2020 Question Paper
2020 Question Paper
com
PHYSICS the field at the centre, the electric field along the
axis at a distance R from the centre of the disc
1. What should be the velocity of rotation of earth (a) reduces by 70.7% (b) reduces by 29.3%
due to rotation about its own axis so that the
(c) reduces by 9.7% (d) reduces by 14.6%
3
weight of a person becomes of the present 4. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have
5
weight at the equator. Equatorial radius of the r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 105
earth is 6400 km. Nm –2 pressure. When the temperature and
(a) 8.7 × 10–7 rad/s (b) 7.8 × 10–4 rad/s pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and
–4
(c) 6.7 × 10 rad/s (d) 7.4 × 10–3 rad/s 0.05 × 105 Nm–2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules
2. Block A of mass m and block B of mass 2m are in ms–1 is :
placed on a fixed triangular wedge by means of a
massless, inextensible string and a frictionless 400
(a) 100 2 (b)
pulley as shown in figure. 3
100 2 100
(c) (d)
A B 3 3
m 2m 5. An inductor of inductance L = 400 mH and
resistors of resistance R1 = 2W and R2 = 2W are
45° 45° connected to a battery of emf 12 V as shown in
The wedge is inclined at 45° to the horizontal on the figure. The internal resistance of the battery
both the sides. If the coefficient of friction is negligible. The switch S is closed at t = 0. The
between the block A and the wedge is 2/3 and potential drop across L as a function of time is
that between the block B and the wedge is 1/3
and both the blocks A and B are released from 12 -3t E
(a) e V
rest, the acceleration of A will be t L
(a) –1 ms–2 (b) 1.2 ms–2
( )
R1
–2 (b) 6 1 - e-t / 0.2 V
(c) 0.2 ms (d) zero
3. The surface charge density of a thin charged disc R2
of radius R is s. The value of the electric field at (c) 12e–5t V
S
s (d) 6e–5t V
the centre of the disc is . With respect to
2 Î0
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6. Two wires are made of the same material and have (a) 1.0 × 10–2 (b) 1.2 × 10–2
the same volume. However wire 1 has cross- (c) 1.4 × 10 –2 (d) 0.8 × 10–2
sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional
12. A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a sphere of
area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by Dx on
radius R. A very small spherical ball slips on this
applying force F, how much force is needed to
wire. The time taken by this ball to slip from A to
stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
B is
(a) 4 F (b) 6 F (c) 9 F (d) F
7. Two spheres of different materials one with double 2 gR
(a) A
the radius and one-fourth wall thickness of the g cos q
other are filled with ice. If the time taken for
cos q q
complete melting of ice in the larger sphere is 25 (b) 2 gR .
g O
minute and for smaller one is 16 minute, the ratio
of thermal conductivities of the materials of larger R B R
spheres to that of smaller sphere is (c) 2
g
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 25 : 8 (d) 8 : 25 C
8. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of gR
(d)
magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following g cos q
options best describe the image formed of an 13. A string of length l is fixed at both ends. It is
object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens? vibrating in its 3rd overtone with maximum
(a) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm amplitude 'a'. The amplitude at a distance l/3 from
(b) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm one end is
(c) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
(d) Real, inverted, height = 1cm 3a a
(a) a (b) 0 (c) (d)
9. In the figure below, what is the potential difference 2 2
between the point A and B and between B and C 14. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing
respectively in steady state a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field B. The kinetic
energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit
of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with the
same B is
(a) 25 keV (b) 50 keV
(c) 200 keV (d) 100 keV
15. In the circuit shown in the figure, find the current
(a) VAB = VBC = 100V in 45 W.
(b) VAB = 75 V , VBC = 25V
(c) VAB = 25V , VBC = 75V 180V 90W 45W
(d) VAB = VBC = 50V 90W
10. A radioactive element X converts into another
stable element Y. Half life of X is 2 hrs. Initially
100W 100W
only X is present. After time t, the ratio of atoms 50W 50W
of X and Y is found to be 1 : 4, then t in hours is
(a) 2 (b) 4
100W 50W
(c) between 4 and 6 (d) 6
(a) 4 A (b) 2.5A
11. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The
(c) 2 A (d) None of these
compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and
16. Kepler's third law states that square of period of
density of water is 103 kg/m3.What fractional
revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is
compression of water will be obtained at the
proportional to third power of average distance r
bottom of the ocean ?
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between sun and planet i.e. T2 = Kr3 here K is 20. The drift velocity of electrons in silver wire with
constant. If the masses of sun and planet are M cross-sectional area 3.14 × 10–6 m2 carrying a
and m respectively then as per Newton's law of current of 20 A is. Given atomic weight of Ag =
gravitation force of attraction between them is 108, density of silver
GMm , = 10.5 × 103 kg/m3.
F= here G is gravitational constant. The (a) 2.798 × 10–4 m/sec.
r2 (b) 67.98 × 10–4 m/sec.
relation between G and K is described as (c) 0.67 × 10–4 m/sec.
(a) GMK = 4p2 (b) K = G (d) 6.798 × 10–4 m/sec.
1 21. A parallel plate capacitor of area ‘A’ plate
(c) K = (d) GK = 4p2
G separation ‘d’ is filled with two dielectrics as
17. Find the number of photon emitted per second shown. What is the capacitance of the
by a 25 watt source of monochromatic light of arrangement ?
wavelength 6600 Å. What is the photoelectric A/2 A/2
current assuming 3% efficiency for photoelectric
effect ?
25 K d
(a) ´ 1019 J, 0.4amp d
3 K
2
25
(b) ´ 1019 J, 6.2 amp 3K e 0 A 4 K e0 A
4 (a) (b)
25 4d 3d
(c) ´ 1019 J, 0.8 amp
2 ( K + 1) e 0 A K ( K + 3) e 0 A
(c) (d)
(d) None of these 2d 2 ( K + 1) d
18. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel 22. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the
glass slab at point A as shown in diagram. It intensity of light at a point on the screen where
undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At each the path difference is l is K, (l being the wave
reflection, 25% of incident energy is reflected. The length of light used). The intensity at a point
rays AB and A'B' undergo interference. The ratio where the path difference is l/4, will be :
of Imax and Imin is : (a) K (b) K/4 (c) K/2 (d) Zero
23. The mass of 7N15 is 15.00011 amu, mass of 8O16
B B' is 15.99492 amu and mP = 1.00783 amu. Determine
A' binding energy of last proton of 8O16.
A (a) 2.13 MeV (b) 0.13 MeV
(c) 10 MeV (d) 12.13 MeV
24. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown
in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are
C' very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular
C
portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic
field at point O is :
(a) 49 : 1 (b) 7 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 8 : 1 Z
19. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed vertically
in a liquid such that liquid rises in it to height h
(less than the length of the tube). Mass of liquid
I
in the capillary tube is m. If radius of the capillary
tube is increased by 50%, then mass of liquid that R
Y
will rise in the tube, is O
2 3 9
(a) m (b) m (c) m (d) m
3 2 4 I
X
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ur p p
(a) B=– 0
m I $
4p R
(
mi ´ 2k$ ) (a) 5cm,
10
s (b) 5cm, s
5
ur 2p p
(b) B = – 0
m I $
4p R
(
pi + 2k$ ) (c) 4cm,
5
s (d) 4cm, s
3
ur m0 I 29. The frequency of vibration of string is given by
(c) B =
4p R
(
p$i – 2k$ ) p éFù
½
ur m0 I v=
2l êë m úû
(d) B =
4p R
(
p$i + 2k$ ) Here p is number of segments in the string and l
25. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle q is the length. The dimensional formula for m will
with the horizontal reaches maximum height H1. be
When it is projected with velocity u at an angle (a) [M0LT–1] (b) [ML0T–1]
–1 0 (d) [M0L0T0]
æp ö (c) [ML T ]
çè - q÷ø with the horizontal, it reaches maximum 30. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to
2
height H2. The relation between the horizontal be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be
range R of the projectile, heights H1 and H2 is made of a material whose refractive index :
(a) R = 4 H1H 2 (b) R = 4(H1 – H2) (a) lies between 2 and 1
H12 (b) lies between 2 and 2
(c) R = 4 (H1 + H2) (d) R=
H 22 (c) is less than 1
26. If the series limit wavelength of Lyman series for (d) is greater than 2
the hydrogen atom is 912 Å, then the series limit 31. Consider elastic collision of a particle of mass m
wavelength for Balmer series of hydrogen atoms moving with a velocity u with another particle of
is the same mass at rest. After the collision the
(a) 912 Å (b) 912 × 2 Å projectile and the struck particle move in directions
912 making angles q1 and q2 respectively with the
(c) 912 × 4 Å (d) Å initial direction of motion. The sum of the angles
2
27. In the shown arrangement of the experiment of q1 + q2, is :
the meter bridge if AC corresponding to null (a) 45° (b) 90° (c) 135° (d) 180°
deflection of galvanometer is x, what would be 32. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform
its value if the radius of the wire AB is doubled? magnetic field of 0.04 T with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius
of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The
R1 R2 induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm
is
G (a) 4.8 p mV (b) 0.8 p mV
B (c) 1.6 p mV (d) 3.2 p mV
A x C
(a) x (b) x /4 (c) 4 x (d) 2 x 33. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken
28. A 1 kg mass is attached to a spring of force by a gas to go from a state A to a state (c)
constant 600 N/m and rests on a smooth
horizontal surface with other end of the spring P B C
tied to wall as shown in figure. A second mass of 6×104 Pa
0.5 kg slides along the surface towards the first at
3m/s. If the masses make a perfectly inelastic
collision, then find amplitude and time period of 2×104 Pa
oscillation of combined mass. A
///////////////
–
3m/s 2 × 10 3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3
0.5kg 1 kg V
////////////////////////////////////////////////////
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..
44. Which of the following arrangements does not ¾¾¾
®X
CH3
represent the correct order of the property stated [X] is
against it ?
CH3
(a) V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ :paramagnetic
behaviour (a) HO C CH3
(b) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : ionic size
OH
(c) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr3+ < Sc3+ : stability in
aqueous solution CH3
..
(d) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation
(b) HO .O. C CH3
states
H
45. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
CH3
(a) [Fe(CN)6]4– (b) [Ni(CO)4]
(c) [Ni(CN)4]2– (d) [CoF6]3– (c) HO C C CH3
46. The hypothetical complex chloro-
OH
..
..
O
diaquatriamminecobalt (III) chloride can be
represented as CH3
(a) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2 ]Cl2 (d) HO C OH
(b) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3]
CH3
(c) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]
(d) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 52. CH3C º CCH3 ¾¾¾¾ H 2 /Pt
® A ¾¾¾¾
2 ®B
D /Pt
47. The normality of 26% (wt/vol) solution of The compounds A and B, respectively are
ammonia (density = 0.855 ) is approximately : (a) cis-butene-2 and rac-2, 3-dideuterobutane
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.4 (c) 15.3 (d) 4 (b) trans-butene-2 and rac-2,
48. 1.25 g of a sample of Na2CO3 and Na2SO4 is 3-dideuterobutane
dissolved in 250 ml solution. 25 ml of this solution (c) cis-butene-2 and meso-2,
neutralises 20 ml of 0.1N H2SO4.The % of Na2CO3 3-dideuterobutane
in this sample is (d) trans-butene-2 and meso-2,
(a) 84.8% (b) 8.48% (c) 15.2% (d) 42.4% 3-dideuterobutane
49. Which of the following compound has all the 53. Give the possible structure of X in the following
four types (1°, 2°, 3° and 4°) of carbon atoms? reaction :
D O
(a) 2, 3, 4-Trimethylpentane C6H6 + D2SO4 ¾¾¾
2 ®
X
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S O3D
SO3D
(b) and
D
(a) (b)
D (c) and
SO3H
D D
D
(c) (d) (d) and
D D
D
54. An aromatic compound has molecular formula 58. Sometimes, the colour observed in Lassaigne’s
C7 H7 Br. Give the possible isomers and the test for nitrogen is green. It is because
appropriate method to distinguish them. (a) of green colour of ferrous sulphate
(a) 3 isomers; by heating with AgNO3 solution (b) ferric ferrocyanide is also green
(b) 4 isomers; by treating with AgNO3 solution (c) of green colour of copper sulphate
(c) 4 isomers; by oxidation (d) of excess of Fe3+ ions whose yellow colour
(d) 5 isomers; by oxidation makes the blue colour of ferric ferrocyanide
55. Which of the following method gives better yield to appear green.
of p-nitrophenol? 59. Fructose on reduction gives a mixture of two
dil .HNO 3 alcohols which are related as
(a) Phenol ¾¾¾¾® p-Nitrophenol (a) diastereomers (b) epimers
20°C
(i) NaNO 2 + H 2SO 4 , 7 - 8° C (c) both (a) and (b) (d) anomers.
(b) Phenol ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® 60. What will happen when D-(+)-glucose is treated
(ii) HNO 3
with methanolic —HCl followed by Tollens’
p-Nitrophenol
(i) NaOH
reagent ?
(c) Phenol ¾¾¾¾¾¾® (a) A black ppt. will be formed
(ii) Conc. HNO 3
(b) A red ppt. will be formed
(d) None of the three. (c) A green colour will appear
56. Formation of polyethylene from calcium carbide (d) No characteristic colour or ppt. will be
takes place as follows formed.
CaC 2 + 2H 2 O ¾
¾® Ca (OH ) 2 + C 2 H 2 61. Which of the followings forms the base of talcum
powder?
C2 H2 + H2 ¾
¾® C 2 H 4 (a) Zine stearate
nC 2 H 4 ¾
¾® ( - CH 2 - CH 2 - ) n (b) Sodium aluminium silicate
The amount of polyethylene obtained from 64.1 kg (c) Magnesium hydrosilicate
of CaC2 is (d) Chalk
(a) 7 kg (b) 14 kg (c) 21 kg (d) 28 kg 62. The important antioxidant used in food is
57. The most likely acid-catalysed aldol (a) BHT (b) BHC
condensation products of each of the two (c) BTX (d) All the three
aldehydes I and II will respectively be 63. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of
hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at
CHO (I) and (II) 9R 7R
(a) cm -1 (b) cm -1
400 144
3R 5R
(a) and (c) cm -1 (d) cm -1
4 36
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64. An e– has magnetic quantum number as –3, what (a) – 300 kJ mol–1 (b) – 350 kJ mol–1
is its principal quantum number? (c) – 328 kJ mol–1 (d) – 228 kJ mol–1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 71. The percentage hydrolysis of 0.15 M solution of
65. At what temperature, the rate of effusion of N2 ammonium acetate, Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10–5
o
would be 1.625 times than that of SO2 at 50 C ? and Kb for NH3 is 1.8 × 10–5
(a) 110 K (b) 173 K (c) 373 K (d) 273 K (a) 0.556 (b) 4.72 (c) 9.38 (d) 5.56
66. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per 72. For a sparingly soluble salt ApBq, the relationship
molecule in SI unit at 25° C will be of its solubility product Ls ® K sp with its
(a) 6.17 × 10-21 kJ (b) 6.17 × 10–21 J solubility (S) is
(c) 6.17 × 10–20 J (d) 7.16 × 10–20 J (a) Ls ® Ksp = Spq (pq)P + q
67. The degree of dissociation of PCl5 (a) obeying (b) Ls = Sp + q . ppqq
the equilibrium PCl 5 PCl 3 + Cl 2 is (c) Ls ® Ksp = Sp + q . pqqp
related to the equilibrium pressure by (d) Ls ® Ksp = Spqppqq
1 1 73. Consider the reaction :
(a) a µ 4 (b) a µ
P P Cl2(aq) + H2S(aq) ®
1 S(s) + 2H+ (aq) + 2Cl– (aq)
(c) a µ 2 (d) a µ P The rate equation for this reaction is
P
68. In a closed system, A(s) 2B(g) + 3C(g), if partial rate = k[Cl2][H2S]
pressure of C is doubled, then partial pressure of B Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with
will be this rate equation?
A. Cl2 + H2S ® H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow)
(a) 2 2 times the original value
Cl+ + HS– ® H+ + Cl– + S (fast)
1
(b)
2
times the original value B. H 2S H+ + HS- (fast equilibrium)
(c) 2 times the original value Cl 2 + HS- ® 2Cl - + H + + S (Slow)
1 (a) B only (b) Both A and B
(d) times the original value (c) Neither A nor B (d) A only
2 2
74. In the reaction,
69. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature
P + Q ¾¾® ? R + S
T, DH and DS were found to be both +ve. If Te is
The time taken for 75% reaction of P is twice the
the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would
time taken for 50% reaction of P. The concentration
be spontaneous when
of Q varies with reaction time as shown in the
(a) Te > T (b) T > Te
figure. The overall order of the reaction is
(c) Te is 5 times T (d) T = Te
70. Given
[Q]0
Reaction Energy Change
(in kJ)
Li(s) ® Li(g) 161 [Q]
Li(g) ® Li+(g) 520
Time
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1
F (g) ® F(g) 77 75. The EMF of the cell Tl/Tl+ (0.001M) || Cu2+
2 2
F(g) + e– ® F–(g) (Electron gain enthalpy) (0.01M) /Cu is 0.83. The cell EMF can be increased
Li+ (g) + F–(g) ® Li F(s) – 1047 by
1 (a) Increasing the concentration of Tl+ ions.
Li (s) + F2(g) ® Li F(s) – 617 (b) Increasing the concentration of Cu2+ ions.
2
Based on data provided, the value of electron (c) Increasing the concentration of Tl+ and
gain enthalpy of fluorine would be : Cu2+ ions.
(d) None of these
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141. The length of the chord x + y = 3 intercepted by (a) 71 (b) 72 (c) 73 (d) 74
the circle x 2 + y 2 - 2x - 2 y - 2 = 0 is 147. If the sum of odd numbered terms and the sum of
even numbered terms in the expansion of (x + a)n
7 3 3 7 are A and B respectively, then the value of (x2 –
(a) (b) (c) 14 (d) a2)n is
2 2 2
142. The locus of the point of intersection of two (a) A2 – B2 (b) A2 + B2
tangents to the parabola y2 = 4ax, which are at (c) 4AB (d) None
right angle to one another is 148. If the third term in the expansion of [ x + x log10 x ]5
(a) x2 + y2 = a2 (b) ay2 =x
(c) x + a = 0 (d) x + y ± a = 0 is 106, then x may be
143. The parabola having its focus at (3, 2) and (a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 10 (d) 10–2/5
directrix along the y-axis has its vertex at 149. If three vertices of a regular hexagon are chosen
æ3 ö at random, then the chance that they form an
(a) (2, 2) (b) ç , 2 ÷
è2 ø equilateral triangle is :
æ1 ö æ2 ö 1 1 1 1
(c) ç , 2÷ (d) ç , 2÷ (a) (b) (c) (d)
è2 ø è3 ø 3 5 10 2
144. The number of values of r satisfying the equation 150. A man takes a step forward with probability 0.4
39
and backward with probability 0.6. The probability
C 3r -1 - 39 C = 39 C - 39 C 3r is that at the end of eleven steps he is one step
r2 r 2 -1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 away from the starting point is
n r+2 n 8 2 5.35 æ 6 ö
5
145. If å C r = 2 – 1 , then n = (a) (b) 462 ´ ç ÷
r = 0 r +1 6 510 è 25 ø
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5 35
146. All the words that can be formed using alphabets (c) 231´ (d) none of these
A, H, L, U and R are written as in a dictionary (no 510
alphabet is repeated). Rank of the word RAHUL
is
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Physics
Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key
1 b 11 b 21 d 31 b
2 d 12 c 22 c 32 d
3 a 13 c 23 d 33 b
4 b 14 d 24 b 34 d
5 c 15 c 25 a 35 c
6 c 16 a 26 c 36 a
7 d 17 a 27 a 37 a
8 c 18 a 28 a 38 a
9 c 19 c 29 c 39 c
10 c 20 d 30 b 40 c
Chemistry
Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key
41 c 51 d 61 c 71 a
42 b 52 c 62 a 72 b
43 b 53 d 63 d 73 d
44 a 54 c 64 d 74 d
45 d 55 b 65 c 75 b
46 a 56 d 66 b 76 c
47 c 57 d 67 b 77 c
48 a 58 d 68 d 78 a
49 c 59 c 69 b 79 d
50 b 60 d 70 c 80 d
Mathematics
Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key Question No Answer Key
106 a 121 a 136 a
107 b 122 a 137 b
108 b 123 d 138 b
109 a 124 a 139 c
110 b 125 b 140 a
111 d 126 c 141 c
112 d 127 a 142 c
113 d 128 a 143 b
114 c 129 b 144 b
115 a 130 c 145 d
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