Scribd
Upload
5 views

312 Homework 1 1

Uploaded by

Brady
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
5 views

312 Homework 1 1

Uploaded by

Brady
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 2

Homework 1

MATH 312 October 2, 2022 Grant Sheridan

Problem 1. Consider the following statement


x
∀y < 1 ∃x > 0 such that > y.
x+1
(a) State the negation of the given statement.

x
∃y ≥ 1, ∀x ≤ 0 such that x+1
≤ y.

(b) Decide which statement is true, the given statement or its negation and prove it.

Let the original statement be true, for all y in the interval [−∞, 1) there exists an
x
x such that it is non-zero and positive, such that x+1 > y is true.

x
Let x and y be arbitrary. We know that x+1 is always non-negative if x
is also non-negative. It is also given that y is non-positive, by definition a
non-negative number is greater than a non-positive number. This implies that
x
∀y < 1 ∃x > 0 such that > y is always true.
x+1
.
Problem 2. The notation used in this problem: (0, 1) is the open interval of real numbers
with endpoints 0 and 1. By definition, the open interval (0, 1) is a subset of R that consists of
the positive real numbers which are smaller than 1. That is, written in set-builder notation,

(0, 1) = x ∈ R : 0 < x and x < 1 .

By Q+ we denote the set of positive rational numbers. That is, written in set-builder
notation, 
Q+ = x ∈ Q : x > 0 .
Notice that the intersection (0, 1) ∩ Q is a subset of Q that consists of the positive rational
numbers which are smaller than 1. Or, written in set-builder notation

(0, 1) ∩ Q = x ∈ Q : 0 < x and x < 1 .

The statement of the problem: Prove that there exists a bijection between the sets (0, 1) ∩ Q
and Q+ .

In order to prove a bijection, we need to prove that the function is invertible:


x x
For example, let us take the graph of f (x) = (x+1) and g(x) = − (x−1) .

Clearly, suppose a1 = 21 , a2 = 14 . f (a1 ) = 31 , f (a2 ) = 15 . f (a1 ) ̸= f (a2 ).


Clearly, suppose b1 = 21 , b2 = 41 . g(b1 ) = 1, g(b2 ) = 13 . g(b1 ) ̸= g(b2 ).
Therefore, an injection is proved for both f and its inverse.

Let y ∈ B be arbitrary, (x, y) ∈ f = {Q ∩ (0, 1)} × Q+ and


x
(y, x) ∈ g = Q+ × {Q ∩ (0, 1)}. Then we can say that y = (x+1) , note that x ̸= 1, y ̸= 0
or 1.

let f and g are defined for all Q+ × {Q ∩ (0, 1)} or for all {Q ∩ (0, 1)} × Q+ .
Since both f and g are defined during these parameters:
f ’s domain is in Q ∩ (0, 1) and codomain is in Q+ and is defined everywhere except
when x = −1, this doesn’t really matter since −1 is not contained within our domain.

g’s codomain is in Q ∩ (0, 1) and domain is in Q+ and is defined everywhere ex-


cept when x = 1, this doesn’t really matter since 1 is not contained within our
codomain.
Therefore, an surjection is proved for f and g.

Therefore, there exists a bijection between the sets Q ∩ (0, 1) and Q+

You might also like