RBI GRADE B 2023 PHASE 1

EXAM ANALYSIS
(AFTERNOON SHIFT)
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General Awareness
Q.1)
India’s BSR system needs to be robust, timely, comprehensive and open to change, stated
Michael Patra, deputy governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The BSR Code is a seven-digit
code that is provided to the registered banks by the RBI. The first three digits in the code identify
the bank, while the following four digits identify the bank branch. This code helps banks to keep a
clear record of every online payment made towards tax. BSR system has metamorphosed into a
sound and comprehensive reporting system, generating a wide array of useful statistics.
Combined with bank branch statistics, it has supported the post-nationalisation expansion of the
Indian banking system. In October 2022, the BSR completed __ years of its existence. RBI had
organized an event to celebrate the anniversary.
(a) 50 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 30 years
(e) 15 years
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
In 2022, the Basic Statistical Return (BSR) system completed 50 years since its inception. To
commemorate this milestone, the RBI deputy governor delivered a speech at the conference on
‘BSR@50 organised in Mumbai. The exam of RBI Grade B 2023 Phase 1 took place on July 9,
2023. This question is stating that not only the six months prior to the exam but all the events and
initiatives of RBI which are in the news in the past one year are important.

Q.2)
As per the Annual Report of RBI (released in May 2023), the Reserve Bank successfully
completed the combined gross market borrowings of the central and the state governments to the
tune of Rs 21,79,392 crore during 2022-23, which was 19.2 per cent higher than the previous
year. During 2022-23, securities ranging from 2 to ____ years tenor (original maturity) were issued
with the objective of catering to the demand from various investors in different maturity buckets.
Floating Rate Bonds (FRBs) of 7-year and 13- year tenors (original maturity) were also reissued
during the year. The share of FRBs in total issuances during 2022-23 was 2.5 per cent as
compared to 7.8 per cent in the previous year.
(a) 20
(b) 15
(c) 30
(d) 40
(e) 10
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
Annual Report of RBI needs to be covered for RBI’s exam - this is something that goes without
saying. RBI is the regulator of banks in India. Therefore, you can expect questions from this report
in any kind of banking exam at any level - be it assistant, clerk, PO etc. Annual reports of the

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regulators (RBI, SEBI, NABARD, IRDAI, PFRDA, and IFSCA) are very crucial. They can be asked
in depth in any kind of exam.

Q.3)
The Global Gender Gap Index annually benchmarks the current state and evolution of gender
parity across four key dimensions (Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational
Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment). It is the longest-standing index
tracking the progress of numerous countries’ efforts towards closing these gaps over time since its
inception in 2006. This year, the 17th edition of the Global Gender Gap Index benchmarks gender
parity across 146 countries, providing a basis for robust cross-country analysis. Further, examining
a subset of 102 countries that have been included in every edition of the index since 2006
provides a large constant sample for time-series analysis. Which country achieved the full gender
parity in this year’s index?
(a) Norway
(b) Iceland
(c) Finland
(d) Denmark
(e) Sweden
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
This question is from the indices and reports topic, which is an integral part of your Phase 1 and
Phase 2 syllabus of RBI. Be prepared for such lengthy questions in future. Try to develop a fast-
reading habit.

Q.4)
Recently, a South American country conferred its highest civilian honour to President Droupadi
Murmu- The Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star, the first Indian to receive this award. The
country in question is a small country on the northeastern coast of South America. It's defined by
vast swaths of tropical rainforest, Dutch colonial architecture and a melting-pot culture. It is a
tropical country covered in rainforests. Its extensive tree cover is vital to the country's efforts to
mitigate climate change and maintain carbon negativity. Identify it.
(a) Guyana
(b) Brazil
(c) Suriname
(d) Chile
(e) Peru
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
This question is a very basic current affairs question. The President of our nation has received the
highest civilian honour of another country – a very expected question, isn’t it? The only challenge
here is that the question is lengthy and a little twisted with a lot of unnecessary information.
Therefore, I recommend all of you to read as much as you can to at least complete 65-70 such
long questions in 25 minutes.

Q.5)
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Towns of Export Excellence is a status provided to those towns which produce and export goods
worth a minimum value in a specific sector. Sectors include handicraft, handloom, seafood,
pharmaceutical, fisheries, apparels, coir, leather products etc. As per the Foreign Trade Policy,
towns that produce goods worth at least ____ can be recognized as towns of export excellence,
based on their growth potential for exports. However, for Town of Export Excellence (TEE) in
Handloom, Handicraft, Agriculture and Fisheries sector, the threshold limit is____.
(a) Rs 500 crore; Rs 100 crore
(b) Rs 250 crore; Rs 50 crore
(c) Rs 450 crore; Rs 150 crore
(d) Rs 900 crore; Rs 450 crore
(e) Rs 750 crores; Rs 150 crores
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
This question has been asked from the Foreign Trade Policy released in March 2023, w.e.f., 1st
April 2023. This question is an expected question. New towns of excellence were also announced
in this year’s policy and asking the criteria for this category is not a difficult or an unexpected
question. The lesson that all of you should learn is that prepare all the important reports, policy
frameworks, master directions released in the past one year from the date of examination.

Q.6)
According to reports, a trilateral highway connecting Kolkata to ___ will be built and available for
use in four years. Commerce ministers from numerous countries explored this possibility at a
recent meeting held by the Indian Chamber of Commerce (ICC) and the Ministry of External
Affairs (MEA). The highway has immense potential to promote tourism and cultural exchanges
among the countries it connects. This road will facilitate the exploration of historical landmarks and
cultural assets in the countries it connects. The trilateral highway project was first proposed and
approved at a ministerial meeting in April 2002. The 2,800-kilometre-long highway aimed at
boosting multilateral trade.
(a) Hanoi
(b) Bangkok
(c) Vientiane
(d) Naypyidaw
(e) Phnom Penh
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
The trilateral highway project was first proposed and approved at a ministerial meeting of India,
Myanmar and Thailand in April 2002. The highway will be connecting Kolkata to Bangkok via
Myanmar. This is also not an unexpected question. The RBI has developed a tendency to go
beyond the surface. Therefore, it asks the questions from the static initiatives (like this), macro-
economic developments, and overarching scenarios/topics. Try to cover every topic holistically.

Q.7)
During the visit of COP 26 President Hon’ble Alok Sharma to India on 21-22 July 2022, NITI
Aayog launched two significant initiatives, which are ____ mobile application to raise awareness
on electric mobility and the Report on Advanced Chemistry Cell Battery Reuse and Recycling
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Market in India. To bolster this low carbon infrastructure, NITI Aayog has been collaborating with
the UK Government in the areas of e-vehicles, charging infrastructure and battery storage. India is
the fifth largest and fastest growing vehicle market in the world, providing massive potential for
electric vehicle uptake. The shift to Zero Emission Vehicles (ZEVs) is well underway and
accelerating, creating 100,000s of new e-mobility jobs, driving down technology costs, ensuring
the air we breathe is cleaner and reducing our reliance on imported fuels.
(a) e-Amrit
(b) e-Change
(c) e-Speed
(d) e-Mile
(e) e-Run
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Again, the question has been asked from an initiative which has macro-economic implications.
India is working towards net zero-emissions, SDG attainment, energy transition, climate change
mitigation, and e-vehicles. Considering the focus of India, this question is relevant and not
unexpected. So, not only facts but do keep an eye on the policies of the govt which can become a
question in your exam (like this), even if the intiative or campaign was launched 2-3-5 years back,
doesn’t matter.

Q.8)
According to the Economic Survey of 2022-23, the Indian economy appears to have moved on
after its encounter with the pandemic, staging a full recovery in FY22 ahead of many nations and
positioning itself to ascend to the pre-pandemic growth path in FY23. Yet in the current year, India
has also faced the challenge of reining in inflation that the European strife accentuated. Measures
taken by the government and RBI, along with the easing of global commodity prices, have finally
managed to bring retail inflation below the RBI upper tolerance target in November 2022. Despite
these, agencies worldwide continue to project India as the fastest-growing major economy with a
growth rate falling in an average range of _____ and _____ for the year ending ___.
(a) 6.5-7.0 per cent; March 31, 2023
(b) 7.0-7.5 per cent; March 31, 2022
(c) 6.4-6.7 per cent; March 31, 2025
(d) 8.1-8.5 per cent; March 31, 2023
(e) 8.2-9.0 per cent; March 31, 2023
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
This question is from the latest Economic Survey. It is a very important topic of your current affairs
syllabus for almost every type of exam. So, in-depth coverage of such reports is important to clear
this exam.

Q.9)
Cruise tourism has seen an immense surge in recent years in India and worldwide. Seeing the
potential of this sector, India, on June 5, inaugurated its first international cruise vessel, ____.
Flagged off from _____ to Sri Lanka, the cruise will cover three ports during the 5-day cruise. This
also means that Indians no longer need to go abroad to board a ship to get international cruise
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experience. Inaugurating the cruise, Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways Sarbananda
Sonowal called it a historic step for the maritime sector, adding that the initiative will further boost
tourism and generate employment.
(a) MV Kirpan; Bengaluru
(b) MV Empress; Chennai
(c) MV Imperial Blue; Mysore
(d) MV Neon; Mumbai
(e) MV Prestige; Surat
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
On the World Environment Day on June 5, 2023, India has launched its first international cruise.
The exam was held on July 9, 2023. One month prior to the exam date, this news came out. All
the news coming in the 4 months prior to the exam become very important.

Q.10)
TRAI in its endeavour to curb menace of spams through Unsolicited Commercial Communication
(UCC) has taken various measures in recent past such as cleaning data in respect of PE Headers
and message content templates, tagging variables in message content templates etc. In
continuation of above actions, TRAI has now issued a Direction to all the Access Providers to
develop and deploy the DCA facility for creating a unified platform and process to register
customers consent digitally across all service providers and Principal Entities. What is the full form
of DCA?
(a) Digital Content Amalgamation
(b) Demand-based Content Acquisition
(c) Derivative Consent Acquiring
(d) Digital Consent Acquisition
(e) Digital Content Admission
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
This news also came out in June 2023. That’s why it has been asked in RBI’s exam. In such type
of guidance or policies, in-depth coverage is not required because telecom sector is not
mainstream to the RBI’s working. Therefore, you can just cover the main points of such guidelines.
These guidelines were entirely focused on DCA facilities.

Q.11)
Mr. Girish Chandra Murmu, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), has been re-
elected as External Auditor of the ______ for a ____ year term. CAG’s appointment is a
recognition of its standing among the international community as well as its professionalism, high
standards, global audit experience and strong national credentials. This is the second major
international audit assignment for the CAG this year following his selection for the post of External
Auditor (2024-2027) of International Labour Organization (ILO) in Geneva earlier this year in
March 2023.
(a) International organization for migrants; 2 years
(b) World Bank; 2 years
(c) World Health Organization; 4 years
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(d) International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions; 5 years

(e) FATF; 2 years
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
This is a May 2023 news. Often students ignore the appointments, awards, sports, and
miscellaneous sections of the Spotlight magazine, which, in my opinion, is a very big mistake an
aspirant commit. The consequence is in front of you, in the form of this question. So, for every type
of exam, the recommendation is to cover these sections thoroughly. They are equally important as
the international, national, banking news sections.

Q.12)
According to Morgan Stanley, India is already the fastest-growing economy in the world with three
megatrends in the country, global offshoring, digitalization, and energy transition putting the
country on the path to unprecedented economic growth and that India will be one of only three
economies in the world that can generate more than $400 billion annual economic output growth
from 2023 onward which will rise to more than $500 billion after 2028. In light of this, India’s
participation in various international forums renders an opportunity to the South Asian nation to put
forth its interest and participate in the decision-making processes of these forums. India is a
member of various international organizations; it is still endeavouring to become member of other
forums. Name the forum which does not have India as its member.
(a) SAARC
(b) IPEF
(c) SCO
(d) OECD
(e) WEF
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
This is a static GK question. Just knowing the total number of countries of international and
regional organizations would not serve your purpose now. You also have to look for India’s
membership and role in the international organizations.

Q.13)
According to the data collated by Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT),
incentives have been given to PLI beneficiaries of the 14 sectors. Of the 14 sectors, only 8 have
performed well and six have not. Which is not amongst six non-performing sectors?
(a) Telecommunications
(b) Steel
(c) Textile
(d) White Goods
(e) Battery
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
According to data collated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT),
incentives have been given to PLI beneficiaries in eight of the 14 sectors — mobile manufacturing,

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information technology (IT) hardware, pharmaceutical drug, bulk drug, medical device,
telecommunications, food product, and drone.
Progress has been sluggish for the remaining six sectors — steel, textile, battery, white goods,
solar photovoltaic, and automotive — and are yet to receive incentives.
This question is from the govt schemes. The news article was published in June 2023. Hence, it
has all the reasons to be a part of your question paper. Not only the basics about the scheme but
the current news about it should also be covered by you.

Q.14)
What makes a country worth living is not just economic hegemony and achievements of the state,
it is the wealth of the culture of the people, accumulated over centuries of wisdom about how to
conduct life. The ancient Indian civilisation is the source of all the extensions of what we call as the
Indian subcontinent. The geographic spread covered under this banner stretches far towards the
Gulf on one side and towards the expanse of Indo-Pacific on the other. In the present scenario,
countries like India and China are jostling for influence over the ports and island nations of the
Indian Ocean. The pivot of a major chunk of economics in the extended neighbourhood is the
Indian Ocean because many resources like oil, gas, raw materials and goods pass through it.
Over a period of time, for political, economic and security reasons, various blocks and groupings
were formed for cooperation on several fronts. The two main groupings we have in the Indo-
Pacific region are ASEAN and BIMSTEC. Which of the following countries are common members
of these two regional blocs?
(1) Thailand
(2) Cambodia
(3) Myanmar
(4) Laos
(5) Vietnam
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) 3 and 4 Only
(e) 4 and 5 Only
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
Again, a question from the static GK and, that too, from international/regional organizations. This
topic is also important for the Phase 2 ESI paper. Although, RBI has created an ESI-level question
in the Phase 1 only. Nevertheless, cover the international and regional organizations thoroughly,
especially those which are in news.

Q.15)
Since the implementation of monetary policy framework in 2016, the inflation rate has crossed
upper threshold limit various times. The RBI informs central government if the inflation rate
crosses upper threshold limit of ……………….. for ………………… quarters?
(a) 4%, 2 Quarters
(b) 6%, 3 Quarters
(c) 3%, 2 Quarters
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(d) 5%, 3 Quarters

(e) 6%, 2 Quarters
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
This question highlights the need for you to dig deep into the functioning of RBI.

Q.16)
Major private sector banks continued to expand branch network in the financial year ended March
2023, while public sector banks (PSB) saw a decline in number of branches. Which of the
following scheduled commercial banks has the highest increase in the number of branches in FY
2022-23?
(a) Kotak Mahindra
(b) ICICI
(c) HDFC
(d) Bandhan Bank
(e) SBI
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
1st - Largest private lender HDFC Bank added nearly 1,500 branches, closing the year with over
7,800, making it the largest number of new branch additions by a scheduled commercial bank in
the country.
2nd – Axis Bank had 4,903 domestic branches as on March 2023, compared to 4,758 in the year-
ago period. (Addition of 200 branches approx.)
3rd – State Bank of India added only 139 new branches during the last financial year. As of March
2023, SBI had 22,405 branches, compared to 22,266 in the year-ago period.
As per RBI data, the number of public sector bank branches has been decreasing steadily in
recent years while it is increasing for private banks. From 87,892 in March 2020, the number of
PSB branches fell to 86,311 in FY21 and 84, 258 in FY22. On the other hand, the number of
private bank branches increased from 34,794 in FY20 to 37,872 in FY23.

Q.17)
The Digital Payment Index (DPI) is a metric used to measure the adoption and growth of digital
payments within a country. It provides an assessment of the digital payment ecosystem, taking
into account various parameters such as the number of digital transactions, the value of digital
payments, the availability of digital payment infrastructure, and the level of consumer awareness
and confidence in using digital payment methods. What is the base period of the digital payment
index?
(a) March 2018
(b) March 2017
(c) September 2018
(d) September 2017
(e) March 2019
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
The base period is March 2018.
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Q.18)
RBI has been organizing various public awareness campaigns for promoting financial literacy and
safe banking practices. Which of the following mascots are used by RBI for public awareness
campaigns?
1) Money Kumar
2) Ms. Money
3) Mr. Money
4) Mrs. Paisa
5) Ms. Paisa
(a) Only 1 and 4
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 2
(e) Only 3 and 4
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
Again, a question from RBI’s functioning. This is taken from the Annual Report of RBI.

Q.19)
e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying
any consignment of goods of value exceeding ______ as mandated by the Government in terms
of section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act read with rule 138 of the rules framed
thereunder. It is generated from the GST Common Portal by the registered persons or transporters
who causes movement of goods of consignment before commencement of such movement.
(a) 25000
(b) 50000
(c) 12500
(d) 75000
(e) 35000
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
This is an important banking and economy section question. You should cover all such news
thoroughly.

Q.20)
According to union budget 2023-24, 50-years interest free loans is given to states for
……………… In budget 2023-24, the total amount sanctioned has been increased to Rs.1.3 Lakh
Crores from ………………… in the previous year.
(a) CAPEX, 1 Lakh Crore
(b) Investment, 50K Crore
(c) Subsidy, 1 Lakh Crore
(d) Credit Guarantee, 35000 Crore
(e) CAPEX, 50000 Crore
Answer – (a)
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Explanation –
Union Budget is an integral part of the syllabus. Cover it thoroughly for every phase of the exam.

Q.21)
Finastra has partnered with a bank to support the latter’s new integrated corporate banking portal,
‘FYN’, using Finastra’s Unified Corporate Portal solution. The Unified Corporate Portal harnesses
the power of Finastra’s Corporate Channels framework, enabling banks to build a seamless
experience for their corporate clients spanning account services, payments, trade, supply chain
finance and lending. Banks can unify data across multiple, product-specific portals and back-office
systems to create a single view of transactions, positions and balances, enabling self-service and
driving operational efficiency. The data is presented via persona-based dashboards, with insightful
widgets and the ability for users to tailor their experience. Which bank has launched this ‘FYN’
portal?
(a) HDCF
(b) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(c) Bandhan Bank
(d) ICICI
(e) SBI
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
Bank-related detail questions are usually asked in this exam. So, remember major portals of the
banks. This news was released in October 2022.

Q.22)
Prudential guidelines aim to address credit risk concentration in non-banking financial companies
(NBFCs). These guidelines focus on identifying and managing large exposures, which refer to the
sum of all exposure values of an NBFC-UL (an NBFC placed in the upper layer) to a counterparty
or group of connected counterparties. The guidelines outline the limits on exposure of Non-
Banking Financial Companies – Upper Layer (NBFC-UL) to single counterparties and groups of
connected counterparties. For single counterparties, the sum of all exposure values of an NBFC-
UL must not be higher than ___ percent of the NBFC-UL’s eligible capital base at all times.
(a) 15%
(b) 8%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
(e) 12%
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
This is from the policy guidelines of RBI for NBFCs. Do cover all the policy guidelines, circulars,
and master directions of RBI released in the last one year for both the phases.

Q.23)
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and an e-commerce platform have signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to combine strengths and create synergy between the two
organizations for guiding farmers on scientific cultivation of different crops for optimum yield and
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income. Under the MoU, ICAR will provide technological backstopping to the farmers through the
network of the e-commerce platform. This will help improve farmers' livelihood and boost crop
yield. Identify the platform.
(a) Amazon
(b) Flipkart
(c) Reliance
(d) Snap Deal
(e) E-Biz
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Such type of news is covered in the Spotlight magazine. MOUs are also important and this
question is evidence of it. So, cover the MOUs as well.

Q.24)
The European Central Bank (ECB) is the central bank for the eurozone, the group of nineteen
countries who use the euro common currency. Its mandate is to maintain price stability by setting
key interest rates and controlling the union’s money supply. The 1992 Maastricht Treaty created
the European System of Central Banks (ESCB), which comprises the ECB and the twenty-eight
national central banks of the European Union (EU), including those from countries that do not use
the euro. Under the ESCB sits the Euro system, which comprises the ECB and the national central
banks of eurozone countries. The ECB took over responsibility for monetary policy in the euro
area in 1999, two years before the euro was introduced into circulation. Recently, the ECB, which
is headquartered in ___, celebrated its ___ anniversary.
(a) Geneva, 50th
(b) Lyon, 25th
(c) Frankfurt, 25th
(d) Madrid, 75th
(e) Barcelona, 60th
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
Established: 1 June 1998
Location: Frankfurt (Germany)
Again, a question from the international organization. Since, it was in news due to its anniversary,
that’s why, this question has been asked.

Q.25)
A bull market is a period of time in financial markets when the price of an asset or security rises
continuously. The commonly accepted definition of a bull market is when stock prices rise by 20%.
Traders employ a variety of strategies, such as increased buy and hold and retracement, to profit
off bull markets. The opposite of a bull market is a bear market, when prices trend downward.
Recently, the Indian stock market also witnessed a bull run, whereby an Indian company’s stock
price per share has crossed the Rs 1 Lakh valuation, for the first time in the history of Indian stock
market. Identify the company.
(a) Titan
(b) Reliance
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(c) Adani
(d) HDFC
(e) MRF
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
Economy related news are always asked in this exam. This news was published in June 2023.

Q.26)
The goals and vision of the RBI are categorized in the Payments Vision 2025 documents into five
anchor goalposts – Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalization and Internationalization. The
theme of Payment Vision 2025 was “E-Payments for …………………., Everywhere and
………………”
(a) Everyone, Every time
(b) Every time, Everyone
(c) Everyday, Everyone
(d) Every day, Every year
(e) Every Year, Every Day
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
The Vision document was released in Jan 2023. It is one of the key documents released by RBI.
Therefore, you should cover all such documents of RBI.

Q.27)
In June 2023, a financial inclusion dashboard named ‘Antardrishti’ was launched. The dashboard,
as its name suggests, provides the necessary knowledge to evaluate and track the development
of financial inclusion by recording relevant data. This tool also makes it possible to assess the
degree of financial exclusion at a local level across the nation so that such places may be
addressed. Which of the following organizations has launched the dashboard?
(a) NABARD
(b) RBI
(c) SIDBI
(d) SEBI
(e) NHB
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
This is also a very easy (if we ignore the length of the question) and expected question. In June
month only, RBI had launched this initiative.

Q.28)
El Niño and La Niña are opposite phases of what is known as the El Niño-Southern Oscillation
(ENSO) cycle. Indian Ocean ________, sometimes referred to as the Indian Nino, is similar to the
El Nino phenomenon, occurring in the relatively smaller area of the Indian Ocean between the
Indonesian and Malaysian coastline in the east and the African coastline near Somalia in the west.
(a) Current
(b) Dipole
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(c) Springs
(d) Nino
(e) Nina
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between
two areas (or poles, hence a dipole) – a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean)
and an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. The IOD affects the climate
of Australia and other countries that surround the Indian Ocean Basin, and is a significant
contributor to rainfall variability in this region. Lately, questions from geography have become a
favourite of RBI. So, keep a track over news related to countries’ geographies and basic
geography facts.

Q.29)
The Union Minister Education, Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, Shri Dharmendra
Pradhan released the India Rankings 2023 in June 2023. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with respect to the NIRF rankings?
(a) Indian Institute of Technology Madras retains its 1st position in Overall Category for fifth
consecutive year
(b) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru tops the Universities Category
(c) All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi occupies the top slot in Medical
(d) National Law School of India University, Bengaluru retains its first position in Law
(e) St. Stephens is the best college among all colleges
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
This is from the indices and reports topic. It is very important and needs to be covered.

Q.30)
The Reserve Bank of India publishes half-yearly reports on management of foreign exchange
reserves as part of its efforts towards enhanced transparency and levels of disclosure. These
reports are prepared half yearly with reference to the position as at end-March and end-
September each year. The present report (40th in the series) is with reference to the position as at
end-March 2023. Among other topics, the report identifies the risks associated with the
deployment of foreign exchange reserves. Identify the risk which affect the forex deployment.
1) Operational
2) Internal
3) Market
4) Currency
5) Liquidity
(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 2, 3, and 5
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 3 and 4
(e) 1, 3, 4, and 5
Answer – (e)
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Explanation –
The report “Half Yearly Report on Management of Foreign Exchange Reserves (October 2022 -
March 2023)” was released in the month of May 2023. The risks on deployment of forex reserves
include credit risk, market risk, liquidity risk and operational risk and the systems.

Q.31)
Which of the following companies’ majority of assets under management (AUM) are invested in
central government securities, followed by equities and state government securities? Out of the
total, 37.45 percent, or Rs 14.81 trillion are invested in central government securities as of
September. Around 24.77 percent of the AUM, or Rs 9.80 trillion, have been invested in equities
as of September while in FY21 total equity investment was worth Rs 7.97 trillion, or 21.67 percent
of its total AUM.
(a) LIC
(b) NHB
(c) SIDBI
(d) SBI
(e) HDFC
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
This information was revealed in the draft red herring prospectus of LIC (submitted in February
2022).

Q.32)
Foreign Trade Policy (2023) is a policy document which is based on continuity of time-tested
schemes facilitating exports as well as a document which is nimble and responsive to the
requirements of trade. It is based on principles of 'trust' and 'partnership' with exporters. Which of
the following are the Pillars of India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023?
1) Incentives to Remission
2) Export promotion through collaboration
3) Ease of Doing Business
4) Emerging areas
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 1, 2 and 4
(e) Only 1, 2 and 3
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
FTP is an important policy document. The question is easy because it is not an in-depth question
as such.

Q.33)
Under SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, Mutual Funds are permitted to charge certain
operating expenses for managing a mutual fund scheme – such as sales & marketing / advertising
expenses, administrative expenses, transaction costs, investment management fees, registrar
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fees, custodian fees, audit fees – as a percentage of the fund’s daily net assets. All such costs for
running and managing a mutual fund scheme are collectively referred to as ‘Total Expense Ratio’
(TER). It is calculated as a percentage of scheme’s average ………………….?
(a) Net Asset Value
(b) Net owned fund
(c) Liabilities
(d) Operational Expenses
(e) Investment
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
The question is again forcing you to go into the depth of the news and understand the static
concept/mechanism behind the news or topic.

Q.34)
Household savings play a vital role in India's financial sector for multiple reasons. Firstly, they
provide a stable and reliable source of funds for the banking sector. Banks utilize these savings as
deposits, which they can lend to businesses and individuals, promoting economic activities and
investments. Secondly, household savings contribute to the overall liquidity and stability of the
financial system, reducing the dependence on external sources of funding. The accumulation of
household savings can lead to increased domestic savings rates, which is vital for reducing
reliance on foreign capital and achieving sustainable economic development. The Annual Report
of the RBI describes the landscape of the household sector’s savings in detail. Which of the
following financial instruments constituted the highest share in the household sector’s savings in
2022-23?
(a) Currency
(b) Deposits
(c) Shares and Debentures
(d) Insurance Funds
(e) Provident and Pension funds
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
As per the Annual Report, the distribution of the household savings is given below.

Q.35)
CBDC has the potential to bring significant changes to the economy and the financial sector. It can
enhance financial inclusion by providing access to digital payment services for unbanked
populations. Additionally, CBDCs can streamline payment systems, reduce transaction costs,
increase transparency, and enable central banks to implement monetary policies more effectively.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding pilot launch of CBDC in India?
(a) Pilot of whole sale segment was launched on 1st December 2022
(b) Pilot of whole sale segment was launched on 1st November 2022
(c) Pilot of both whole sale and retail segment was launched on 1st December 2022
(d) Pilot of retail segment was launched on 1st January 2023
(e) Pilot of retail segment was launched on 1st November 2022
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Answer – (b)
Explanation –
Again, all the decisions which can have macro-economic or pan-India implications are important
for this exam.

Q.36)
Small savings schemes are of significant importance in India due to several reasons. They
promote a savings culture among individuals, fostering financial stability. These schemes offer
safe and accessible investment options, especially for small investors in rural and semi-urban
areas. Additionally, they provide attractive interest rates and secure returns, making them a
popular choice for risk-averse investors. Which of the following small savings scheme is providing
highest interest rate (8.2%) for quarter starting from 1st July and ending on 30th September?
(a) Senior Citizen Savings Scheme
(b) Kisan Vikas Patra
(c) National Savings Certificate
(d) PPF
(e) Post office time deposit
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
The rates were updated on June 30, 2023. The rates of the highest paying schemes are –

Q.37)
MAVEN is a NASA spacecraft orbiting Mars to study the loss of that planet's atmospheric gases to
space, providing insight into the history of the planet's climate and water. What does “V” stand for
in MAVEN?
(a) Visible
(b) Viable
(c) Volatile
(d) Visibility
(e) Volatility
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
MAVEN (Mars Atmosphere and Volatile EvolutioN) mission was launched in November 2013 and
entered Mars’ orbit in September 2014. The mission’s goal is to explore the planet’s upper
atmosphere, ionosphere, and interactions with the Sun and solar wind to explore the loss of the
Martian atmosphere to space. It was in news in the month of June 2023.

Q.38)
The Atlantic Declaration and accompanying Action Plan form the basis of a new type of innovative
partnership across the full spectrum of ___ and ___ counties’ economic, technological,
commercial and trade relations; a first of its kind, and which demands the joint leadership and
imagination to realize in full. It will constitute a new economic security framework covering ever-
closer cooperation on critical and emerging technologies and stronger protective toolkits. And it
will also strengthen our alliance across defense, science, health security, and space.
(a) USA and UK
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(b) Netherlands and USA

(c) USA and India
(d) Australia and USA
(e) Australia and Japan
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
This is also a June 2023 news.

Q.39)
Net Owned Funds (NOF) is a term commonly used in the context of financial institutions,
particularly non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) in India. It refers to the difference between
the total assets and the outside liabilities of an institution. In simple terms, NOF represents the net
worth or capital of the financial institution, including the shareholders' equity and accumulated
reserves. It indicates the financial strength and stability of the institution and is an important
parameter for regulatory compliance and risk assessment. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had
fixed the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) size for housing finance companies to ___?
(a) 25 Crores
(b) 50 Crores
(c) 100 Crores
(d) 100 Lakhs
(e) 25 Lakhs
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
This guideline was released in October 2020. As per the guidelines, the housing finance
companies (HFCs) holding a Certificate of Registration (CoR) and having an NOF of less than Rs
25 crore will be required to achieve NOF of Rs 15 crore by March 31, 2022 and Rs 25 crore by
March 31, 2023. Since, the date of effect was March 2023, that’s why, this question has been
asked from you.

Q.40)
B20 refers to the Business 20, which is an engagement group that brings together business
leaders from the G20 member countries. It serves as a platform for dialogue between the business
community and G20 policymakers to discuss global economic challenges and provide
recommendations for policy formulation. The B20 plays a crucial role in representing the interests
of the private sector and providing valuable insights on key issues such as trade, investment,
infrastructure, digitalization, and sustainable development. Who chaired the B20 grouping under
India’s G20 Presidency?
(a) Mukesh Ambani
(b) Suresh Kotak
(c) N. Chandrasekharan
(d) Anil Pradhan
(e) Amitabh Bhattacharya
Answer – (c)
Explanation –

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Although the news of appointment was in December, the meetings of B20 took place in the later
months. Hence, this question is neither difficult nor unexpected.

Q.41)
Union Cabinet has approved constitution and empowerment of Inter-Ministerial Committee under
the Chairpersonship of Minister of Cooperation for facilitation of the “World’s Largest Grain
Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector”. This facilitation will be achieved by convergence of various
schemes of which of the following ministries?
1) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
2) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
3) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
4) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
5) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 Only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 Only
(d) 2, 3 and 5 Only
(e) 1, 3 and 5 Only
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
This question is from the May 2023 news. Again, an expected and easy question, keeping aside
the length.

Q.42)
The significant expansion of digital lending in India drove RBI to issue the Digital Lending
guidelines (DL guidelines) in September 2022. The DL guidelines struck a balance between the
need for an innovative and inclusive system of lending and protecting the customer’s interest. The
DL guidelines focused on three main areas: Customer protection and conduct requirements;
Technology and data requirement; and Regulatory framework. Now, in 2023, the RBI has released
the guidelines on DLG in digital lending. Identify the correct statement with regards to the DLG
guidelines.
1) RBI has allowed default loss guarantee (DLG) arrangement among banks, NBFCs, and lending
service providers in the digital lending space
2) The FLDG is an arrangement whereby a third party such as a financial technology (fintech)
player (LSP) compensates lenders if the borrower defaults.
3) The RBI has allowed banks to accept DLG in digital lending only if the guarantee is in the form
of a cash deposit, or fixed deposits in a bank with a lien in favour of the RE, or a bank guarantee in
favour of the RE.
4) Banks and NBFCs should ensure that the total amount of DLG cover on any outstanding
portfolio does not exceed 5% of the amount of that loan portfolio.
5) The guidelines segregate the entities working in the digital lending sector into five categories
based on their FLDG exposures.
(a) Only 1, 2 and 5
(b) Only 2, 4, and 5
(c) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
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(d) Only 2, 4 and 5

(e) Only 1, 3, 4, and 5
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
The fifth statement is wrong. No such information was unveiled in the guidelines.

Q.43)
As per the RBI’s Annual Report, _____ witnessed an improvement, reflecting the higher degree of
transmission of monetary policy to lending rates than to deposit rates in the rising interest rate
cycle.
(a) CASA
(b) LCR
(c) PCR
(d) CRAR
(e) NIM
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
The Net Interest Margin is the correct answer.

Q.44)
Macroeconomic indicators are of utmost importance as they serve as essential barometers for
understanding the overall economic health and performance of a country. These indicators, such
as GDP growth rate, inflation rate, unemployment rate, and trade balance, provide valuable
insights into the state of the economy, helping policymakers and analysts make informed
decisions. In this regard, the Reserve Bank has been conducting the survey of professional
forecasters (SPF) on macroeconomic indicators since September 2007. The latest survey has
kept the real gross domestic product (GDP) growth forecast for 2023-24 has been retained at
____ per cent; it is expected to grow by ____ per cent in 2024-25.
(a) 6% and 6.4%
(b) 5.7% and 6.2%
(c) 4.9% and 7.2%
(d) 7% and 6.4%
(e) 6.9% and 7.3%
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
The responses, for 82nd round of the survey, were received during May 13-June 2, 2023, wherein
thirty-nine panellists participated. This is again from RBI’s recent reports.

Q.45)
The legislative assembly holds immense importance in a federal structure as it serves as a
representative body that reflects the will and aspirations of the people within a particular state or
region. Through elected representatives, it provides a platform for citizens to voice their concerns
and interests, ensuring their representation in the decision-making process. The legislative
assembly plays a crucial role in enacting laws and regulations, which govern various aspects of
the state or region. It acts as a forum for debates and discussions, facilitating the formulation of
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policies that address the diverse needs and challenges faced by the population. Which state’s
term of legislative assembly will not end till January 2024?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana
(e) Telangana
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
The scope of RBI’s exam is increasing. Questions picked up from elections, constitution, and
sometimes, acts are asked. Keep a tight watch over the news. Many states are going to witness
elections in end of this year.

Q.46)
NHB RESIDEX, India’s first official housing price index, was an initiative of the National Housing
Bank (NHB) undertaken at the behest of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. The index
was formulated under the guidance of a Technical Advisory Committee (TAC) comprising of
stakeholders from the housing market. The scope has been widened under NHB RESIDEX brand,
to include housing price indices (HPI), land price indices (LPI) and building materials price indices
(BMPI), and also housing rental index (HRI). What is the latest base year for calculating the
housing price index?
(a) 2015-16
(b) 2008-09
(c) 2012-13
(d) 2011-12
(e) 2017-18
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
With effect from April 2018, a new series with FY2017-18 as new base year has been published
and is updated up to the current quarter. This question is a little bit unexpected. Although, this
index is released periodically.

Q.47)
Planned urbanization is necessary to accommodate population growth, promote economic
development, and ensure sustainable and inclusive cities. It allows for efficient allocation of
resources, proper infrastructure, and improved quality of life for urban residents. Without planned
urbanization, cities can face challenges such as overcrowding, inadequate services, and
environmental degradation. In this regard, the Government of India has launched a host of
schemes to work towards planned urbanization. Identify the schemes which were launched, in this
regard, in the year 2015.
1) AMRUT
2) Smart Cities
3) PMAY-Urban
4) Swachh Bharat Mission
5) DAY-NULM
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(a) Only 1, 2, and 3

(b) Only 2, 4, and 5
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 5
(e) Only 2, 3, and 5
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
A basic question from schemes has been asked.

Q.48)
Recently, the capital markets regulator Sebi proposed to tweak the current definition of
unpublished price sensitive information (UPSI) to bring regulatory certainty and uniformity in
compliance for the listed companies in respect of the identification of certain events as UPSI. The
regulator suggested that the current definition of UPSI be amended, and the disclosures as
required under Regulation 30 of LODR (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) be
brought under it. Which of the following information will be deemed as ‘material information’ once
the regulation 30 of LODR is applied on UPSI?
1) merger and acquisition
2) fraud or default by promoters
3) change in director and key managerial personnel
4) board meeting pertaining to dividends and financial results
5) initiation of forensic auditing
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
(d) Only 1, 2, 3, and 4
(e) Only 2, 3, and 4
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
This consultation paper was released in May 2023. The question is in-depth. Policies of the
regulators need to be covered thoroughly.

Q.49)
Indian-origin professor Joyeeta Gupta is among the two scientists who have been named for the
prestigious Spinoza Prize, also known as the Dutch Nobel Prize, given by the Dutch Research
Council. Gupta, the faculty professor of Sustainability and professor of Environment and
Development in the Global South at the University of Amsterdam, received the prize for her
outstanding, pioneering, and inspiring scientific work in which she focuses on a just and
sustainable world. Name the award.
(a) Spinoza Prize
(b) Wolf Prize
(c) Breakthrough Prize
(d) Fields Medal
(e) Turing Award
Answer – (a)
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Explanation –
The news was released in June 2023.

Q.50)
The 2023 Malaysia Masters was a badminton tournament that took place at the Axiata Arena,
Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, from 23 to 28 May 2023 and had a total prize of US $420,000. What is
the category of this tournament?
(a) Super 500
(b) Super 1000
(c) Super 750
(d) Super 300
(e) Super 100
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Again, a question from the May 2023 news.

Q.51)
FSSAI has developed State Food Safety Index to measure the performance of states on various
parameters of Food Safety. This index is based on performance of State/ UT on five significant
parameters, namely, Human Resources and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing –
Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training & Capacity Building and Consumer Empowerment. The
Index is a dynamic quantitative and qualitative benchmarking model that provides an objective
framework for evaluating food safety across all States/UTs. Name the top 3 states in the larger
category in this index.
(a) Tamil Nadu, Odisha, and Haryana
(b) Haryana, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujarat, Assam, and Maharashtra
(d) Kerala, Punjab, and Tamil Nadu
(e) Maharashtra, Telangana, and Karnataka
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
This index was released prior to the exam date. This is a part of the indices and reports topic.

Q.52)
The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(MoSPI) published the Provisional Estimates (PE) of National Income for 2022- 23 and Quarterly
Estimates of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for the quarter January-March of 2022-23 (Q4 2022-
23). What is the share of agriculture and allied sector in the Gross Value Added of the entire
country in 2022-23?
(a) 2.3%
(b) 4%
(c) 5.4%
(d) 3.8%
(e) 8.1%
Answer – (b)
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Explanation –
This was released in May 2023.

Q.53)
India’s Services exports set a new record of USD 254.4 Billion in the financial year 2021-2022.
The new record achieved in 2021-22 beats the previous high of USD 213.2 Billion in 2019-20.
Also, Services exports hit an all-time monthly high of USD 26.9 Billion in March 2022. Which of the
following is the top contributor in Services exports during April-December 2021?
(a) Telecommunications
(b) Business Process Outsourcing
(c) Freight
(d) Air transport
(e) Travel
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Telecommunications, computer, and information services, other business services and Transport
are the top contributors in Services exports during April-December 2021. This is an unexpected
question because the data is quite old. There are one or two questions which are out of context.

Q.54)
According to the data released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(DPIIT), the foreign direct equity investments into India in fiscal 2023 shrank 21.67% from the
previous year to $46.03 billion. The FDI equity inflows were $58.77 in 2021-22. Which are top
three source countries of FDI for India?
(a) Singapore, Mauritius, and US
(b) Ireland, UK, and Denmark
(c) UK, Saudi Arabia, and Oman
(d) UAE, Mauritius, and Cayman Islands
(e) US, Ireland, and Cayman Islands
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Singapore emerged as the top investor with $17.2 billion in FDI in the fiscal year, followed by
Mauritius at $6.1 billion and the US at $6.04 billion.

Q.55)
The Twenty Points Program was a significant policy initiative introduced by the Government of
India in 1975. It aimed to address various socio-economic challenges and promote social justice
and equality. The program included twenty specific points that covered a wide range of areas,
including agriculture, industry, employment, education, housing, and healthcare. Some key
objectives of the program were to alleviate poverty, reduce income inequalities, provide
employment opportunities, improve access to basic amenities, and empower marginalized
sections of society. Recently, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
has released the latest progress report of the Twenty Points Program. Of the 14 parameters
tracked quarterly under the Twenty Point Programme, the government achieved a more than ____
percent target completion ("very good") in six parameters.
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(a) 90%
(b) 70%
(c) 65%
(d) 40%
(e) 55%
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
The news was published in May 2023.

Q.56)
Sovereign Gold Bonds are the government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are
substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds
will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of
Government of India. The quantity of gold for which the investor pays is protected, since he
receives the ongoing market price at the time of redemption/ premature redemption. Identify the
incorrect statement regarding the SGB scheme.
(a) Person resident in India as defined under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 are
eligible to invest in SGB
(b) Eligible investors include individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions
(c) An investor/trust can buy 4 Kg/20 Kg worth of gold every year as the ceiling has been fixed on
a fiscal year (April-March) basis.
(d) The Bonds bear interest at the rate of 5.50 per cent (fixed rate) per annum on the amount of
initial investment.
(e) Bonds are sold through offices or branches of Nationalised Banks, Scheduled Private Banks,
Scheduled Foreign Banks, designated Post Offices, Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd.
(SHCIL) and the authorised stock exchanges either directly or through their agents
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
The interest rate is 2.5%.

Q.57)
Which of the following organization celebrates its foundation day on July 1st?
(a) ICAI
(b) ICAR
(c) ICSI
(d) IARI
(e) IRRI
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
ICAI celebrates its foundation day on July 1st.

Q.58)
The US is set to rejoin ______ after a four-year absence from the global body that the country
abandoned during the Donald Trump presidency over what his administration called “anti-Israeli
bias”. The US has left the organization in 2018.
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(a) IMF
(b) World Bank
(c) UNESCO
(d) WEF
(e) WIPO
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
US will join UNESCO.

Q.59)
A petaflop is a unit of measurement used to quantify the processing speed of a computer or
supercomputer. It represents one quadrillion floating-point operations per second (FLOPS). In
simple terms, a petaflop means a computer or supercomputer can perform one quadrillion
calculations or mathematical operations in a single second. It is a measure of computational power
and represents a significant milestone in the advancement of technology and computing
capabilities. Supercomputers that can achieve petaflop speeds are capable of tackling complex
scientific simulations, data analysis, and high-performance computing tasks that require massive
computational power. What is the numerical representation of a petaflop?
(a) 10^10
(b) 10^5
(c) 10^15
(d) 10^12
(e) 10^9
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
One petaFLOPS is equal to 1,000,000,000,000,000 (one quadrillion) FLOPS, or one thousand
teraFLOPS.

Q.60)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi in May 2023 released a special commemorative Rs 75 coin to mark
the inauguration of the new parliament building at the inauguration event held at the Lok Sabha
chamber. Commemorative coins are often released to commemorate significant events and
showcase unique designs that reflect the occasion they represent. These coins hold great value
for coin collectors, serving as treasured collectables. This coin is a made up of an alloy of four
different metals. Which of the following is not among its constituent metals?
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Zinc
(d) Nickel
(e) Copper
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
This is again an expected question.

Q.61)
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The National Pension Scheme (NPS) is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme introduced
by the Government of India. It is designed to provide individuals with a sustainable income after
retirement. The scheme is open to both the employed and self-employed segments of the
population and offers two types of accounts: Tier-I and Tier-II. The NPS has gained popularity due
to its transparent and regulated framework, low-cost structure, and potential for wealth
accumulation over the long term. It provides individuals with a systematic and structured approach
to retirement planning, promoting financial security and independence during their post-
employment years. As per the Economic Survey of 2022-23, the average monthly net
subscriptions increased from 61.9 thousand in 2021 to ____ thousand in 2022 for the April-
October period.
(a) 71.8
(b) 63.2
(c) 45.9
(d) 55.7
(e) 89.6
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
This question is again from the Economic Survey.

Q.62)
Foreign reserves, also known as foreign exchange reserves or forex reserves, are assets held by
a country's central bank, typically in the form of foreign currencies and other internationally
accepted instruments. These reserves play a crucial role in maintaining economic stability and
safeguarding a nation's financial system. India’s forex reserves comprise of gold, foreign currency,
reserve tranche, and special drawing rights. Where is the 437-metric tonne gold held overseas by
RBI?
1) Bank of England
2) Bank of international settlement
3) Federal reserve
4) European Central Bank
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
(e) 1 and 3
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
This news article was released in May 2023.

Q.63)
To facilitate transparency and informed decision-making among the investors, markets regulator
Sebi mandated additional requirements for the issuance and listing of ____ bonds. This is one of
the sub-categories of 'green debt security'. These bonds are generally used for raising funds for
transitioning to a more sustainable form of operations in line with India's intended nationally
determined contributions.
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(a) masala
(b) transition
(c) muni
(d) agency
(e) convertible
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
In May 2023, SEBI mandated additional requirements for the issuance and listing of transition
bonds.

Q.64)
NBFC-MFI stands for Non-Banking Financial Company-Microfinance Institution. It refers to a type
of financial institution that operates as a non-bank entity and provides microfinance services to
low-income individuals and underserved communities. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates
and supervises NBFC-MFIs to ensure their adherence to responsible lending practices, client
protection principles, and overall financial stability in the microfinance sector. RBI has mandated
Minimum Net Owned Funds of ____ for the NBFC-MFIs operating in the North-East region.
(a) Rs 2 crore
(b) Rs 1 crore
(c) Rs 5 crore
(d) Rs 3 crore
(e) Rs 4 crore
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
As per the RBI’s website, Minimum Net Owned Funds of Rs.5 crore. (For NBFC-MFIs registered in
the North Eastern Region of the country, the minimum NOF requirement shall stand at Rs. 2
crore).

Q.65)
The DRS is a technology-based system used in cricket to assist the match officials in their
decision-making. DRS was preceded by a system to allow on-field umpires to refer some
decisions to the third umpire to be decided using TV replays, in place since November 1992. What
is the full form of DRS?
(a) Decision Review System
(b) Data Recovery System
(c) Direct Registration System
(d) Digital Radio System
(e) Designated Representative Service
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
This is also an in-depth question from sports sections.

Q.66)
SWAMIH was announced on 6th November 2019 by the Finance Minister Smt. Nirmala
Sitharaman. The Union Cabinet cleared a proposal to set up a ‘Special Window’ in the form of AIF
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to provide priority debt financing for completion of stalled housing projects. SBICAP Ventures was
assigned the role of Investment Manager for this special window. Who is the chief investment
officer of SWAMIH fund?
(a) Ashish Chandak
(b) Adwait Kasbekar
(c) Irfan Kazi
(d) Girish Sarwate
(e) Yashni Parikh
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
This is a question from the government schemes.

Q.67)
PM-KUSUM scheme stands for Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan.
It is a government initiative launched in 2019 in India. The scheme aims to support farmers in
installing solar-powered agriculture pumps and promote the use of renewable energy in the
agricultural sector. The PM-KUSUM scheme plays a vital role in rural development, improving
farmer income, and contributing to the overall goal of achieving a clean and green energy future in
India. Identify the correct statement with regards to the scheme.
1) The Scheme consists of three components. Component A of the scheme aims at developing
10,000 MW of solar capacity through installation of small Solar Power Plants of individual plants of
capacity up to 2 MW.
2) The scheme is implemented till 31.03.2026
3) Solar energy-based power plants (SEPP) of capacity 500 kW to 2 MW will be setup by
individual farmers/ group of farmers/ cooperatives/ panchayats/ Farmer Producer Organisations
(FPO)/Water User associations (WUA)
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2, and 3
(d) Only 3
(e) Only 1 and 3
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
All the statements are correct.

Q.68)
The Smart Cities Mission was launched by the Hon’ Prime Minister on 25 June, 2015. The main
objective of the Mission is to promote cities that provide core infrastructure, clean and sustainable
environment and give a decent quality of life to their citizens through the application of ‘smart
solutions’. 100 cities have been selected to be developed as Smart Cities through a two-stage
competition. Identify the correct statement with regards to the scheme.
1) The Mission is operated as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Central Government will give
financial support to the extent of Rs. 48,000 crores over 5 years i.e., on an average Rs.100 crore
per city per year.

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2) Additional finances for this scheme are raised through convergence, from ULBs’ own funds,
grants under Finance Commission, innovative finance mechanisms such as Municipal Bonds,
other government programs and borrowings.
3) The Smart Cities Mission has conceptualized 'DataSmart Cities'-Strategy to leverage the
potential of data to address complex urban challenges in 100 Mission Cities.
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) Only 1, 2, and 3
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
All the statements are correct.

Q.69)
The SAI20 Summit of the SAI20 Engagement Group under India's G20 Presidency was organized
in Goa. Shri Girish Chandra Murmu, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India and the
Chair of the Supreme Audit Institutions-20 (SAI20) Engagement Group, delivered the concluding
remarks. Which of the following were the themes of discussion of the meeting?
(a) Trade & Investment and Energy
(b) Blue Economy and Artificial Intelligence
(c) Transport & Communication and Tourism
(d) Technology and Public Health
(e) Fisheries and Agriculture
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
This is also an expected question.

Q.70)
A climate clock refers to a visual representation or digital display that provides real-time
information about the impacts of climate change. It typically shows various climate-related
statistics, such as greenhouse gas emissions, temperature rise, sea-level rise, deforestation rates,
and other indicators. Where is the climate clock located?
(a) New York
(b) Stockholm
(c) Dublin
(d) Glasgow
(e) Cardiff
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
In April 2023, CSIR- National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI), Lucknow will participate in an
attempt to create a world record in an event titled ‘World’s Largest Global Climate Clock Assembly’
on its premises. On the other hand, the climate clock in New York showed the time left for
emission control was 6 years and 102 days. Similarly, the time shown to reach 2 degrees Celsius
global warming was 24 years and 19 days.
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Q.71)
UPI stands for Unified Payments Interface. It is a real-time payment system in India that enables
instant and seamless fund transfers between different banks and payment service providers. With
its simple and interoperable nature, UPI has revolutionized digital payments in India, facilitating
person-to-person transfers, merchant payments, bill payments, and other financial services
through a single platform. It has played a crucial role in promoting financial inclusion and digital
adoption, contributing to the growth of a cashless economy in the country. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct with regards to the UPI?
1) UPI was launched in 2016 in India
2) Immediate money transfer through mobile device round the clock 247 and 365 days is available
3) Virtual address of the customer for Pull & Push provides for incremental security with the
customer is not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number; IFSC etc.
4) In the UPI system, a Pay Request is a transaction where the initiating customer is pushing
funds to the intended beneficiary. Payment Addresses include Mobile Number & MMID, Account
Number & IFSC and Virtual ID.
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 1, 2, 3, and 4
(c) Only 2, 3, and 4
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) Only 1, 3, and 4
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
All the statements are correct about UPI.

Q.72)
The Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) Scheme is an initiative introduced by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to promote the development of digital payments infrastructure in the
country. Under this scheme, the RBI provides financial support and grants to eligible entities, such
as banks, non-bank payment system operators, and other eligible stakeholders, to enhance the
acceptance and accessibility of digital payments. Identify the correct statement with regards to the
PIDF.
1) PIDF is governed by an ex-officio Advisory Council
2) The tenor of the PIDF scheme is three years from January 01, 2021, extendable by two further
years, if necessary
3) Increasing payments acceptance infrastructure by adding 30 lakh touch points – 10 lakh
physical and 20 lakh digital payment acceptance devices every year
(a) Only 1, 2, and 3
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 1 and 2
(e) Only 3
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
All the statements are correct about PIDF.
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Q.73)
Gross Domestic Saving (GDS) refers to the total amount of savings generated within a country
over a specific period, typically a year. It is a key macroeconomic indicator that reflects the portion
of national income not consumed but instead saved by households, businesses, and the
government. GDS includes savings in various forms, such as personal savings, corporate profits
set aside for investment, and government savings from budget surpluses. It is expressed as a
percentage of ____.
(a) Total Savings
(b) Private Final Consumption Expenditure
(c) Private Income
(d) National Income
(e) Gross Domestic Product
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
Gross Domestic Saving is GDP minus final consumption expenditure. It is expressed as a
percentage of GDP.

Q.74)
A clearing corporation, also known as a clearinghouse, is an entity that acts as an intermediary in
financial markets to facilitate the clearing and settlement of trades. Its primary function is to ensure
the smooth and efficient completion of transactions between buyers and sellers. Which of the
following entities is not recognized by SEBI?
(a) Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd.
(b) Metropolitan Clearing Corporation of India Ltd
(c) Multi Commodity Exchange Clearing Corporation Ltd
(d) National Commodity Clearing Ltd
(e) Kotak Clearing Corporation Ltd
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
Only E is not a clearing corporation recognized by SEBI.

Q.75)
The Bharat Bill payment system is a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conceptualised system driven by
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It is a one-stop ecosystem for payment of all bills
providing an interoperable and accessible “Anytime Anywhere” Bill payment service to all
customers across India with certainty, reliability and safety of transactions. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are a feature of the BBPS?
1) Bharat BillPay transaction can be initiated through multiple payment channels like Internet,
Internet Banking, Mobile, Mobile-Banking, Mobile Wallets, Kiosk, ATM, Bank Branch, Agents and
Business Correspondents, by just looking at the Bharat BillPay logo
2) Bharat BillPay is an integrated ecosystem connecting banks and non-banks in bills aggregation
business, Billers, payment service providers and retail Bill outlets.
3) Bharat BillPay facilitates seamless payment of bills through any channel: digital and physical.
(a) Only 1
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(b) None of those given as options

(c) Only 2
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) Only 1 and 3
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
All the statements are correct.

Q.76)
Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution has described the division of powers
between Union and State governments with respect to the Union, State, and Concurrent lists?
(a) Article 246
(b) Article 134
(c) Article 108
(d) Article 55
(e) Article 113
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Only option A is the correct answer.

Q.77)
This Country Partnership Strategy (CPS), 2023-2027 for India is well aligned with India’s national
development priorities to be achieved by 2047, when the country marks 100 years of
independence. Economic and sector reforms and national flagship programs embody the national
priorities. The CPS will advance Strategy 2030’s seven operational priorities. As it aims to help
India return to its development trajectory, it will support better health, education, and social
protection and improved urban livability and rural development while ensuring gender
empowerment. Which multilateral development agency has released the strategy?
(a) WEF
(b) IMF
(c) WB
(d) OECD
(e) ADB
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
ADB released the strategy.

Q.78)
Which of the following is the top gold producing countries in the world?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) UAE
(d) Oman
(e) Bahrain
Answer – (a)
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Explanation –
The top gold producing country is China.

Q.79)
Trade Receivables electronic Discounting System (TReDS) is an online electronic platform and an
institutional mechanism for factoring of trade receivables of MSME sellers. It enables discounting
of invoices through an auction mechanism to ensure prompt realisation of trade receivables. How
many parties are involved in the TReDS system?
(a) Four
(b) Seven
(c) Five
(d) Three
(e) Two
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Buyers, sellers, financiers, and insurers are the participating entities in the TReDS platform. This
news is from the June 2023 month.

Q.80)
Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) refer to insurers of such size, market
importance, and domestic and global interconnectedness, whose distress or failure would cause a
significant dislocation in the domestic financial system. Therefore, the continued functioning of D-
SIIs is critical for the uninterrupted availability of insurance services to the national economy. In
March 2023, IRDAI released the list of domestic-systematically important insurers. Identify the
insurers from the list.
(a) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(b) General Insurance Corporation of India
(c) New India Assurance Co. Ltd
(d) Only A and B
(e) Only A, B, and C
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
All the three insurers are correct.

English
Q.81)
Four statements have been mentioned below. One or more statements may contain an error. It
may contain a grammatical and/or a contextual error. Identify the INCORRECT statement.
1) The Neoclassical style refers to a movement in art, architecture, and design that emerging in
the 18th and early 19th centuries to revive and emulate the ideals of classical antiquity.

pg. 33
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2) Restoration comedies were known for their wit, satire, and social commentary. They often
portrayed the manners and social mores of the upper class and were characterized by their clever
wordplay, risqué humor, and intricate plots.
3) Miracle plays, also known as mystery plays, were a form of medieval drama that emerged in
Europe during the Middle Ages. These plays were religious in nature and were performed by
members of the clergy and local communities.
4) The term "Dark Ages" is generally used to refer to a period of cultural, intellectual, and
economic decline or stagnation. It is often characterized by a decline in centralized authority,
political instability, economic hardships, and a relative lack of cultural and intellectual progress
compared to earlier and later periods.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2, and 4
(d) Only 2 and 4
(e) Only 3
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
‘Emerging’ is wrong usage. ‘Emerged’ should be used.

Q.82)
In the question below, a sentence has been divided into different parts. Rearrange the parts to
form a meaningful sentence.
(P) In the intricate tapestry of human history, traversing vast epochs marked by triumphs and
tribulations, the interplay of diverse cultures, ideologies, and
(Q) knowledge, technological advancements, and collective aspirations continually shape the
tapestry of our existence,
(R) forging intricate connections between past, present, and future, as we navigate the perennial
quest for progress, harmony, and understanding amidst the ebb and flow of the human experience
(S) socio-political systems has engendered multifaceted narratives replete with paradigm shifts,
oscillating power dynamics, and profound transformations, wherein the ceaseless pursuit of
(a) RPQS
(b) SQPR
(c) RPSQ
(d) PSQR
(e) QSRP
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
The correct sequence is PSQR.

Q.83)
In the question below, a sentence has been divided into different parts. Rearrange the parts to
form a meaningful sentence.
(R) Amidst the vast expanse of the universe, with its swirling galaxies, cosmic phenomena, and
enigmatic celestial bodies dancing to the symphony of gravity, electromagnetic forces, and the
mysterious dark energy,
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(S) humanity, driven by an insatiable curiosity and thirst for knowledge, has embarked on a
relentless quest to unravel the secrets of existence, delving into the intricate realms of quantum
mechanics, exploring the cosmos
(P) through telescopes that pierce the cosmic veil, conducting experiments at particle colliders that
reveal the fundamental building blocks of matter, and venturing into the depths of the ocean where
ancient
(Q) lifeforms hold the keys to understanding our planet's past and its potential future, as we strive
to grasp the essence of our place in the cosmos and the meaning that lies hidden within the fabric
of reality.
(a) PRQS
(b) RSPQ
(c) QSPR
(d) SPQR
(e) SQPR
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
The correct sequence is RSPQ.

Q.84)
In the question mentioned below, a paragraph is divided into different sentences. Rearrange the
sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
(1) With each passing moment, we teeter on the precipice of irreversible consequences, where the
ravenous appetite for energy conspires with the existential threat of climate change. The
dexterous choreography of this transition demands not only the orchestration of technological
advancements and innovative solutions but also the harmonization of political will, economic
viability, and societal engagement.
(2) As we navigate the treacherous terrain strewn with vested interests, formidable barriers, and
divergent perspectives, we must rise above complacency and rally behind the transformative
potential that lies dormant within this audacious endeavor.
(3) The labyrinthine challenge of shifting from fossil fuels to renewable energy sources requires
meticulous planning, colossal investments, and the fortitude to disrupt long-established systems
entrenched in the annals of industrialization.
(4) The road to an energy transition is arduous, fraught with complexities, but it is through our
unwavering resilience and unwavering commitment that we shall pave the path towards a
sustainable future, forging a legacy that transcends time, and kindles the embers of hope for
generations yet unborn.
(5) In the relentless pursuit of a sustainable future, the imperative for an energy transition emerges
as an unwavering mandate, demanding audacious action and resolute determination.
(a) 14235
(b) 25431
(c) 53124
(d) 43215
(e) 54123
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
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The correct sequence of paragraph is 53124.

(5) In the relentless pursuit of a sustainable future, the imperative for an energy transition emerges
as an unwavering mandate, demanding audacious action and resolute determination.
(3) The labyrinthine challenge of shifting from fossil fuels to renewable energy sources requires
meticulous planning, colossal investments, and the fortitude to disrupt long-established systems
entrenched in the annals of industrialization.
(1) With each passing moment, we teeter on the precipice of irreversible consequences, where the
ravenous appetite for energy conspires with the existential threat of climate change. The
dexterous choreography of this transition demands not only the orchestration of technological
advancements and innovative solutions but also the harmonization of political will, economic
viability, and societal engagement.
(2) As we navigate the treacherous terrain strewn with vested interests, formidable barriers, and
divergent perspectives, we must rise above complacency and rally behind the transformative
potential that lies dormant within this audacious endeavor.
(4) The road to an energy transition is arduous, fraught with complexities, but it is through our
unwavering resilience and unwavering commitment that we shall pave the path towards a
sustainable future, forging a legacy that transcends time, and kindles the embers of hope for
generations yet unborn.

Q.85)
In the question mentioned below, a paragraph is divided into different sentences. Rearrange the
sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
(1) Challenging this entrenched paradigm necessitates a paradigm shift in urban planning and
design, recognizing the multifaceted dimensions of gender and embracing an inclusive approach
that fosters safety, accessibility, and empowerment for all individuals.
(2) To forge equitable societies, we must dismantle the gendered infrastructure, rebalancing the
scales of spatial justice, and championing an era where every person, irrespective of gender, can
flourish and thrive within the architectural fabric of our shared world.
(3) The manifestation of gendered infrastructure materializes in the subtle design choices that
shape our urban landscapes, reinforcing power dynamics and further marginalizing certain
communities.
(4) The built environment, often an embodiment of patriarchal norms, has historically perpetuated
gender inequities, perpetuating spatial biases and engendering disparities.
(5) Gendered infrastructure, a subject of profound socio-cultural significance, demands rigorous
examination within the intricate tapestry of societal systems.
(6) As the framework of cities and public spaces fails to accommodate diverse needs, it
perpetuates a systemic exclusion of women, exacerbating their vulnerability and hindering their
access to essential services and opportunities.
(a) 123654
(b) 543612
(c) 654321
(d) 412356
(e) 543126
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
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The correct sequence is 543612.

(5) Gendered infrastructure, a subject of profound socio-cultural significance, demands rigorous
examination within the intricate tapestry of societal systems.
(4) The built environment, often an embodiment of patriarchal norms, has historically perpetuated
gender inequities, perpetuating spatial biases and engendering disparities.
(3) The manifestation of gendered infrastructure materializes in the subtle design choices that
shape our urban landscapes, reinforcing power dynamics and further marginalizing certain
communities.
(6) As the framework of cities and public spaces fails to accommodate diverse needs, it
perpetuates a systemic exclusion of women, exacerbating their vulnerability and hindering their
access to essential services and opportunities.
(1) Challenging this entrenched paradigm necessitates a paradigm shift in urban planning and
design, recognizing the multifaceted dimensions of gender and embracing an inclusive approach
that fosters safety, accessibility, and empowerment for all individuals.
(2) To forge equitable societies, we must dismantle the gendered infrastructure, rebalancing the
scales of spatial justice, and championing an era where every person, irrespective of gender, can
flourish and thrive within the architectural fabric of our shared world.

Q.86)
In the question below, two sentences have been mentioned with a blank in each sentence. Use
one of the phrases given in the options to fill in the blanks.
1) Despite his notable contributions to the project, John's colleagues often felt overshadowed as
his penchant for self-promotion and desire to _____ during presentations and discussions
undermined the collaborative spirit and overshadowed the collective efforts of the team.
2) Amidst the intricate dance of egos and aspirations within the creative industry, certain
individuals unabashedly ______, their insatiable hunger for attention overshadowing the collective
brilliance of their peers, stifling collaboration, and perpetuating a culture of self-centeredness
(a) Hue and Cry
(b) Dragging a crate
(c) Hog the limelight
(d) Burn the bridge
(e) Sleeping like a log
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
Hog the limelight means to steal the limelight. It fits best in the sentences.

Q.87)
In the question below, two sentences have been mentioned with a blank in each sentence. Use
one of the phrases given in the options to fill in the blanks.
1) In the realm of economic policy, policymakers strive to strike a delicate balance between
allocating resources efficiently and maximizing the ________, wherein the optimal utilization of
available funds yields the greatest impact and value for the desired outcomes, navigating the fine
line between cost-effectiveness, equitable distribution, and long-term sustainability.
2) As consumers increasingly seek value and efficiency in their purchasing decisions, businesses
must constantly innovate and refine their offerings to provide a compelling __________,
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leveraging competitive pricing strategies, product differentiation, and exceptional customer

experiences to maximize perceived value and establish long-term customer loyalty.
(a) Bang for the buck
(b) Fish rots from the head
(c) To bite the dust
(d) Elephant in the room
(e) Slay your dragon
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Bang for the buck means to value your money. It is apt for both the sentences.

Q.88)
In the question below, two sentences have been mentioned with a blank in each sentence. Use
one of the phrases given in the options to fill in the blanks.
1) Despite the severity of the crime committed, the lenient sentencing of a mere community
service order for a repeat offender can be seen as nothing more than a ______, failing to serve as
an adequate deterrent or impart a sense of justice to the victims and society at large.
2) The regulatory agency's decision to impose a nominal fine on the corporation found guilty of
gross negligence and environmental violations is seen by many as nothing more than a symbolic
_______, lacking the teeth to truly hold the company accountable for its actions and ensure
meaningful change in their practices.
(a) A Taste of Your Own Medicine
(b) Slap on the wrist
(c) Back to the Drawing Board
(d) All Greek to me
(e) Baker's Dozen
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
A Slap on the Wrist means A very mild punishment. It fits best in both sentences.

Instructions for Q.89)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
pg. 38
[Type here]

opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable
development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
pg. 39
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fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
Q.89)
What are some of the challenges related to population growth and urbanization in third world
countries?
(a) Limited access to education and healthcare
(b) Overcrowded cities and inadequate infrastructure
(c) Political instability and inadequate governance
(d) Exploitation of natural resources by colonial powers
(e) Strong economic growth and technological advancements
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
From the options, only option B fits in best.

Instructions for Q.90)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
pg. 40
[Type here]

the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable
development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
Q.90)
Why is the empowerment and inclusion of women crucial for the development of third world
countries?
(a) It perpetuates gender inequality and social disparities
(b) It leads to overcrowded cities and inadequate housing
(c) It fosters inclusive growth and unlocks human capital
(d) It exacerbates income inequality and poverty
(e) It promotes corruption and political instability
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
From the options given, option C is the best fit.

pg. 41
[Type here]

Instructions for Q.91)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
pg. 42
[Type here]

norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable
development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
Q.91)
What role do partnerships with international organizations and developed countries play in the
development of third world countries?
(a) They contribute to corruption in the government
(b) They promote economic dependency and hinder growth
(c) They provide valuable financial and technological support
(d) They exacerbate progress in the socio-economic sectors
(e) They discourage innovation and entrepreneurship
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
Option C is the correct answer.

Instructions for Q.92)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
pg. 43
[Type here]

opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable
development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
pg. 44
[Type here]

fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
Q.92)
What are the key factors for the way forward in third world countries?
(a) Exploitation of resources and colonial power dynamics
(b) Promoting technological advancements, digital literacy, preservation of cultural and its
promotion
(c) Inciting a downtrend in governance structures
(d) Limited access to education and healthcare
(e) Reduction in foreign investments and trade opportunities
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
Option B is correct as per the passage.

Instructions for Q.93)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
pg. 45
[Type here]

the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable
development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
Q.93)
What are some of the ways in which the third world countries can address environmental risks and
climate change?
1) By investing in sustainable agriculture and renewable energy
2) By exploiting natural resources for economic growth
3) By depending on international aid and funding
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1 and 2
(e) Only 1, 2, and 3
Answer – (a)
pg. 46
[Type here]

Explanation –
Option A is the right answer.

Instructions for Q.94)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
pg. 47
[Type here]

Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable
development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
Q.94)
Inclusive and sustainable development is a holistic approach that seeks to address social,
economic, and environmental challenges while ensuring that no one is left behind. It recognizes
that economic growth should be equitable, and progress should be shared by all segments of
society. At its core, inclusive and sustainable development aims to foster social cohesion, reduce
inequalities, protect the environment, and promote long-term prosperity. In light of this, what is the
importance of inclusive and sustainable development for the third world countries?
1) It promotes corruption and political instability
2) It improves governance structures and transparency
3) It hinders economic growth and innovation
4) It exacerbates income inequality and poverty
5) It fosters equitable growth and improves quality of life
(a) Only 1, 3, and 5
(b) Only 2 and 5
(c) Only 2, 4, and 5
(d) Only 1 and 3
(e) Only 2 and 4
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
As per the passage, both the statements are correct.

Instructions for Q.95)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

pg. 48
[Type here]

Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
pg. 49
[Type here]

making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable

development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
Q.95)
Which of the following is not a challenge faced by third world countries?
(a) Income inequality and poverty
(b) Lack of access to basic services
(c) Political instability and inadequate governance
(d) Climate change and environmental degradation
(e) Strong economic growth and technological advancements
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
Option E is correct.

Instructions for Q.96)

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Third world countries, a term that originated during the Cold War era, refer to the developing
nations that faced economic, social, and political challenges in the aftermath of colonialism and
globalization. These countries have diverse histories and trajectories, shaped by colonization,
post-colonial struggles, and attempts at development. The history of third world countries is
marked by the exploitation of resources, cultural suppression, and political subjugation by colonial
powers. The aftermath of independence brought hopes of progress and self-determination, but
many nations grappled with the daunting task of nation-building and overcoming deep-rooted
socio-economic disparities.
Despite the challenges, third world countries possess considerable growth prospects. Several
nations have made significant strides in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
Economic reforms, investments in human capital, and advancements in technology have opened
doors for innovation, entrepreneurship, and foreign investments. The emergence of regional
cooperation and trade blocs has also fostered economic integration and increased market
opportunities. However, third world countries continue to face a myriad of challenges. Poverty,
income inequality, and lack of access to basic services remain persistent issues. Political
instability, corruption, and inadequate governance hinder progress and create hurdles for
pg. 50
[Type here]

sustainable development. Environmental degradation, climate change, and natural disasters pose
additional threats to these nations, affecting their agricultural productivity, water resources, and
overall resilience.
To overcome these challenges and pave the way forward, third world countries must prioritize
inclusive and sustainable development. Strengthening governance structures, promoting
transparency, and combating corruption are essential for creating an enabling environment for
growth. Investment in education and skills development can empower the workforce and foster
innovation. Enhanced access to healthcare, clean water, and sanitation is critical for improving the
quality of life. Furthermore, third world countries must leverage technological advancements to
bridge the digital divide and foster digital literacy. Sustainable agricultural practices, renewable
energy initiatives, and climate resilience strategies should be prioritized to mitigate environmental
risks. Collaboration and partnerships with international organizations, developed countries, and
the private sector can provide valuable support in terms of finance, technology transfer, and
capacity-building. In summary, the history, growth prospects, challenges, and the way forward for
third world countries are complex and multifaceted. Achieving sustainable development requires
addressing systemic issues, embracing innovation, and fostering inclusive growth. It necessitates
a global commitment to promoting equity, justice, and shared prosperity.
In addition to economic and social challenges, third world countries also face issues related to
population growth and urbanization. Rapid population growth puts immense pressure on limited
resources and infrastructure, leading to overcrowded cities, inadequate housing, and strained
public services. Urbanization presents both opportunities and challenges, as it can drive economic
growth and innovation but also exacerbate income inequality and social disparities if not properly
managed. Effective urban planning, investment in sustainable urban infrastructure, and social
welfare programs are crucial for creating inclusive and livable cities.
Another critical aspect in the development of third world countries is the empowerment and
inclusion of women. Gender inequality remains a significant obstacle, limiting women's access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities. By ensuring equal rights, addressing cultural
norms, and providing support for women's empowerment, third world countries can unlock the full
potential of their human capital and foster inclusive growth. Women's participation in decision-
making processes, entrepreneurship, and leadership roles is key to driving sustainable
development and social progress.
The way forward for third world countries also necessitates a focus on cultural preservation and
promotion. Indigenous knowledge, traditions, and cultural heritage play a vital role in identity
formation and community cohesion. Integrating cultural preservation efforts into development
strategies can enhance social cohesion, promote cultural diversity, and foster a sense of pride and
belonging. Embracing cultural tourism, supporting local artisans and craftsmen, and preserving
historical sites contribute to sustainable development while safeguarding cultural heritage for
future generations.
Moreover, international cooperation and fair global trade are essential for the progress of third
world countries. Addressing trade imbalances, promoting fair trade practices, and reducing
barriers to market access can create opportunities for economic growth and poverty reduction.
Access to affordable finance and technology transfer are crucial for developing industries and
fostering innovation. Multilateral institutions and global partnerships should strive to create a level
playing field, providing support and resources to ensure the equitable participation of third world
countries in the global economy.
pg. 51
[Type here]

Q.96)
Which of the following best describes the term "third world countries"?
(a) Developed nations that faced economic challenges during the Cold War era
(b) Nations that emerged after the end of colonial rule
(c) Developing countries that struggled with economic, social, and political issues
(d) Countries that were aligned with the Soviet Union during the Cold War
(e) Nations that experienced rapid economic growth in the post-colonial period
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
The first paragraph itself is explaining the meaning of the ‘third world countries’.

Q.97)
In the question below, a phrase has been mentioned. The phrase has been used in following
sentences. One of the sentences is using the phrase inappropriately. Identify the sentence with
the incorrect usage.
“Give a big hand”
1) As the curtains drew to a close on the awe-inspiring performance, the audience, captivated by
the breathtaking display of talent, collectively rose to their feet, unleashing a resounding applause
that reverberated through the auditorium, an exultant gesture to give a big hand to the exceptional
artists who had left an indelible mark on their hearts and minds with their extraordinary skill and
artistry.
2) In the ever-evolving landscape of technological advancements, the field of artificial intelligence
has made tremendous strides, progressing by giving a big hand as cutting-edge algorithms,
sophisticated machine learning models, and massive datasets enable unprecedented
breakthroughs, revolutionizing industries and reshaping the way we live, work, and interact,
propelling humanity into a future where the boundaries of possibility continue to expand at an
astonishing pace.
3) Amidst the tense atmosphere of the boardroom, the formidable CEO, known for her
uncompromising demeanour, unleashed a torrent of scathing criticism, meticulously dissecting
each member's performance with a meticulously articulated barrage of words, effectively giving
them a big hand and leaving no room for doubt about her dissatisfaction, as she sought to instil a
sense of accountability and drive for excellence within the team, albeit through a confrontational
and no-holds-barred approach.
(a) Only 2 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2
(e) Only 3
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
The phrase “Give a big hand” means to give one a loud or enthusiastic round of applause, usually
as a show of approval or appreciation.

Q.98)

pg. 52
[Type here]

In the question below, a phrase has been mentioned. The phrase has been used in following
sentences. One of the sentences is using the phrase inappropriately. Identify the sentence with
the incorrect usage.
“Thrash out”
1) In the midst of competing priorities and resource constraints, the ambitious project that had
once held great promise and garnered significant attention found itself thrust into the background,
as shifting circumstances and pressing urgencies necessitated a difficult decision to thrash out,
temporarily setting it aside in favor of more immediate and critical endeavors, with the hope that it
would regain prominence and receive the attention it deserved once the current challenges had
been adequately addressed and resources became available.
2) In the crucible of heated debates and intense negotiations, the stakeholders, representing
diverse perspectives and conflicting interests, engaged in an arduous process of discourse and
deliberation, meticulously analyzing each issue, exploring alternative solutions, and persistently
seeking common ground to thrash out a comprehensive agreement that would not only reconcile
their differences but also chart a path forward, effectively resolving the complex challenges that
had hindered progress and cooperation for far too long
3) As the midnight hour approached and exhaustion settled in, the negotiating parties, driven by a
shared determination to find common ground and overcome seemingly insurmountable
differences, immersed themselves in an intense marathon of deliberation, engaging in rigorous
debates, passionately advocating their positions, and meticulously dissecting each contentious
issue, as they endeavored to thrash out a mutually acceptable agreement, recognizing that only
through persistent dialogue, compromise, and a genuine commitment to finding middle ground
could they transcend the impasse that had stymied progress and forge a path towards a
collaborative and sustainable future.
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) Only 1 and 2
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
The first sentence is using it incorrectly.

Instructions for Q.99)

A paragraph has been mentioned below with blanks in each sentence of the paragraph. The
blanks have been numbered as (1), (2), (3) etc. Answer the questions that follow the paragraph.
The oil dependency of European countries on Russia has emerged as a complex and multifaceted
issue, ____(1)___ woven into the geopolitical dynamics and energy landscapes of the region. The
vast reserves and strategic geographical positioning of Russia have enabled it to become a major
supplier of oil to numerous European nations, creating intricate interdependencies that carry both
benefits and risks. At the heart of the matter lies the ____(2)____ fact that several European
countries heavily rely on Russian oil imports to meet their energy demands. This heavy
dependence exposes them to potential vulnerabilities, as disruptions in the supply chain or
___(3)____ in oil prices can have significant economic and political ramifications. The
concentration of oil imports from a single supplier raises concerns about energy security,
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diversification, and the ability to respond effectively to changing global dynamics. Furthermore, the
oil dependency on Russia also creates intricate webs of political and economic ___(4)___.
Q.99)
Fill in the blank (2).
(a) Contestable
(b) Disputable
(c) Undeniable
(d) Doubtable
(e) Refutable
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
Option C fits in the best in the blank.

Instructions for Q.100)

A paragraph has been mentioned below with blanks in each sentence of the paragraph. The
blanks have been numbered as (1), (2), (3) etc. Answer the questions that follow the paragraph.
The oil dependency of European countries on Russia has emerged as a complex and multifaceted
issue, ____(1)___ woven into the geopolitical dynamics and energy landscapes of the region. The
vast reserves and strategic geographical positioning of Russia have enabled it to become a major
supplier of oil to numerous European nations, creating intricate interdependencies that carry both
benefits and risks. At the heart of the matter lies the ____(2)____ fact that several European
countries heavily rely on Russian oil imports to meet their energy demands. This heavy
dependence exposes them to potential vulnerabilities, as disruptions in the supply chain or
___(3)____ in oil prices can have significant economic and political ramifications. The
concentration of oil imports from a single supplier raises concerns about energy security,
diversification, and the ability to respond effectively to changing global dynamics. Furthermore, the
oil dependency on Russia also creates intricate webs of political and economic ___(4)___.
Q.100)
Fill in the blank (1).
(a) Intricately
(b) Complex
(c) Elaborate
(d) Deliberately
(e) Complicatedly
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
Option A fits in the blank aptly.

Instructions for Q.101)

A paragraph has been mentioned below with blanks in each sentence of the paragraph. The
blanks have been numbered as (1), (2), (3) etc. Answer the questions that follow the paragraph.
The oil dependency of European countries on Russia has emerged as a complex and multifaceted
issue, ____(1)___ woven into the geopolitical dynamics and energy landscapes of the region. The
vast reserves and strategic geographical positioning of Russia have enabled it to become a major
supplier of oil to numerous European nations, creating intricate interdependencies that carry both
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benefits and risks. At the heart of the matter lies the ____(2)____ fact that several European
countries heavily rely on Russian oil imports to meet their energy demands. This heavy
dependence exposes them to potential vulnerabilities, as disruptions in the supply chain or
___(3)____ in oil prices can have significant economic and political ramifications. The
concentration of oil imports from a single supplier raises concerns about energy security,
diversification, and the ability to respond effectively to changing global dynamics. Furthermore, the
oil dependency on Russia also creates intricate webs of political and economic ___(4)___.
Q.101)
Fill in the blank (3).
(a) Stability
(b) Fluctuations
(c) Consistency
(d) Steadiness
(e) Steadiness
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
Option B fits in the best.

Instructions for Q.102)

A paragraph has been mentioned below with blanks in each sentence of the paragraph. The
blanks have been numbered as (1), (2), (3) etc. Answer the questions that follow the paragraph.
The oil dependency of European countries on Russia has emerged as a complex and multifaceted
issue, ____(1)___ woven into the geopolitical dynamics and energy landscapes of the region. The
vast reserves and strategic geographical positioning of Russia have enabled it to become a major
supplier of oil to numerous European nations, creating intricate interdependencies that carry both
benefits and risks. At the heart of the matter lies the ____(2)____ fact that several European
countries heavily rely on Russian oil imports to meet their energy demands. This heavy
dependence exposes them to potential vulnerabilities, as disruptions in the supply chain or
___(3)____ in oil prices can have significant economic and political ramifications. The
concentration of oil imports from a single supplier raises concerns about energy security,
diversification, and the ability to respond effectively to changing global dynamics. Furthermore, the
oil dependency on Russia also creates intricate webs of political and economic ___(4)___.
Q.102)
Fill in the blank (4).
(a) Disconnection
(b) Isolation
(c) Separation
(d) interplay
(e) Unrelatedness
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
Option D is the correct answer here.

Q.103)

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Four statements have been mentioned below. One or more statements may contain an error. It
may contain a grammatical and/or a contextual error. Identify the CORRECT statement. In case,
all the statements are incorrect, then, mark option E, ‘None of the above’ as the answer.
(a) "The Chimney Sweeper" is a poignant poem written by William Blake during the Romantic era,
which delves into the harsh realities of child labour and societal indifference.
(b) One of the prominent themes in "The Chimney Sweeper" is the exploitation and suffering
endured by young chimney sweepers, who were often impoverished children forced into
hazardous labour.
(c) From a social commentary perspective, Blake critiques the oppressive societal structures and
the dehumanization of individuals within industrialized societies
(d) The poem serves as a call to action, urging readers to question and challenge the unjust
systems that perpetuate such suffering.
(e) None of the above
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
All the statements are grammatically correct. Hence, the option E is the right answer.

Q.104)
Five statements have been mentioned below. One or more statements may contain an error. It
may contain a grammatical and/or a contextual error. Identify the CORRECT statement.
(a) Coleridge did employed rich and sensory imagery throughout the poem, creating a vivid and
immersive experience for the reader. The descriptive language, with its cascading waterfalls,
exotic gardens, and sacred rivers, evokes a sense of awe and wonder.
(b) The fragmented structure of "Kubla Khan" is notable. Coleridge famously will claimed that the
poem was a result of an opium-induced dream, and that he was unable to complete it due to an
interruption.
(c) Coleridge will being portrayed the Khan's pleasure-dome as a symbol of an idealized, utopian
world, where nature and human creativity coexist harmoniously. The poem explores the
boundaries between reality and the imaginative realm, blurring the lines between the conscious
and unconscious mind.
(d) "Kubla Khan" is a complex and evocative poem that delves into the themes of imagination,
nature, creativity, and the boundaries of human experience. Through its mesmerizing imagery,
dreamlike structure, and exploration of the power of the mind, Coleridge invites readers to embark
on a journey through the realms of imagination, challenging conventional boundaries and opening
up new vistas of thought and inspiration.
(e) "Kubla Khan" is an transformative power of imagination and its ability to transport the reader to
fantastical realms.
Answer – (d)
Explanation –
Only option D is grammatically correct.

Q.105)
Which of the following sentences from the options given below is not coherent with the central idea
of the other sentences?

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(a) The rewriting of history is a phenomenon that occurs when the narratives, interpretations, and
accounts of past events are revised or altered to align with particular ideologies, political agendas,
or societal perspectives.
(b) This process involves reevaluating and reinterpreting historical events, figures, and narratives
through new lenses, often aiming to highlight previously marginalized voices or challenge
dominant narratives.
(c) The act of rewriting history can be a contentious and complex endeavor. It raises questions
about the subjective nature of historical interpretation and the power dynamics that influence the
shaping of historical narratives.
(d) Those who engage in rewriting history often seek to challenge existing power structures, rectify
historical injustices, or provide a more inclusive representation of diverse experiences. However, it
also raises concerns about the potential manipulation of historical facts and the erosion of
objective truth.
(e) The Mughal Period witnessed its highest peak during the reign of Akbar – The Great. As far as
the most intolerant king is concerned in the history of Mughal Empire, Aurangzeb tops the charts.
Answer – (e)
Explanation –
Only option E is not continuing the idea of the other sentences.

Q.106)
Which of the following sentences from the options given below is not coherent with the central idea
of the other sentences?
(a) Culture repatriation, also known as cultural restitution or cultural heritage repatriation, refers to
the return of artifacts, artworks, and cultural objects to their countries of origin. It is a complex and
often contentious process that involves the reclaiming of cultural treasures that were acquired or
removed during colonialism, imperialism, or illicit trade.
(b) The movement of highly-skilled people is called the brain drain. It refers to the migration of
highly skilled and talented individuals from their home countries to seek better opportunities
abroad. This phenomenon has significant implications for both the source and destination
countries.
(c) Culture repatriation is driven by the recognition of the cultural and symbolic significance of
these objects to their original communities and nations. Many countries and indigenous
communities have advocated for the repatriation of cultural artifacts as a means to restore their
cultural identity, reconnect with their heritage, and rectify historical injustices.
(d) The repatriation process typically involves legal, ethical, and diplomatic considerations. It
requires extensive research, documentation, and negotiations between the parties involved,
including the governments, museums, collectors, and indigenous communities.
(e) Advocates argue that culture repatriation promotes cultural diversity, fosters healing and
reconciliation, and supports the self-determination of communities in determining their cultural
heritage.
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
Only option B is not continuing the idea of the other sentences.

Q.107)
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In the question given below, a sentence has been divided into different segments. Some of these
segments contain grammatical errors. Identify the part which contains the errors. Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any.
The persisting issue of the gender pay gap, characterizing by the disparity in earnings between
men and women in the workforce, (1) / is a complex and multifaceted phenomenon that
encompasses a multitude of interconnected factors, including societal norms (2) /, occupational
segregation, discrimination, limited access to career advancement opportunities, and the
undervaluation (3)/ of traditionally female-dominated industries, all of which contribute to the
perpetuation of an unjust (4)/ and inequitable system that undermine gender equality and hinders
the realization of true economic and social progress (5).
(a) 1 and 5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 5
(e) 1 and 3
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
In the first part, ‘characterizing’ is wrong usage. ‘characterized’ should be used.
In the fifth part, ‘undermines’ should be used.

Q.108)
In the question given below, a sentence has been divided into different segments. Some of these
segments contain grammatical errors. Identify the part which contains the errors. Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any.
Rural development, a multifaceted and intricate process, entails the comprehensive and
sustainable improvement of social, economic, and environmental conditions in rural areas,
encompassing strategies and interventions (1) / that addressing the unique challenges and
opportunities specific to rural contexts, such as agricultural productivity, access to basic services,
infrastructure development, employment generation, poverty alleviation, (2) /land and natural
resource management, social inclusion, and the empowerment of marginalized communities, all of
which necessitating integrated and participatory approaches that engage local stakeholders,
leverage local knowledge and resources, foster collaboration between government, (3) / civil
society, and the private sector, and prioritize the principles of sustainability, equity, and resilience,
with the ultimate goal of enhancing the quality of life, promoting balanced regional development,
(4)/ and realizing the full potential of rural areas as vibrant and self-sustaining centers of economic
growth, social well-being, and cultural heritage preservation (5).
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 and 5
(e) 1 and 5
Answer – (c)
Explanation –
In 2nd sentence, ‘addressing’ is used wrongly. ‘address’ should be used.
In the 3rd sentence, ‘necessitating’ is used wrongly. ‘necessitate’ should be used.
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Q.109)
In the question given below, a sentence has been divided into different segments. Some of these
segments contain grammatical errors. Identify the part which contains the errors. Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any.
Artificial intelligence (AI), a rapidly evolving and complex field at the intersection of computer
science, mathematics, and cognitive science, encompasses a diverse range of technologies,
algorithms, and methodologies that aim to mimic or simulate human intelligence, (1) / enabling
machines to perform tasks traditionally requiring human cognitive capabilities, such as learning,
problem-solving, pattern recognition, and decision-making, through the utilizing of advanced
machine learning models, neural networks, natural language processing, and data analytics (2) /,
with profound implications across numerous domains and sectors, including healthcare, finance,
transportation, manufacturing, and entertainment, as it holds the potential to revolutionize (3) /
industries, enhance efficiency, accelerate innovation, and being address complex societal
challenges, while also posing ethical, privacy, and policy considerations regarding data
governance, algorithmic bias, human-machine interactions (4)/, and the future of work,
necessitating robust regulations, responsible development, interdisciplinary collaboration, and
ongoing dialogue to ensure that AI is deployed for the greater good, amplifying human capabilities,
promoting inclusivity, and upholding human values and ethical standards (5).
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 5
(e) 4 and 5
Answer – (a)
Explanation –
In the 2nd sentence, ‘utilizing’ is wrong. ‘utilization’ is right.
In the 4th sentence, ‘being address’ is wrong. ‘address’ is correct.

Q.110)
In the question given below, a sentence has been divided into different segments. Some of these
segments contain grammatical errors. Identify the part which contains the errors. Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any.
Climate change, drived by the accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere due to
human activities, is an intricate and multifaceted global issue that has led to a wide array of
consequences, (1)/ including rising global temperatures, altered weather patterns, increased
frequency and intensity of extreme events, disruptions (2) / to ecosystems and biodiversity, shifting
agricultural landscapes, water scarcity, and threats to human health and livelihoods, necessitating
a comprehensive and coordinated response (3) / has encompassing mitigation efforts to reduce
emissions, adaptation strategies to address the impacts, international cooperation, sustainable
development practices, and the engagement (4) / of diverse stakeholders across sectors and
regions to ensure a sustainable and resilient future for generations to come (5).
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
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(d) 3 and 4
(e) 2 and 4
Answer – (b)
Explanation –
In the 1st sentence, ‘drived’ is wrong. ‘driven’ is right.
In the 4th sentence, ‘has encompassing’ is wrong. ‘encompassing’ is right.

Quantitative Aptitude

Instructions for Q.111 to Q.115

Consider the below information about 200 laptops being sold by five different stores amongst A, B,
C, D and E in the month of April 2022.

Q.111)
Average number of laptops sold by E, B, C and D is _____ times of average of number of laptops
sold by A, D, E and C together.
5/6
4/5
7/8
8/9
can’t be determined
Answer - (c)
A + B + C + D + E = 100%
2X% + 20% + 22% + X% + 13% = 100%
3X% + 55% = 100%
3X% = 45%
X = 15%
So, A = 30%
And D = 15%
Now, E + B + C + D = 100 – A = 70%
Also, A + C + D + E = 100 – B = 80%
Required fraction = 7/8

Q.112)
If total laptops sold by K is 150% of that of E and out of the total laptops sold by K, 33.33% are
gaming laptops and rest are non-gaming laptops. Find the number of non-gaming laptops sold by
K.
39
26
21
13

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30
Answer - (b)
Laptops sold by E = 13% of 200 = 26
Laptops sold by K = 1.5 x 26 = 39
Non-Gaming laptops sold by K = 2/3 x 39 = 26

Q.113)
Find the central angle (in degrees) for store A.
120
144
72
108
54
Answer - (d)
Laptops sold by A = 30%
Laptops sold by A (in degrees) = 30/100 x 360 = 108

Q.114)
Assume the total number of laptops sold by these 5 stores in May 2022 is 400. The percentage
share of B and E is interchanged while for the rest it is the same as given. Find the difference
between the number of laptops sold by store B and C in May 2022.
32
28
8
36
40
Answer - (d)
Percentage share Laptops sold
A 30% 120
B 13% 52
C 22% 88
D 15% 60
E 20% 80

Q.115)
In the next month, the number of laptops sold by store C increased by 25% and the number of
laptops sold by store D reduced by one-fifth. What is the average of total number of laptops sold
by all the five stores together in the next month?
39
41
42
40
44
Answer - (b)
In the next month,
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Increase in laptops sold by C = 0.25 x (22% x 200) = 11

Laptops sold by D = 1/5 x (15% x 200) = 6
Net increase in total laptops sold = 11 – 6 = 5
So, total laptops sold = 200 + 5 = 205
New average = 205/5 = 41

Q.116)
Consider the below series:
12, 21, 46, 95, 176, X, Y
What is the sum of X and Y?
[a] 737
[b] 805
[c] 798
[d] 712
[e] 763
Answer - (e)
The pattern is as follows:
12 + 32 = 21
21 + 52 = 46
46 + 72 = 95
95 + 92 = 176
176 + 112 = 297 = X
297 + 132 = 466 = Y
X + Y = 297 + 466 = 763

Q.117)
Below are given two series which follow certain pattern. There are two missing values X and Y.
Series I: 158, 78, 38, 18, 8, X
Series II: 9, Y, 46, 84, 135, 199
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. X = 7Y
2. 3 < X < Y < 21
3. 4(Y + 3.5) = 11(X)2 – 1
Both 1 and 2
Both 1 and 3
Only 3
All 1, 2 and 3
None
Answer - (c)
The pattern of series I is as follows:
158 – 80 = 78
78 – 40 = 38
38 – 20 = 18
18 – 10 = 8
8–5=3=X
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The pattern of series II is as follows:

So, X = 3
And 7Y = 21 x 7 = 147
So, 3 ≠ 7
Hence, statement 1 is not true.
3 < X < Y < 21 is not true since X = 3 and Y = 21.
So, statement 2 is not true.
4(Y + 3.5) = 11(X)2 – 1
4(21 + 3.5) = 11(9) – 1
4(24.5) = 98
98 = 98
So, statement 3 is true.

Instructions for Q.118 and Q.119

Consider the below two quadratic equations:
I. 4x2 – 16x + C = 0
II. 2y2 – 3y + 1 = 0
One of the roots of equation I is 1.5
Q.118)
Find the sum of the largest roots of equation I and II.
3.5
4.5
3
4
5.5
Answer - (a)
4x2 – 16x + C = 0
Now, substitute 1.5 for x in order to find out the value of ‘C’
4(1.5)2 – 16(1.5) + C = 0
4(2.25) – 16(1.5) + C = 0
9 – 24 + C = 0
C = 15
Sum of roots = -b/a = 16/4 = 4
So, the other root of equation I = 4 – 1.5 = 2.5 (larger root)
Consider 2y2 – 3y + 1 = 0
Roots = {-b ± √(b2 – 4ac)} / 2a
{3 ± √(9 – 8)} / 4
Roots = 4/4, 2/4
Roots = 1, 0.5
So, sum of larger roots = 2.5 + 1 = 3.5

Q.119)
Find the sum of the digits of C.
[a] 5
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[b] 4
[c] 8
[d] 6
[e] 7
Answer - (d)
4x2 – 16x + C = 0
Now, substitute 1.5 for x in order to find out the value of ‘C’
4(1.5)2 – 16(1.5) + C = 0
4(2.25) – 16(1.5) + C = 0
9 – 24 + C = 0
C = 15
Sum of digits of C = 1 + 5 = 6

Instructions for Q.120 and Q.121

Certain students comprising of boys and girls are studying in an institute which has three sections
A, B and C. The ratio of boys and girls is 3 : 5. 50% students are in section A. The number of girls
in section B is equal to the number of boys in section C. The number of boys in section A is equal
to the number of students in section B. 30% of the girls are in section C.
Q.120)
Let P = number of girls in section B and let Q = number of boys in section A.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. P is approximately 67% of Q
II. 33 1/3% of total number of girls = 20% of total boys = P
III. 3P = 2Q
Only II and III
Only I
All I, II and III
Only III
Only I and III
Answer - (e)
Boys Girls Total
A 3x 5x 8x
B 3x – y y 3x
C y 5x – y 5x
Total 6x 10x 16x

30% girls are in section C

So, 0.3(10x) = 5x – y
3x = 5x – y
2x = y
Boys Girls Total
A 3x 5x 8x
B x 2x 3x
C 2x 3x 5x
Total 6x 10x 16x
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P = number of girls in section B = 2x

Q = number of boys in section A = 3x
P = 2/3 of Q
2x = 2/3 (3x)
2x = 2x
So, statement I is true.
33 1/3% of total number of girls = 1/3 (10x) = 10x/3
20% of total boys = 0.2(6x) = 1.2x
P = 2x
So, statement II is not true.
3P = 2Q
3(2x) = 2(3x)
6x = 6x
So, statement III is true.

Q.121)
What percent boys are in section B?
33.33%
16.67%
25%
15%
20%
Answer - (b)
Boys Girls Total
A 3x 5x 8x
B X 2x 3x
C 2x 3x 5x
Total 6x 10x 16x

Total boys = 6x
Boys in section B = x
Required percentage = x / 6x = 1/6 = 16.67%

Q.122)
Ansh borrowed 80 books from library A and 120 from library B. Some books are of English
language while some are of regional languages. X% of total books were in English language.
Number of books in regional language are equal to 1.25 times the books in library B. What is the
value of X?
50
33.33
25
20
40
Answer - (c)
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Number of books in regional language = 1.25 x 120 = 150

Number of English books = 200 – 150 = 50
Number of English books in percentage = 50/200 x 100 = 25%
So, X = 25

Q.123)
Consider the below given two equations. You are given two quantities below the equations namely
QI and QII. You are required to calculate both the quantities and then compare them.
Y: ax2 – bx + 1 = 0; where 4 < a < b < 8 and ‘a’ and ‘b’ are distinct whole numbers
Z: d/e + c/f – 1 = 3; where 1 < e, c, f < d < 7 and ‘d’, ‘e’, ‘c’ and ‘f’ are all distinct whole numbers
QI: Value of smallest root of Y
QII: Value of reciprocal of smallest number among d, c, e and f
QI > QII
QI < QII
QI ≤ QII
QI ≥ QII
QI = QII or no relation can be established
Answer - (b)
Equation Y will have the smallest roots when a = 5 and b = 7.
Smallest Root = (7 - √(49 – 20)) / 10
QI = Smallest root = 0.161 (approx.)
d/e + c/f – 1 = 3
d/e + c/f = 4
6/4 + 5/2 = 1.5 + 2.5 = 4
Also, 6/3 + 4/2 = 2 + 2 = 4
So, d = 6
e = 4 or 3
c = 5 or 4
f=2
So, ‘f’ is the smallest among the four and its reciprocal is 1/2 = 0.5 = QII
Hence, QII > QI

Q.124)
Below are given two expressions and then two quantities (QI and QII) below it. Compare the two
quantities and mark your answer accordingly.
Expression 1: 1/a + 1/b + 1
Expression 2: a3 – b2 – 4
3 < a < b < 10
And a and b are integers
Q1: Maximum value of expression 1 + Minimum value of expression 2
Q2: (- 9)
QI > QII
QI < QII
QI ≤ QII
QI ≥ QII
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QI = QII or no relation can be established

Answer - (b)
1/a + 1/b + 1
The above expression will have the maximum value when ‘a’ and ‘b’ are minimum.
1/a = 1/4
1/b = 1/5
So, 1/4 + 1/5 + 1 = (5 + 4 + 20) / 20 = 29/20
a3 – b2 – 4
The above expression will have minimum value when ‘a’ is minimum and ‘b’ is maximum
So, b = 9 and a = 4
43 – 92 – 4 = 64 – 81 – 4 = -21
So, (29/20 – 21) < (- 9)
Or, QI < QII

Q.125)
Anshu invested Rs. P in scheme X for 3 years at Compound Interest @ 20% per annum and Ronit
invested 36 2/5% of P for T years in scheme Y at Simple Interest @ 10% per annum. Interest
earned is equal in both the schemes.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
I. P is greater than 3000.
II. T is greater than 19.
III. P is certainly a multiple of 250.
IV. T is less than 25.
I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only
II only
II and IV only
All I, II, III and IV
Answer - (d)
Interest earned by Anshu = P{(1.2)3 – 1}
36 2/5 % of P = 182/500 x P = 91P/250
Interest earned by Ronit = (91P x 10 x T) / (100 x 250)
P{6/5 x 6/5 x 6/5 – 1} = 91PT/2500
216/125 – 1 = 91T/2500
91/125 = 91T/2500
T = 2500/125 = 20 years
We cannot find out the value of ‘P’.

Q.126)
Consider the below statements and then answer the question accordingly:
I: X is a two digit number in which the tenth digit is 'B' and the unit digit is 'A'; where A is greater
than 1 and A < B.
II: Unit digits of A2, A3, A4 are same, where A is unit digit of given number.
III: Multiplication of both 'A' and 'B' is a multiple of 7.
If Y is the number obtained on interchanging the digits of X, then, Y is closest to,
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69
58
76
64
74
Answer - (b)
From statement I, X = BA; where A > 1 and A < B
From statement II, A = 5 or 6
So, the number X = B5 or B6
From statement III, B = 7 (7x5 = 35 which is a multiple of 7 and 7x6 = 42 which is also a multiple of
7)
So, X = 75 or 76
Y = 57 or 67
So, 58 is the closest value from the given options.

Q.127)
P litres of mixture contains milk and water, in which water is 25%.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. If P/4 Iitres of water is added to the mixture, then water becomes 40% of the total mixture.
2. If 9P/44 Iitres of milk is removed from the mixture and replaced with same quantity of water,
then the ratio of milk and water becomes 6:5.
3. 20% of the mixture is removed and replaced with water. This process is repeated one more
time. The ratio of milk and water now is 24:25.
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 2 and 3
Only 1 and 3
None of these
Answer - (b)
Original Milk = 3P/4
Original water = P/4
In Statement 1,
New quantity of water = P/4 + P/4 = P/2
New ratio of milk and water = 3/4 : 1/2 = 3/4 : 2/4 = 3 : 2
So, water becomes 40% of the total mixture.
Hence, statement 1 is true.
In statement 2,
New quantity of milk = 3P/4 - 9P/44 = 24P/44
New quantity of milk = P/4 + 9P/44 = 20P/44
New ratio = 24 : 20 = 6 : 5
So, statement 2 is also true.
In statement 3,
New quantity of milk = 3P/4 x 4/5 x 4/5 = 12P/25
New quantity of water = P – 12P/25 = 13P/25
Ratio = 12 : 13 = 24 : 26
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So, statement III is false.

Q.128)
A circle of radius “r” metre is inscribed in a rectangle of length Y metre such that the circle touches
both the sides of the rectangle. The cost of fencing the circle and rectangle is Rs 4620 and Rs
8820 respectively. The cost of fencing per metre is the same for both circle and rectangle. Find the
perimeter of a square inscribed inside the circle.
2√2Y metres
√2Y/3 metres
3Y/√2 metres
√2Y metres
2Y metres
Answer - (d)
Perimeter of circle = 2 x 22/7 x r
Perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + b)
L=Y
B = 2r (since the diameter of the circle is equal to the breadth of the rectangle)
Let cost of fencing per metre be ‘P’
(2(Y + 2r) x P) / (2 x 22/7 x r x P) = 8820/4620
(Y + 2r)/(22/7 x r) = 21/11
(Y + 2r)/r = 6
Y + 2r = 6r
Y = 4r
Diagonal of the square = diameter of the circle = 2r
So, side of the square = √2r
Perimeter of the square = 4√2r = √2Y metres

Q.129)
In which of the following statements, profit percentage are equal?
I. An article with cost price of Rs 2200 and marked price of Rs 3162.50 which is offered at a
discount of 20%.
II. An article is sold for Rs 8400 whose marked price is Rs 10800 which is 150% of the cost price
of the article.
III. An article is sold at a discount of Rs 1650 which is equal to 20%. The profit earned is Rs 1100.
IV. An article whose cost price is Rs 4200 is sold at a discount of 25% on the list price. The
discount offered in Rs 1610.
II and III only
I and II only
II and IV only
III and IV only
I and IV only
Answer - (e)
From statement I,
SP = 3162.5 x 0.8 = 2530
Profit% = (2530 – 2200) / 2200 = 15%
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From statement II,

CP = 10800/1.5 = 7200
Profit% = (8400 – 7200)/7200 = 16.67%
From statement III,
20% of MP = 1650
MP = 1650/0.2 = 8250
SP = 8250 – 1650 = 6600
CP = 6600 – 1100 = 5500
Profit% = 1100/5500 = 20%
From statement IV,
25% of MP = 1610
MP = 1610/0.25 = 6440
SP = 6440 – 1610 = 4830
Profit% = (4830 – 4200)/4200 = 15%

Instructions for Q.130 to Q.134

Consider the below data about 5 watches as follows:
Watches Loss Discount % Marked Price
A ---- 23 1800
B 140 15 ----
C 228 22 ----
D 142 11 2200
E ---- ---- 1200

Average loss of B, C, D and E is 183.25

Q.130)
If the cost price of watch A is 80% of the cost price of watch D, then what is the loss incurred on
selling watch A?
Rs 294
Rs 223
Rs 284
Rs 420
Rs 304
Answer - (a)
SP of watch D = 2200 x 0.89 = 1958
CP of D = 1958 + 142 = 2100
CP of A = 2100 x 0.8 = 1680
SP of A = 1800 x 0.77 = 1386
Loss on A = 1680 – 1386 = Rs 294

Q.131)
Considering the additional information given in the previous question, what is the average loss
incurred on all the five watches?
Rs 204.4
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Rs 207.4
Rs 203.4
Rs 205.4
Rs 206.4
Answer - (d)
Average loss on B, C, D and E = 183.25
(140 + 228 + 142 + E) / 4 = 183.25
510 + E = 733
Loss on E = 223
So, average loss = (294 + 140 + 228 + 142 + 223) / 5 = 1027/5 = Rs 205.4

Q.132)
If the loss percentage incurred on watch B is 16%, then the marked price of watch B is
approximately how much percent of the marked price of watch E?
75%
64%
72%
61%
84%
Answer - (c)
16% of CP of B = 140
CP of B = 875
SP of B = 875 – 140 = 735
MP of B = 735/0.85 = 864.7
Required percentage = 864.7/1200 = 72% (approx.)

Q.133)
If the average of the marked price of watches B, C and D is Rs 2400 and the ratio of the marked
price of watches B and C is 16 : 9, then find the sum of the cost price of watches B and C?
Rs 4352
Rs 4264
Rs 5000
Rs 4124
Rs 4492
Answer - (e)
Total MP of B, C and D = 2400 x 3 = 7200
Sum of MP of B and C = 7200 – 220 = 5000
MP of B = 16/25 x 5000 = 3200
MP of C = 9/25 x 5000 = 1800
SP of B = 3200 x 0.85 = 2720
SP of C = 1800 x 0.78 = 1404
CP of B = 2720 + 140 = 2860
CP of C = 1404 + 228 = 1632
CP of B + CP of C = 2860 + 1632 = 4492

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Q.134)
If the ratio of cost price and marked price for watch B is 6 : 7, then find the selling price of watch B.
Rs 16380
Rs 16660
Rs 19600
Rs 16800
Rs 17240
Answer - (b)
Let CP be 6y and MP be 7y
So, SP = 6y – 140
Also, SP = 7y x 0.85
Equating both the expressions,
6y – 140 = 7y x 0.85
6y – 140 = 5.95y
0.05y = 140
y = 2800
SP = 6(2800) – 140 = 16660

Instructions for Q.135 to Q.138

A game is being played consisting of three rounds. Only 4 balls are being played in each round.
In round I, on each ball either 2 or 4 points are being scored
In round II, on each ball either 3 or 6 points are being scored
In round III, on each ball either 1 or 5 points are being scored
Difference between points scored on 1st ball in round I and II is 4.
Average points scored on 1st, 2nd and 3rd ball in round I is 3 1/3.
Points scored on 2nd ball in round II is less than points scored on 2nd ball in rounds I and III
individually
Points scored on 3rd ball in rounds II and III together is 11
Points scored on 1st and 4th ball in round III is less than that scored on 2nd and 3rd ball
Runs scored on 4th ball in rounds I, II and III together is 8
Runs scored on all balls on round 3 together is not more than 12.

Q.135)
What is the difference between the runs scored on Ball 1 in round II and runs scored on ball 4 in
round III?
6
5
4
3
2
Answer - (b)
Round I Round II Round III
Ball 1 2 6 1 9
Ball 2 4 3 5 12
Ball 3 4 6 5 15
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Ball 4 4 3 1 8
14 18 12

Required difference = 6 – 1 = 5

Q.136)
What is the average of runs scored on all balls in round II?
3
3.75
3.5
4.5
5
Answer - (d)
Round I Round II Round III
Ball 1 2 6 1 9
Ball 2 4 3 5 12
Ball 3 4 6 5 15
Ball 4 4 3 1 8
14 18 12

Average = 18/4 = 4.5

Q.137)
On which ball were the highest runs scored taking all the rounds together?
Ball 1
Ball 2
Ball 3
Ball 4
There are two balls on which same highest number of runs were scored
Answer - (c)
Round I Round II Round III
Ball 1 2 6 1 9
Ball 2 4 3 5 12
Ball 3 4 6 5 15
Ball 4 4 3 1 8
14 18 12

Q.138)
Which of the following statements is correct?
The maximum runs were scored on ball 3 of round III.
The runs scored on ball 4 in round II is more than the runs scored on the same ball in round I.
The total runs scored in round III is 8.
Average runs scored on ball 3 is 5.
The sum of runs scored on ball 3 of round II and ball 2 of round III is 10.
Answer - (d)
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Round I Round II Round III

Ball 1 2 6 1 9
Ball 2 4 3 5 12
Ball 3 4 6 5 15
Ball 4 4 3 1 8
14 18 12

Q.139)
Find the ratio of age of Rahul after 6 years and age of Tina before 2 years.
Statement 1: The sum of present ages of Rahul and Tina is 88 years.
Statement 2: Tina is 26 years and 16 years younger than Rahul and Anjali respectively.
Statement 3: Ratio of present ages of Rahul and Anjali is 7:6.
The answer can be calculated by using
I. 1 and 2 together
II. 2 and 3 together
III. 1 and 3 together
Only I
Both I and II
Both I and III
Both II and III
None of these
Answer – (b)
From statement 1,
R + T = 88
From statement 2,
T + 26 = R
T + 16 = A
R – 26 = A – 16
R – A = 10
From statement 3,
R = 7y; A = 6y
Combining 1 and 2,
T = 31; R = 57
So, 1 and 2 together are sufficient.
Combining 2 and 3,
R – A = 10
So, 7y – 6y = 10
y = 10
So, R = 70 and A = 60
Also, T = R – 26
T = 70 – 26 = 44
So, 2 and 3 together are also sufficient.

Q.140)
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A car with speed of x km/hr can cover a distance of 2d km in 8 hrs. Speed of a boat in still water is
x km/hr and speed of the current is y km/hr. The boat can travel d km upstream and return to the
initial point in 8(1/3) hrs. Time taken by the boat to cover 72 km downstream is 2 hrs more than to
cover 24 km upstream. Find the time taken by the boat to cover 108km in still water.
i. (2y(x+y))/x
ii. {3y(x-y)} / x
iii. {2x(x+y)} / y
Only i and iii
Only ii
Only i and ii
All i, ii and iii
None of the above
Answer - (c)
Speed of car = x km/hr
So, x = 2d/8 = d/4
Or, d = 4x
d/(x-y) + d/(x+y) = 25/3
or, 4x/(x-y) + 4x/(x+y) = 25/3
(4x2 + 4xy + 4x2 – 4xy)/(x2 – y2) = 25/3
8x2/(x2 – y2) = 25/3
24x2 = 25x2 – 25y2
x2 = 25y2
x = 5y
Also, 72/(x+y) = 2 + 24/(x-y)
72/6y = 2 + 24/4y
12/y = 2 + 6/y
6/y = 2
y=3
So, x = 5y = 15
And d = 4x = 60
Required time = 108/x = 108/15 = 36/5 hours
Now check for the expressions:
(2y(x+y))/x = 6(18)/15 = 108/15; so (i) holds
{3y(x-y)}/x = 9(12)/15 = 108/15; so (ii) holds
{2x(x+y)}/y = 30(18)/3 = 180; so (iii) does not hold

Reasoning

Q.141)
In the word ‘GLASTONBURY’, change every vowel after k to the third consonant after it...and
every consonant to previous letter and then after changing, delete the letters that appear more
than once and vowels if left.
Which of the following letter will come in the middle of the newly formed word?

pg. 75
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X
R
K
S
M
Answer - (d)
G–1=F
L–1=K
A=A
S -1 = R
T–1=S
O+3=R
N–1=M
B–1=A
U+3=X
R–1=Q
Y–1=X
The word formed is ‘FKARSRMAXQX’
Now delete the vowels and letters that appear more than once.
FKRSMXQ
So, letter ‘S’ comes in the middle.

Q.142)
Consider the following words which have one blank each. You are required to fill the blanks from
one of the given options so as to form meaningful English word.
K __ F A
R B __ L
__ L G O
E T L __
SATO
LUCW
GOEF
NEWB
EIJM
Answer - (b)
The meaningful words formed are: FALK, BLUR, CLOG and WELT.

Instructions for Q.143 to Q.147

Input: erase 47 92 wound limbo 36 prove 85 28 hasty 63 cards
Step 1: woune erase 47 92 limbo 36 prove 85 hasty 63 cards 29
Step 2: provf woune erase 47 92 limbo 85 hasty 63 cards 29 37
Step 3: limbp provf woune erase 92 85 hasty 63 cards 29 37 48
Step 4: hastz limbp provf woune erase 92 85 cards 29 37 48 64
Step 5: erasf hastz limbp provf woune 92 cards 29 37 48 64 86
Step 6: cardt erasf hastz limbp provf woune 29 37 48 64 86 93
pg. 76
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Step 6 is the last step.

Find the final output and various steps for the below given input:
Input: bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal yatch 25 feel 84 18 train

Q.143)
Which of the following is the third element from the right end in step 3 for the above input?
26
yatci
19
feel
84
Answer - (c)
Input: erase 47 92 wound limbo 36 prove 85 28 hasty 63 cards
Step 1: woune erase 47 92 limbo 36 prove 85 hasty 63 cards 29
In Step 1, the last word as per dictionary (from the given words) has been placed on the extreme
left and the last letter of the word has been replaced with the succeeding letter. Also, the smallest
number has been placed at the extreme right and 1 is added to the number.
Step 2: provf woune erase 47 92 limbo 85 hasty 63 cards 29 37
In Step 2, again the last word as per dictionary (after the word ‘wound’) has been placed at the
extreme left and last letter of the word has been replaced with the succeeding letter. Also, the next
smallest number has been placed at the extreme right and 1 is added to the number.
This process is being repeated till all the words are placed on the left and all the numbers on the
right.
Now,
Input: bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal yatch 25 feel 84 18 train
Step 1: yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal 25 feel 84 train 19
Step 2: traio yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal feel 84 19 26
Step 3: nocturnam traio yatci bride master 77 61 feel 84 19 26 40
Step 4: mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 77 feel 84 19 26 40 62
Step 5: feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 84 19 26 40 62 78
Step 6: bridf feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci 19 26 40 62 78 85
Step 6 is the final output.
Instep 3, third element from the right end is ‘19’

Q.144)
The elements ‘bride 77 feel’ come together in the same order in which of the below steps?
Step 2
Step 4
Step 5
Step 6
Step 3
Answer - (b)
Input: bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal yatch 25 feel 84 18 train
Step 1: yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal 25 feel 84 train 19
Step 2: traio yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal feel 84 19 26
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Step 3: nocturnam traio yatci bride master 77 61 feel 84 19 26 40

Step 4: mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 77 feel 84 19 26 40 62
Step 5: feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 84 19 26 40 62 78
Step 6: bridf feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci 19 26 40 62 78 85
Step 6 is the final output.

Q.145)
Which of the following elements is fourth to the left of element which is seventh from the left end of
Step 5?
mastes
traio
62
40
nocturnam
Answer - (e)
Input: bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal yatch 25 feel 84 18 train
Step 1: yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal 25 feel 84 train 19
Step 2: traio yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal feel 84 19 26
Step 3: nocturnam traio yatci bride master 77 61 feel 84 19 26 40
Step 4: mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 77 feel 84 19 26 40 62
Step 5: feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 84 19 26 40 62 78
Step 6: bridf feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci 19 26 40 62 78 85
Step 6 is the final output.
‘84’ is seventh from the left end in Step 5.
The element which is fourth to the left of ‘84’ in step 5 is ‘nocturnam’.

Q.146)
Which of the following elements are placed in the middle in step number 6?
bride 84
77 feel
traio 26
yatci 19
bridf 85
Answer - (d)
Input: bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal yatch 25 feel 84 18 train
Step 1: yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal 25 feel 84 train 19
Step 2: traio yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal feel 84 19 26
Step 3: nocturnam traio yatci bride master 77 61 feel 84 19 26 40
Step 4: mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 77 feel 84 19 26 40 62
Step 5: feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 84 19 26 40 62 78
Step 6: bridf feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci 19 26 40 62 78 85
Step 6 is the final output.

Q.147)

pg. 78
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What is the sum of the fourth element from the right end in step 3 and eighth element from the left
end in step 5?
[a] 103
[b] 96
[c] 168
[d] 38
[e] 161
Answer - (a)
Input: bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal yatch 25 feel 84 18 train
Step 1: yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal 25 feel 84 train 19
Step 2: traio yatci bride 39 master 77 61 nocturnal feel 84 19 26
Step 3: nocturnam traio yatci bride master 77 61 feel 84 19 26 40
Step 4: mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 77 feel 84 19 26 40 62
Step 5: feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci bride 84 19 26 40 62 78
Step 6: bridf feem mastes nocturnam traio yatci 19 26 40 62 78 85
Step 6 is the final output.
Fourth element from the right end in step 3 = 84
Eighth element from the left end in step 5 = 19
Sum = 84 + 19 = 103

Instructions for Q.148 to Q.151

Below question consist of some conclusions followed by some statements in the option. Study the
following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is true for the given
conclusion.

Q.148)
Conclusion:
Some Briefcase are not Umbrella.
Some Umbrella not being Charger is a possibility.
Some Truck can never be Charger.

Some Umbrella are Truck. All Truck are Briefcase. No Briefcase is Umbrella. Some Umbrella are
Charger. All Glass are Charger.
All Briefcase is Umbrella. Some Umbrella are Charger. Some Charger are Truck. All Truck are
Glass. No Glass is Water.
Some Truck are Water. All Water are Umbrella. No Umbrella is Charger. Some Charger are
Briefcase. All Briefcase are Glass.
Only Water are Truck. Some Glass are Briefcase. No Umbrella is Glass. Some Water are
Umbrella. All Briefcase are Charger.
Some Briefcase are Umbrella. All Umbrella are Charger. No Charger is Truck. All Truck are Glass.
Some Glass are not Water.
Answer - (d)
Option B gets eliminated because it says ‘All Briefcase is Umbrella’ whereas in the conclusion it is
given ‘Some Briefcase are not Umbrella’.

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Option C is also eliminated because it says ‘No Umbrella is Charger’ which is a definite
conclusion. So the conclusion ‘Some Umbrella not being Charger is a possibility’ does not follow
because ‘no umbrella is charger’ is a definite conclusion and hence not a possibility.
Option E is also eliminated because it contains ‘All umbrella are charger’ whereas in the
conclusion it is given ‘Some Umbrella not being Charger is a possibility.’
Option A is also eliminated as it is not possible to make a diagram of it.
So, option D should be the answer. The basic diagram of it is as follows:

Since only water are truck, so truck cannot be anything else except water. So, all the three
conclusion follows from statements in Option D.

Q.149)
Conclusion:
Some football can never be Chess.
Some Volleyball not being Boxing is a possibility.
Some Boxing can be Cricket.
All Cricket are Football. No Football is Volleyball. Some Boxing are Chess. No Chess is Cricket.
Some Cricket are Football. All Football are Volleyball. Some Chess are Boxing. No Boxing is
Volleyball. No Chess is Cricket.
Only Football are Cricket. Some Football are Chess. No chess is Volleyball. All Volleyball are
Boxing.
Some Cricket are Football. All Football are Chess. Some Chess are Boxing. Some Boxing are
Volleyball.
No Cricket is Football. Some Football are Volleyball. All Boxing are Chess. No Chess is Cricket.
Answer - (a)
Option B is eliminated because it says ‘No Boxing is Volleyball’ which makes the conclusion
‘Some Volleyball not being Boxing is a possibility’ false because ‘no boxing is volleyball’ is a
definite statement and hence we cannot get a possible conclusion between volleyball and boxing.
Option C is eliminated because it contains ‘all volleyball are boxing’ which makes the conclusion
‘some volleyball not being boxing is a possibility’ false.
Option D is eliminated because it says ‘All football are chess’ which makes the conclusion ‘some
football can never be chess’ false.
Option E is eliminated because it says ‘All Boxing are Chess. No Chess is Cricket’ which implies
‘No boxing is Cricket’ which makes the conclusion ‘Some boxing can be cricket’ false.
The basic diagram for Option A is as follows:

We can draw possible diagrams for option A to check for possible conclusions.

Q.150)
Conclusion:
I) Some N are R.
II) All O which are N is also S is a possibility.
III) Some Z are R.
Some M are R. Only a few R are O. No O is N. Some N is S. All S are Z.
Some M are O. Only a few O are R. No R is S. Some S is N. All N are Z.
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Some M are O. Only a few O are R. No N are R. Some N are S. All S are Z.
Some O are R. Some M are O. Some R are N. Some N are S. All N are Z.
All Follows.
Answer - (d)
Option C is eliminated because it contains ‘No N are R’ whereas conclusion I contains ‘some N
are R’.
So, Option E is also eliminated.
Option A is also eliminated because it contains ‘No O is N’ which makes conclusion II false.
Option B is also eliminated because ‘some N are R’ and ‘some Z are R’ does not always follow.
This is because option B contains ‘No R is S’.
So, option D is the answer and its basic diagram is as follows:

Q.151) Conclusion:
Some Red are not Carrot.
Some Chili being not Garlic is a possibility.
Some Green are not Tomato.
Some Garlic are not Chili. All Garlic are Red. No Red is Carrot. Some Carrot are Green. All Green
are Tomato.
All Red are Tomato. Some Tomato are Green. No Green is Chili. All Chili are Carrot. Some Garlic
are Carrot.
All Red are Chili. All Tomato are Garlic. Some Garlic are Carrot. No Chili is Carrot. Some Green
are Chili. No Green is Garlic.
All Carrot are Chili. Some Chili are Tomato. No tomato is Green. Some Green are Garlic. No
Garlic is Red.
None of these
Answer - (c)
Option A is eliminated because it contains ‘all green are tomato’ which makes conclusion III false.
From option B, we can draw the below possible diagram which makes conclusion I false.

So, Option B is also eliminated.

From Option C,

So, Option C is the answer as all the conclusions follow from Option C.

Q.152)
Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces in order to complete the
given expression in such a manner that makes the expressions ‘J ^ F' and 'K ? G' true?
K ? J % H ___ G ^ F ! E
^
+
%
?
Either (a) or (c)
Answer - (e)
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‘J ^ F’ means J ≥ F
'K ? G' means K = G
Now, the questions says make both the expressions ‘true’ but not ‘definitely true’.
K ? J % H ___ G ^ F ! E
K > J = H ___ G ≥ F < E
So, either ‘=’ or ‘≥’ will make both the expressions true.
So, Option E is the right answer.

Instructions for Q.153 to Q.157

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two/three statements given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:
Q.153)
Six boxes namely – P, Q, R, S, T and U are kept one above other. Each box contains different
article viz. Watch, Card, Radio, Book, Mobile and Laptop. All the information given are not
necessary in same order. Box R is kept second from bottom at a gap of two boxes from one
contains Card. Box U, which is neither kept at bottom nor adjacent to one that contains Card, is
kept at a gap of one box from one that contains Watch. Box P contains Book is kept at top. Which
box is kept just below one that contains Radio?
I. Only two boxes are kept between box Q and T, Q which is kept adjacent to box S. Box that
contains Radio is kept below one that contains Laptop. Box Q contains Mobile.
II. Box Q, which is neither kept adjacent to one contains Book nor at bottom, is kept just above one
that contains Laptop. Only one box is kept between one that contains Radio and Mobile.
If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer - (a)
From the initial information in the question, we get:
Box Article
P Book
Card

U
R
Watch

From statement I alone:

Box Article
P Book
S Card
Q Mobile
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U Laptop
R Radio
T Watch

Box T is kept just below the one that contains Radio. Hence, I alone is sufficient.
Now using statement II alone:
Box Article
P Book
S/T Card
Q Mobile/radio
U Laptop
R Radio/mobile
T/S Watch
So, II alone is not sufficient.

Q.154)
Seven friends namely – Amar, Rekha, Pinku, Hetal, Romy, Zoya and Monty are sitting in a row
facing north but not necessarily in the same order. How many persons sit left of Monty?
I. Amar sits second to the left of Pinku. Only two persons sit between Romy and Pinku. Rekha sits
immediate left of Amar. Hetal is not an immediate neighbour of Pinku.
II. Zoya sits third to the left of Hetal, who sits immediate left of Romy. Neither Zoya nor Hetal sits
at end of the row. Only two persons sit between Rekha and Pinku, who is an immediate neighbour
of Zoya. Rekha sits at one end of the row.
If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer - (e)
From statement I alone,
Rekha Amar Zoya / Monty Pinku Monty / Zoya Hetal Romy

So, exact position of Monty is not known. Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient.
From statement II alone,
Rekha Monty / Amar Zoya Pinku Amar / Monty Hetal Romy

Again, exact position of Monty is not known. Hence, statement II alone is not sufficient.
Combining I and II,
Rekha Amar Zoya Pinku Monty Hetal Romy

So, four persons sit to the left of Monty.

Hence, I and II together are sufficient.

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Q.155)
Six persons namely – P, Q, R, S, T and U lives in six floored building marked 1 to 6 in such a way
that lowermost floor is marked 1 and topmost floor is marked 6. Each person likes different fruits
viz. Orange, Guava, Banana, Mango, Apple and Grapes. All the information are not necessary in
same order. P lives on floor marked 4 at gap of two floor from one who likes Guava. U lives on
even numbered floor at a gap of two floor from one who likes Grapes. Neither P nor U likes
Banana. Q lives on adjacent floor of one who likes Guava. One who lives Banana lives on any
floor above Q. How many person lives below one who likes Apple?
I. Only two person lives between one who likes Mango and R. Neither U nor Q likes Mango. One
who likes Apple and Guava doesn’t lives on adjacent floors. Only two person lives between one
who likes Orange and S.
II. One who likes Orange lives on even numbered floor but not adjacent floor of one who likes
Banana. T lives on adjacent floor of one who likes Orange. S and one who likes Mango lives on
adjacent floor. Only two person lives between one who likes Apple and T.
If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer - (a)
From the initial information in the question, we get
Floor Person Fruit
6 U
5 Banana
4 P
3 Grapes
2 Q
1 Guava

Now using I alone, we get

Floor Person Fruit
6 U Apple
5 S Banana
4 P Mango
3 T Grapes
2 Q Orange
1 R Guava

So, I alone is sufficient.

Now, using II alone, we get two possibilities
Possibility 1:
Floor Person Fruit
6 U Apple
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5 S Banana
4 P Mango
3 T Grapes
2 Q Orange
1 R Guava

Possibility 2:
Floor Person Fruit
6 U Mango
5 S Banana
4 P Apple
3 R Grapes
2 Q Orange
1 T Guava

So, statement II alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the exact floor of the person who likes
apple.

Q.156)
What is the direction of point O with respect to point I?
I. Point A is 5 m to the north of point P. Point D is 4 m to the south of point C. Point P is 6 m to the
east of point C.
II. Point B is 3 m to the east of point P. Point I is 6 m to the east of point F. Point B is 4 m to the
north of point F.
III. Point N is 2 m to the north of point M. Point A is 4 m to the west of point M. Point N is 6 m to
the east of point O.
All I, II and III
Both II and III
Only II
II and either I or III
Both I and II
Answer - (a)
Combining all three, we get

So, point O is the north-west direction with respect to point I.

Q.157)
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, U are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing the center
while some are facing away from the center. How many persons are facing inside?
I. P sits third to the right of Q, who is facing outside. Both R and U are immediate neighbour of
each other. S is not an immediate neighbour of Q.
II. U sits second to the left of Q, who is sitting third to the left of P. R sits second to the right of T.
If statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.

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If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
If both the statements I and II taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If both the statements I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the question.
Answer - (d)
From statement I:
Case 1:

Case 2:

So, statement I alone is not sufficient.

From statement II:
Case 1:

Case 2:

So, statement II alone is not sufficient.

Combining I and II:

So, even I and II together are not sufficient.

Instruction for Q.158

Below is given a passage followed by certain assumptions. You have to check which of the given
assumptions is implicit in the passage.
Q.158)
Passage: A diversified brick and mortar company recently hired a web designer and created an
interesting online clothing catalogue to take its Clothing business online. As a result, the company
had a huge uptick in the volume of sales in the Clothing segment. The spurt was caused due to
increased orders from digitally literate clients. Now, the company is planning to take another of its
business segment, namely electronic goods, online. Which of the following assumptions hold?
Other Electronic Goods companies doesn't have online presence.
Digitally literate clients will be interested in Electronic Goods.
The same web designer can be used for designing Electronic goods catalogue too.
Other companies do not have quality web designers.
The company can wind up its brick and mortar business.
Answer - (b)
Assumption B holds because it has been mentioned in the passage that “The spurt was caused
due to increased orders from digitally literate clients.” So, it implies that the company assumes
similar response for its electronic goods segment as well.

Q.159)
Statement: Excessive amounts of lead in drinking water, associated with certain types of industrial
pollution, have been shown to cause lung cancer. Ajanta Island has an economy based
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completely on subsistence level agriculture. there are no industries in the island. The inhabitants
of Ajanta island have in the last 50 years shown high incidence of lung cancer.
Which of the following can be validly inferred from the above statement?
Inferences:
I. Lead in drinking water is absolutely safe.
II. Lung cancer must have causes other than lead in drinking water.
III. Lead in drinking water must have sources other than industrial pollution.
II only
III only
II or III
II or III or both
none of the above
Answer - (d)
The statement portrays about the impact of lead in drinking water, in causing cancer. Inference I –
states that lead is safe, which contradicts the statement, hence this option can be omitted. Other
inferences II and III talks about the impacts of lead causing cancer, hence option D is the correct
choice.

Q.160)
Statement: Green marketing is concerned with choosing, developing, and promoting commodities
that meet the quality, quantity, and price expectations of consumers without negatively impacting
the environment. The demands, wants, and needs of human beings are limitless; however, the
sources available to satisfy them are limited. A study found that most consumers of green
products are very likely to be educated young people, aware of eco-friendly practices. To put it
simply, it is the marketing of eco-friendly products and services.
Which of the given options will be the best conclusion as per the paragraph given above?
A product's features and benefits should be communicated to buyers.
Bamboo products and products made of corn-starch or those without plastic tend to excite these
individuals.
Green products should be developed, priced and positioned carefully.
Marketers should use effective communication tools to inform buyers about the benefits of
biodegradable products.
A product's eco-friendliness depends on the entire production process that goes into it.
Answer - (d)
A conclusion logically completes an idea that has been mentioned in the paragraph. The last few
lines of the paragraph describe that the people who are aware of the effects of the environment or
the availability of alternative products that do not harm the environment only tend to use them. So,
more awareness must be created. So, Option D is the most suitable answer.

Q.161)
The ministry of sports has been advised by a committee to take the highest award in the field of
sports back from two players who were allegedly involved in match fixing. Which of the following
statements would weaken the argument put forward by the committee to the sports ministry?
A good conduct in the past and a lack of evidence against the players make the case against them
very weak.
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The ministry of sports has never declined the recommendations made by the committee earlier.
Taking the award back from the players would set a good example to other players for avoiding
such actions in the future.
There have been past cases where the award had to be taken back from the players owing to
some misconduct later on.
The committee is constituted of some of the most respected from the fields of sports and politics.
Answer - (a)
Option A weakens the argument put forward by the committee as it makes a case for forgiving the
players and not taking back the award from them.

Q.162)
STATEMENT: In the city, over 75% of the people are living in slums and substandard houses,
which is reflection of the housing and Urban Development policy of the government. Substandard
houses are often in severe disrepair. Substandard housing isn't just housing that's unattractive or
outdated, it's housing that poses a risk to the health, safety or physical well-being of occupants,
neighbours, or visitors. Substandard housing increases risk of disease, crime, social isolation and
poor mental health.
Course of Action:
1. There should be a separate Department looking after housing and Urban Development.
2. The policies in regard to the urban housing should be reviewed.
3. The policies regarding housing should also be reviewed so that such problem could be avoided
in rural areas.
Only 1 follows
Only 2 follows
Only 2 & 3 follow
None follows
All follow
Answer - (b)
The statement speaks of the failure of Housing and Urban development policies of the
government. Hence, the policy in regard to the urban housing should be reviewed.

Q.163)
Statement: For-profit colleges serve far fewer students than either public or private non-profit
colleges. At the same time, relative to non-profit colleges, for-profit colleges draw a
disproportionate share of federal and state financial aid, such as tuition grants and guaranteed
loans, for their students. It must be, then, that for-profit colleges enrol a greater proportion of
financially disadvantaged students than do non-profit colleges.
The statement above depends on which of the following assumptions?
Public non-profit colleges and private non-profit colleges enrol a similar proportion of financially
disadvantaged students.
For-profit colleges do not engage in fraudulent practices in helping their students obtain unneeded
federal and state financial aid.
The number of students receiving federal and state financial aid at for-profit colleges is greater
than the number of students receiving federal and state financial aid at non-profit colleges.
For-profit colleges are of similar educational quality as non-profit colleges.
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The majority of students at for-profit colleges do not default on repayment of their loans after they
complete college.
Answer - (b)
(A) Differences among non-profit colleges – such as public vs. private – are irrelevant to the
argument.
(B) This is the correct choice. One alternative reason that might explain the disproportionate aid
distribution is that for-profit colleges engaged in fraudulent practices to obtain unneeded financial
assistance for their students. This answer choice asserts that this was NOT in fact the case,
thereby eliminating this alternative explanation and highlighting a key assumption upon which the
statement rests.
(C) The actual number of students receiving aid at for-profit vs. non-profit colleges is irrelevant to
the statement.
(D) The relative educational quality of for-profit vs. non-profit colleges lies outside the scope of the
argument, which is focused solely on differences in financial aid distribution.
(E) Whether students successfully repay their loans after college is immaterial to the claim made
in the statement.

Instruction for Q.164

Below is given a statement followed by three course of actions. You have to check which of these
course of actions follow from the given statement and mark your answer accordingly.
Q.164)
Statement: According to the officials, paucity orphaned with organization has led to the pathetic
condition of this brilliant architectural structure. An organization is considered orphaned when the
organization Owner and all Project Collection Administrators are inactive in Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) or have left the company. This scenario causes the organization to have no
administrator and no way of transferring administrator rights to another user.
Course of Action:
1. A new architectural structure for the building should be designed.
2. Grant should be given to improve the condition of the structure.
3. The reason for the poor condition of the structure should be found out.
Only 1 follows
Only 2 follows
Only 2 & 3 follow
Only 3 follows
All follow
Answer - (b)
Nothing has been mentioned about architectural structure or any problem in it. So, action 1 does
not follow.
It has been mentioned in the first sentence that paucity is one of the main reason for pathetic
condition and hence course of action 2 follows.
Course of action 3 does not follow because reasons for poor condition have already been
mentioned in the passage.

Q.165)

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Statement: The solidity of bridge piers built on pilings depends largely on how deep the pilings are
driven. Prior to 1700, pilings were driven to refusal," that is, to the point at which they refused to go
any deeper. In a 1588 inquiry into the solidity of piers for Venice's Rialto Bridge, it was determined
that the bridge's builder, Antonio Da Ponte, had met the contemporary standard for refusal: he had
caused the pilings to be driven until additional penetration into the ground was no greater than two
inches after twenty-four hammer blows.
Which one of the following can properly be inferred from the passage?
The Rialto Bridge was built on unsafe pilings.
The standard of refusal was not sufficient to ensure the safety of a bridge.
Da Ponte's standard of refusal was less strict than that of other bridge builders of his day.
After 1588, no bridges were built on pilings that were driven to the point of refusal.
It is possible that the pilings of the Rialto Bridge could have been driven deeper even after the
standard of refusal had been met.
Answer - (e)
Option E is the correct answer. As stated in the statement, "he had caused the pilings to be driven
until additional penetration into the ground was no greater than two inches after twenty-four
hammer blows." The statement indicates that additional penetration was possible with a sufficient
number of hammer blows.

Q.166)
Max is clearly an incompetent detective. This is because, he has solved a smaller percentage of
the cases assigned to him in the last 3 years, i.e., only 1 out of 25, than any other detective on the
police force.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?
Max was previously a detective in a police department in another city, and in the 5 years he spent
there, he solved only 1 out of 40 crime cases.
Many of the officers in the police department in which Max serves were hired or promoted within
the last 5 years.
Before he became a detective, Max was a neighbourhood police officer and was highly respected
by the residents of the neighbourhood he patrolled.
Detectives on the police force on which Max serves are provided with extensive resources
including the use of a large computer database, to help them solve crimes.
Because the police chief regards Max as the most capable detective, he assigns him only the
most difficult cases, ones that others have failed to solve.
Answer - (e)
As per the argument, Max is clearly an incompetent detective as he has solved a smaller
percentage of the cases assigned to him in the last 3 years, i.e., only 1 out of 25. This argument
can be weakened by adding an explanation for the low proportion of cases solved by Max and
thus, challenging the premise. Option (e) says that since the police chief regards Max as the most
capable detective, he assigns him only the most difficult cases, ones that others have failed to
solve, and thus, adds the required explanation.

Instructions for Q.167 to Q.171

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

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Twelve people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L live on twelve different floors of the same

building. The ground floor of the building is numbered 1, the floor immediately above the ground
floor is numbered 2, and so on. The twelve people were born in the years 1965, 1967, 1972, 1976,
1987, 1989, 1990, 1997, 1998, 2000, 2003, and 2005 but not necessarily in the same order.
Calculate their ages with reference to the year 2020. Their marks in a particular test are 80, 25,
75, 64, 84, 83, 55, 70, 90, 76, 59, and 48. There are exactly four people between A and K. The
mark scored by I is equal to his present age and he lives immediately below J. H lives on a prime
numbered floor and the mark obtained by him is 10 more than his age. H’s age is the product of
his floor number and the floor number of F. F is the third youngest in the group and he doesn’t live
below H. The mark obtained by B is a perfect square and one person lives between B and I. If J
had scored one mark more than his present mark, it would have been a perfect square. At least 4
people live between K and D and the age of D is equal to the mark scored by J. The number of
people between B and L is one more than the number of people who live between A and K. L lives
immediately below K. D lives on the ground floor of the apartment.
Exactly two people live between K and I. Two people live between G and L. K and L were born in
consecutive years. The difference between the year of birth and the marks for both K and L is
1914. E who scored 80 marks lives immediately above K.
The age of J is an odd multiple of 11 and G was born immediately after J. The age of B is the
product of the floor numbers of I and H. The person who has scored the maximum number of
marks lives on the floor that is immediately above E and H was born immediately after E. The age
of C is also a multiple of 11. Mark of A is three times the mark scored by H and D has scored one
more than that of A. C has scored more than F.
Q.167)
Who lives on the floor immediately above H?
A
K
C
D
E
Answer - (c)
Floor Person Age Marks
12 B 30 64
11 J 33 48
10 I 55 55
9 G 31 90
8 E 17 80
7 K 23/22 83/84
6 L 23/22 83/84
5 F 20 59
4 C 44 70
3 H 15 25
2 A 53 75
1 D 48 76

Q.168)
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How much has F scored in the test?

59
70
80
90
25
Answer - (a)
Floor Person Age Marks
12 B 30 64
11 J 33 48
10 I 55 55
9 G 31 90
8 E 17 80
7 K 23/22 83/84
6 L 23/22 83/84
5 F 20 59
4 C 44 70
3 H 15 25
2 A 53 75
1 D 48 76

Q.169)
Who is the eldest in the group?
A
B
D
I
J
Answer - (d)
Floor Person Age Marks
12 B 30 64
11 J 33 48
10 I 55 55
9 G 31 90
8 E 17 80
7 K 23/22 83/84
6 L 23/22 83/84
5 F 20 59
4 C 44 70
3 H 15 25
2 A 53 75
1 D 48 76

Q.170)
What is the age of the person who has scored 84?
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23
22
20
15
Cannot be determined
Answer - (b)
Floor Person Age Marks
12 B 30 64
11 J 33 48
10 I 55 55
9 G 31 90
8 E 17 80
7 K 23/22 83/84
6 L 23/22 83/84
5 F 20 59
4 C 44 70
3 H 15 25
2 A 53 75
1 D 48 76

Q.171)
What is the difference between the marks of G and C?
5
10
15
20
25
Answer - (d)
Floor Person Age Marks
12 B 30 64
11 J 33 48
10 I 55 55
9 G 31 90
8 E 17 80
7 K 23/22 83/84
6 L 23/22 83/84
5 F 20 59
4 C 44 70
3 H 15 25
2 A 53 75
1 D 48 76

Instructions for Q.172 to Q.177

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

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Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are working in three different departments viz.
Production, Management and Finance at different posts i.e. manager and general manager. In the
finance department, only a manager post is available. They all have different ages. The age of the
one who is a general manager is an odd number whereas the age of the one who is a manager is
an even number. The age of each person is a whole number less than 90. All the information is
not necessarily in the same order. Minimum one person and maximum two persons are working at
each post of the given departments.
Note: If it is given that the person who is a general manager or manager works with A or the one
whose age is 65, then it indicates that both the person works in the same department but not
necessarily at the same post.
A is a general manager and works along with E. B is 31 years old and doesn’t work along with A.
The one whose age is 60 years works along with C. G is 53 years old and works along with A. C
neither works in the Management department nor in the Production department. The age of D is
equal to the sum of the ages of B and G. The one who works along with D is 2 years older than A.
The age of F is less than H. The difference between the ages of D and F is 48. F doesn’t work in
the Management department. Both F and D works in different departments. The age of E is twice
the age of C. The difference between the ages of C and H is 36. The age of A is less than 50
years.
Q.172)
Who among the following person works in the Production department?
The one who is 29 years old
The one who works along with H
The one who works along with F at the same post
B
Both (a) and (c)
Answer - (e)
The final arrangement is as follows:
Production Management Finance
General manager A(29), G(53) B(31) ----
Manager E(48), F(36) D(84) C(24), H(60)

Q.173)
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which among the
following one doesn’t belong to that group?
A
G
B
E
F
Answer - (c)
The final arrangement is as follows:
Production Management Finance
General manager A(29), G(53) B(31) ----
Manager E(48), F(36) D(84) C(24), H(60)

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All the four, except B, work in the production department.

Q.174)
Which of the following statement is/are true with respect to the final arrangement?
The one who is 24 years old works in the Finance department
A works in the Management department
G is a manager
Both (a) and (e)
The sum of the ages of A and C is less than 52
Answer - (a)
The final arrangement is as follows:
Production Management Finance
General manager A(29), G(53) B(31) ----
Manager E(48), F(36) D(84) C(24), H(60)

Q.175)
What is the sum of the ages of the persons who work in the Management department?
120
221
117
115
None of the above
Answer - (d)
The final arrangement is as follows:
Production Management Finance
General manager A(29), G(53) B(31) ----
Manager E(48), F(36) D(84) C(24), H(60)

Q.176)
How many persons’ age is more than H?
Four
One
Six
Two
Three
Answer - (b)
The final arrangement is as follows:
Production Management Finance
General manager A(29), G(53) B(31) ----
Manager E(48), F(36) D(84) C(24), H(60)

Q.177)
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Three persons are working as General Managers whereas five persons are working as Managers.
F is elder to C but younger to E.
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There is no General Manager in the Finance department.

The age of D is more than twice the age of E.
C is the youngest person whereas D is the eldest person.
Answer - (d)
The final arrangement is as follows:
Production Management Finance
General manager A(29), G(53) B(31) ----
Manager E(48), F(36) D(84) C(24), H(60)

Instructions for Q.178 to Q.183

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Nine persons – B, C, G, K, M, Q, T, W, and Z visited a tourist place during nine different months
viz.- January, March, April, July, August, September, October, November, and December in the
same year. Each person likes different colours viz. - Pink, Blue, Black, Yellow, Brown, White,
Orange, Red, and Green. All the above information is not necessary in the same order. Three
persons visited between the one who likes Pink and K, who visits in one of the month having an
even number of days. Three persons visited between the one who likes Brown and M, who doesn’t
like Red. The one who likes Brown visits in October. The number of persons visited between T
and the one who likes Brown is one less than the number of persons visited between C and the
one who likes Pink. C neither visited in December nor July. T neither likes Pink nor Red. The one
who likes White visited immediately before C, who neither likes Brown nor Orange. The number of
persons visited between Z and the one who likes White is one more than the number of persons
visited after the one who likes Red. Z visits in any month after the one who likes Blue. Two
persons visited between the one who likes Black and W, who visits in one of the month having an
odd number of days. W, who doesn’t like Pink, visits immediately after the one who likes Green.
Neither G nor Q likes Pink. The number of persons visited between B and the one who likes Blue
is one more than the number of persons visited between G and the one who likes Orange.
Q.178)
How many persons visited between T and the one who likes Brown?
Three
As many persons visited before the one who likes Black.
As many persons visited between the one who likes Green and C.
Either A or C
None of these
Answer - (c)
Month Name Colour
Jan Q Black
Mar B Pink
Apr M Green
Jul W White
Aug C Blue
Sep K Orange
Oct Z Brown
Nov G Red
Dec T Yellow
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Q.179) Who among the following person likes Yellow?

Z
The one who visited immediately after the one who likes Orange
K
The one who visited immediately before the one who likes Red.
None of these
Answer - (e)
Month Name Colour
Jan Q Black
Mar B Pink
Apr M Green
Jul W White
Aug C Blue
Sep K Orange
Oct Z Brown
Nov G Red
Dec T Yellow

Q.180)
Who among the following person likes Green?
B
The one who visited three persons after Q
The one who visited two persons before C
Either B or C
G
Answer - (c)
Month Name Colour
Jan Q Black
Mar B Pink
Apr M Green
Jul W White
Aug C Blue
Sep K Orange
Oct Z Brown
Nov G Red
Dec T Yellow

Q.181)
Four of the five are related to each other in a certain way and thus form a group, find the odd one
out?
C
The one who likes Black.
The one who likes Yellow
M
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Z
Answer - (d)
Month Name Colour
Jan Q Black
Mar B Pink
Apr M Green
Jul W White
Aug C Blue
Sep K Orange
Oct Z Brown
Nov G Red
Dec T Yellow
All the above except M visited in the month with odd number of days.

Q.182)
Which of the following statement is/are not true?
I. The one who likes Red visits immediately after Z.
II. Three persons visited between M and the one who likes Brown.
III. The one who likes Orange visited immediately before G.
Both II and III
Only III
Only I
Both I and II
None of these
Answer - (b)
Month Name Colour
Jan Q Black
Mar B Pink
Apr M Green
Jul W White
Aug C Blue
Sep K Orange
Oct Z Brown
Nov G Red
Dec T Yellow

Q.183)
Who among the following visited immediately before and after the one who likes Blue?
The one who likes Green and the one who likes Orange
K and the one who likes Brown
The one who likes White and Z
W and the one who likes Orange
M and the one who likes White
Answer - (d)
Month Name Colour
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Jan Q Black
Mar B Pink
Apr M Green
Jul W White
Aug C Blue
Sep K Orange
Oct Z Brown
Nov G Red
Dec T Yellow

Instructions for Q.184 to Q.188

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Twelve people A, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T, and U belong to the same family. They were seated
in a concentric circle such that persons sitting in the outer circle, i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, and U face
inside whereas the persons sitting in the inner circle, i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F face outside. Also the
persons in the two circles were sitting opposite to each other. All the information given are not
necessarily in the same order.
Note: The persons facing each other are not the same gender except for the one who faces B.
Neither A nor B sits adjacent to C who faces her grandchild, who is the only sibling of P. A sits
opposite Q, who has three children, and two of the male children got married. The father of S is
facing S. A sits second to the left of B and faces his wife. The relation between A and F, and T and
P is the same. C is the mother-in-law of T, who sits opposite the one who sits immediate right of
the former. The one who sits immediate right of B faces S. D is the unmarried sister-in-law of T
and faces her only uncle. B and C belong to the same generation. The son of A is R. Immediate
neighbours of C are the opposite genders.

Q.184)
Choose the correct option.
I. P faces the spouse of R.
II. Number of married couples and the number of males are the same.
III. Immediate neighbours of F are female.
Both I and II follow
Only III follows
Both II and III follows
Only I follows
None follows
Answer - (d)
The final seating arrangement is as follows:

The final blood relation chart is as follows:

Q.185)
How is P related to the one who faces F?
Son-in-law
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Father
Nephew
Daughter
Niece
Answer - (d)
The final seating arrangement is as follows:

The final blood relation chart is as follows:

Q.186)
How many are seated between R and the sibling of P?
Three
One
As many between B and F
Four
As many between C and B
Answer - (c)
The final seating arrangement is as follows:

The final blood relation chart is as follows:

Q.187)
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not
belong to that group?
B
R
F
E
U
Answer - (e)
The final seating arrangement is as follows:

The final blood relation chart is as follows:

Except for U, all belongs to the second generation.

Q.188)
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
The number of females is greater than the number of males.
B is the sister-in-law of F.
T, S and D belong to the same generation.
P is sitting second to the left of U.
D and R are facing each other.
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Answer - (d)
The final seating arrangement is as follows:

The final blood relation chart is as follows:

Instructions for Q.189 to Q.193

There are 10 people who are sitting in two parallel rows. In row 1, A, B, C, D and E are sitting
facing north. In row II, P, Q, R, S, T are sitting facing south. They are facing each other. They live
in five different cities amongst Singapore, Berlin, Osaka, Helsinki and Mumbai. One person from
each row is living in one of these cities so that exactly two people are living in one city.
1. B, who is not from Mumbai or Berlin, is sitting on the immediate right of the person who faces
the person from Mumbai.
2. A is not sitting at the extreme end of the row and is sitting third to the left of the person from
Mumbai.
3. Q is sitting at one of the extreme ends of the row and is facing C.
4. E is facing the person who sits second to the right of the person from Mumbai.
5. The person who lives in Singapore sits diagonally opposite to the person from Mumbai.
6. S, who does not live in Singapore, is not an immediate neighbour of T or Q.
7. P, who neither lives in Helsinki nor Berlin, sits opposite to the person who sits to the immediate
left of C.
8. In row 1, the person from Berlin sits second to the right of the person from Helsinki.
9. No two persons from the same city are facing each other.
10. In row 2, the person from Helsinki is sitting to the right of the person from Berlin.

Q.189)
Who among the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other?
S and D
C and R
T and B
Q and E
P and A
Answer - (d)
T (Singapore) R (Helsinki) S (Mumbai) P (Osaka) Q (Berlin)
E (Helsinki) A (Osaka) D (Berlin) B (Singapore) C (Mumbai)

So, T & C and Q & E are sitting diagonally opposite to each other.

Q.190)
The two persons who are sitting in the middle of the two rows belong to which of the following two
cities?
Osaka and Singapore
Berlin and Mumbai
Helsinki and Berlin
Mumbai and Osaka
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Singapore and Mumbai

Answer - (b)
T (Singapore) R (Helsinki) S (Mumbai) P (Osaka) Q (Berlin)
E (Helsinki) A (Osaka) D (Berlin) B (Singapore) C (Mumbai)
S is sitting in the middle of row 2 and belong to Mumbai and D is sitting in the middle of row 1 and
belongs to Berlin.

Q.191)
Four of the following five belong to a group. Identify the one which does not belong to that group.
A - Berlin
S - Osaka
T - Mumbai
B - Berlin
C – Singapore
Answer - (c)
T (Singapore) R (Helsinki) S (Mumbai) P (Osaka) Q (Berlin)
E (Helsinki) A (Osaka) D (Berlin) B (Singapore) C (Mumbai)

All the four, except option C, are sitting adjacent to each other.

Q.192)
Which of the following statements is correct?
A is sitting to the immediate left of the person from Helsinki.
P, who lives is Osaka, is not facing the person from Berlin.
R sits second to the left of the person, who is facing B
In row 1, the person who lives in Singapore is not an immediate neighbour of the person from
Mumbai.
Exactly two people are sitting between Q and the person from Helsinki.
Answer - (b)
T (Singapore) R (Helsinki) S (Mumbai) P (Osaka) Q (Berlin)
E (Helsinki) A (Osaka) D (Berlin) B (Singapore) C (Mumbai)

Q.193)
Who among the following do not belong to the same city?
T and B
Q and D
C and S
P and E
All of the above belong to the same city
Answer - (d)
T (Singapore) R (Helsinki) S (Mumbai) P (Osaka) Q (Berlin)
E (Helsinki) A (Osaka) D (Berlin) B (Singapore) C (Mumbai)

Instructions for Q.194 to Q.199

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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting on the square table facing the center. Four of
them sit in the corner whereas four of them sit in the middle of the side of the table. They bought
different stones- Emerald, Pearl, Topaz, Jade, Zircon, Garnet, Diamond, and Amethyst. All the
information is not necessarily in the same order.
F sits third to the right of the one who bought Topaz. G sits second to the left of F. The one who
bought Pearl sits immediate right of G. Two persons sit between G and A. E sits second to the left
of the one who bought Amethyst. The one who bought Amethyst neither sits opposite to F nor
adjacent to F. A does not buy Amethyst. E does not buy Pearl. B sits opposite to the one who
bought Emerald. The one who bought Emerald does not sit in the middle of the table. B and F are
not immediate neighbours. The number of persons sit between B and H is the same as the
number of persons sit between A and D when counted from the left of both A and B. H neither
bought Emerald nor Pearl. C sits immediate left of the one who bought Jade. Neither C nor F
bought Garnet. The one who bought Zircon does not sit adjacent to the one who bought Pearl.
Q.194)
What is the position of E with respect to the one who bought Zircon?
Immediate left
Immediate right
Second to the right
Third to the right
Second to the left
Answer - (c)

Q.195)
How many persons are sitting between E and D when counted from the left of D?
Three
Four
Two
One
None
Answer - (c)

Q.196)
Four of the five among the following are similar in such a way to form a group, who among the
following doesn’t belong to the group?
The one who bought Jade
The one who bought Emerald
The one who sits immediate left of G
D
The one who sits third to the right of A
Answer - (e)

All of the following except Option E are sitting at the four corners of the square.
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Q.197)
Who among the following person sits second to the right of the one who bought Diamond?
The one who sits immediate left of E
C
B
The one who sits second to the left of G
D
Answer - (b)

Q.198)
Which of the following statement is/are true?
I. H bought Emerald.
II. E sits immediate left of B.
III. D does not buy Diamond.
IV. C sits opposite to the one who bought pearl.
Only I and III
Only III and IV
Only I and II
Only II and III
None of the statements is false
Answer - (d)

Q.199)
Which of the following statements is not true?
The one who bought Garnet sits in the middle of the side of the table.
C sits opposite to the one who bought Amethyst.
D sits between the one who bought Diamond and Amethyst when counted from the left of
Diamond.
E is not an immediate neighbour of the one who bought Topaz.
All of the above are true.
Answer - (d)

Instruction for Q.200

Following are the conditions for selecting a candidate in an organization.
The candidate must –
(i) have passed class 12 exam with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have passed graduation degree in any discipline with at least 55% marks.
(iii) be not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years of age as on 1.7.2016.
(iv) possess a certificate/diploma/degree course in Computer Science.
In the case of candidate who fulfils all conditions except –
(a) at (ii) above but is a post-graduate, case may be referred to the Executive Director (ED).
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(b) at (iv) above but has studied Computer Science as one of subjects in graduation, case may be
referred to the Vice President (VP).
Q.200)
Lakshay is a Commerce graduate with 57% marks. He had secured 73% marks class 12
examination. He has studied Computer Science as one of the subjects in class 12. His date of
birth is 22.9.1990.
if the case is to be referred to Executive Head.
if the case is to be referred to Vice President.
if the candidate is to be selected.
if the information is inadequate to take a decision.
if the candidate is not to be selected.
Answer - (e)
(iv) condition is not specified. So move to (b). But this is also not fulfilled as he has studies
computer science in class 12th and not in graduation. So he will not be selected for any job.

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