon transfer reaction B charge transfer reaction

20
 C. capture reaction D. compound nuclear reaction
16. Radiation therapy involves the application of ionizing radiation to treat?
A. hyperthyroidism B. thyroid cancer C. blood disorders D. All
17. If the target nuclei strip off some nucleon/s from the projectile and releasethe other,
then this nuclear reaction is :
A. nucleon transfer reaction B. charge transfer reaction C. capture reaction
D. compound nuclear reaction
18. Of the following which one not nuclear reaction?
A. Elastic scattering B. In elastic scattering C. compound nuclear reaction
B. All not, except C
19. From the following particles which one is heavier than the others?
A. Leptons B. Meson C. Baryons D. all are equal
20. Which of the following not participate in the strong interaction?
A. Pion B. neutrino C. neutron D. proton
21. One of the following includes the rest of the Hadrons:
A. Baryons B. Fermions C. meson D. leptons
22. Leptons include:
A. Electrons B. protons C. neutrino D. A and C

23. Boson particles are:

A. Those obey Bose- Einstein statistics D. Those obey Fermi- Dirac statistics
1
C. spin 2 D. Nucleons

24. Why do most nuclei need to absorb a neutron before undergoing nuclear fission?
A. Nuclear fission rarely happens spontaneously
B. Absorbing a neutron makes the nucleus unstable
C. It is charge sensitive D. A&B
25. Which of the following is true about gamma-decay?
A. it is the process of emitting energy from excited residual nucleus
B. its product is massless
C. it occurs for incomplete α and β-decay.
D. All are correct

21
 26. Which of the following is not true about β-decay?
A. a proton converted into a neutron
B. a neutron converted into a proton
C. Atomic will remains constant
D. Atomic number and neutron number will remain constant
27. Which of the following is not true about α-decay?
A. It is the effect of coulomb repulsion effect.
B. It is ejection of proton and neutrons as a result of breakup of nucleus.
C. The decay will occur spontaneously only if Q>0.
D. Always, during this decay the residual nucleus is stable.
28. A radioactive isotope decayed to 17/32 of its original mass after 60 minutes. Then
find the half-life of this radioisotope.
A. 0.53125 minutes B. 0.91254 minutes C. 66 minutes D. 99 minutes
29. A radioactive substance with a half-life of 1 hour has an activity of 100 Bq100 Bq.
What is the activity of the substance after 4 hours?
A. 6.25 Bq B. 3.125Bq C. 12.5Bq D. 9.13Bq
30. Which of the following is/ are more describe the role of control rods in nuclear
reactors and how they do?
A. Control rods control the speed of the chain reaction.
B. When lowered into the reactor, the rods absorb neutrons and slow down the chain
reaction.
C. When lifted from the reactor, less neutrons are absorbed and the chain reaction
speeds up
D. All describe it well

VIII. Quantum Mechanics

1. According to the postulates of quantum mechanics, how are observables related operators?
(A) Every observable is associated with a Hermitian operator
(B) Observables are inversely proportional to linear Hermitian operator
(C) All observables are fundamentally unrelated to operators

22
 (D) Observables are directly proportional to non-linear Hermitian operators
2. The stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from a surface illuminated by light of
frequency 6.0 × 108 𝑀ℎ𝑧 is 0.72 𝑉. When the incident frequency is changed, the stoping
𝑒
potential is found to be 1.44 V. The new frequency is approximately (ℎ = 2.4 × 1014 𝐶/𝐽𝑠)

(A) 4 × 108 𝐻𝑧 (B) 7 × 108 𝐻𝑧 (C) 2 × 109 𝐻𝑧 (D) 7 × 1014 𝐻𝑧

3. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on
(A) Speed of light (C) Number of incident photons
(B) Intensity of the light (D) Photon frequency
4. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because
(A) There is maximum of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted
(B) Electric charge of photoelectrons is quantized
(C) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends only on frequency of light and
not on its intensity
(D) None of these
5. The probability of finding the particle in a one-dimensional box of length 𝐿 in the region
𝐿
between 2 and 𝐿 for quantum number 𝑛 = 1 is

(A) 2/3 (B) 1/2 + 1/𝜋 (C) ) 0 (D) ) 1/2

6. The difference in energy levels of 𝑛 = 2 and 𝑛 = 1 of a particle in a one dimensional box is
9 units of energy. In the same units, what is the difference in energy of 𝑛 = 3 and 𝑛 = 2 for
the above system?
(A) 4 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) 5
7. That radiation and matter have properties both of particles and of waves is called what?
(A) Nature of light (C) Wave-particle duality
(B) Photoelectric effect (D) Compton effect
8. Niles Bohr used quantum mechanics to describe which element?
(A) Zinc (B) Hydrogen (C) Carbon (D) Helium
9. The eigen values of Hermitian operator are always
(A) Complex (B) Real (C) Imaginary (D) None of these
10. If two vectors are normalized and orthogonal, we call them
(A) Normalize (B) Orthogonal (C) Orthonormal (D) None of these

23
11. Froman expression 𝐴̂𝜓 = 𝜆𝜓, 𝜆
(A) Expectation value (B) Operator (C) Wave function (D) Eigen value equation
12. Expression for 𝑧 − 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑛𝑡 of angular momentum is
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(A) 𝑖ℏ 𝜕𝜙 (B) −𝑖ℏ 𝜕𝜙 (C) −𝑖ℏ2 𝜕𝜙 (D) −𝑖ℏ 𝜕𝜃

13. A set of vectors in a vector space is

(A) Dimension (B) Basis (C) Probability (D) None of these
14. Particle having wave function𝜓 = 𝑒 −𝑖𝑘𝑦 probability of finding it on 𝑥𝑧 plane is
(A) Zero (B) Small (C)Moderate (D) None of the above
15. If two operators commute it means
(A) Corresponding observables simultaneously measured
(B) Cannot have simultaneous eigen functions
(C) Cannot have simultaneous eigen value
(D) None of the above
16. The energy levels of free particle in space are
(A) Equally spaced (C) Continuous
(B) Not equally spaced (D) None of the above
17. |𝜓(𝑥, 𝑡)|2 represents
(A) probability of finding particle at position 𝑥 at time 𝑡
(B) probability of finding particle near position 𝑥 at time 𝑡
(C) probability density of finding particle at position 𝑥 at time 𝑡
(D) None of the above
18. _____________ in quantum mechanics behaves in same way as observable themselves in
classical mechanics
(A) Eigen functions (C) Eigen values
(B) Expectation values (D) None of above
19. If we measure the value of 𝐿𝑧 then which of the following can be measured at the same time
(A) 𝐿𝑥 + 𝐿𝑦 (B) 𝐿2𝑥 + 𝐿2𝑦 (C) 𝐿2𝑦 + 𝐿2𝑧 (D) 𝐿2𝑥 + 𝐿2𝑧
20. If 𝜓 = 𝐴𝑒 𝑖𝛽 is normalized wave function and 𝛽 is azimuthal angle then, 𝐴 = ________________.
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 2𝜋 (C) √2𝜋 (D) 2𝜋

21. The values of energy inside an infinitely deep potential well are
24
 (A) Continuous (C) proportional to n^2
1
(B) equally spaced (D) proportional to 𝑛2

22. Operator remains fixed and their eigen functions are time dependent in
(A) Heisenberg picture (C) Dirac picture
(B) Schrodinger picture (D) All of above
23. Schrodinger wave equation is usually used to determine
(A) Energy (B) Momentum (C) Wave function (D) speed of particle
24. The wavefunction of particle inside one dimensional infinitely deep well of length a is given
𝑛𝜋
as 𝜓 = 𝐴 sin ( 𝑎 𝑥) .The value of A=________________.

𝜋 𝜋 2 𝑎
(A) √𝑎 (B) √2𝑎 (C) √𝑎 (D) √2

25. Consider a one dimensional free particle, for which the Hamiltonian commutes with the
momentum operator. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) All energy eigenfunctions are eigenfunctions of momentum too
(B) All momentum eigenfunctions are eigenfunctions of Hamiltonian too
(C) The position operator does not commute with the Hamiltonian
(D) The position uncertainity of a momentum eigenfunction is infinite
26. Angular momentum is represented by
(A) 𝐴̂ ̂
(B) 𝑀 (C) 𝐿̂ (D) 𝑃̂
27. Which of the following is the correct expression for the orbital angular momentum?
(A) √𝑙 + 1 (B) √𝑛(𝑙 + 1) (C) √𝑙(𝑙 + 1) (D) √𝑚(𝑙 + 1)
28. What is the range of Azimuthal Quantum Number, l?
(A) 0 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 (B) 0 𝑡𝑜 𝑠 (C) 0 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 − 1 (D) 0 𝑡𝑜 𝑠 − 1
29. How many values does the spin quantum number have?
(A) 2 (B) 2l (C) 2n (D) 2me
30. An electron makes a transition from 𝑛 = 5 state to 𝑛 = 2 state in the hydrogen atom. What is
the frequency of the emitted
1.097×107
photon?𝑈𝑠𝑒 𝑅𝑦𝑑𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑔 𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡: 𝑅 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑘 ′ 𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡: ℎ = 6.63 ×
𝑚

10−34 𝐽𝑠
(A) 4.9 × 1014 𝐻𝑧 (B) 6.9 × 1014 𝐻𝑧 (C) 5.9 × 1014 𝐻𝑧 (D) 7.9 × 1014 𝐻𝑧

25
 IX. Condensed matter/Solid State Physics
1. Crystal structure can be studied using the diffraction of…………….
A). photons B) neutrons C) x-ray D) B & C e. all
2. Periodic nature of a crystal can be studied…..
A) Bragg’s law B) Pauli Exclusion Principle C) Bohr’s radius D) Schrodinger equation
3. Which crystal is made of ionic bonding?
A) diamond B) sodium chloride C) crystalline argon D) metallic zinc
4. Which of the following is not true about diamond and cubic zinc sulfide crystal structure?
A) Diamond allow a centre inversion symmetry operation
B) Cubic Zinc sulfide has no centre of inversion symmetry operation
C) Diamond structure has identical atoms at 000, and ¼ ¼ ¼.
D) Cubic Zinc sulfide structure has identical atoms at 000, and ¼ ¼ ¼.
5. The possible number of acoustic and optical phonons branches that FCC crystal lattice can
develop are;
A) 4 and 1 B) 21 and 18 C) 12 and 9 D) 3 and 0
6. Superconductivity is a state in which a material exhibits:
A) High resistance B) Zero resistance C) Negative resistance D) Variable resistance
7. The concept of spin-charge separation is observed in:
A) Ferromagnetic materials B) One-dimensional systems
C) High-temperature superconductors D) Semiconductors
8. Phonons are:
A) Electrically charged particles B) Quasiparticles representing vibrations in a crystal lattice
C) Spin-aligned electrons D) Positive energy states above the Fermi level
9. Which of the following is responsible for the Meissner effect in superconductors?
A) Diamagnetism B) Paramagnetism C) Ferromagnetism D) Antiferromagnetism
10. Excitons are:
A) Pairs of electrons and holes B) Particles with half-integer spin
C) Quasiparticles with fractional charge D) Phonon-electron interactions
11. The band structure of a material affects its electrical conductivity by:

26
 A) Determining the density of states B) Influencing the mobility of charge carriers
C) Controlling the band gap D) All of the above
12. Which of the following is a characteristic of a semiconductor material?
A) High electrical conductivity B) Conductivity unaffected by temperature band
C) Zero gap D) Band gap between the valence and conduction bands
13. The concept of a Fermi level in condensed matter physics is associated with:
A) The energy level corresponding to zero temperature
B) The energy level at which electrons are thermally excited
C) The highest energy level in a material
D) The highest occupied energy level at absolute zero
14. In the context of semiconductors, the term "doping" refers to the process of:
A) Introducing impurities to alter the density of charge carriers
B) Increasing the band gap of the material
C) Enhancing the electrical conductivity by heating the material
D) Lowering the Fermi level of the material
15. The concept of electrical conductivity in materials is closely related to the:
A) Density of states in the material B) Band structure of the material
C) Lattice vibrations in the material D) Magnetic properties of the material
16. The Hall effect, observed in the presence of a magnetic field, is a phenomenon that results in:
A) Change in optical properties of a material
B) Change in electrical resistance across a material
C) Generation of a magnetic field
D) Generation of a transverse voltage across a conductor
17. Which of the following materials is known to exhibit ferromagnetic behavior at room
temperature?
A) Aluminum B) Copper C) Iron D) Silicon
18. The concept of band structure in materials refers to:
A) The arrangement of chemical bonds in a material
B) The distribution of charge carriers in a material
C) The electronic energy levels in a crystalline solid
D) The heat conduction properties of a material

27
19. The Drude model in condensed matter physics is used to explain:
A) Optical properties of materials
B) Electrical conductivity in metals
C) Lattice vibrations in crystals
D) Quantum mechanical effects in semiconductors
20. In the context of superconductivity, the Meissner effect is characterized by:
A) Zero electrical resistance
B) Complete expulsion of magnetic fields from the superconductor
C) Formation of persistent currents
D) Enhancement of electrical conductivity at low temperatures
21. The concept of phonons in condensed matter physics is associated with:
A) Vibration modes in the crystal lattice
B) Linear electron dispersion relations
C) Charge carrier transport in metals
D) Isochoric heat capacity of materials
22. Which technique is commonly used to determine the crystal structure of materials in
condensed matter physics?
A) NMR spectroscopy B) X-ray diffraction
C) Mass spectrometry D) Infrared spectroscopy
23. The binding energy in crystals is primarily a result of interactions between:
A) Electrons and photons B) Nuclei and electrons
C) Ions and molecules D) Spin and charge
24. Electronic band structures in materials determine their:
A) Mechanical properties B) Magnetic properties
C) Electrical conductivity D) Thermal conductivity
25. Vibration in molecules and crystals is often described in terms of:
A) Phonons B) Electrons C) Polarons D) Excitons
26. The Free Electron Fermi Gas model is used to explain the behavior of:
A) Insulators B) Semiconductors C) Metals D) Superconductors
27. Dielectrics and ferroelectrics are materials known for their:
A) High magnetic susceptibility B) Ability to conduct electricity

28
 C) Non-linear electrical response D) Mechanical rigidity
28. The phenomenon of magnetism is primarily a result of:
A) Electronic spin and orbital motion B) Nuclear interactions
C) Photon absorption D) Ionic bonding
29. Transport theory in condensed matter physics deals with the:
A) Movement of particles through vacuum
B) Flow of heat in materials
C) Conductivity, resistivity, and mobility of charge carriers in solids
D) Migration of ions in solution
30. Which of the following materials would exhibit strong magneto-resistance behavior?
A) Non-magnetic metals B) Insulators C) Superconductors D) Ferromagnetic material

Answers:

1. D 6. B 11. D 16. D 21. A 26. C

2. A 7. B 12. D 17. C 22. B 27. C
3. B 8. B 13. D 18. C 23. B 28. A
4. B 9. A 14. A 19. B 24. C 29. C
5. B 10. A 15. B 20. B 25. A 30. D

X. Electrodynamics
Separate Pdf document, check it.

XI. Modern Physics

Separate Pdf document, check it.

29
Jimma University, Physics Deptment

Electrodynamics model questions for exit exam preparation

Academic calander: 2023/2024 - PartI (chap 1 & 2)

Prepared by: Hiwot Degafe

1. An innite plane carries a uniform surface charge σ . The electric eld at a distance d above the plane
is
A. σε0 B. εσ0 C. ε0 σ D. ε0 σ 2 E. none
2

2. Find the potential at a distance r from an innitely long straight wire that carries a uniform line charge
λ. (Compare the gradient of the potential)
A. 2πλr2 B. 2πλr C. 2πελ0 r D. 2πε
λ2
0r
E. none
3. Which one of the following is true about electric eld?
A. Electric eld is discontinous via various media
B. Electric eld is continous in any media
C. Electric eld is conserved D. all E. none
4. If the electric eld in some region is given in spherical coordinate by the expression
Ar̂ + B sin θ cos φφ̂
E=
r
where A and B are constants. What is the charge density?
A. ε0 Arsin B. ε0 (A−B C. ε0 Brsin D. ε0 Brsin E. none
φ sin φ) 2φ φ
2 r2 2 2

5. Suppose that the electric potential is given by the expression

Ae−λr
V (r) =
r
for all r (A and λ are constants). Find the electric eld at a distance r
   
A. ε0 A 4πσ r −
3 λ2 e−λr
r
B. ε0 A 4πσ r −
3 2 λ2 e−λr
r2
   
C. ε0 A 4πσ 2 r − λ D. ε0 A 4πσ 3 r2 − λ E. none
2e −λr 2 e−λr
r r

6. The electric eld on the surface of a charge spherical shell of charge Q and radiusR is
A. 4πεQ0 R B. 4πεQ0 R C. 4πεQ0 R2 D. 2πεQ0 R E. none
2

7. The electric eld at r outside a uniformly charged sphere of radius a and charge density ρ is
A. ρ(4πr) B. ρ(4πR2 ) C. ρ Rr D. ρ(4πr2 ) E. none

2

8. The electric eld at a disance z from the center of a uniform line charge density λ and radius r (along
the symmetry axis of the plane of the loop) is
A. 2πz
λ
B. 2πr
λ
C. λ(2πr) D. λr2 E. none
9. The electric potential on the surface a sphere of radius R which carries a uniform charge density σ and
total charge Q is
A. 4πεQ0 R B. 2πεQ0 R C. 4πεQ0 R2 D. 4πεQ0 R E. none
2

10. The energy of a uniformly charged spherical shell of total charge q and radius R is
A. 4πε
q2
B. 8πεq0 R C. 4πεq0 R D. 8πεq 0 R E. none
2

1
11. Which of the following is true about electrostatic energy?
A. The energy of a point charge is innite
B. The energy stored per unit area inside the eld is 21 ε0 E 2 (where E is the electrostatic eld)
C. Electrostatic energy does not obey superposition principle
D. All are true except C E. none
12. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is independent of
A. area of the plate
B. separation distance between the plates
C. the electric eld between the plates
D. A and B E. none
13. Which one of the following is not true about electric charge?
A. Electric charge is conserved
B. Electric charge is quantized
C. There is a monople charge
D. All E. none
14. Which of the following is true about the relationship between magnetic susceptibility χm and the relative
magnetic permeability (µ/µo )
A. µ/µo = χm − 1 B. µ/µo = χ√m + 1
C. µ/µo = χm − 1
2
D. µ/µo = χm − 1 E. none
15. A long copper rod of radius R carries a uniformly instrumented current I.nd the inside the rod at r
A. 2πεI0 R B. 2πεIr0 R2 C. 2πε0 RI D. 2πεI0 R2 E. none
2

16. A current I ows down a long straight wire of radius R. If the wire is made of linear material with
susceptibility χm and the current is distributed uniformly, then the magnetic eld a distance r from the
center is
Ir 2πIr Ir χ Ir
A. 2
B. C. D. m 2 E. none
2πχm R χm R 2πχm R 2πR
17. Which of the following is a permanent magnetic material?
A.Ferromagnetic B. Paramagnetic C.Diamagnetic D. A and B E. none
18. Which of the following is true about magnetic and electric dipole moments.
A. both dependent on current only
B. either of the two depends on current follow
C.nether dependent on the electric case
D. the electric dipole depends on electric charge while the magnetic dipole depends on electric current
E. none
19. Which one of the following is true about electro-magnetostatics?
A.Gauss law for electrostatic and Ampere's law for magnetostatic
B. Gauss law for magnetostatic and Ampere's law for electrostatic
C.Coulomb's law for magnetostatic
D.Biot-Savart law for electrostatic E. none
20. Which is true about Magnetization?
A. Magnetization depends on the strength of magnetic eld
B. Magnetization is an intrinsic property of a material
C. Magnetization is related to electric eld
D. Magnetization is proportional to current ow
E. none

2
21. Magnetic eld inside a matter depends on
A. The strength of the magnetic eld
B.The amount of current owing via the material
C.The electric eld inside the matter
D. The intrinsic property of the matter E. none
22. Which of the following true about the magnetic eld?
A.Divergence of the magnetic eld is zero
B.Curly of a magnetic eld is zero
C.Ampere's law is true in varying current ow
D. H is equivalent to B E. none
23. The source of bound current in magnetized material is
A. Current B. Magnetic eld C. Bound charge D. All E. none
24. The corresponding electrostatic term analogy to that of the H in magnetostatic is
A. Electric eld B. Magnetic eld C. Displacement vector D. Dielectric E. none
25. What parameter aect the strength of ferromagnetic materials?
A. Temperature B. Pressure C. Volume D. All E. none
26. Some ways of creating a relatively strong magnetic material is
A. Cutting into pieces
B. Melting the material
C. Wrapping the current carrying coil
D. All E. none
27. The curie point in ferromagnetism is like A. Boiling point B. Melting point C. Sublimation
D. Freezing point E. none
28. Which of the following is stronger in magnetic property
A. Ferromagnetic B. Diamagnetic C. Paramagnetic D. All E. none
29. The measure of how much a neutral atom ionized is called
A. Stretching of an atom B. Polarization C. Rotating of an atom D. Ionization E. none
30. One of the following inuences the strength of induced dipole moment
A. Magnetic eld B. Electric eld C. Atomic polarizability factor D. A & B E. B & C
31. Which of the following is an intrinsic property of an atom or a molecule?
A. Atomic polarizability B. Dipole moment C. External electric eld D. Magnetic eld E. None
32. One of the following determines the size of bound charges
A. Electric eld B. Polarization vector C. Displacement vector D. Only A & B E.All except D
33. Electric eld of a charged capacitor lled with a dielectric depends on
A. Field due to bound charges B. Field due to plate of capacitor
C. Field due to intrinsic behavior of a dielectric D. A & B E.None
34. A long straight wire, carrying a uniform electric line charge λ is surrounded by a rubber insulation out
to a radius R. The electric displacement vector at a distance r > R.
A. λ
2πε0 r2
B. λr
2πε0
C. λ
2πε0 r
D. λr2
2πε0
E.None

3
35. Which one of the following expresses the exact form of the relationship between susceptibility and
permeability?
A. χe = ε
ε0
+1 B.χe = ε
ε20
−1 C. χe = ε
ε0
−1 D. χe = ε2
ε0
−1 E.None
36. When a dielectric material is inserted between the plates of a capacitor, then one of the following will
be changed
A. The charge on the capacitor
B. The eld between the plates of the capacitor
C. The potential dierence between the plates
D. All
E.None
37. Which of the following is not true?
A. Stationary charges produce only electric eld
B. Moving charges produce both electric and magnetic elds
C. Moving charge produces only magnetic eld
D. Stationary charge cannot produce magnetic eld
E.None
38. The force between two parallel current carring long wires is
A. Attractive B. Repulsive C. Both attractive & repulsive D. no interaction E.None
39. The magnetic force on a charge q moving with velocity v perpendicular to magnetic eld B is
A. q 2 vB B. qv 2 B C. qvB D. qvB 2 E.None
40. The surface charge current density κ that ows over a a charged surface as a function of charge density
σ & velocity v is
A. σ 2 v 2 B. σv C. σ 2 v D. σv 2 E.None
41. The magnetic eld at a distance r from a long innite straight wire carrying a steady current I .
A. µ0 I 2
r
B. µ0 I
2πr2
C. µ0 I 2
2πr2
D. µ0 I 2
2πr
E.None
42. The force per unit length between two long parallel wires a distance d apart, carrying currents I1 & I2 .
µ0 I12 I22
A. 2πd
B. µ0 I1 I2
2π
C. µ0 I1 I2
2πd
D. µ0 I1 I2
2πd2
E.None
43. A current I is uniformly distributed over a circular wire of cross-section of radius R. The volume current
density for this is
A. πR
I
B. 4πR
I
3 C. πRI 2 D. πRI 4 E.None
44. A volume current density in a wire is proportional to the distance from the axis as kr. The current in
the wire is
A. 2πkR B. 2πkR C. 2πkR D. 2πkR E.None
2 3
3 3 3 7

4
 Model Exit Examination for Modern Physics

Multiple Choice Questions (30%)

1. T w o o b s e r v e r s , A on earth and B in a spacecraft whose speed
is 2.00 x 10 8 m/s, both set their watches to the same time when the ship
is abreast of the earth. How much time must elapse by A’s reckoning before
the watches differ by 1.00 s? A) 3.93 s B) 2.93 s C) 1.93s D) 4.93s
2. A certain particle has a lifetime of 1.00 x10 -7 s when measured at rest. How far does it
go before decaying if its speed is 0.99c when it is created?
A) 120m B) 210 C) 310m D) 410m.
3. Green light has a wavelength of about 550nm. Through what potential difference must
an electron be accelerated to have this wavelength?
A) 4.97 x 10-6eV B) 9.7 x 10-5eV C) 4.75x 10-6eV D) 7 .4x 10-6eV
4. The smallest angle of Bragg scattering in potassium chloride (KCl) is 28.40 for 0.30 nm
x-rays. Find the distance between atomic planes in potassium chloride.
A) 1.5×10 -10 m B) 3.15×10-10 m C) 3.15×1010 m D) 1.5×1010 m
5. According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity, which of these objects should be the
heaviest?
A) A B) B C) C D) D

6. According to the special theory of relativity, physical laws are the same in frames of
reference which( A) Move at uniform velocity(B) Accelerate.(C) Move in circles.(D)
Move in ellipses
7. Michelson Morley experiment proved that(A) Earth is an Inertial Frame(B) Earth is a
non-Inertial Frame(C) There is no absolute frame of reference called ether in
universe(B) None of these
8. How fast does a rocket have to move relative to an observer for its length to be
contracted in to 95% to its original length?
(A) 0.2c (B) 0.3c(C) 0.4c (D) 0.5c
9. Which transformation Equation are replaced by Lorentz transformation equation which
confirms the postulates of Einstein special theory of relativity
 (A)Maxwell’s (B) Planck’s (C) Newton’s (D) Galilean
10. Lorentz transformation assume(A) Space and time both are relative(B) Space and time
both are absolute(C) Space is absolute and time is relative(D) Space is relative and time
is absolute
11. The circle in rest frame appear to ellipse for frame moving relative to rest frame due to
(A) Length contraction (B) Time dilation(C) Relativistic velocity addition theorem (D)
All of these
12. The Clocks in a moving reference frame compared to identical clocks in a stationary
reference frame, appear to run? (A) Slower (B) Faster(C) At the same rate. (D)
Backward in time.
13. The rest mass of an electron is m0.what is the mass of electron when it is moving with
velocity 0.6c (A) m0 (B) 4/ 5m0 (C)5/4m0 (D)2m0
14. The basic theorem/principle used to obtain mass-energy relation is(A) Momentum
Conservation Theorem(B)Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle (C) Work-Energy
Theorem(D) Maxwell Theorem
15. Spacecraft S’ is at rest, eventually heading toward Alpha Centauri, when Spacecraft S
passes it at relative speed c/2. The captain of S’ sends a radio signal that lasts 1.2 s
according to that ship’s clock. Use the Lorentz transformation to find the time interval of
the signal measured by the communications officer of spaceship S.
A) 1.4s B) 4.1s C) 1.3s D) 3.1s
16. A surveyor measures a street to be L=100m long in Earth frame S. Use the Lorentz
transformation to obtain an expression for its length measured from a spaceship S',
moving by at speed 0.20c, assuming the x coordinates of the two frames coincide at time
t=0. A) 78m B) 98m C) 89m D) 87m
17. A student is sitting on a train 10.0 m from the rear of the car. The train is moving to the
right at a speed of 4.00 m/s. If the rear of the car passes the end of the platform at t = 0,
how far away from the platform is the student at 5.00 s?
A) 30cm B) 30m B) 40m D) 40cm
18. Two rocket ships are approaching a space station, each at a speed of 0.9c, with respect to
the station, as shown in figure below. What is their relative speed according to the
Lorentz transformation? A) 1.8c B) 1.8c C) 0.994c D) 0.994c

19. A 1.00-kg object is accelerated to a speed of 0.4c. What is its kinetic energy
relativistically and classically respectively?
A) 8.20 x 1015 J , 7.20 x 1015 J B) 7.20 x1015 J , 8.20 x 1015 J
C) 2.80 x 1015 J, 2.70 x 1015 J D) 2.70 x 1015 J ,2.80 x 1015 J
20. Yellow light of 577.0-nm wavelength is incident on a cesium surface. It is found that no
photoelectrons flow in the circuit when the cathode anode voltage drops below 0.250 V.
What are the frequency of the incident photon and the threshold frequency respectively?
A) 5.20 x 1014 Hz, 4.60 x 1014 Hz C) 2.50 x 1014 Hz , 6.40 x 1014 Hz
B) -5.20 x 1014 Hz ,- 4.60 x 1014 Hz D) -2.50 x 1014 Hz ,- 6.40 x 1014 Hz
21. A 90.0-KeV X-ray photon is fired at a carbon target and Compton scattering occurs.
What is the wavelength of the incident photon and the wavelength of the scattered
photon for scattering angle 300?
A) 0.138 nm, 0.141 nm B) 0.0138 nm, 0.0141 nm
C) 1.41 nm, 1.38 nm D) 4.1 nm, 3.8 nm
22. Modern physics could best be described as the combination of which theories?
A. quantum mechanics and Einstein’s theory of relativity
B. quantum mechanics and classical physics
C. Newton’s laws of motion and classical physics
D. Newton’s laws of motion and Einstein’s theory of relativity

23. Which of the following could be studied accurately using classical physics?
A. the strength of gravity within a black hole
B. the motion of a plane through the sky
C. the collisions of subatomic particles
D. the effect of gravity on the passage of time

24. Which of the following best describes why knowledge of physics is necessary to
understand all other sciences?
A. Physics explains how energy passes from one object to another.
B. Physics explains how gravity works.
C. Physics explains the motion of objects that can be seen with the naked eye.
D. Physics explains the fundamental aspects of the universe.

25. Statistical thermodynamics provide an additional interpretation of concept of

(A) Entropy (B) thermodynamics probability (C) sum of thermodynamics
probability for macro state (D) energy of system
26. The de-Broglie relation describe the relation between
(A)Wavelength & velocity (B) Wavelength & momentum (C) Wavelength & energy
(D) Position & momentum
27. In which statistics number of particles are Unlimited?
(A) Fermi Dirac Statistics (B) Bose Einstein Statistics
(C) MB & BE Statistics (D) None
28. The scattering of waves in Bragg’s law experiment is due to __________
A) Einstein’s scattering BB) Rayleigh scattering
C) Newton scattering D) Inelastic scattering
29. If the angle of incidence is 30°, then the wavelength for first-order spectrum is equal to
_______ A) d B 2d C) d/2 D) d/3
30. What should be the value of X?

A) θ B) θ/2 C) 2θ D) θ/3
31. In Compton scattering, if the incident photon has a wavelength of 0.2 nm and Φ = 90°,
the angle at which recoil electron appears is ___________
A) 30.12° B) 38.46° C) 44.57° C) 53.12°
32. During Einstein’s Photoelectric Experiment, what changes are observed when the
frequency of the incident radiation is increased?
A) The value of saturation current increases B) No effect
C) The value of stopping potential increases
D) The value of stopping potential decreases
33. Identify the correct order of frequencies.

A) v1 > v2 > v3 B) v2 > v3 > v1 C) v3 > v2 > v1 D) v1 > v3 > v2

34. What is the effect of intensity on the stopping potential?
A) As intensity increases, stopping potential increases linearly
B) As intensity increases, stopping potential decreases linearly
C) As intensity decreases, stopping potential increases exponentially
D) No effect
35. Two beams, one of red light and the other of blue light, of the same intensity are
incident on a metallic surface to emit photoelectrons. Which emits electrons of greater
frequency?
A) Both B) Red light C) Blue light D) Neither
36. Which of the following is a form of light whose photons share the same frequency and
whose wavelengths are in phase with one another?
A) Coherent sources B) Incoherent sources
C) Electromagnetic waves D) Sunlight
37. A hot, black coffee mug is sitting on a kitchen table in a dark room. Because it cannot be
seen, one assumes that it is not emitting energy in the form of light. Explain the fallacy
in this logic.
A. Not all heat is in the form of light energy.
B. Not all light energy falls in the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.
C. All heat is in the form of light energy.
D. All light energy falls in the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

38. Classical physics explains many aspects of electromagnetic radiation. Which of the
following observations is consistent with the classical model?
A. Immediate ejection of electrons upon exposure of a material to light.
B. Exposure to light causes an electrical response in many materials.
C. The speed of ejected electrons is independent of light intensity.
D. Electrical activity from a given material requires a specific frequency of light.

39. Given what we’ve learned about relativity, which of the following is better to say than
“matter can neither be created nor destroyed”:
A. Matter can be converted to waves. B. Matter can be converted to particles.
C. Matter exists as a particle and wave at the same time.
D. Mass and energy can be seen as two names for the same underlying,
conserved physical quantity.
40. Planck’s quantization of energy was a desperate attempt to resolve the
A. twin paradox. B. ultraviolet catastrophe.
C. photoelectric mystery. D. spectrum of hydrogen mystery.
41. Around 1911, Rutherford suggested a planetary model of atomic structure. Which of the
following was not a proposition of this model?
A) Electrons revolve in circular orbits around the nucleus
B) Nucleus consists of protons and neutrons
C) Mass of atom is concentrated in the nucleus
D) Most of the volume in an atom is void
42. Which of the Bohr’s postulates was incorrect?
A) Energy of electrons is quantized
B) Momentum of electrons is quantized
C) Electrons release energy when shifting from excited state to ground state
D) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed circular orbits
 43. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased
silicon p-n junction are

A) Drift in both forward and reverse bias B) diffusion in both forward and reverse
C) diffusion in forward and drift in reverse D) drift in forward and diffusion in reverse

44. Hall Effect is observed in a specimen when it (metal or a semiconductor) is carrying

current and is placed in a magnetic field. The resultant electric field inside the specimen
will be in:

A direction normal to both current and magnetic field

B) The direction of current

C) A direction anti parallel to magnetic field D) none of the above

45. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) A semiconductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between
that of a conductor and an insulator

(B) A semiconductor is a material which has conductivity having average

value of conductivity of metal and insulator

(C) A semiconductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage

(D) A semiconductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting

material and insulator

46. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when
connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four wires are connected is
series the effective resistance will be

(A) 1 Q (B) 2 Q (C) 3 Q (D) 4 Q

47. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces
(A) Arcs across separating contacts
(B) Mechanical noise of high intensity
(C) Both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
(D) None of the above

Answers 1.A 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.A 11.A 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.B 18.C
19.A 20.A 21.B 22. A 23.B 24.D 25.A 26.B 27.C 28.B 29.A 30.C 31.C 32.C 33.C 34.D 35.C
36.A 37.A 38.D 39.D 40.B 41.B 42.D 43.A 44.A 45.A 46.D 47.A