Daily Current Affairs Questions

June 2024 Part 20

Why in News?
1. Antimicrobial resistance 18. General Anti-Avoidance Rules 35. National Crime Records Bureau
2. Atal Innovation Mission (GAAR) (NCRB)
3. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 19. Global Gender Gap Index 2024 36. National Disaster Response
4. Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary 20. Group of Seven (G7) Fund (NDRF)
5. Climate Smart Cities 21. Hedgewar 37. National Green Hydrogen
Assessment Framework 22. Interest Equalisation Scheme Mission
(CSCAF) (IES) 38. National Testing Agency
6. Cold Lava 23. International Astronomical (NTA)
7. Constitutional 73rd Union 39. Nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions
Amendment 24. Italy 40. Nitrous oxide
8. Consumer Price Index 25. Kala-azar 41. Nitrous oxide
9. Container Port Performance 26. Kunming-Montreal Global 42. Non-Banking Financial
Index Biodiversity Framework Companies (NBFCs)
10. Convention on Limitation of (KMGBF) 43. Non-communicable diseases
Liability for Maritime Claims 27. Lipulekh Pass 44. Pema Khandu
(LLMC) 28. Lok Sabha Speaker 45. POSHAN Abhiyaan
11. Elephant communication 29. Manipur 46. Right to Information Act, 2005
12. Elephants 30. Metabolic Dysfunction- 47. State of World Fisheries and
13. Emergency Associated Steatohepatitis Aquaculture 2024’ report
14. European Parliament (MASH) 48. Strengthening Data Ecosystems
15. First Past the Post (FPTP) 31. Microalgae in Indian Schools’ report
electoral system 32. Miyawaki method 49. World Day Against Child
16. G-7 outreach meeting 33. Multidrug-resistant pathogens Labour
17. G7 Summit 34. Namami Gange Programme 50. xylitol

1. Consider the following statements: 2. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
1. Antimicrobial resistance can automatically lead to (a) Department of Science and Technology
the increased risk of developing chronic diseases like (b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
diabetes and cancer. (c) NITI Aayog
2. Rational antibiotic use is key to combating (d) Ministry of Skill Development and
antimicrobial resistance (AMR) crisis. Entrepreneurship
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Ans: (c)
correct? Explanation:
1 only Context: NITI Aayog, under its Atal Innovation
2 only Mission (AIM), launched two initiatives to foster
Both 1 and 2 innovation and sustainability in India.
Neither 1 nor 2 Initiative Description Collaboration/Focus
Answer: B AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0 Tackles critical
Notes: water-related challenges through innovative solutions
Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect. AMR does not Collaboration with Innovation Centre Denmark
directly cause chronic diseases such as diabetes or (ICDK) at the Royal Danish Embassy in India
cancer. However, AMR can complicate the Innovations for You (5th Edition) Coffee table
management and treatment of these chronic diseases. book series featuring 60 entrepreneurs contributing
Statement 2 is correct. Rational use of antibiotics is to societal betterment through sustainable innovations
crucial in the fight against AMR. Proper prescribing Focuses on SDG Entrepreneurs in India
practices, ensuring the right antibiotic is used for the 3. Which aspect of the legal process does the Bharatiya
right infection, and avoiding unnecessary use are Nyaya Sanhita specifically address?
essential measures to slow the spread of resistance. (a) Corporate governance
(b) Criminal procedure

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 (c) Intellectual property rights It intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to
(d) Environmental regulations urban planning and development in India.
Ans: (b) Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Explanation: (a) 1 only
Context: Recently, a woman in Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh, (b) 2 only
falsely accused a man of rape, leading to wrongful (c) Both 1 and 2
imprisonment. It highlights the loopholes in India’s (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Criminal Justice System. Also, the government Ans: (b)
recently extended the centrally sponsored scheme for Explanation:
Fast Track Special Courts (FTSC) till 2026. Launched recently by the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
What is CSCAF?
CSCAF initiative intends to inculcate a climate-
sensitive approach to urban planning and
development in India.
The objective of CSCAF is to provide a clear roadmap
for cities towards combating Climate Change while
planning and implementing their actions, including
investments.
The Climate Centre for Cities under National Institute
of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is supporting MoHUA in
implementation of CSCAF.
6. Consider the following statements about Cold Lava:
It refers to lava that has solidified and cooled to room
temperature.
It is a term used for volcanic mudflows also known as
lahars.
It is a type of igneous rock that forms deep within the
Earth’s crust.
4. With reference to Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary, How many of the above statements is/are correct?
consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. The primary vegetation type found in the sanctuary (b) Only two
is temperate broadleaf forest. (c) All three
2. The sanctuary is famous for its conservation efforts (d) None
of Bengal Tiger. Ans: (a)
3. One of the key objectives behind establishing the Explanation:
sanctuary is for conserving the broad-leaved oak Context: A volcanic eruption at Mount Kanlaon in
forests. the Philippines led to rivers of cold lava, or lahar.
Which of the statements given above are correct? About Cold Lava:
1 and 2 only Cold lava, or “lahar,” is a hazardous flow of
2 and 3 only volcanic material, debris, and water that descends
1 and 3 only rapidly from volcanoes, resembling a fast-moving
1, 2 and 3 landslide rather than molten lava.
Answer: C This dense mixture forms when water interacts with
Notes: volcanic ash and debris on a volcano’s slopes, creating
Explanation – Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Binsar a river-like flow that can be more destructive than
is a protected wildlife area comprising oak, molten lava due to its speed and force.
rhododendron and pine forests on a mountain rising up The term “cold lava” is misleading, as it remains hot
to 8000 ft. It is situated 30 kilometres north east of internally but appears and behaves like wet concrete.
Almora in the Kumaon region of the state of Driven by gravity and the volume of displaced
Uttarakhand in North India. It is home to temperate material, lahars can travel far from the volcano’s
broadleaf forests, primarily consisting of oak and summit, picking up additional debris and increasing in
rhododendron trees at higher altitudes. One of the main volume and destructive power.
reasons for establishing Binsar as a wildlife sanctuary 7. Part IX of the Constitution of India is related to:
in 1988 was to conserve and protect the shrinking (a) The Union Territories
broad-leaved oak forests of the Central Himalayan (b) The Panchayats
region. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bengal Tiger is not (c) The Municipalities
found in the sanctuary. (d) The Fundamental Rights
5. Consider the the following statements about the Ans: (b)
‘Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework Explanation: What was the 73rd Constitutional
(CSCAF)’: Amendment?
It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, It added Part IX to the Constitution, encompassing
Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

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 provisions from Article 243 to 243-O. Its salient (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
features include the establishment of Gram Sabha as a Implementation is releasing
permanent unit comprising all registered village ○ CPI for Rural
residents and the implementation of three tiers of ○ CPI for Urban and
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) at the village, ○ CPI Combined (computed by combining CPI Rural
intermediate, and district levels, although states with and CPI Urban).
populations below 20 lakh may not have the What is the base year of an Index?
intermediate level. Additionally, the amendment ● The CPI is calculated with reference to a base year,
mandates reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes which is used as a benchmark. The price change
(SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) at every level of the pertains to that year.
Panchayat, proportionate to their population, along ● In India, the base year of the current series of CPI
with 1/3rd reservation of seats for women. (IW) is 2016. The base year of CPI (AL) and CPI (RL)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment of 1992, is 1986-87.
sought to revolutionize rural governance in India ● For CPI Rural, Urban and Combined, the base year
by empowering Panchayats with greater autonomy is 2011-12.
and resources. While this amendment ushered in a Why in News?
new era of decentralization, Panchayats have yet to ● The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the
fully realize their potential as effective entities for Ministry of Labour & Employment, has been
planning and service delivery in rural areas. compiling the Consumer Price Index for Industrial
8. With reference to Consumer Price Index, consider the Workers every month.
following statements ● The All-India CPI-IW for April, 2024 increased by
1) It measures and tracks the changes in the price of 0.5 point and stood at 139.4 (one hundred thirty nine
goods in the stages before the retail level. point four).
2) CPI basket does not cover services. 9. Who recently released the Container Port
3) It is released by the Ministry of Commerce and Performance Index?
Industry. (a) World Economic Forum
How many of the statements given above are correct? (b) World Bank
- A) Only one (c) UNESCO
- B) Only two (d) None of these
- C) All three Answer:- (b) World Bank
- D) None The World Bank has recently released the Container
Answer: D Port Performance Index (CPPI) in collaboration with
Explanation S&P Global Market Intelligence. The CPPI is based on
All the three statements are incorrect and are related to a comprehensive dataset of 405 ports around the world,
the Wholesale Price Index. the largest dataset ever compiled. Let us tell you that
About CPI Visakhapatnam Port Authority has secured 18th
● Consumer Price Index is an index which measures position in this ranking.
the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer 10. Which of the following statements is not correct about
goods and services such as transportation, food and the Convention on Limitation of Liability for
medical care. Maritime Claims (LLMC)?
● It is calculated by measuring price changes for each A The LLMC Convention establishes a framework that
item in the predetermined basket of goods and services allows shipowners to limit their liability for maritime
and averaging them. claims based on the tonnage of the ship.
How does the Consumer Price Index help? B It replaced the international convention relating to
● The Reserve Bank of India and other statistical the Limitation of the Liability of Owners of Seagoing
agencies study CPI so as to understand the price Ships, 1957.
change of various commodities and keep a tab on C Under LLMC, liability for claims covered is raised
inflation. considerably.
● CPI is also a helpful pointer in understanding the real D Shipowners and salvors may limit their liability in
value of wages, salaries and pensions, the purchasing all the circumstances.
power of a country’s currency, and regulating prices. Explanation
Who maintains the Consumer Price Index in India? Convention on Limitation of Liability for Maritime
● In India, different types of consumer price index Claims (LLMC):
numbers are released by the government which The Convention on Limitation of Liability for
includes: Maritime Claims (LLMC) establishes a framework
○ CPI for Industrial Workers (IW) that
○ CPI for Agricultural Laborers (AL) allows shipowners to limit their liability for maritime
○ CPI for Rural Laborers (RL) claims based on the tonnage of the ship.
● The Ministry of Labour & Employment collects It replaced the international convention relating to
the data for CPI (IW), CPI (AL) and CPI (RL) and the Limitation of the Liability of Owners of
compiles it. Seagoing Ships, which was signed in Brussels
● In addition to these, the National Statistical Office in 1957, and came into force in 1968.

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 Under LLMC, the limit of liability for claims covered Emergency) outlines
is raised considerably, in some cases up to 250- the consequences and implications that arise when
300%. an emergency is proclaimed in the country. Hence,
Shipowners and salvors may limit their pair 1 is not correctly matched.
liability, except if "it is proved that the loss resulted Article 358 provides for the automatic suspension of
from his personal act or omission, committed with six fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 of
the intent to cause such a loss, or recklessly and with the Constitution when a proclamation of emergency is
knowledge that such loss would probably result". made. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Hence, option D is correct. Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the
11. Consider the following statements regarding the President to invoke financial emergency. Hence, pair
recent study on elephant communication: 3 is correctly matched.
Elephants can call each other by name. Hence, option C is correct.
This study suggests advanced social behaviours in 14. Regarding the European Parliament, consider the
elephants. following statements:
Such communication in elephants is unique among It is an indirectly-elected European Union (EU) body
mammals. with legislative, supervisory, and budgetary
Which of the statements given above are correct? responsibilities.
1 and 2 only Members of the European Parliament (MEPs) are
2 and 3 only grouped by nationality in the European Parliament.
1 and 3 only The number of MEPs for each country is roughly
1, 2, and 3 proportional to its population.
Answer: a Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Elephants can call each other by name, A 1 and 2 only
indicating advanced social behaviour, but such B 2 and 3 only
communication is not unique among mammals (e.g., C 3 only
dolphins and some primates). D 1, 2 and 3
12. Which one of the following animals can generate Explanation
name-like calls during contact calls, addressing European Parliament:
another individual specifically? European Parliament is a directly elected EU body
Elephant with legislative,
Leopard supervisory and budgetary responsibilities. Hence,
Orangutan statement 1 is not correct.
Chimpanzee Members of the European Parliament (MEPs) are
Answer: A grouped by political affiliation, not by nationality.
Notes: Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Explanation – As per a recent study, elephants have The number of MEPs for each country is
their own names that they use to address each other. roughly proportional to its population. No country can
This research places elephants among the very small have fewer than 6 or more than 96 MEPs and the
number of species known to address one another in this total number cannot exceed 750 (plus the
way. Wild African elephants use name-like calls to President). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
address each other, a rare behaviour among nonhuman 15. With reference to “First Past the Post” (FPTP)
animals. electoral system, consider the following statements:
13. Consider the following pairs: In FPTP, each constituency elects multiple
Articles Subject Matter representatives based on the proportion of votes each
1. Article 352 a. Effect of Proclamation of party receives.
Emergency FPTP tends to favor smaller parties and provides better
2. Article 358 b. Suspension of provisions of representation for minority groups.
Article 19 during Emergencies Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Article 360 c. Provisions as to Financial (a) 1 only
Emergency (b) 2 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly (c) Both 1 and 2
matched? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A 1 only Ans: (d)
B 1 and 2 only Explanation:
C 2 and 3 only Context: In the recently concluded election to Lok
D 1, 2 and 3 Sabha, The ruling NDA won 293 seats with 43.3% of
Explanation the vote, while the opposition INDIA bloc, with 41.6%
Emergency Provisions: of votes, secured only 234 seats. The article explores
Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) gives the the potential benefits and challenges of adopting a
President the power to declare an emergency if he/she Proportional Representation (PR) system in India’s
is satisfied that India's security is under threat. electoral democracy.
Article 353 (Effect of Proclamation of First Past the Post (FPTP)

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 An electoral method where the candidate with the most Prime Minister in Italy?
votes in a constituency wins. E.g., Used in the UK, Argentina, Brazil, South Africa
Canada, and India for legislative elections. Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Turkey
Working Algeria, Kenya, UAE
Single-Member Districts: Each constituency elects All of the above
one representative. Answer: d
Plurality Wins: The highest vote-getter wins, not Explanation: All the listed countries are part of the G-
necessarily a majority. 7 outreach meeting.
Advantages 17. Consider the following passage:
Simplicity: Easy for voters and straightforward Recently, the Prime Minister of India announced
counting. that he will embark on a visit to this country today
Strong and Stable Governments: Often produce clear to participate in the G7 Summit, which is scheduled
winners. to be held on the 14th of this month. This country is
Direct Representation: Ensures geographic areas a boot-shaped peninsula located in southern
have dedicated representatives. Europe. This country shares its land borders with
Accountability: Representatives can be easily voted France, Switzerland, Austria, Slovenia, Vatican
out. City and San Marino. It is surrounded by the
Disadvantages Mediterranean Sea, including the Adriatic Sea,
Disproportionality: Vote-share may not match seat- Ionian Sea, Tyrrhenian Sea and Ligurian Sea.
share. The above passage best describes which of the
Wasted Votes: Votes for losing candidates don’t following countries?
count. A: Italy
Minority Rule: Candidates can win with less than B: Hungary
majority votes. C: Germany
Geographic Concentration: Can favour parties with D: Serbia
concentrated support. Answer: A
Encourages Gerrymandering: Boundaries can be Explanation:
manipulated to favour parties. Recently, the Prime Minister of India announced that
Proportional Representation (PR) he will embark on a visit to Apulia, Italy today to
Allocates seats in the legislature based on the participate in the G7 Summit, which is scheduled to be
proportion of votes each party receives, unlike FPTP held on the 14th of this month. Italy is a boot-shaped
where the top candidate wins. It aims for an accurate peninsula located in southern Europe. Italy shares its
reflection of voter preferences. land borders with France, Switzerland, Austria,
Working Slovenia, Vatican City and San Marino. It is
Party Lists: Voters vote for parties; seats are allocated surrounded by the Mediterranean Sea, including the
based on vote share. Adriatic Sea, Ionian Sea, Tyrrhenian Sea and Ligurian
Multi-Member Districts: Allows proportional seat Sea. Rome is the capital of Italy. The highest point in
allocation. Italy is Monte Bianco, also known as Mont Blanc in
Thresholds: Minimum vote percentage required to French, which is part of the Alps mountain
gain representation. range. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Advantages 18. Consider the following statements about General
Fair Representation: Reflects voters’ preferences Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR):
accurately. GAAR is designed to prevent taxpayers from
Minority Inclusion: Better chances for smaller parties exploiting loopholes in tax laws to avoid paying taxes.
and minority groups. GAAR allows tax authorities to disregard or
Reduced Wasted Votes: Most votes contribute to recharacterize transactions that have no substantial
election results. economic purpose other than to gain a tax advantage.
Encourages Voter Turnout: Voters feel their votes GAAR applies only to individual taxpayers and not to
have more impact. corporations.
Disadvantages How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Coalition Governments: This can lead to instability if (a) Only one
coalitions disagree. (b) Only two
Complexity: Harder for voters and authorities to (c) All three
manage. (d) None
Fragmentation: Many small parties can make Ans: (b)
consensus difficult. Explanation:
Weaker Constituency Links: Representatives may S1: Correct. GAAR is indeed designed to prevent
not be tied to specific areas. taxpayers from using complex and artificial
Influence of Party Leadership: Party leaders control arrangements purely to avoid paying taxes by
candidate lists, centralizing power. exploiting loopholes in tax laws.
16. Which of the following countries are participating S2: Correct. One of the primary functions of GAAR is
in the G-7 outreach meeting attended by the Indian to allow tax authorities to disregard or recharacterize

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 transactions that do not have a substantial economic The G7's share of the world's GDP has also declined
purpose other than to obtain a tax benefit. over time, from nearly 70% in 1989 to 44% in 2021.
S3: Incorrect. GAAR applies to both individual 21. Consider the following statements about Dr. KB
taxpayers and corporations, as both can engage in tax Hedgewar:
avoidance strategies. He founded Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) at
19. What is India's rank in the Global Gender Gap Nashik in 1925.
Index 2024? He was a former member of Anushilan Samiti.
(a) 120 He was deeply influenced by VD Savarkar's book titled
(b) 123 Hindutva.
(c) 127 How many of the statements given above are correct?
(d) 129 A Only One
Answer:- (d) 129 B Only Two
The World Economic Forum (WEF) has recently C All Three
presented the Global Gender Gap Index 2024 report. D None
Compared to last year, India has slipped two places Explanation
this year to 129th position. Iceland, which has been at Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS):
the top position for the last decade, has retained its first Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) was founded
position this year as well. Among India's neighbouring by Dr. KB Hedgewar at Nagpur in 1925. Hence,
countries, Bangladesh (99), Nepal (111), Sri Lanka statement 1 is not correct.
(125) and Bhutan (124) are ranked ahead of India. Dr. KB Hegdewar was a former member
Whereas Pakistan is at 145th position. of Anushilan Samiti where he took training. He was a
20. With reference to the Group of Seven (G7), which participant of the Home Rule
of the following statements are correct? Campaign in 1918. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
1. The G7 is an intergovernmental organization Dr. KB Hegdewar was deeply influenced by VD
consisting of the major developed economies of the Savarkar's book titled Hindutva and meeting
world. Savarkar in Ratnagiri jail (1925). Hence, statement 3
2. Russia was a member of the G7. is correct.
3. The G7 focuses exclusively on economic issues and 22. With reference to the Interest Equalisation Scheme
does not address global security concerns or (IES), consider the following statements:
environmental challenges. 1. It aims to promote foreign direct investment in
4. G7 countries represent a minority of the global export-oriented industries.
population. 2. Under the scheme, imported inputs used must
Select the correct answer using the codes given undergo substantial value addition in India.
below: 3. The scheme is available only to exporters availing
1 and 2 only the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme.
1, 2 and 3 only Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1, 2 and 4 only correct?
1 and 4 only 1 only
Answer: C 2 only
Notes: 1 and 2 only
Explanation – Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The 2 and 3 only
G7 is an intergovernmental political and economic Answer: B
forum consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Notes:
Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States, Explanation – Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. The
which are major advanced economies. Russia was a Interest Equalisation Scheme is designed to provide
member of the G7 from 1997 until 2014, when it was subsidies on interest rates for pre-shipment and post-
suspended following the annexation of Crimea. During shipment export credit to eligible exporters,
that period, the group was known as the G8. the G7 particularly in the Micro, Small, and Medium
countries represent around 10% of the world's Enterprises (MSME) sector. Its primary goal is to
population but generate about 45% of global GDP. make Indian exports more competitive by reducing the
They also account for about 75% of global official financing costs for exporters. The IES is available to a
development assistance recorded by the OECD. So, the broad range of exporters, including those in the MSME
G7 countries represent a minority of the global sector and manufacturers, regardless of their
population but a significant portion of global GDP and participation in the Production Linked Incentive (PLI)
economic power. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the scheme. Statement 2 is correct. For export products to
G7 was initially focused on economic issues, over the qualify under the IES, they must originate from India,
years it has broadened its agenda to cover a wide range which includes meeting the criteria for substantial
of global issues, including foreign and security policy, value addition if imported inputs are used. This ensures
trade, climate change, development, and more. Note: that the exported goods are sufficiently processed or
The G7's share of the world's population has been manufactured in India, adhering to the rules of origin
decreasing since 2000, mainly due to the growth of as outlined in the Foreign Trade Policy .
other countries' populations, such as China and India.

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23. After whom has the International Astronomical 26. Which of the following statements is true about the
Union named a crater on Mars? Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity
(a) Professor Devendra Lal Framework (KMGBF)?
(b) C. V Raman (a) The framework was established to address climate
(c) Satyendra Nath Bose change through a global carbon trading system.
(d) Vikram Sarabhai (b) The KMGBF aims to halt and reverse biodiversity
Answer:- (a) Professor Devendra Lal loss by 2030, with specific targets such as conserving
Recently, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) 30% of the world's land and oceans.
has named three new craters located within the Tharsis (c) The framework primarily focuses on economic
volcanic region on Mars after India's science development in developing countries with no specific
community and Indian places. The largest crater has targets for biodiversity.
been named "Lal Crater" in honour of Professor (d) The KMGBF includes a single target of planting 1
Devendra Lal. The Mursan Crater is named after the trillion trees worldwide by 2050.
Mursan town in Uttar Pradesh, India, while the Hilsa Ans: (b)
Crater is named after the Hilsa town in Bihar, India. Explanation:
24. Where is the G7 summit being held? The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity
(a) France Framework is a comprehensive international strategy
(b) Japan designed to address the global biodiversity crisis. It
(c) Canada sets ambitious targets, including the goal to conserve
(d) Italy 30% of the world’s land and marine areas by 2030.
Answer:- (d) Italy This framework aims to halt and reverse the ongoing
The G7 (Group-7) summit is being organised in Italy. loss of biodiversity and ensure that ecosystems are
The G7 is an intergovernmental political and economic restored and sustainably managed. The focus is on a
forum consisting of France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the broad range of measures, including habitat
United Kingdom, and the United States. G7 was conservation, sustainable use of natural resources, and
established in 1975. Russia was included in the G8 equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources,
when it was created in the late 1990s, but it was rather than solely addressing climate change, economic
suspended in 2014 after the annexation of Crimea. development, or tree planting initiatives.
27. Consider the following statements about Lipulekh
Pass:
25. Consider the following statements about Kala-azar, 1. It is an international border and serves as a tri-
recently seen in news: junction between Uttarakhand, Tibet and Nepal.
1. It is a fatal disease caused by the protozoan 2. It has been used by traders since ancient times to
parasite Leishmania donovani. travel between India and Tibet.
2. It is transmitted by the infected female sandfly, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Phlebotomus argentipes. A: 1 only
3. It has been reported in the states of Kerala, B: 2 only
Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. C: Both 1 and 2
How many of the statements given above are D: Neither 1 nor 2
correct? Answer: C
A: Only one Explanation:
B: Only two Recently, the Indian traders in Pithoragarh urged the
C: All three government to reopen the Lipulekh pass trade route
D: None with China, closed since 2019 due to the Covid-19
Answer: B pandemic. Lipulekh Pass, also known as Lipu-Lekh
Explanation: Pass, Qiangla or Tri-Corner, is a high-altitude
On June 12, 2024, the World Health Organization mountain pass in the western Himalayas of
(WHO) launched a new framework to eliminate Kala- Uttarakhand. It is an international border crossing
azar in Eastern Africa. Kala-azar, also known as between India, China, and Nepal and serves as a tri-
visceral leishmaniasis or "black fever", is a fatal junction between Uttarakhand, Tibet and
disease caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania Nepal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
donovani. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The pass is 5,334 meters high and has been used by
Kala-azar is transmitted through the bite of infected traders, pilgrims and mendicants since ancient times to
female sandfly, Phlebotomus argentipes and is travel between India and Tibet. It is also a route for
characterized by irregular fevers, weight loss, enlarged pilgrims traveling to Kailas and Manasarovar. Hence,
spleen and liver and anemia. Hence, statement 2 is statement 2 is correct.
correct. 28. Consider the following statements regarding the
In October 2023, Bangladesh was declared kala-azar - Lok Sabha Speaker:
free, making it the first country to achieve this 1. The Prime Minister proposes the name of the
milestone. In India, the disease has been reported in candidate for Speaker after consultations with
Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Uttar opposition parties.
Pradesh. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 2. In order to be elected as the Speaker of the Lok

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 Sabha, the person must not hold any office of profit It is predominantly associated with excessive alcohol
under the government. intake.
3. The outgoing Speaker presides over the first sitting Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of a newly constituted Lok Sabha when the Speaker is A 1 only
elected. B 2 only
How many of the statements given above are C Both 1 and 2
correct? D Neither 1 nor 2
Only one Explanation
Only two Metabolic Dysfunction-Associated Steatohepatitis
All three (MASH):
None Metabolic Dysfunction-associated Steatohepatitis
Answer: A (MASH) is inflammation of the liver caused by
Notes: excess fat cells in it (steatotic liver disease). Hence,
Explanation – Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. The statement 1 is correct.
Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha members from It is predominantly associated with metabolic
among themselves. The Prime Minister does not disorders, such as obesity or diabetes, resulting in
propose the name of the candidate for Speaker. The a toxic buildup of fat in the liver. Previously, MASH
senior-most member of the Lok Sabha, known as the was known as Non-Alcohol related Steatohepatitis
Pro-tem Speaker, presides over the first sitting of a (NASH). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
newly elected Lok Sabha and conducts the election of 31. Consider the following statements:
the Speaker. Statement 2 is correct. The Speaker Microalgae are primarily used in the production of
should not hold any office of profit under the biodiesel due to their high lipid content.
government to avoid any conflict of interest. Microalgae cannot be used as a source of food
29. The Indian state of Manipur does not share border supplements for humans due to their toxic nature.
with Microalgae play a crucial role in carbon dioxide
A Nagaland fixation and oxygen production.
B Mizoram How many of the above statements is/are correct?
C Assam (a) Only one
D Tripura (b) Only two
Explanation (c) All three
Manipur: (d) None
The Indian state of Manipur is located in Ans: (b)
the northeastern part of the country. Explanation:
Manipur is bounded by Nagaland to the S1 is correct. Microalgae are considered a promising
north, Mizoram to the south and Assam to the west. source for biodiesel production due to their high lipid
It also borders two regions of Myanmar, (fat) content, which can be converted into biofuels.
Sagaing region to the east and Chin state to the south. S2 is incorrect. Microalgae can be used as a source of
Tripura is a landlocked state in northeast food supplements for humans. For example, spirulina
India. Manipur does not share a border with Tripura. and chlorella are types of microalgae that are widely
Hence, option D is correct. consumed for their nutritional benefits. While some
species of microalgae can produce toxins, many others
are safe and beneficial as dietary supplements.
S3 is correct. Microalgae contribute significantly to
carbon dioxide fixation and oxygen production through
photosynthesis, playing an important role in the global
carbon cycle and supporting aquatic ecosystems.
32. Consider the following statements about Miyawaki
method
1) It promotes rapid growth of dense forests with
minimal maintenance after initial years.
2) It emphasizes planting a variety of native plant
species close together.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
choose the best answer
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
30. With reference to Metabolic Dysfunction-Associated - D. Neither 1 nor 2
Steatohepatitis (MASH), consider the following Explanation
statements: Both the statements are correct.
It is inflammation of the liver caused by excess fat ● Miyawaki is a technique of growing dense
cells in it. plantations in a short time. This method originated in

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 Japan and is now increasingly adopted in other parts of 34. Consider the following:
the world. It is named after the Japanese botanist and 1. Sewage treatment infrastructure
plant ecologist Akira Miyawaki. 2. River-front development
● With this method of plantation, an urban forest can 3. Biodiversity conservation
grow within a short span of 20-30 years while a 4. Construction of dams and barrages
conventional forest takes around 200-300 years to How many of the above are the pillars of the
grow naturally. ‘Namami Gange Programme’?
● In the Miyawaki technique, various native species of Only one
plants are planted close to each other so that the greens Only two
receive sunlight only from the top and grow upwards Only three
rather than sideways. It helps in the prevention of the All four
growth of weeds. Answer: C
● As a result, the plantation becomes approximately 30 Notes:
times denser, grows 10 times faster and becomes Explanation – The Namami Gange Programme is an
maintenance-free after a span of 3 years. Integrated Conservation Mission launched by the
Process of Miyawaki Government of India in June to accomplish the twin
● In this technique, the native trees of the region are objectives of effective abatement of pollution and
divided into four layers after identification and analysis conservation and rejuvenation of the National River
of soil quality. The four layers include shrub, sub-tree, Ganga. Its main pillars are: Sewage Treatment
tree, and canopy. Infrastructure, River-Front Development, River-
● The biomass is mixed with soil to enhance its Surface Cleaning, Biodiversity Conservation,
nutrients, perforation and water retention capacity. Afforestation, Public Awareness, Industrial Effluent
● Further, the seeds are planted on soil made from a Monitoring, Ganga Gram (Villages on Ganga banks).
mound at a high density i.e 3 to 5 saplings per square 35. Which one of the following is the objective of
meter and a thick layer of mulch is used to cover the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Sankalan
ground. of Criminal Laws app?
Significance Provide a comprehensive database of criminal laws in
● Trees can play a significant role in the challenging India
times of climate change and global warming. Facilitate online filing of FIRs
● These fast-shooting micro forests could cool Track the status of ongoing criminal cases
concrete cities, clean the air, sustain wildlife, and form Serve as a legal research tool for lawyers
carbon sinks. Answer: A
● The method is quickly finding favor in government Notes:
corridors and corporate boardrooms to restore urban Explanation – NCRB has launched a Mobile App
spaces. “NCRB Sankalan of Criminal Laws” to serve as a
Concerns comprehensive guide providing complete information
● Some critics argue that the method is expensive and about the new criminal laws at one place. This App is a
has unclear benefits. compilation of new criminal laws namely Bharatiya
● Furthermore, the selection of wrong trees can Nayaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita
destroy native ecosystems, pushing plants and animals and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. It provides an
that depend on them to the brink. Index linking all Chapters and Sections of the new
● These forests lack a few qualities of natural forests laws.
like medicinal properties and the efficacy of the 36. Consider the following statements regarding the
technique is questioned by several environmentalists National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
that it could not match a forest’s complex ecosystem. NDRF is located in the “Public Accounts” of
● However, this method is useful in restoring diversity Government of India under “Reserve Funds not
and fighting climate change impacts in cities. bearing interest”.
33. NASA is collaborating with which IIT in India to The relief activities for all the calamities are monitored
research multidrug-resistant pathogens? by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
(a) IIT Delhi NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the
(b) IIT Madras expenses for emergency response, relief and
(c) IIT Varanasi rehabilitation.
(d) IIT Mumbai How many of the above statements given is/are
Answer:- (b) IIT Madras correct?
Researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology (a) Only one
Madras (IIT Madras) and NASA's Jet Propulsion (b) Only two
Laboratory (JPL) are researching multidrug-resistant (c) All three
pathogens on the International Space Station (ISS). (d) None
The collaborative effort between IIT Madras and Ans: (b)
NASA's JPL will advance scientific knowledge and Explanation:
promote international partnerships. National Disaster Response Fund is defined in Section
46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act) as

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 a fund managed by the Central Government for plants will also be explored.
meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief ● Under the Strategic Interventions for Green
and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two
situation or disaster. NDRF is constituted to distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting
supplement the funds of the State Disaster Response domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and
Funds (SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided
relief in case of calamities of a severe nature. under the Mission.
The DM Act defines “disaster” to mean ‘a catastrophe, ● Regions capable of supporting large scale production
mishap, calamity or grave occurrence in any area, and/or utilization of Hydrogen will be identified and
arising from natural or man-made causes, or by developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
accident or negligence which results in substantial loss ● An enabling policy framework will be developed to
of life or human suffering or damage to, and support establishment of the Green Hydrogen
destruction of, property, or damage to, or degradation ecosystem. A robust Standards and Regulations
of, environment, and is of such a nature or magnitude framework will also be developed.
as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community ● Further, a public-private partnership framework for
of the affected area.’ R&D (Strategic Hydrogen Innovation Partnership –
S3: NDRF amount can be spent only towards SHIP) will be facilitated under the Mission.
meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief ● A coordinated skill development programme will
and rehabilitation. For projects exclusively for the also be undertaken under the Mission.
purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing ● Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of New &
the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening Renewable Energy (MNRE) will be responsible for
disaster situation a separate fund called National overall coordination and implementation of the
Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted. Mission.
S1: NDRF is located in the “Public Accounts” of Mission Components
Government of India under “Reserve Funds not ● The Mission strategy accordingly comprises
bearing interest”. interventions for:
S2: Department of Agriculture and Cooperation ○ demand creation by making Green Hydrogen
under Ministry of Agriculture (MoA) monitors produced in India competitive for exports and through
relief activities for calamities associated with domestic consumption.
drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave ○ addressing supply side constraints through an
/frost while the rest of the natural calamities are incentive framework, and
monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). ○ building an enabling ecosystem to support scaling
37. Consider the following statements about the National and development.
Green Hydrogen Mission Expected Benefits
1) The objective of the Mission is to make India the ● The targets by 2030 are likely to bring in over Rs. 8
Global Hub for production, usage and export of Green lakh crore investments and create over 6 lakh jobs.
Hydrogen and its derivatives. ● Nearly 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are
2) The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy expected to be averted by 2030.
(MNRE) will be responsible for overall coordination ● This will contribute to India’s aim to become
and implementation of the Mission. Aatmanirbhar (self-reliant) through clean energy and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2070.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Why in News?
- A) 1 only ● Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) has issued
- B) 2 only Request for Selection (RfS) for Selection of Green
- C) Both 1 and 2 Ammonia Producers for the production of Green
- D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ammonia in India through cost based competitive
Explanation bidding under the Strategic Interventions for Green
● In 2023, the Union Cabinet approved the National Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Programme of the
Green Hydrogen Mission to promote green hydrogen National Green Hydrogen Mission.
in a bid to cut emissions and become a major exporter ● Under the SIGHT Programme, MNRE has already
in the field. allocated 4.12 lakh Metric Tonnes (MT)/annum of
● Statement 1 is correct: The overarching objective of Green Hydrogen production capacity and 1.5 GW/
the Mission is to make India the Global Hub for annum of Electrolyzer manufacturing capacity.
production, usage and export of Green Hydrogen and 38. The functioning of the National Testing Agency
its derivatives. (NTA) is overseen by the
● The Mission will build capabilities to produce at choose the best answer
least 5 Million Metric Tonne (MMT) of Green - A) Ministry of Education, Government of India
Hydrogen per annum by 2030, with potential to reach - B) Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India
10 MMT per annum with growth of export markets. - C) University Grants Commission (UGC)
● Innovative models to source Green Hydrogen - D) Ministry of Science and Technology, Government
through use of decentralized renewable energy of India
generation such as rooftop solar and small/micro hydel Explanation

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 ● National Testing Agency (NTA) has been Answer: a
established as a premier, specialist, autonomous and Explanation: China and India are the top two emitters
self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance of nitrous oxide, with the United States not ranking as
examinations for admission/fellowship in higher high.
educational institutions. 41. India is ranked second in global emissions of
● NTA was established by the Ministry of Education nitrous oxide. Which of the following is the primary
following the Union Cabinet’s approval in 2017. source of these emissions in India?
● NTA is a registered society under the Societies Industrial processes
Registration Act, 1860. Vehicle emissions
Objectives Fertilizer usage
● To conduct efficient, transparent and international Biomass burning
standards tests in order to assess the competency of Answer: c
candidates for admission, and recruitment purposes. Explanation: The primary source of nitrous oxide
● To undertake research on educational, professional emissions in India is from fertilizer usage.
and testing systems to identify gaps in the knowledge 42. Consider the following statements regarding the
systems and take steps for bridging them. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs):
● To identify experts and institutions in setting 1. NBFCs cannot accept deposits repayable on
examination questions. demand.
● To produce and disseminate information and 2. NBFCs are allowed to offer interest rates higher than
research on education and professional development banks.
standards. 3. Deposit insurance facility is available for deposits
39. Consider the following statements: with NBFCs.
Statement-I: N2O is the third most significant 4. The RBI has the power to cancel the Certificate of
greenhouse gas, 273 times more potent than CO 2. Registration of an NBFC.
Statement-II: Greenhouse gas increases have raised How many of the above statements are correct?
the Earth's average surface temperature by 1.15°C. Only one
Which of the following is correct in respect of the Only two
above statements? Only three
A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and All four
Statement –II is the correct explanation of Statement-I Answer: C
B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Notes:
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Explanation – Deposit insurance facility is not
Statement-I available for deposits with NBFCs. Unlike banks
C: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect which are covered under deposit insurance (up to a
D: Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct specific limit), deposits with NBFCs are not insured.
Answer: A NBFCs are not allowed to accept deposits that are
Explanation: repayable on demand. They can only accept deposits
According to a new report by the Global Carbon for a minimum period of 12 months and a maximum
Project, planet-warming nitrous oxide (N2O) period of 60 months.
emissions increased by 40 percent between 1980 and NBFCs can offer higher interest rates on deposits
2020. Nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions grew by 40% compared to banks, subject to a ceiling rate prescribed
between 1980 and 2020. N2O is the third most by the RBI. Currently, the maximum interest rate an
significant greenhouse gas, 273 times more potent than NBFC can offer is 12.5% per annum.
N2O over 100 years. Hence, statement I is correct. The RBI has the authority to cancel the registration of
Greenhouse gas increases have raised the Earth's an NBFC under certain circumstances, such as failure
average surface temperature by 1.15°C since the pre- to pay the required premium for three consecutive
industrial era, with anthropogenic N2O contributing periods or if the NBFC is prohibited from accepting
about 0.1°C. Hence, statement II is correct. fresh deposits.
Here, statements I and II both are correct and 43. Consider the following diseases:
statement II is the correct explanation of statement Diabetes
I. Hence, option (a) is correct. Hypertension
40. Consider the following countries: Fatty Liver Disease
China Which of the above are non-communicable diseases
India associated with lifestyle factors?
United States 1 and 2 only
Brazil 2 and 3 only
Which of the above countries are among the top 1 and 3 only
three emitters of nitrous oxide globally? 1, 2, and 3
1 and 2 only Answer: d
1, 2, and 3 only Explanation: All three diseases listed are non-
2, 3, and 4 only communicable and associated with lifestyle factors.
1, 2, and 4 only

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44. Pema Khandu has been sworn in as the Chief Justice V. Bhavani Subbaroyan stated that cooperative
Minister of which state? societies do not qualify as ‘public authorities’ under
(a) Arunachal Pradesh Section 2(h) of the RTI Act. The court’s decision
(b) Meghalaya aligns with previous rulings, including a 2013 Supreme
(c) Sikkim Court verdict.
(d) Tripura The RTI Act, 2005, provides for setting out the
Answer:- (a) Arunachal Pradesh practical regime of the right to information for citizens
Pema Khandu took oath as the Chief Minister of to secure access to information under the control of
Arunachal Pradesh for the third consecutive time. He public authorities. It allows any citizen to request
was recently elected leader of the Bharatiya Janata information from a public authority, which is
Party Legislative Party. He was sworn in by Governor required to reply within 30 days. The Act applies to
Lieutenant General (Retired) KT Parnayak at a both the Central and State Governments. While
ceremony. Along with Khandu, 10 other ministers also certain intelligence and security organizations are
took oath. exempted, they are not exempt under all
45. Consider the following statements about POSHAN circumstances, especially when the information
Abhiyaan: pertains to allegations of corruption and human rights
It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Women violations.
and Child Development. 47. Which organization recently released the ‘State of
The programme seeks to improve nutritional outcomes World Fisheries and Aquaculture 2024’ report?
for children, pregnant women and lactating mothers. (a) FAO
Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (b) WEF
a. 1 only (c) WTO
b. 2 only (d) WWF
c. Both 1 and 2 Ans: (a)
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation:
Ans: (c) State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture 2024
Explanation: report: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)is The report focuses on “Blue Transformation in
a flagship programme of the Ministry of Women and Action,” highlighting key findings such as record-high
Child Development (MWCD), Government of India, fisheries production globally and India’s prominent
The programme seeks to improve nutritional outcomes role in aquatic animal production.
for children, pregnant women and lactating mothers. 48. Which organization recently released the
Launched in 2018with specific targets to be achieved ‘Strengthening Data Ecosystems in Indian Schools’
by 2022. report?
It aims to reduce: (a) UNICEF
Stunting and wasting by 2% a year (total 6% until (b) UNESCO
2022) among children. (c) UNDP
Anaemia by 3% a year (total 9%) among children, (d) None
adolescent girls and pregnant women and lactating Ans: (d)
mothers. Explanation: Strengthening Data Ecosystems in
The target of the mission is to bring down stunting Indian Schools report
among children in the age group 0-6 years from 38.4% By Aapti Institute and Mozilla foundation with
to 25% by 2022. funding from United States Agency for
46. With reference to Right to Information Act, 2005, International Development (USAID)
consider the following statements: School education data, including enrollment rates,
The RTI Act applies only to the Central Government. student-teacher ratios, and assessment results, are
The RTI Act mandates that information should be crucial for targeted policies and interventions,
provided within 45 days of the request. personalized learning, and efficient resource allocation.
The RTI Act allows any citizen to request information However, issues like lack of integration among diverse
from a public authority. datasets, digital divides, and labor-intensive data
How many of the above statements is/are correct? collection hinder progress.
(a) Only one 49. Consider the following statements about World Day
(b) Only two Against Child Labour:
(c) All three 1. It was established in 2002 by the International
(d) None Labour Organization.
Ans: (a) 2. About sixteen crore children worldwide are
Explanation: victims of child labour.
Context: The Madras High Court ruled that 3. Its theme for 2024 is – Let’s act on our
cooperative societies are not subject to the RTI Act. commitments: End Child Labour.
The court set aside a Tamil Nadu Information How many of the statements given above are
Commission order that had directed a cooperative correct?
society to disclose loan details. A: Only one

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 B: Only two These chemicals are used as
C: All three (a) pesticides in agriculture
D: None (b) preservatives in processed foods
Answer: C (c) fruit-ripening agents
Explanation: (d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics
World Day Against Child Labour was being observed Ans: (b)
yesterday on June 12, 2024. The World Day Against Explanation:
Child Labour is observed every year aimed at raising Context: A recent study has found that artificial
awareness and mobilising efforts to end child labour in sweeteners, particularly xylitol, commonly found in
all its forms. The International Labour Organization products like sugar-free chewing gums, low-sugar
(ILO) established World Day Against Child Labour in baked goods, mints, and toothpaste, may increase
2002. Hence, statement 1 is correct. the risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes.
According to United Nations, about sixteen crore The study revealed that xylitol enhances platelet
children worldwide are victims of child labour, which aggregation and activity, leading to a hypercoagulable
deprives them of their right to an education and state.
threatens their well-being and future. Hence, This heightened platelet reactivity can cause clots in
statement 2 is correct. blood vessels, potentially obstructing blood flow and
The theme of World Day Against Child Labour 2024 is resulting in serious cardiovascular events.
– Let’s act on our commitments: End Child Labour. The study also noted that erythritol, another artificial
Article 24 of the Constitution of India prohibits the sweetener, poses similar risks.
employment of children under 14 years old in Some examples of artificial sweeteners are saccharin,
factories, mines or hazardous occupations. Hence, aspartame, acesulfame potassium (Ace-K), sucralose,
statement 3 is correct. neotame, and advantame.
50. In India, the use of xylitol, acesulfame potassium,
neotame and advantame is viewed with apprehension.

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)

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