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Test Booklet Serics
TB.C. : CSP-23/1
TEST BOOKLET

C
Time Allowed:2Hours
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
SI. No.

:
Maximum Marks 200
118119

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 1. Which of the follovwing statements are 1.
corrcct in respcct of the Election
Commission of lndia?

(1) It is an autonomous Legal Body

(2) Part XV of Indian Constitution

deals with the Elections and the
Elcction Commission
(3) 1950 aIqaisi 25 sa ai9e GÃAG gIg
(3) The Election Commission was
establishcd on January 25, 1950

(4) uIQI 328 GGIGR AINRI6Q 6@I60 2g680

(4) Art. 328 provides bar on the
interference of Courts in electoral
Imatters.
(A) 203
3 2 and 3
(A)
(B) 1e4
(B) land 4
(C) 3e4
(C) 3 and 4

3
(D) 203
(D) 2 and

2, Which of the following Committees 2.

recommended for the creation of'Nyaya
Panchayats' at village level?

(A) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(B) @. . 69. QIG Qñs
(B) G.VK. Rao Committee

(C) 6IgA GOI GAS

(C) Mohan Kanda Committee

(D) Ashok Mchta Committee (D) l6SIG 6N62SI GG

CSP-1/IC
2
3. Which of the following statemcnts are 3.
correct in respect of"Attorncy Gencral
ofIndia'?
(1) Attorney Gencraloflndia is a part
ofIndian Judiciary
g
(2) Attorncy General of India is (2) QI60 R4121N16G 1a116sa
appointed by President on the
advice of Chief Justice of India
(3) The term of office of Attorney
General of India is not fixed by the (3) aÂUIA QIQI QIQ00 is 696aING
Constitution
(4) Attorney General ofIndia has right
to take part in the proceedings of
both Houses of Parliament.
3 (A) 1, 2 04 (B) 2g3
(A) 1,2 and 4
(B) 2and
(C) and 3
1
(D) 3 and 4 (C) 103 (D) 3
4

4. Which of the following statements are 4.

correct in respect of Bills introduced in
Parliament?
(1) Ifa Government Bill is rejected by
the House in Parliament it amounts
vote of confidence' in the
Government a
(2) 260 dQRIQ1G6UAaagia a0
(2) The Government's Bill introduction
a
in the House necessitates
fifteen-day notice (3) GGq (a°6a1UA) SUgR 2021 aà
(3) The "Taxation Laws (Amendment)
Bill 2021' comes under the
category of Money Bill (4) saa a@QIRA (a°61INN) SUgR
2021 alI 6NINSR AINaN
(4) The Central Universities
(Amendment) Bill 2021 comes (A) 16 4 (B) 2 g 3
under Ordinary Bill.
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 4 (D) 264
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

|P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 5.
statcments arc
following
Which
of
the ofMajority
5. ofTypes
corect in respect (1) @9Ga
a°GHI01 -
Parlianment"? 20 6AIS
in 50%
Majority -More than
Absolute
() ofthe Housc's total Strength
Majoritv- The
majority of
(2) Simple prescnt
more than 50% of those
and voting ainay (aSHI)
Eftective Majority :
Majority of
(3)
the House's effective
strength. (4) gQIR1QINaY - VÜIG GIÂ
001 qig
means total
(4) Effcctive Strength :
strength cxcluding number of
vacancics
(5) q0g °SHAo
a°SHIA 2/3 (g0 Qe141°) gdHG OI9
(5) Spccial Majority : Majority of
2/3 members of total strength of
the House (A) 1,3,4 65
(A) 1,3, 4 and 5 (B) 2,3 e5
(B) 2, 3 and 5
(C) 2,3G4
4
(C) 2,3 and
3s (D) 1,2,3 g4
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4

6. Which of the following statements are 6.

correct in respect of 'Sittings of
6QIGANI AA
Parliament? n@g16Q NG
(1) 1955
(1) In the year 1955 a Lok Sabha
Committee had proposed a time
ayoNSN
table for parliamentary sessions 69Q
Q6n 7 aâs
with three times a year (2) 6rgaiai l
(2) It suggested Budget Session from 6Q6Q2R 10 ad:s 6lqt
1
Fcbruary 1,to May 7 IR
(3)
(3) It suggested Monsoon Session QQs
Q
f6gRQ 15
from July lto September 10 2Q 15
(4) It suggested Winter Session (4) 6Q
from
November 15 to December
15 (B) 2o3
(A) Iand 4
(3) 2 and 3 (A) I84 (D) 3o4
(C) l and 2
(D) 3and
4
(C) Io2
CSP-1/C
 Which of the following statements are 7.
7.
correct in respect of Procedure
established by Law' and Due process of 6a6 ÖR?
Law?
Under the principle of'Procedure ()
established by Lavw',as long as the
government follows the
procedures it has established, it's
actions are considered valid, even 6210a16
ifthey may appear unfair, or unjust
to individuals

(ID) Due Process ofLaw doctrine not

only checks if there is a Law to
deprive the life and personal liberty
of a person but also sees if theLaw
made is fair, just and not arbitrary.
is
(I) Procedure established by Law'
an American doctrine and Due
Process of Law' is Indian
constitutional doctrine.
(A) I is correct and and III are not
II
Correct
III is not
(B) I andII are correct and II ÕR S62
(C) IG IIIÖR N6S 19°
correct
III are correct and II is not
(C) Iand (D) I,IIe III öq VsG
COrrect
correct
(D) I, IIand III are
8.
while pursuing
8. Which of the following
their Groups,
Common interests of Public Policy
attempt to influence the
making? (A) Ia 6GIg1 ang
(A) Pressure Groups (B) aI 6GIgI

(B) Elite Groups

(C) anais
(C) Bureaucracy
(D) aIssRöG ONQG
(D) Political Parties

5 [P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 9. 'g1® g (Public Policy Cycle)
9. During wihich part ofthe'public policy as
government explore
cycle' docs the
potential policy responses?
(A) 1a4 Ra1Q6
(A) Valucs setting
(B) i A196
(B) Policy formulation
(C) 1@aIáIgar
(C) Policy implementation

(D) Policy feedback (D) 1ô gôgg

10. The final six months of the Election

cycle, when the government announces
popular government initiatives is known
as -
(A) giR SGIR
(A) Green Zone
(B) 606I 6QIR
(B) Yellow Zone
(C) 6aQ seIR
(C) Red Zone
(D) 26eIR
(D) Blue Zone

11. Which of the following are

the features
of Good Governance?
(1) Accountability
(2) Conservatisnm (2) NAG1ROI

(3) Rigidity (3) G601Q0I

(4) Transparency (4) 49GI

(5) Integrity (5) a6SISGI

(6) Micro Management (6) 9g acInI

(A) 2,3 and6 (A) 2, 3 e6
(B) 1,2 and6 (B) 1,2 e6
(C) 3,4 and 5
(C) 3, 4 65
(D) 1,4 and 5
(D) 1,4 G5

CSP-1/C
6
 Which of the following arc a9RIQ1 1® (Public Policy) @9a6A AsgIa
12. trc about 12.
PublicPolicy?

(1) It is a way ofdoing tlhings including

rules and regulations
(2) It is a mcans of 'authoritative
allocation of valucs
(3) It is for Public Sector a@g
Organisations
(3) 12lQIIAG q°gI aIa

(4) What the Government choose to

do or not to do' (A) 1, 3 G4
(A) 1,3 and 4 1, 2 e3
(B)
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 e4
4
(C) 2,3 and
(D) aasQIg G1g
(D) All above

Which one of the following statements

13.
13.
21 ofIndian
is correct in respect ofArt.
Constitution?
Right to Life and
(1) It guarantees
Personal Liberty
In the case of Narmada Bachao
(2) India 2020, Qôa 2020' IARI6Q gâi 6RIS GQ26n
Andolan Vs Union of 'Right to
Supreme Court held that Right
Fundamental
Water is not a
but Legal Right
Water is inferred from the
to
(3) Right
Right to Life
that
Supreme Court also held
(4) The is a Natural
accessto Clear Water
Right (A) 183 (B) 2 4
4
(B) 2 and
(A) 1
and 3 (C) 2 83 (D) 1 4
and 4
(D) I
(C) 2and 3
7 |P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 14. From which Constitution 'Suspension of
Fundamental Rights during Emcrgency"
was borrowcd to Indian Constitution?
(A) sai1 añUIs, q1q4qaia
(A) Soviet Constitution, USSR
(B) SqAa QÂUIR, sAI1
(B) Weimer Constitution of Germany
(C) 6ga aÂNIG
(C) French Constitution
(D) Qq GâNIR
(D) Swiss Constitution

15. Which of the following statements

are correct in respect of Right to
Education*?
(1) QIR613 aâIRA UIRI 21(A) aAga
(1) Art. 21(A) ofIndian Constitution
provides Right to Education for
freeand compulsory education to
6Q QIQG1A g°gQ QIQI
all (2) 2009 aa 4
was passed
(2) Right to Education Act
by Indian Parliament on August 4, 6Q ALQ
14 6Q aA RE
(3) 2009
2009

(3) Right to Education came in to force Q°6AIUR ayAaN 2004

on November 14, 2009 (4) 86 ai qÂNI
aâNIRSS NI 21 (A) asQ9

(4) Art. 21 (A) was inserted in the

Constitution by 86h Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2004 (A) 1 83

(A) 1and 3 (B) 1e2

(B) 1and 2
(C) 1e 4
4
(C) 1and
(D) 2e4
(D) 2 and 4

CSP-1/C 8
 Which of the following are related to 'y@NG
66IAMAGI lNRIa' as saIo
16. 16.
"Right to Privacy?
AIa 21
(1) Art. 21 ofIndian Constitution aIQ013 QAaIRQ
(1) tbobn:

(2) Art. 12 ofUnivcrsal Declaration of (2)

Human Rights UI 12

(3)) Art. 17 of the International UIa 17

Covenant on Civil and Political alsaia @IAIA
Rights. A6ARRA
AIR@R lRIQ
(4) 6QIa1a
(4) Art. of European Convention on
&

Human Rights
(A) 1,3 e4
4
(A) 1,3 and
(B) 1,2 e3
(B) 1, 2and 3
(C) 2, 3
G
4
4
(C) 2,3 and
(D) asag aAg
(D) All above

Universal Declaration
17. Which Article of 'Right of
Rights tells that the
ofHuman on one's wish.
Nationality' depends to a
the Right
Every one has
Nationality"? (A) II 15

15 (B) IQl 20
(A) Article
(C) Ia 25
(B) Article 20
(D) uIa 30
(C) Article 25
(C
(D) Article 30
9 [P.T.O.
18. With reference to inflation targeting by
the Reserve Bank of India, consider the
following statements: 1. 61 2016 60 aa.a.aIQ 1934
1. InMay 2016, the RBIAct, 1934 was
amended to provide a statutory basis
for the implementation of the
framework.
flexible inflation targeting 2.
Central
2. Under Section 45ZA, the
Government, in consultation with QIQG AQRIa AIQE Gãaß:2| 45ZA
inflation
the RBI, determines the
target in terms of the Consumer s
3. IŠ 31, 2021 6a a0RIQ a1
Price Index (CP), once in fiveyears.
3. On March 31, 2021, the
Central aigas a 1, 2021
lIS 31, 2026
Government retained the inflation
target of 6 percent with the
tolerance band of t 2 percent for
- 1,
the next 5-year period April
2021 to March 31, 2026. (A) 6RR 1
82
Which ofthe above statements are correct? (B) 6aR 163
(A) l and 2 only
(B) 1and 3 only (C) 6QRR 2 03
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2G3
(D) 1,2and 3

19. Which of the following statements are 19, gñg a

lIRG NNR G20 QAI 6Q19SI

true in relation to the G20 New Delhi

Declaration?
1. 2023 G20 gaii 6A01G 6a19GI6A
All paragraphs of the2023 G20
83
1.
ang 83 agsge gég@gsA Ugoaiêg
New Delhi Leaders' Declaration
were unanimously approved.
2. It didn't feature the conflict in 2.

Ukraine and its subsequent

economic implications. 3.
3 The declaration stressed the
urgency of mobilizing US$4
trillion per year for clean energy 1 e
(A) seR 2
technologies by 2030.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 6@R 2 03
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 6GG
1G 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1,2 and3 (D) 1,203
CSP-1/C
10
 MGNREGS is recogniscd as
'core ofthc 20. MGNREGS GlaG6a 60Ia616
core' scheme for achicving aIA 94
Sustainable
Development Goals in India.
MGNREGS was reported in gnfo 6aIGGIa
Voluntary National the 6AIGAI MGNREGS 4219
Revicw (VNR), 2017
by Governiment of India 94IgAIQ
for its Q4 (VNR), 2017 60 Aang
contribution to achicving which
of the
following SDGs directly?
SDG 1-
1. QIg4 2AI
1. SDG 1-No Poverty
SDG 2-Zero Hunger 2 SDG 2 - qUl
2
SDG 5 - RsSG QAIROI
3. SDG 5 -Gender Equality 3

4. SDG 10- Reduced Inequalities 4. SDG 10- 2I g19

3
(A) 1,2, (A) 1,2, 3

(B) 1, 3, 4 (B) 1,3, 4

(C) 2,3, 4 (C) 2,3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Poverty line estimation in India has
been based on the consumption
expenditure and not on the income
levels. 2
2. It is difficult to assess incomes of
wage
self-employed people, daily
may
be large
laborers etc., and there 6219a16Q
to
fluctuations in income due
seasonal factors
is correct in
Which of the following
statements?
respect ofthe above (A) aGA
1
and 2 are correct and I is
(A) Both of 2
the correct explanation
are corrcct, and 2 is (B) aQa
(B) Both and2 l02 oaR,
1
02 62QâlõQ QYIIHI

correct cxplanation of 1
the
are correct but
(C) Both the statements
explanation ofthe other
none is an but
statements arc correct
(D) Both the:
unrelated
11
(P.T.O.
CSP-1/C
22. Which of the following terms are the
componcnts of forcx rescrves?
1.
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2.
2. Gold

3. Special Drawing Rights 3.

4. The Reserve in the International 4.

Monetary Fund
(A) 1,2 e3
(A) 1,2 and 3
4
(B) 1,2 G 4
(B) 1,2 and
(C) 2, 3 e 4
(C) 2,3 and 4

(D) 1,2, 3 e4
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4

23. Which of the following statements 23. sgIg 6Ra8 â.Nq. Qai amde g62 ?
is NOT true in relation to
PM-VISHWAKARMA?
(A) 12I 17 sa6A 2023 6Q aQ0Q
(A) Itwas launched by the President of
India on 17th September 2023.
(B) 42| 6G2301 6aIGRI
(B) It is a Central Sector Scheme

(C) The new scheme intends to provide

recognition and holistic support to
the traditional artisans & craftsmen
working with their hands and
elementary tools

(D) The scheme intends to improve the

quality, scale and reach of artisans?
products and also to integrate them
with MSME value chains

CSP-1/C 12
 AAAG agAIRG AUQ 6edG
reference to GST, which
With of the 24. GST aQ60
24,
following statements are true?

1. GST is based on a system of 1.

concurrency of indirect taxes,
where every transaction attracts 6Q 621 3 IGY GST AI 62/22|
central as well as state GST
2
2. GST replaced a production-based
taxation system by a consumption
based taX system 3

3 It brings destination principle for

cross-border trading for which the 6Q8
Y60 IGGIR
poorer and consuming states are
benefiting at the expense of more A) 6GGR 1
82 aQ4 a66
affluent and industrialized ones
N6G
(B) 6QeR 1
83 a84
(A) Only l and2 are true
1
and 3 are true (C) 6GOR 2 3 3 GOY I66
(B) Only
(C) Only 2 and 3 are true

(D) All the above are true

Which of the following statements

is
25.
Linked
incorrect about Production
Incentive (PLI) scheme?
as
several schemes
(A) It is one of the
in India'
part of the 'Make
initiative.
aim is to incentivise
(6) Its promote
manufacturers and
domestic production.
initiative contributes to
(C) This
enhancing self-reliance in the
country.
appplicable only
to
(D) This scheme is
pharmaceuticals, textiles and food

processing sectors.

13 |P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 a
26. In discharging its role as facilitator for
is cntrustcd
rural prospcrity, NABARD
with responsibilitics of

(A) Providing refinance to lending

institutions in rural areas.

(B) Bringing about or promoting

development of commercial banks.

(C) Evaluating, monitoring and

inspccting allbanks in rural areas.

(D) gin161 6Ag6a ang @aiage gaga

(D) Monitoring all developmental
projects in rural areas.

27. India is one of the few countries

experiencing falling child sex ratio.
Which among the following statements
could be the major reasons behind this
phenomenon?
1.
1. High female infant mortality
(relative to male infant mortality).

2 Female foeticide.

1
(A) Only1 (A) 6A

(B) Only2 (B) sa 2

(C) Both l and 2 (C) Qa 1

e2

(D) None of these

CSP-1/C 14
 Gasesthat trap heat in the atmosphere 28.
28.
and cause global warming arc called
greenhouse gases.

Which ofthe following combinations are

not included under the grcenhousc gases?

(A) IR QIQUGIRg, fsar

(A) Carbon dioxide, Methane
GIGR
(B) IQgaUgIAG, IQ6gISQI
(B) Nitrous oxide, Hydrofluorocarbons

(C) GIGA A6RIQIRG, ANa IQ UgIA

(C) Carbon monoxide, Sulphur dioxide
(D) GIR ÇIQIgIG, qIG 6000
(D) Carbon dioxide, water vapour

are 29. gaGI IQ6GIIGilfsAG Il GIA6GI6GRa 90%

29. More than 90 percent ofallnitrogen
nitrates
fixed as ammonia, nitrites, and
Symbiotic
by soil microorganisms.
bacteria associated with leguminous
formation of
plants fix nitrogen by the
following
root nodules. In which of the
occurs?
plant nitrogen fixation does not

(A) Common Beans (A) ag

(B) Soybeans (B) 6aiaIg

(C) Peanuts (C) ng (Peanuts)

(D) Oats (D) 8ç(Oats)

15 [P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 30.
S0. For protection of plants and animal
species and to provide for the prcvention
and control of water pollution, air
pollution and the environment,
govermment ofIndia has taken adequate
steps and several prevention, control and
protection Acts has been enacted.
Which of the following combination of
statements is correct? 1974
(A) The Water (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act, 1974
1981
The Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981
The Environment (Protection) Act,
asa (gaAi) aA, 1986

1986 G6YG1Q (gaa) aR, 1972

The Wild Life (Protection) Act,
(B) G (ggsa feIQSI 8 Ag) liaR,
1972
1972
(B) The Water (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act, 1972

The Air (Prevention and Control of 1981

Pollution) Act, 1981
The Environment (Protection) Act, a@6as (gA1) aSA, 1986
1986
The Wild Life (Protection) Act,
GSIYG1 (qaai) asR, 1974
1974
(C) The Water (Prevention and Control 1974
of Pollution) Act, 1974
The Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1986 1986
The Environment (Protection) Act,
ansea (gRai) aR, 1981
1981
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, QEYG19 (g0ai) aRA, 1972
1972
(D) The Water (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act, 1981 1981
The Air Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1974
1986 aâsaa (gaa) aRR, 1986
The Wild Life (Protection) Act,
1972 GSYG1G (g0) asRR, 1972

CSP-1/C 16
 Government ofOdisha has declared 31. 36I| d1 aIGY6a
31. the
following Biodiversity Heritage Sites
161Q199

(BHS) for the conservation of

Biodiversity in the state.

Which of the following pairs (Name of

the BHS and district) are not correct?

(A) Gandhamardan Hil1 Range:

Bargarh and Balangir District

(B) Mandasaru Gorge: Kalahandi (B) 1Iai GQ: GRI21 G

District
: @A!
(C) aic6iâai aQ agAA
(C) Satkosia Gorge: Angul District

(D) Mahendragiri Hill range: Gajapati

District

32. Acknowledging the years of efforts of 32. 130 gRIQ0 6981 NIG 1N0 q'ANA ai
tribalpeople in conserving 130 varieties
ofindigenous cultivars ofrice, Koraput
district was declared as a Globally Agricultural Heritage System aise 6aIgaI
ImportantAgricultural Heritage System.

Which one of the following pairs añge Saiç (a°gl : ) AU 6RQ6 ÖR

(Organisation: Year) is correct?

(A) Food and

Agricultural Organization
a°gI(FA0): 1982
Nations: 1982
(FAO) of United

and Agricultural Organization

(B) Food
ofUnited Nations: 1992 agi (FA0): 1992
(FAO)

andAgricultural Organization
(C) Food Nations: 2002
(FAO) of United agi (FAO) :2002
Organization
and/Agricultural
(D) Food 2012
Nations:
(FAO)ofUnited agi (FAO): 2012
17
CSP-1/C [P.T.0.
 The Govt. oflndia had launched"Projcct 33.
33. 1#
1n 1973 6Q YIgAIRSA A'aai GaIaGA
Tiger", the largest species conservation
on 1

initiative of its kind in the world

of
April 1973 to promote conservation
tigcer. Ninc tiger rcscrves
were
the
cstablislhed in different states ofIndia in
the ycar 1973.
asag 6T aIRI 1973 n@2i6Q gôai
Which one of the following 6216Qanl ?
combinations does not include the Tiger
Reserves established in the year 1973? (A) 6RI6QS SISAQ R, SARaR SIRAR

(A) Corbett Tiger Reserve, Similipal

Tiger Reserve
(B) 6UIGQa
(B) Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve,
Satkosia Tiger Reserve

(C) Manas TigerReserve, Sunderbans

Tiger Reserve

(D) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve, Kanha

Tiger Reserve

34. A marine protected area (MPA) is

essentially a space in the ocean where
human activities are strictly regulated and
these places are given special
protections for natural or historic marine
resources by local, state, territorial,
native, regional, or national authorities.

Which one of the following is not a

MPA?
(A) 6QNa 6OaIa
(A) Periyar in Kerala
@ORGR
(B) Bhitarkanika in Odisha
(B) aIQ

(C) Malvan Marine in Maharashtra (C) AgIQIga AigIR 6AQIQR

(D) Coringa in Andhra Pradesth

6GIGI
(D) gg6gQ

CSP-1/C 18
 The United Nations Conference on 35. UNCEDag "Earth Summit' ans 9
Environment and Development nEIQSl, G12| 3-14 40, 1992 Rio de

(UNCED), also known as the Earth Janeiro giGn 60 agiG 62/92aI I

Summit', was held in Rio de Janciro,
Brazil, from 3-14 June 1992.
which of the following combinations of
i.
statements about the conference is
correct?
on
i.
This globalconference was held
the occasion of20t anniversary of i.
the first human environment
conference held in Stockholm, gGRU AISA GÂR1SA
6aIIA
Sweden iii. 79 60SQ
ofhuman
ii. It focused on the impact on the
socio-economic activities (A) ieii
environment"
79 countries
Representatives fromconference (B) ieii
iii.
participated in the
(C) iig ii
(A) iand ii
eiii
(D) i, ii
(B) iand iii
(C) ii and
iii
Global
aIay qaaIR (UN
(D) iii and ii 36.
lIQsgIaG, SIqa @6G0, GGFIR dRSGa
Q
GIobal Action Award)
of UN to
recipientcommitting
6GNR 1975
AâzI6Q gig
Microsoft, the now the @AI1 2050 1âgI
S6. Award. isenvironment all either
Action the emitted
remove from company has consumption
Carbon the electrical by 2050.
1975
directly Or by
founded in company has
was
since it the
year neutral?
From which
carbon (A) 2010
adapted to be
(B) 2012
(A) 2010
(C) 2014
(B) 2012 (D) 2016
(C) 2014
[P.T.O.
(D) 2016 19
37. World Environment Day is the Unitcd 37. G aâ6e
Nations Day for cncouraging worldwide
awarcness and action to protect our qaôo GIO14
@a, 1972 6a q9a13
environnment. In 1972, the UN Gencral aUIa
991
Assembly designatcd 5 Junc as World 1973 ãI66 "6@R 6164
Environment Day (WED). The first ga"
celcbration, under tlhe theme "Only One
Earth took placc in 1973. Thereafter
cvery year the day is celebrated with a
theme.
i.
Which of the following pairs (Year and
Theme) is not correct? ii 2022:s@9R 66I6 ggi"
:
1. 2023 «Solutions to Plastic ii. 2021 : *a6eI@gA (ecosystem)
Pollution"
i. 2022:"Only one Earth" iv. 2020: aß69a Ia a9g"
iii. 2021:"Ecosystem Restoration"
(A) i
iv. 2020:Time for Environment"
(A) i
(B) ie ii
(B) iand ii (C) iie iii
(D) iv
(C) iiand ii
(D) iv

38. One light year is equivalent to roughly

how many kilometers? SaIÑSO ?
(A) 1.5 trillion kilometer (A) 1.5 âaR @Saiâca
(B) 4.5 trillion kilometer
(B) 4.5 gaag @saiñsa
(C) 7.5 trillion kilometer
(C) 7.5 âaR @saIñca
(D) 9.5 trillion kilometer
(D) 9.5 gâan GsaIâsa

39. Jet fuel used in turbine

based aviation
engine mainly consists of
(A) Petrol
(A) 606gI
(B) Diesel
(C) Kerosene (B) G6a

(D) CNG (C) sRsaIâR

(D) @nã
CSP-1/C
20
 The light emitting diode
0. (LED) is made 40.
of

(A) Si (A) Si

(B) Ge (B) Ge

(C) GaN (C) GaN

(D) Tungsten (D) Tungsten

41, Meniscus rise in glass thermometer is

due to the change in

(A) Density (A) an

(B) Mass (B) gQ

(C) Heat capacity (C) aQIa NI6l A1I

(D) Thermal conductivity (D) IaR NIGRA

tap water, (2) distilled 42. 66liGY QIASO (1) I aiêi, (2) aââN°
42. A glass of ()
(3) sea water is cooled to its
water and which they
solidification. The order in
will solidify first is
(A) GI aiâi, aiâ, a9g aia
distilled water, sea water
water.
(4) tap (B) $ aiâ, agg GI aiâ
aiâa,
water
seea water,tap
(B) distilled water,

distilled water
water,
(C) sea water, tap
(D) alâ, sHIq alâ, agg alâ
water
water, sea
water, tap
(D) distilled

21 [P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
43. Consider the following regarding thc 43. 1857 @g aUIOSA fgñqOR GOIQ 1

Revolt of 1857.
1

1. Indore troops had joincd the Revolt

against the wish ofthcir king.
2.
2. Mangal Pandey was cxccutcd at
Meerut.
3.
3. Tantia Tope was active both at
Kanpur and Jhanshi.
4.
4. Sindhia sought refuge from the
British at Agra.
Which of the following are correct?
(A) 1,3 and 4 (A) 1,3 G4
(B) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2,3e4
(C) Only 3 and 4
(C) 6RR 3 84
(D) Only l and 4
(D) s@ 1
84

44. Consider the statements regarding the

44. IG1A01Q 06161 2 QG ll Q0IRS
nationalist Romesh Chunder Dutt.
1. He translated Ramayana and 1
Mahabharata.

2. He was president of the Indian 2.

National Congress.
3. sa ICSa.a1a. 6Q Q1
6RIQ26
3. Hequalified the ICS.
4

4. He was president of the Bongiya

Sahitya Parishad.
Which of the following statements are
correct?
(A) 1,2 3
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 o4
(B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 6@GR 2
03
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) ang ÖR
(D) AIl are correct

CSP-1/C
22
45. Consider the statements regarding the
Home Rule League. 1.
1. S. Subramaniya Ayer was on
associate ofAnnie Besant. 2.
2. It started on behalf of the Indian 62192I
National Congress. 3.
3. It changed its name to Swarajya
sabha.
4.
4. Its flag had the Union Flag on it.
Which of the following are correct?
(A) 1,2e3
(A) 1,2 and 3
4
(B) 2,3 84
(B) 2,3 and e 4
4 (C) 1,3
(C) 1,3 and
(D) Only 1and 2
(D) 6AR 182

46. Match List-I and List-II and select the

correct answer using the code given
below: ' ga (List-I) "G' ga (List-II)
List-I List-II a (Faulting) 1. alIGr

a. Faulting 1. Yardangs (Yardangs)

b. 6(Q 6IGA 2. 6G6n 621n
b. Wave erosion 2. Kettle Hole
(Wave erosion) (Kettle Hole)
C. Ice Scouring 3. Escarpment
3. qa1qSANN
d. Wind erosion 4. Stacks
(Ice Scouring) (Escarpment)
:
Codes d. Q6IGR 4. IG
b c d (Wind erosion) (Stacks)
(A) 3 4 1 2 sai (Codes) :
b c d
(B) 4 3 1
2
(A) 3 4 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 3 1
2
(D) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 3 2 1

23 [P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 read the following 47. îg6a GaiaiQgi
47. Carcfullv q6QI (A) aIaa (R) a
assertion(A) and reason (R) and sclect
:
the corTcct option fromthe codcs
Assertion (A): Scandinaviancountrics have
aregressive agc-scx population structure
Reason (R): The population growth rate
is negative in these countries. For
selecting the correct answer, use the
following code: code (6RIG) QY2IQ GO I

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (A) gaS q6QI (A) 8 GIQ61 (R) Q@G AG4
are true and Reason (R) isa corect GIOS (R)6QQâQ6QI (A) a õR QISHI
explanation ofAssertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (B) ga q6QI (A) 3 GIQ6I (R) q@R aGY
are true but Reason (R) is not a @ GIQS (R), q6Q1 (A) a õQ Q4IGHI
correct explanation ofAssertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A)is true and Reason
(R) is false. (C) qsçIs (A)a04 G GIQSI (R) Aau aSS
(D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (D) 691S (A)Âai GaIQS (R) a64ASS
(R) is true.
48. Match List-I and List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II ñ-II
(eiâai)
(Major cultural (inhabitants) 1. @69|
region of world) (Eskimos)
a. Arctic region b. g9 2. QIQ61a, @sgI 8
1. Eskimos
b. Desert 2. The Indians, (The Indians,
Negroes and Negroes and
Immigrants Immigrants)
c. Latin-American 3. Samoans, C. RIA-169®A1g 3. aI6FIaIR,

Region Tahitian, 66IRGIR go6

Tongan, etc. (Samoans,
Tahitian,
d. Pacific Oceanic 4. Caravan
Tongan, etc.)
Region A21AI6Q1a 4, aIQIQIR
d. g16
Codes : (Caravan)
a b c d 6RI9 (Codes):
a b c d
(A) 4 1 3 2 3 2
(A) 4 1
(B) 1 4 2 3 2 3
(B) I 4
(C) 1
3 2 4 (C) 1 3
2 4
3 1
(D) 4 2 3 (D) 4 2

CSP-1/C
24
 - -
49. Match List I with List II according to
Koppen's Climatic classification system
and select the correct answer from the
codes given:
List - I List - II
(Climate Types) (Characteristics) (GROIQ gaia 600) (Qaa)
a. Af i. Humid
4.NT (A) i. aig 1910
Tropical
Climate
b. Aw ii. Tropical b. 4.6g (Aw)
Humid and
Dry climate C.
.4A (Am) iii. 6lq1 GRGI
C. Am iii. MonsoO n
d. .1q (As) iv. g1qeIR
Climate sGIG (Codes) :

d. As v. Dry Summers
b c d
:
Codes
d (A) i ii iii iv
bc
iii i
(A) i ii iii iv (B) ii
(B) ii iii i (C) iii i ii iv
(C) iii i ii iv i iii
(D) iv ii
(D) iv ii i iii

50. Given below are two statements, one

(Assertion) A y° aY GIQI (Reason) R
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R). Select your
answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) The Peru desert is
:

recognised as a Cold Desert GIaG (R):26A1 (Humbolt) 6giGa IIAIgI

Reason (R): The temperature of
Humbolt current plays a dominant role
in controlling the surface atmospheric
conditions of the coastal areas.
(R)
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason GIQA (R) a6Y Z66
are true and Reason (R) is a correct (B) ga6aia qsçI (A)G
GIQEI (R), Q6QI (A)a ÖR
GIAYI
explanation ofAssertion (A).
Reason (R)
(B) Both Assertion (A) and
correct
are true but Reason (R) is nota (C) 26IS (A) a64 Z66 8
GIQA(R) ia
explanation ofAssertion (A). 66

(C) Assertion (A) is

true and Reason
(R) is false.
Reason
(D) Assertion (A) is false and
(R) is true

25 |P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
51. Match the following with respcct to the 51. GI®gal agAI6a OIñ|- II aRO OIñG
-Ia
occurrence ofraces in List -II to the type
-
of Races in List I.4 GIÑSI-I oIñ-II
List - 1 List - II
Races Area ofExistence
a. TheTurko 1. Rajasthan and a. g-QAIR

Iranian Punjab b. a6J|-a1Qa 2. B@6I G

UIAIA
b. The Indo-Aryan 2. Odisha and
C.
Assam aI6a-@aR
c. The Scytho 3. West India
Dravidian (Gujarat to d. A6an-g@gaa 4. @@6 dâA A113
Karmataka)
d. The Mongolo 4. North Western saI (Codes):
Dravidian FrontierAgency
Codes : a b d
b (A) 4 3 2
(A) 4 3 2
(B) 1
4 2 3
(B) 1 4 2
(C) 1 3 2
(C) 1 3 2 4
4
(D) 4 2 3 1 (D) 4 2 3 1

52. India is an agricultural country,

where 52.
most of the population directly or
indirectly involved in this sector.
Regarding agriculture in India, which one
of the following statements is/are not
correct? 1.
1. Bajra is a Kharif crop, which 10A1 1Q° 40-50 sa@âsa Gsi
requires 25°-31°Ctemperature
and
40-50cm rainfall. 2.
2. Cotton is categorized into
groups long-staple, three
medium staple 3.
and short-staple.
QIaGA 6aIGQIA qIA08
3. Currently, India accounts 50%
for about
50% of the world's 4.
total jute
production.
4. India is the second-largest 416 I1 6@S
producer of silk and
the largest
Consumer of silk in the
world.
Select the correct answer
using the codes (A) 2e 4 (B) 6GG 3
given below:
(C) 1G2 (D) 6GGN 4
(A) 2 and 4 (B) Only 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) Only 4
CSP-1/C
26
53. Match important projects in List - I with
the area of implementation in List - II
and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
List - I List - II GIñGI-I
(Multipurpose (Area/ Place of
Projects in India) implementation)
(GI00 Q G2gG1 gaa) (9a129 6ag / gia)
a. Tungabhadra 1. Lower
a. garg 9AG1

Multipurpose NanadaValley, b. acia A6Q0 2. 6966| I4,

Project Gujarat 60G1RI
b. The Sardar 2. Nalgonda c. AISIGe aIaa ga 3. a2g6@a

Sarovar district,
d. IgIAGm ga
G
4. agI, 26AII
Project Telangana

C. Nagarjuna 3. Andhra Pradesh

:
618 (Codes)
Sagar Project and Katnataka
d. Bhakra Nangal 4. Punjab, Haryana a b c d

Project and Rajasthan 3

(A) 1 2 4
:
Codes
(B) 2 3 1
4
b c d
(A) 1
2 3 4 (C) 3 1 2 4

(B) 2 3 1
4 1
(D) 4 2 3
1 4
(C) 3 2

(D) 4 2 1 3

which
54. Among the following options
to the
mountain pass doesn't belongs
correct state? (A) aâ aI(Shipki La) îieS gsA
Pradesh
(A) Shipki La -> Himachal (B) aŽ aisi (Aghil Pass) Q0IGO

(B) Aghil Pass - Uttarakhand

Arunachal Pradesh
(C) GaO iS (Dipher Pass)agISG g6s
(C) Dipher Pass (D) sean ai (Jelep La) @n
(D) Jelep La Sikkim

27 [P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 55, Which of the following factors are
responsible for brcaks in the monsoon?
1. Origin of tropical cyclones in Bay
ofBengal
Erratic behavior of 2nd equatorial
troughs
|I.
II. Inadequate heating of Tibetan
Plateau
IV. Southern Branch of South West
Tropical Jet re-establish over
northern India
Choose the correct options from below:
Options: (A) IeIV
(A) Iand IV
(B) I,IIe II
(B) I,IandIII
(C) I,IleIy
(C) IIland IV
(D) IVand II (D) IVe II

56. Which of the following

river/ rivers are 56. gsa @AIAai 1/1g@a AY 6aQS
exhibiting the antecedent drainage
pattern in Odisha?
(A) 12IN1 3 QIge1
(A) The Mahanadi and the Brahmani
(B) The Brahmani and The Baitarini (B) gIg61 8 6@0QA1

(C) The Mahanadi and the Baitarini

(D) The Baitarini and the Rushikulya
(D) 630aS1 G
aâgAI

s7. Black Earth soil has been developed

in
which region of Odisha?
(A) Brahmani Basin (A) gIgE1-QQIAI

(B) Mayurbhanj (B) A6RS

(C) Anugul -Athamallik and Boudh
(C) a-NONG 6le
(D) Sambalpur Valley

CSP-1/C
28
58. Match the morphological units of 58.
-
Rolling uplands (List I) with the correct
-
river basin (List II) 4R 61 SIa ? 61R R |
- II
List - I List
(Morphological (Basin Associated)
Units) a. aiaGIGOA 1. Q0 (b)
a. The Rajgangpur 1. Ib Basin
-
Panposh
b. IggGi aGaiGi 2. 601
Uplands
b. The Jharsuguda 2. Northern Tel
1
C. IGQ-6ISG 3. A601
Uplands Basin
c. The Balangir - 3. The Sabari
d. UQIGG 25AISI 4. 6RN 8 aSf N1
Titlagarh Basin
Patnagarh uplands
(Koel and the
Sankh Rivers)
d. The Malakanagiri 4. Koel and the
:

Sankh Rivers
6@IG (Codes)
Uplands
: a b C d
Codes
b c d (A) 4 1 3
1
(A) 4 1 2 3 (B) 23 4
(B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 3 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 2 3 1 4
(D) 2 3 1
4

59. Which of the following is associated

with Chilika lake?
the
First Indian wetland under
Ramsar Convention.
I. Irrawaddy dolphins
Lacustrine plain II.
I. answer using the code
Select the correct
given below:
(A) saa IeII
(A) Iand II only
(B) I and III only (B) sGRR IG III
(C) Ionly (C) saR I
(D) I,II and III (D) I,IIo II
29 [P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 60.
60. Odisha experiences which types of
climates according to Koppen's climatic
classification?
(A) TropicalSavanna (3) g aaga
(B) Humid Subtropical AIGIA1
(C) IY
(C) Mediterranean
(D) 0gsg sg
(D) Subtropical Steppc

61. Which of the following statements are 61. aIR01 QÂUIAA 'Objective Resolution'
correct in respect of 'Objective .
Resolution' of Indian Constitution? (1) 4î @sGIQYAAa QG@GI a
ia.
(1) The Author of thisResolution was al62QR 26
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(2) 1947 a@21 QIRAIAI 22 6Q QÂNIG QQI
(2) It was adopted by Constituent
Assembly on January 22, 1947
(3) The goal ofthis Resolution was to
(3) aa 9 aIdsln, aAIsa1, AAOIA
declare India as a Sovereign,
Socialist, Democratic Republic
(4) This Resolution later framed as the (4) 4î saIQaR a6Q QIQ10 gâUINa
gHGA (Preamble) QIse gg 62/Q8aI
Preamble ofIndian Constitution
(A) land 3 (B) 2 and 4 (A) 183 (B) 2 g 4
(C) l and 4 (D) land 2 (C) 1
64 (D) 1e 2

62. Which of the following statements are

62.
correct in respect of "Constituent
ÖR ?
Assembly'?
(1) The Constituent Assembly wvas (1) Cabinet Mission Plan' 6aIRI
constituted under the scheme of
Cabinet Mission Plan' (2) añUIN AAIQ AR Q°9I gRI 369
(2) The total strength of Constituent
Assembly originally was 369
(3) 296 seats were allotted to British
India (4) IGYR 73 aa
691a
(4) 73 seats to Princely States
(A) 2 3 (B) 3 4

(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 4

I and 4 (C) 16 4 (D) 16 3
(C) (D) Iand 3

CSP-1/C 30
 63. Consider the following pairs in respcct 63.
ofSources of Indian Constitution and
pick up the right matchings.
Source aIaSA(Iten) aa (Sourcc)
Item
(1) Office of England (1) QIQ4aIRG aYIRA - Q°9A

Governor
(2) 6na/R6AGIUI6AISI

Public Service Govt.ofIndia añAA-1935

(2)
Commission Act-1935 GiiGY & -
(3) YGAI G
1d4
(3) Freedom of USA

Trade & QHG20

(4) aUIR
Commerce
(4) TheLanguage Australia

of Preamble of (A) 182 (B) 2e3

Constitution (D) 3 4
(C) 2
4
(A) 1and 2 (B) 2
and 3

(C) 2
and 4 (D) 3 and 4

Articles of 64. QIQ1A, QAUIA 6Aa UIQl (Articles) aaaa

64. Which of the following
to
Indian Constitution are not related
each other ? (1) QI 12 8 I 36

(1) Art. 12 andArt. 36 (2) IQI 13 8 NIQI

368
(2) Art. 13andArt. 368 (3) aI 22 8 UII 32 (2)
32 (2)
(3) Art. 22 and Art.
(4) AII 141 8 UI
214
Art. 214
(4) Art. 141 and
(A) 283
(A) 2and 3
(B) 4 6@
(B) 4 only
3
(C) 1
e3
(C) 1 and
AIlare related (D) aaG QAG
(D)

31 |P.T.0.
CSP-1/C
 a
65. 'Lame Duck Politician' & qads%
statcments are
65. Which of the following
Lame Duck
Correct in respect of
Politician?
a re-clection bid
(1) Having lost
another term
(2) Choosing not scck
to
term.
after expiration ofhis/her

(3) No term 1imit running

for
particular ofice again

(4) Abolition of Office after his/her

official term
(A) 1,204
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 e4
4
(B) 2,3 and

(C) None of the above

(D) 0saIg AAg
(D) Allabove

66. Which of the following statements are 66. QQG1A aiUIGA 6lA QIEi qAA60 R6gI
correct in respect of Basic Structure of
Indian Constitution?
(1) It is a form ofJudicial Review
(2) Itis used to test the legality of any (2) 6RIŠ QIQ
6lsâ aA 6RNGI aa1AI
legislation by the Courts
(3) The Doctrine of BasicStructure of (3) âNIAA 6il IaIa @I6 1g10
Constitution gave free hand to
Parliament to amend any part
of
Constitution
(4) The Constitution of India defines (4) QIQoA aâUIR qaRIR, áña6ONOI,
basic structure' in terms of
Federalism, Secularism,
Fundamental Rights and Socialism.
(A) 16 2
(A) Iand 2
(B) 2e3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 16 4
(C) land 4
(D) 3
and 4 (D) 3G 4

CSP-1/C
32
67. Entry 5 ofList II ofSeventh Schcdulc of 67.
Indian Constitution deals with -

(A) Public Order

(B) Public Health (B) GqIg

(C) State Pensions (C) aIGY 6aRAR

(D) Local Govermments (D) gI1A A9I

68. Which of the following statements are QIQ01

68. âuIGa UII 243 a°atsa 6gIg
correct in respect of Art. 243 of Indian
Constitution?

(1) lQI 243 (C) @R g06Q aBIAG60

(1) Art. 243 (C) provides
representation of chairpersons of
Panchayats at the Village level in
the Panchayats at the District level.
(2) NI
243 (D) aIigaa aEIAOqGRG
(2) Art. 243 (D) provides
representation for women to the
offices of chairperson in
Panchayats at village level. (3) AQI 243 () gIa QIRI SRq a

(3) Art 243 (T) is related to power to

levy taxes by Panchayats (4) I 243 (J) aBIG IR Qasa ga

(4) Art. 243 (J) is related to bar on the

courts to call in question the
election of Panchayats (A) 203
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 84

(B) l and 4 (C) 1e 2

(C) l and 2 o 3
(D) 1

(D) 1and 3

CSP-1/C 33
|P.T.O.
 69. 20 61611
IAIRS Q966 A69
69. Which of the following statemcnt/s is/
are not correct in rcspect of G20
Devcloping Nations? (1) 4R| 1Qn 30 20016a gôI 62192I
(1) It is a block of developing nations
established on April 30, 2001 (2) 1î 661IQ1 5A 11gQ1 NATO
(2) This group emerged at the 5th
Ministerial NATO Conference
(3) G20 GIG1R Qgq@Ra qsYIR
(3) The Headquarters of G20
developing Nations is at Patna
(4)
(4) G20 @RIS1R QIGg®R qQY Qlg
The Member States of G20
Developing Nations is 20 countries 6228 20 69s
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 4 (A) 2 G 3 (B) 3 8 4
(C) 1and 4 (D) 1and 2 (C) 1 G
4 (D) 1e2
70. During his visitto AustraliaPM Narendra
Modi spelled about 3 Cs, 3 Ds, and 3 Es aIa-a6gñal Gga adsa 3 Cs, 3 Ds, 8
of IndiaAustralia
friendship. Which one 3Es gadsa aI6RI9RI âsn I
of the following is correct in respect of
3 Cs ?
(A) Commonwealth, Cricket and Curry (A) Commonwealth, Cricket and Curry
(B) Cricket, Career and Candid (B) Cricket, Career and Candid
(C) Cricket, Coffee and Comfort
(C) Cricket, Coffee and Comfort
(D) Care, Career and Connect
(D) Care, Career and Connect

71. Which ofthe following statement/s

is /are 71.
correct in respect
of 'Sengol? saa ÖR ?
(1) 'Sengol' signifies the transfer
power from British to of (1)
Indians
(2) It symbolises the Marathi
culture
oftransfer ofpower from one (2)
King
toother King
(3) The 'Sengol' has been reintroduced (3)
in the new Parliament
Bhavan of
India 14Q
(4) 6ORR VyRIno 1947a9g
(4) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru GGIQIQQIQ SN6N
accepted 10.45 PM 6Q 0
Sengol' at 10.45 PM on August
1947 from Adhinam 14,
ofKerala
(A) and 3
1 (A) 1 e3 (B) 24
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (C) 3G 4 (D) 203
(D) 2 and 3
CSP-1/C
34
 72. Which of the following statements are 72. 2000 Sal 6RI6, g6R6ag412Ia ã 6RRI
correct in respect of withdrawal of Rs.
2000 Currency Notes from circulation?
(1) This move is a part of RBI's
Compound Note Policy

(2) It's aim is to provide the Public with (2) 6aáSIA1S QSAIaa 6aIa g1 GQI
high quality Currency Notes

(3) Rs. 2000 Currency Notes were (3) 2015 AâgI6a 2000 6RUI6RIG g9ea
introduced in the year 2015
(4) Printing of Rs. 2000 Currency (4) 2018 - 19 aâgisa 2000
Notes were stopped in the year
sâai6AISA
2018-19
(A) 2 and 4 (B) 1
and 3 (A) 2 e 4 (B) 1 G3

(C) 3 and 4 (D) land 4 (C) 3g4 (D) 184

73. Which of the following statement/s is/ 73. ´TQ-aq 2.0 @idYaA' amGSa @gsa
are correct regarding Forest-PLUS 2.0
Programme'?

(1) This programme is a Five-year (1) dvgAgQN (USAID) 4e°

partnership between USAID and

Ministry of Environment, Forests
and Climate Change.
(2) Tsag-aq 2.0 GIYgA 'gAR G qIgY
(2) Forest-PLUS 2.0 Programme
denotes Forest for Wealth and
Health
(3)
(3) Tetra Tech is building capacity
across landscapes in three States in
India
come under
(4) The three States which
are; Andhra
this programme Bihar
Pradesh., Karnataka and
(A) 2G 4
(B) lG4
(B) 1
and 4
(A) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 (C) 13 (D) 3G4
(C) and 3
1

CSP-1/C 35 |P.T.0.
74. Which one of the following statcments
1S not corrcct in respect of Euxinc

Sea' ?
(A) This Sea is also knownas 'Red Sea'.
(B) It is located between Eastern
Europe and Western Asia. NATO ia
NATOto (C) aâaia gôsaN GcI aI
(C) It serves as a barrier for
counterRussia.
(D) The earliest known
name ofthe Sea (D) @ QI00 620 'Gnai agg' (Sea
RIA

is the Sea ofZalpa'.

of Zalpa).

75. Which of the following statement/s is/

are correct in respect of The First
Ever Census ofWater bodies in India
2023' released by Ministry of Jal (1) 12S6IRI66 6AQ 6IS 24,24.540
Shakti?
a
(1) The Census enumerated total of
24,24,540 water bodies across the
country Q°SYR ga Q2â
(3) IÂRAIQA AŠING
(2) West Bengal has the highest
number ofTanks
(3) Tamil Nadu has the highest number
ofLakes
(4) Andhra Pradesh leads in water (A) 1G 2 (B) 284
conservation schemes. (C) 1G 3 (D) 4 6@eR
(A) 1and 2 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 1and 3 (D) 4 only

76. Which of the following statements are 76.

correct in respect of Nomadic
Elephant?
(1) It is an Indo-Mongolian joint AAQIQIAQ 9RG6 q°ARA 2019
military exercise (2) 12
(2) The Fourteenth Edition of this 69GI
exercise took place in the year (3) g6AAI GIIYG16Q 2/61/1ISG gâsA

2019
OI6Q 'SRIaioR
(3) This exercise is aimed to train INYg6QNQ 6GIIAQ
(4)
Elephants in Defence activities
(4) The First Edition of 'Nomadic (B) 2 g 4
(A) 1 e3
Elephant' took place in Gwalior,
Madhya Pradesh. (D) 162
(C) 283
(A) 1and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1
and 2
CSP-1/C 36
 statement/s is/ 77. 1Batagaika Cratcr' aasa 6a a1sa
17. of the following
Which
Batagaika
are not correct in respcct of
Crater'?
1) Batagaika Cratcr' asgãara gRa
(1) The Batagaika
Crater is situated in
Australia Far East
(2) aAIGTIA Qasa aRI2,06aa gai
become a focal
(2) This region has of
point for studying the effects
climate change on permafrost.
(3) Batagaika Crater' 6q26Q 'a
(3) The Batagaika Crater is
affectionately referred as The Sky

in' Permafrost thaws @gR aôAIIA 60@9

(4)
(4) The permafrost thaws release
enormous quantities of Organic
Carbon. (A) 283 (B) 1G
4

(A) and 3
2 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 183 (D) 2 e 4
(C) l and 3 (D) 2 and 4

78. Which of the following statements are 78. RsgIg agôe NUNQ SGQG Talisman Sabre
- 2023 gAN60
correct in respect of Talisman Sabre Exercise ÖR U6S ?
Exercise - 2023?
the (1) q4qg gI, Talisman Sabre
8
() USA and France have initiated
- 2023
"Talisman Sabre Exercise Exercise'- 2023 Ga
the
(2) Itisa joint military exercise of (2)
two countries
every Four
(3) This Exercise is held for
Years
an Observer to
(4) India attended as
exercise
this military

(A) 2 and 4 (B) l and 3 (A) 2 e 4 (B) 1G 3

(D) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (C) 3 g4 2
G3
(D)

CSP-1/C 37 |P.T.0.
 79. Which of the following statcments arc
not corrcct in respcct of Rajasthan
Minimum Guarantced Income Bill
2023*
(1) Under this Scheme every family is
entitled to guaranteed employment
for 125 days per year.
(2) This Scheme provides guaranteed
minimum monthly Pension fixed at
Rs. 2000/- per month for specific
categories
(3) This scheme encompasses the
flagship of Jawahar Rozgar Yojana'
for urban areas.
(4) To implement this programme
Govermment has estimated additional
expenditure of Rs. 2,500 Crore (A) 3 e 4 (B) 26 3
annually.
(A) 3 and 4 (B) 2.and3 (C) 1e3 (D) 2 g 4
(C) land 3
(D) 2 and 4

80. Which of the following statenments are

not correct?
According to the Second Edition of
National Multidimensional Poverty q9ais 2023 a @o1a q°RaA Ugaisa -
Index-2023 released by NITIAayog
(1) 13.5 Crore people escaped from (1) 13.5 saI® 6mIG G9231 @I@gI aSI
multidimensional poverty
(2) Inural areas there is rapid decline
(2) gIIBRSA QI 32.59 % 19.28%
in poverty from 32.59% to
19.28%
(3) Bihar registered the largest
decline
in the number of poor
individuals.
(4) This Report G6aišsa l075 gaañ
covered
comprehensive analysis
(4) ã ÔQIsQ

across 1075 of poverty

Districts
Administrative
(A) 2e4 (B) 1e2
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1
and 2
(C) 3and 4 (C) 3 84 (D) 1G3
(D) land 3
CSP-1/C
38
 81. Which State Government in India an
has 81. o9R6a 6Ra aiRY
AR12CM Rise
taken significant step to introduce
educational initiative called 'CM Risc (A) lY gsga
Schools*?
(B) Qaa g6@s
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(C) sRaR
(B) Uttar Pradesh
g
(C) Kerala (D) gs9a
(D) Andhra Pradesh

statements are 82.

82. Which of the following
correct in respect of"Agreement on use
of Local Currencies for cross-border ÖR ?
transactions*?
a
(1) India and UAE have signed
memorandum in this Agreement.
a
(2) This agreement enables frame
work for trade settlements in their
respective national currencies.
(3) This Agreement was signed by the
Prime Ministers ofIndia and UAE (4) Peekay Intermark Ltd. qQ° alO1A
(4) Peekay Intermark Ltd. and Reserve
users
Bank of India were the first
of this system 4
(B) 3 e 4
(B) 3 and 4 A) 2
(A) 2 and 4 1 e3
(D) 1and 3 (C) 1e 2
(D)
(C) 1
and 2

are
83. Which of the following statenents 83. 'Namda Project' qaá G6q19 QS9@e AANQ
Project ?
correct in respect of Namda
a part of Pradhan
(1) This project is
Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana.
(2) Under this programme 2200
were (2) 12 GIŠYGA JtA6Q UIAIAQ 2200 giai
candidates from Assam
trained
to
(3) The aim of this project is (3) 99gI angAI 2gâgg aQsA GGI
preserve the endangered crafts of
wool weaving. -
under public (4) 12ga Q6GIQ1- 6RGRRIQI QIAICIRGI
(4) This project works
private partnership
(B) 1,3 and 4 (A) 2,3 G4 (B) 1,3G4
(A) 2,3 and 4
(D) 1,2 and 4 (D) 1,2G4
(C) 1,2 and 3 (C) 1,2 e3

CSP-1/C 39 [P.T.0.
 84. 736 CE ss60 6l116a saIN g6 (era) aA
84. The Bhaumakaras started an cra in the
year 736 CE. What was the last known
date mentioncd in the Bhauma-kara
records. (A) 187
(A) 187 (B) 190
(B) 190 (C) 204
(C) 204 (D) 213
(D) 213

85. The Bhanjas ofKhinjali-mandala initially

had their capital at Dhritipura, but later G6 :

on they shifted their capital to gIIA

Vanjulvaka
(A) QiaaIGI
(A)
(B) Vinitapura (B) GñIgQI

(C) Yayatinagara
(D) GIQIsGISI
(D) Vyaghrakota

86. With reference to Mahasivagupta

Balarjuna consider the following:
He was the Panduvamsi king of 1.
South Kosala with is capital
located at Sirpur.
2.
by
2.
He extended his dominion
capturing Suvarnapura, modern
3
Sonepur.
3. He ruled for more than 57 years.
many statements given above are (A) 6aOR 61
How
correct? (B) 6eR Q6
(A) Only one (C) G6/G a
(B) Only two n6
(D) sa®
(C) All three
(D) None

CSP-1/C 40
87. With reference to the creation of a
separate province of Orissa consider the
following statements.
(G9€1
1. The British Parliament's 1. D,
1936 @69a1 QUINIGIE
Constitution of Orissa order, 1936 aâuIG 3 U 1936 6a aiRIa q1R®
got the approval of the king on 3
March 1936 and Orissa became a 1936 66 aß60 62I
new province on l April 1936.
2
2. Sir John Austin Hubback was
appointed as the first Governor of
Orissa.
3.
3. Sir Courtney Terel, the Chief
Justice of Bihar and Orissa High
Court, administered the oath of
office to the new Governor. 4.

4
The inaugural function was held in
Ravenshaw College Hall at
Cuttack.

How many statements given above is/are (A) 6eR 661 (B) 6N aG
correct?
(A) Only one (B) Only two (C) saAR SRIG (D) ang eiâ

(C) Only three (D) All four

88. Mahatma Gandhi visited Odisha in 88. A2qa1 GAIg aIâgsa

1. March 1921
1. IG 1921
2
U
1925
2 August 1925
3 SaAA 1927
3. December 1927
September 1930 4. 6asqna 1930
4.
Which of the above is not correct?
(A) 6GR
1
(B) 6GG 2
(A) Only
1
(B) Only 2
(C) 6GOA 3 (D) 6G 4
(C) Only 3 (D) Only 4

41 [P.T.O.
CSP-1/C
89. Kapilendradeva subdued many feudatory
chicfs who rebellcd against him. Which
of the following did not belong to this
category?
(A) 6g@a Sa
(A) The Gangas ofKhemundi
(B) aGGI 62I9
(B) The Chauhans ofPatna
(C) 38I@Q AQY
(C) The Matsyas ofOddadi

(D) The Silavamsis ofNandapura

90. Which of the following pair is not 90. îañgo saa 6a1@ôQ 6AR A28 ?

correctly matched?
:
(A) gIaa Ia gôIa aßa
:
(A) Bichitrananda Das Kujibara
Patrika (B) R
RI: 661016IT QIN

(B) Utkal Dipika : Gauri Shankar Ray

(C) Sambalpur Hitaisini : Nilamani

Vidyaratna
(D) 6RR AII : Sl1Q6l Qa

(D) Dainika Asha:Sashi Bhusana Rath

UgA ?
do we come across the ANNGIR AgI©gIR
a
91. WWhere 91. 6Qað
madhavapura mahavihara?

(A) Ratnagiri
(A) anâ

(B) Udayagiri
(B) 29aâã

(C) Lalitagiri (C) n@câ

(D) Pushpagiri (D) ggãâ

CSP-1/C
42
 92.
Whatis not true about thc Prajamandala 92.
g6R ?
moveiment in Odisha?
a movemcnt against the
(A) It was
obnoxious taxes and ill treatment to
the subjcct population by the
feudatory chicfs ofthe Gadjat states.
(B) Sarangadhara Das,
Harckrushna
Mahatab,Pabitra Mohan Pradhan (B) a1GU @I6, 266RO ARGIR, 1@
and Nabakrushna Choudhury were
the important leaders of the
movemnent.
of Major
(C) It started with the murder
Bezelgate, the Political Agent in
Ranapur.
(D) A State Enquiry Committee was (D) 1937 AâgI6Q 260@S AILOIGG TUYAI
constituted by the Government 6 GRIO QIGY60 6RIGG UgIaa6
under the chairmanship of
Harekrushna Mahatab in 1937 to
report on the condition of people
in Gadjat states.
93. Subei, Kachela and Jamuda, the three 93. 8@IQ a@ng 6R1a/q5 qsaa, GISORI 8
sites in the undivided Koraput districtof
Odisha, are famous for? (A) 66A UG6A

(A) Jaina relics (B) 6l 266A

(B) Buddhist relics (C) gIgel aG66A
(C) Brahmanical relics
(D) Neolithic tools
94. Consider the following statements
regarding the Rig Veda.
1. It mentions the Aryans as a cultural 1.
community.
2.
2, It has many commonalities with
3. a@oR (naditarna) QISQ QRQO1Q64N
Avesta.
3 It mentions Saraswati as naditarna.
4. 4.
It indicates that the dasyus kept
cattle for dairy products.
Which of the following are correct?
(A) 1,2and 3 (A) 1, 2 83 (B) 2,3G4
(B) 2,3 and 4
(C) 1,3 and 4 (C) 1,3e4 (D) an6g ÔR
(D) All are correct
CSP-1/C
43 |P.T.0.
 95. anaNR (Parthians)
statements
95, Consider the following
regarding the Parthians.
1.
Iran.
1. They had migrated from
India. 2.
in East
2. They set up a kingdom

3. Gondophcrmes was a Parthian king.

3.
4. They are mentioned together with
4. 6aAISR Gg8 QgSS 6 (Shakas) ag
the Shakas in the Sanskrit texts.

Which of the following are correct?

(A) 1,2 and 3

(A) 1, 2 e3
4
(B) 1,3 and
(B) 1,3 e4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
8 4
(C) 2,3
(D) Only 3 and 4
(D) 6QR 3 8
4

96. Consider the following statements about 96.

Sangam literature.
1.
1
The narrative texts are called
Melkanakku.

2. The didactic texts are called 2.

Kilkanakk.
3.
3 Thirukkural is a major Sangam
text. 4.

4. Many Sangam texts were the works

ofbrahmana scholars.
Which of the following are correct?
(A) 1,2 83
3
(A) 1,2 and
(B) 1, 2 e 4
(B) 1,2 and 4

(C) 2,
394
(C) 2,3 and 4

(D) Only I and 4 (D) 6RQG 1

04

CSP-1/C
44
97. Consider the following pairs
a
- A king and 1

1. Amoghavarsha
Kannada poct.
Kannada Poct
2. Pampa 2.
under Jain
Influcnce. 3.
Began writing the
3. Nanniah Mahabharata in
4. 61|
Telugu.

4. Ponna
Jain Poet, wh0
wrote on Ramayana
themes.
(A) 1, 2 e3
matched?
Which ofthe pairs are correctly
(B) 2, 3 e4
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 2,3 and
4 (C) 2e 4
(C) 2 and 4 (D) an6g ÖR

(D) Allare correct

statements about
98. Consider the following
Buddhism. 1.
Pala kings.
1. It was patronized by the 2.
Buddha was worshipped as a God
2.
Buddhism.
in Mahayana
as an
3. Hinayana considers Buddha 3

ordinary. being who attained

Nirvana.
4.
on Hindu
4. Vajray ana focused
Practices.
are correct?
Which of the following
4 (A) 2, 3 g4
(A) 2, 3 and
(B) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,2 e3
4
(C) Only 3 and (C)
s 3 G4
(D) All are correct
(D) ang ÖR
[P.T.O.
45
CSP-1/C
99. Consider the folloving statemcnts
regarding Alauddin Khalji.
1. He set up three distinct nnarkets 1.
onc for food grains, onc for cloth
andthe third for horses.
2. A Shahna was postcd in the market. 2.
3. The Peasants had to pay land 3.
revcnuc in kind.
4. 6a AF60 QIQ-141 GGIO60 Ga-Ga
4. Slaves were transacted in market 62Q26m
during his time.
Which of the following are correct?
(A) 1,2 and 3 (A) 1,2 83
(B) 2,3 and 4 (B) 2,3 4
(C) 1,2 and 4 (C) 1,2 e 4
(D) Only l and 4 (D) 6R 1
e4

100. Consider the following statements 100. 66 QI6Q ARIAR 6F1G alNIgñO
regarding the Subsidiary Alliance in
British India.
1.
1. The Indian ruler signing the alliance
would agree to the posting
of a
British Resident. 2.
2. The Indian ruler could employ any
European in his state.
3.
3. The Indian ruler would cede a part
of his territory for payment of
subsidy. 4.

4. Expenses the British army in the

of
state to be shared with
the
Company.
Which of the following are (A) 1, 2 e3
correct?
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 g4
(B) 2,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 e4
(C) 1,2 and 4
(D) Only Iand 3 (D) 6@a 1
8 3

CSP-1/C
46
eucent l6
Crent

PolGr 24

19;, 23
Curorert Erents 6-2
20)

Gi6.
9202)
24,s,26,2
ttom82,
2
Eninit

CSP-1/C
47