1.

Pharmacokinetics is a section of pharmacology which studies

a. Mechanisms of action of drugs
b. Absorption and excretion of drugs
c. Action of drugs on the genetic apparatus
d. Complications of drug therapy

2. All these are related to pharmacokinetics, EXCEPT

a. Mechanisms of drug action
b. Onset of drug action
c. Route of administration of the drug
d. Time of drug peak action

3. The ability of a substance to bind to a specific receptor is called

a. Conjugation
b. Intrinsic activity
c. Affinity
d. Deposition

4. Biotransformation is
a. Characterized the rate and extent of absorption of a drug from a dosage form
b. A chemical alteration of the drug in the body
c. The passage out of systemically absorbed drug
d. The movement of drug from its site of administration into the circulation

5. Substances which have the same effect on the receptor as the endogenous ligand, are called
a. Agonists
b. Antagonists
c. Synergists
d. Blockers

6. What does Passive diffusion mean?

a. The drug is translocated through membrane by a transporter
b. The drug diffuses across the membrane in the direction of its concentration gradient
c. Passage of drugs through aqueous pores in the membrane
d. The drug diffuses across the membrane against the concentration gradient

7. The principal difference of a partial agonist comparing to a full agonist

A. It has higher intrinsic activity
B. It has lower intrinsic activity
C. It has higher bioavailability
D. It has lower bioavailability

8. This factor does not affect absorption of the drugs

E. Route of administration
F. Lipid and aqueous solubility
G. Affinity to receptors
H. Concentration

9. Substances that can stimulate one receptor subtypes and block others, are called
I. Mimetics
J. Competitive antagonists
K. Partial agonists
L. Agonists-Antagonists
10. Choose the correct statement about passive diffusion
a. Only ionized drugs diffuse through membranes
b. Does not need energy
c. Lipid soluble drugs do not diffuse
d. Occurs against the concentration gradient

11. Choose the WRONG statement about plasma protein binding of drug
a. High degree of protein binding generally makes the drug short acting
b. The bound fraction of a drug is not available for biological action.
c. The bound fraction dissociates when the concentration of the free drug is reduced
d. Highly plasma protein-bound drugs are largely accumulated in the circulation

12. The accumulation is

a. An unusual reaction to a drug
b. Increase of a drug amount in the body
c. Increase the sensitivity to a drug
d. Increase the efficacy of a drug

13. The passive diffusion of drugs

a. Provides absorption of non-polar lipophilic substances
b. Provides absorption of polar hydrophilic substances
c. Requires energy
d. Occurs against a concentration gradient

14. The increase of the drug’s action in the body during its repeated administration is called
a. Idiosyncrasy
b. Physical accumulation
c. Functional accumulation
d. Sensitization

15. A lipophilic drug is characterized by

a. A Poor absorption in the gastrointestinal tract
b. B. Poor reabsorption in the renal tubules
c. C. Fast transport through the membrane via passive diffusion
d. D. Transported similar to a hydrophilic drug

16. The accumulation of a drug is increased when

a. Reabsorption in the kidneys is decreased
b. Microsomal liver enzymes are activated
c. Glomerular filtration is increased
d. Biotransformation in the liver is decreased

17. Tachyphylaxis is
a. Hypersensitivity to a drug
b. Rapid addiction to a drug
c. Congenital drug intolerance
d. Rapid weakening effect upon repeated administration of a drug

18. The prolongation of the effects of drugs is achieved by

a. Creating a depot in the adipose tissue
b. Malabsorption in the intestine
c. Enhancement of glomerular filtration in the kidneys
d. Enhancement of biotransformation in the liver
19. The physical drug dependence is NOT characterized by
A. Improving the well-being after taking the drug
B. Significant withdrawal syndrome
C. Addiction can be easily reversed
D. The drug is involved into important metabolic reactions

20. Biotransformation means

a. Excretion of drugs by the kidneys
b. Binding of drugs to plasma proteins
c. Distribution of drugs to the tissues
d. Type of metabolism of drugs

21. A phenomenon in which a drug prevents or removes only some of the effects of another drug
a. Direct antagonism
b. Partial antagonism
c. Competitive antagonism
d. Noncompetitive antagonism

22. Ligand is
a. A drug acting on a special type of receptors
b. A substance selectively binding with a receptor
c. A drug stimulating receptor
d. A substance acting on ion channels

23. The induction of microsomal liver enzymes can

a. Help to remove the toxic substances from the body
b. Require the lowering the dose of certain substances
c. Increases the efficacy of the drug
d. Prolong the effect of the drug

24. Antagonist is
a. A substance not binding with receptors
b. A substance acting against agonist
c. A drug inhibiting enzyme activity
d. A drug having no biological action

25. Enteral routes of administration of drugs include

a. Intramuscular
b. Oral
c. Transdermal
d. Intraperitoneal

26. Physical action of drug means

a. The drug reacts extracellularly according to simple chemical equations
b. Action through receptors
c. Physical property of the drug is responsible for its action
d. Increase or decrease the rate of enzymatically mediated reactions
27. Sublingual administration of drug
a. Provides less absorption compared to oral administration
b. Prolongs duration of drug action
c. Bypasses first-pass elimination
d. Provides faster excretion by the kidneys

28. Choose the WRONG statement about receptors

A. They are specific macromolecular components of the cell which regulate their functions
B. They bind and interact with the drug
C. Physiological receptors mediate responses to endogenous substances
D. All receptors are situated on the membrane of the effector cell

29. Oily solutions should NOT be administered

A. Sublingually
B. Subcutaneously
C. Orally
D. Intravenously

30. Affinity is the ability of a drug

A. To activate the receptor
B. To block the receptor
C. To combine with the receptor
D. To combine with another drug

31. The first-pass elimination of the drug is

A. Excretion by the kidneys
B. Detoxication by the liver before it enters the bloodstream
C. The secretion of gastric glands
D. Biotransformation in the liver after absorption into the blood

32. Choose the WRONG statement about antagonism

A. It means when one drug decreases or inhibits the action of another
B. It may be physical, chemical, physiological, on the receptor level
C. It is often used to reduce the dose of drugs
D. It is often used to treat intoxications

33. Intravenously can be administered

A. Suspensions
B. Isotonic solutions
C. Oily solutions
D. Emulsions

34. Choose the correct statement

A. Accumulation develops if rate of administration is less than rate of elimination
B. Tolerance means requirement of less dose of a drug to produce a given response
C. The cause of tolerance maybe enhancement of drug elimination
D. Tolerance may develop when cells of the target organ become more responsive

35. Active transport of drugs through biological membranes

A. Provides absorption of only hydrophilic polar molecules
B. Can be carried out against a concentration gradient
C. Is characterized by a lack of selectivity to certain substances
 D. Does not require energy

36. Genetically determined abnormal reactivity to a drug is termed as

A. Allergy
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Photosensitivity
D. Hypersensitivity

37. Distribution of a drug does NOT depend on

A. Lipophility of a drug
B. A drug concentration gradient
C. Binding of a drug to plasma proteins
D. Sensitivity of receptors

38. Ligand is
e. A drug acting on a special type of receptors
f. A substance selectively binding with a receptor
g. A drug stimulating receptor
h. A substance acting on ion channels

39. Repeated administration of a drug can lead to all these EXCEPT

A. Tolerance
B. Addiction
C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Tachyphylaxis

40. During metabolism a drug can be turned into a metabolite which

A. Is less active than a parenteral drug
B. Is more active than a parenteral drug
C. Has the same activity as a parenteral drug
D. All above are correct

41. Drugs binding to plasma proteins are

A. Faster metabolized
B. Easier penetrate the blood-brain barrier
C. Rapidly excreted from the body
D. Acted longer

42. Irresistible desire for readmission of a drug is called

A. Tachyphylaxis
B. Accumulation
C. Addiction
D. Abstinence

43. All these phenomena can occur during combined use of drugs, EXCEPT
A. Antagonism
B. Potentiation
C. Summation
D. Tachyphylaxis

44. Drug metabolism TYPICALLY leads to the formation of metabolites which are
A. Better reabsorbed in the renal tubules than the parent compound
B. More hydrophilic than the parent compound
C. More lipophilic than the parent compound
D. More active than the parent compound
45. Pharmacokinetic considerations do not determine
A. The route of administration of the drug
B. Latency of onset of action
C. Mechanism of action
D. Duration of action

46. The mistaken statement about passive diffusion

A. Acidic drugs are absorbed from stomach
B. Bases are absorbed when they reach the intestines
C. Acidic drugs are excreted faster in alkaline urine
D. Basic drugs are excreted faster in alkaline urine

47. Choose the correct statement about passive diffusion

A. Only ionized drugs diffuse through membranes
B. It occurs against the concentration gradient
C. Lipid soluble drugs do not diffuse
D. Does not need energy

48. What does Passive diffusion mean

A. The drug combines with a carrier in the membrane and then translocates through
membrane
B. The drug diffuses across the membrane in the direction of its concentration gradient
C. Passage of drugs through aqueous pores in the membrane
D. Using energy

49. Choose the factor that does not affect absorption of the drugs
A. Vascularity of the absorbing surface
B. Lipid and aqueous solubility of drug
C. Affinity to receptors
D. Concentration

50. What statement is not correct

A. Vasoconstrictors injected with the drug retard absorption
B. Abraded surfaces readily absorb drugs after topical administration
C. Increasing blood flow accelerates absorption of drugs after intramuscular injection
D. Absorption of one orally administered drug can not be affected by other concurrently
ingested drugs

51. Bioavailability
A. Is the movement of drug from its site of administration into the circulation
B. Chemical alteration of the drug in the body
C. Refers to the rate and extent of absorption of a drug from a dosage form
D. Is the passage out of systemically absorbed drug

52. What statement about blood-brain barrier is not correct

A. Is formed by capillary endothelial cells in brain and by investment of neural tissue that covers
the capillaries
B. It is lipoidal
C. Only ionized drug solutions are able to penetrate and have action on the CNS
D. Inflammation of meninges or brain increases its permeability

53. What statement about plasma protein binding of drug is not correct?
A. Highly plasma protein bound drugs are largely restricted to the vascular compartment
 B. The bound fraction is not available for action
C. The bound fraction dissociates when the concentration of the free drug is reduced due to
elimination
D. High degree of protein binding generally makes the drug short acting

54. What statement about biotransformation of drugs IS NOT correct

A. The primary site for drug metabolism is liver
B. Biotransformation means inactivation of drugs
C. Microsomal enzymes (cytochrome P-) take part in biotransformation of many drugs
D. It is needed to render nonpolar (lipid soluble) compounds polar (lipid insoluble) so that they
are not reabsorbed in the renal tubules and are excreted

55. Microsomal enzyme induction can not cause

A. Decreased duration of action of drugs that are inactivated by metabolism
B. Tolerance
C. Increased intensity of action of drugs that are activated by metabolism
D. Cumulation

56. All these drugs are alpha-adrenergic blocking agents, EXCEPT

A. Dihydroergotamine
B. Propranolol
C. Phentolamine
D. Prazosin

57. M-cholinomimetics cause this effect on eyes

A. Miosis
B. Spasm of accommodation
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

58. Choose the WRONG statement about salbutamol

A. It activates beta-adrenoceptors
B. It activates alpha-adrenoceptors
C. It causes bronchodilatation
D. It relaxes pregnant uterus

59. Reserpine
A. Is a synthetic compound
B. Blocks alpha-adrenoceptors
C. Causes slowly developing decrease of BP
D. Causes stimulation of CNS

60. Inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase (anti-cholinesterases) potentiate action of

A. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
B. Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

61. Adrenal medulla secretes

A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
C. Norepinephrine (noradrenaline)
D. Dopamine
62. Beta-adrenoblockers are indicated for treatment of
A. bronchial asthma
B. arterial hypotension
C. A-V blockade
D. angina pectoris

63. This drug is indicated for treatment of organophosphate poisoning

A. Atropine
B. Physostigmine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Adrenaline

64. Ganglioblockers
A. Decrease blood pressure
B. Increase GI peristalsis
C. Increase salivation
D. Decrease temperature

65. Choose the WRONG statement about phenylephrine

A. It is an alpha-adrenomimetic
B. It increases blood pressure
C. It causes midriasis
D. It is a bronchodilator

66. This condition is a contraindication for anticholinesterases

A. Bronchial asthma + peptic ulcer
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Constipation

67. Which effect of ganglion blocking agents is NOT due to blocking of parasympathetic ganglia?
A. Tachycardia
B. Constipation
C. Dilatation of blood vessels
D. Dryness of mouth

68. This drug is commonly used to prevent a motion sickness

A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Plathyphylline
D. Homatropine

69. Selective beta-adrenomimetics are used in

A. Cardiac arrest
B. Bronchial asthma
C. A-V block
D. Peptic ulcer

70. This drug is a sympatholytic

A. Reserpine
B. Propranolol
C. Prazosin
D. Phentolamine

71. As an eye drops, atropine can be used for all these conditions, EXCEPT
 A. Testing of refraction error
B. Treatment of iritis, keratitis
C. Treatment of glaucoma
D. To give rest to the eye after surgery

72. Which of the drugs is agonist of M-cholinoreceptors?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Atropine
D. Carbachol

73. Choose the correct statement

A. M-cholinoblockers block actions of acetylcholine on autonomic ganglia.
B. M-cholinoblockers block actions of acetylcholine on skeletal muscle
C. M-cholinoblockers block actions of acetylcholine on autonomic effectors
D. None of the above is correct

74. All these are typical side effects of M-cholinomimetics, EXCEPT

A. Sweating
B. Dry mouth
C. Diarrhea
D. Bronchospasm

75. Metaprolol is used to treat

A. Arterial hypotension
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Essential hypertension
D. Complete heart block

76. What effect on the heart does atropine cause

A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Complete A-V block
D. Decrease in O demand

77. Beta-blockers are used to treat

A. A-V blockade
B. Angina pectoris
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Peptic ulcer

78. All these are typical symptoms of anticholinesterases poisoning, EXCEPT

A. Salivation and sweating
B. Miosis
C. Paralytic atonia of bladder
D. Diarrhea

79. All these are indication for alpha-adrenoblockers, EXCEPT

A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Obstructive diseases of peripheral vessels
80. Typical side effect of alfa-adrenoblockers
A. Bronchospasm
B. Postural hypotension
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

81. Ganglion blocking agents are

A. M-cholinomimetics
B. N-cholinomimetics
C. M-cholinoblockers
D. N-cholinoblockers

82. Choose the WRONG statement about dobutamine

A. It is a relatively selective beta1-adrenoreceptors agonist
B. It increases force of cardiac contraction and output
C. It used to treat arterial hypertension
D. It can be used as a cardiac stimulator

83. This is an absolute contraindication for atropine

A. Bronchospasm
B. Glaucoma
C. Hypertension
D. Bradycardia

84. All these drugs are beta-adrenoblockers, EXCEPT

A. Phentolamine
B. Propranolol
C. Timolol
D. Metoprolol

85. Choose the WRONG statement about atropine

A. It relieves spasm of visceral smooth muscles
B. It causes bronchodilatation
C. It causes long lasting miosis
D. It facilitates A-V conduction

86. Choose the WRONG statement about propranolol

E. It decreases heart rate
F. It decreases renin release from kidney
G. It causes bronchodilatation
H. It reduces blood pressure

87. All these are typical symptoms of Belladonna poisoning, EXCEPT

I. Tachycardia
J. Salivation
K. Photophobia
L. Mydriasis

88. All these are typical side effects of reserpine, EXCEPT

A. Constipation
B. Bradycardia
C. CNS depression
D. Increased acid secretion in stomach

89. Bronchial asthma is the only indication for this drug

 A. Atropine
B. Platiyphilline
C. Scopolamine
D. Ipratropium bromide

90. Stimulation of M-cholinoceptors causes all these effects, EXCEPT

A. Bradycardia
B. Salivation
C. Bronchospasm
D. Mydriasis

91. Propranolol is a
A. Beta-adrenoblocker
B. Beta-adrenomimetic
C. Alpha-adrenoblocker
D. Alpha-adrenomimetic

92. Muscarinic receptors are located primarily

A. Organs at the end of parasympathetic nerves
B. On sympathetic ganglionic cells
C. On parasympathetic ganglionic cells
D. Skeletal muscles

93. M-cholinomimetics are used to treat

A. Glaucoma
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bradycardia
D. Myasthenia gravis

94. Uses of M-cholinoblockers include

A. Glaucoma
B. As premedication before surgery
C. Poisoning with nicotine
D. To stimulate contractility of skeletal muscles

95. Side effects of M-cholinomimetics DON’T include

A. Sweating
B. Dry mouth
C. Bradycardia
D. Bronchospasm

96. AntiChEs are not used to treat

A. Tachycardia
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Postoperative paralytic state of intestine

97. M-cholinoblockers DON’T include

A. Atropine
B. Reserpine
C. Pirensepine
D. Ipratropium
98. Uses of M-cholinoblockers include
A. To stimulate contractility of bladder
B. To stimulate contractility of skeletal muscles
C. AV-block
D. Glaucoma

99. M-cholinoblockers DON’T cause

A. Relaxation of smooth muscles of organs
B. Decrease secretion of glands
C. Decrease of intraocular pressure
D. Tachycardia

100. Groups of N-cholinoblockers include

E. Atropinic drugs
F. Anticholinesterases
A. Ganglion blocking agents
B. Sympatholytics

101. Effect of ganglioblockers caused by the block of sympathetic ganglia

A. Tachycardia
B. Constipation
C. Dryness of mouth
D. Dilatation of blood vessels

102. Groups of N-cholinoblockers include

A. Atropinic drugs
B. Anticholinesterases
C. Sympathomimetics
D. Skeletal muscle relaxants

103. Alfa- and beta -adrenominetic is

A. Salmeterol
B. Epinephrine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Salbutamol

104. As emergency drug epinephrine is used

A. In high BP
B. In atonic state of bladder
C. In anaphylactic shock
D. To relax skeletal muscles

105. As emergency drug epinephrine is used

A. As pressor agent
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. To stop action of local anaesthetics
D. Renal colic

106. Mistaken statement about alfa-adrenomimetic phenylephrine

A. Is used as pressor agent
B. Can be used orally
C. Is used to stimulate contractility of heart
D. Can be used as constituent of nasal decongestants

107. The main effect of stimulation of α-adrenoreceptors

 A. Increase of force heart contractility
B. Rise in BP
C. Bronchodilation
D. Tachycardia

108. Selective beta2- adrenomimetics

A. Are used in heart arrest
B. Cause bronchospasm
C. Are used delay premature labour
D. Stimulate contractility of g.i.t.

109. Selective β2- adrenomimetics

A. Are used in cardial arrest
B. Are used in AV-block
C. Are used in bronchial asthma
D. Are used to stimulate labor

110. Mistaken statement about beta-adrenoblockers

A. Decrease demand of heart in oxygen
B. Decrease heart work
C. Reduce BP in hypertensive subjects
D. Cause bronchodilatation

111. Adverse effects of beta-adrenoblockers DON’T include

A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. An attack of bronchial asthma
D. Worsening of peripheral vascular disease

112. Adverse effects of beta-adrenoblockers DON’T include

A. Bradycardia
B. Increase of BP
C. An attack of bronchial asthma
D. Worsening of peripheral vascular disease

113. Mistaken statement about agonists of M-cholinoreceptors

A. They directly interact with M- cholinoreceptors
B. Produce responses identical to those produced by parasympathical nerve stimulation
C. Increase skeletal muscle contractility
D. Are used in glaucoma

114. The indication not common for M-cholinomimetics and antiChEs

A. Glaucoma
B. Postoperative nonobstructive paralytic ileus
C. Tachycardia
D. Myasthenia gravis

115. The mistaken statement about antiChEs is

A. They react with the active region of acetylcholinesterase and the enzyme reacts with Ach very
slowly or not at all
B. The effects are qualitatively similar to that of directly acting cholinoceptor stimulants
C. They have marked muscarinic effects and produce effect on the skeletal muscles
 D. They stimulate only ganglia

116. These drugs are the least potent diuretics

A. Osmotic diuretics
B. Loop diuretics
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Potassium-sparing diuretics

117. Indication for mannitol

A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Brain edema
D. Hypokalemia

118. Furosemide is not used for

A. Chronic treatment of mild hypertension
B. Treatment of generalized edema
C. Treatment of acute intoxications
D. Acute severe arterial hypertension

119. Choose the indication for beta-adrenomimetics

A. Preservation of pregnancy
B. Stimulation of labor
C. Stopping of uterine bleeding
D. Medical abortion

120. The drug that is used to terminate acute attack of angina pectoris
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Verapamyl
D. Nitroglycerine

121. Preload reduction of nitrates includes

A. Arteriolar dilatation, slightly decrease total peripheral resistance,
B. Relaxation of the bigger coronary arteries increases blood flow to ischemic areas
C. Dilatation of veins leading to decreased venous return
D. Sympathetic stimulation due to fall of BP

122. The mistaken statement about pharmacokinetics of nitrates

A. They are lipid soluble
B. They are well absorbed from buccal membranes, skin, intensities,
C. They do not undergo significant first pass metabolism in liver
D. Sublingually used nitroglycerin bypasses the liver

123. The mistaken statement about the usage of Nitroglycerine

A. Attacks of angina pectoris
B. Paroxysmal tachycardia
C. Esophageal spasm
 D. Hypertension

124. Pharmacological effects of Calcium channel blockers don't include

A. Smooth muscles relaxation
B. Negative chronotropic, inotropic, dromotropic action
C. Reduction pre-and afterload, delatation of coronary vessels
D. Increase of vagal tone

125. Side effects of beta-adrenoblockers don't include

A. Bronchospasm
B. Depression of AV conduction
C. Changing the level of glucose in blood
D. Tachycardia

126. Choose mistaken statement about Calcium channel blockers

a. They lower BP by decreasing peripheral resistance
b. The onset of action is quick
c. Action is independent of patient's renin status,
d. Have positive inotropic, dromotropic action

127. Choose the mistaken statement about Reserpine.

A. It is a sympatholytic
B. Produces slowly developing fall in BP
C. Has cholinoblocking activity
D. Has sedative action

128. Choose the correct statement about mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors.
A. Blocking alfa- and beta-adrenoreceptors
B. Inhibit generation of AT from ATI
C. Calcium channels blocking
D. Decreasing central sympathetic activity

129. Choose the wrong statement about spironolactone

A. It increases mineralcorticoid activity
B. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic
C. It has low diuretic activity
D. Action develops slowly

130. Bleeding complications from therapy with this drug can be treated by administration of
protamine sulfate
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

131. It acts by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase

A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

132. This drug inhibits thrombin by accelerating antithrombin III action

A. Heparin
B. Ticlopidine
C. Warfarin
 D. None of the above

133. Hemorrhage is a serious adverse effect of this drug

A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Both of above
D. Neither of above

134. Loop diuretic

A. Oxytocin
B. Furasemide
C. Mannitol
D. Triamteren

135. Bleeding complications of this drug can be treated with protamine sulfate
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Both of above
D. Neither of above

136. Osmotic diuretics should not be used in hypertension because they

A. Have low diuretic activity
B. Are highly potent diuretics
C. Can cause hypokalemia
D. Increase plasma volume

137. Choose the indication for ergot alkaloids

A. Preservation of pregnancy
B. Stimulation of labor
C. Stopping of uterine bleeding
D. Medical abortion

138. Choose the wrong statement about oxytocin

A. It increases the uterine contraction in labor
B. It is a corticosteroid hormone
C. It uses to stop uterine bleeding after delivery
D. Its effectiveness increases during pregnancy

139. The drugs that can be used when attacks of angina at provoked when blood flow fails to
increase during increased demand
A. Increase contraction of heart
B. increase BP
C. reduce cardiac work
D. increase heart rate

140. Mistaken statement about ACE inhibitors

A. Are one of the first choice drugs in arterial hypertension
B. Decrease AT II formation
C. Decrease release of renin
D. Decrease BP
141. Correct statement about Furosemide
A. Is diuretic for only oral use
B. Is loop diuretic
C. Causes hyperkaliemia
D. Is contraindicated in acute heart failure

142. Uses of Thiazide and related diuretics diuretics don’t include

A. Edema (maintenance therapy)
B. Forced diuresis
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Hypercalciuria

143. Uses of loop diuretics don’t include

A. Acute renal edema
B. Together with thiazides to prevent hypokaliemia
C. Acute pulmonary edema
D. Acute heart failure

144. High efficacy diuretics include

A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Theophylline
D. Spiranolactone

145. Mistaken statement about Spironolactone

A. Is diuretic
B. Is antagonist of aldosterone
C. Decreases reabsorbtion of K+
D. Acts in late distal tube

146. Medium efficacy diuretics include

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Theophylline
D. Spironolactone

147. Adverse effects of oral iron don’t include

A. Arterial hypertension
B. Epigastric pain
C. Staining the teeth
D. Constipation

148. Drugs mainly used in hypochromic anaemia

A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B
C. Iron preparations
D. Anticoagulants

149. Uses of folic acid don’t include

A. Megaloblastic anaemias
B. Increased demand in folic acid
C. Vit B difficiency
D. Prophylaxis of folate difficiency

150. Oral anticoagulants

 A. Decrease activity of coagulation factors
B. May be used in vitro
C. Decrease synthesis of coagulation factors in liver
D. Are used only parenterally

151. Adverse effects of oral anticoagulants include

A. Bleeding
B. Pain in site of injection
C. Arterial hypertension
D. BP falls

152. Fibrinolytics don’t include

A. Streptokinase
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Urokinase
D. Alteplase

153. Coagulants don’t include

A. Vitamin K
B. Fibrinogen
C. Trombin
D. Heparin

154. Mistaken statement about heparin

A. Activates plasma antithrombin III
B. Is used orally
C. Dose depends upon blood clotting time (PTT)
D. Is used s/c and i/v

155. Mistaken statement about Spironolactone

A. Is mild diuretic
B. Antagonises K+ loss
C. Can be used in combination with ACE inhibitors
D. Action develops in 3-5 days

156. Fibrinolytics
A. Are used to prevent the thromboembolism
B. Are used in bleeding
C. Are used to lyse thrombi
D. Are mainly of prophylactic work

157. The mistaken statement about Digoxin

A. Is lipid and water soluble
B. Is not absorbed in g.i.t.
C. May be used in emergency
D. Binds to plasma proteins

158. The major site of action of thiazide and related diuretics is

A. Proximal tube
B. Thick AscLH
C. Early distal tube
D. Osmothic pressure

159. The mechanism of positive inotropic action of cardiac glycosides is

 A. Ca+ accumulation in heart
B. Stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors in heart
C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase in heart
D. Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors in heart

160. Neurotropic Antihypertensive Drugs

A. Inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme
B. Directly relax smooth muscles in blood vessels
C. Block calcium channels
D. Decrease the influence of sympathetic nervous system

161. Nitrates
A. Are antianginal drugs
B. Increase BP
C. Are cardiotonics
D. Decrease formation of AT

162. The major action of Nitroglycerine is

A. Stimulation of myocardial contractility
B. Direct smooth muscle relaxation
C. Bradycardia
D. Slowing of conduction in AV node

163. Mechanism of action of Clonidine

A. Activating alfa-adrenoreceptors
B. Depletion of NA from peripheral adrenergic endings
C. Decrease rennin release from kidney
D. Decrease AT II formation

164. The drugs that have positive inotropic property

A. Beta-adrenoblockers
B. Nitrates
C. Cardiac glycosides
D. Ca+-channels blockers

165. Side effects of nitroglycerine include

A. Headache
B. Diarrhea
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Bronchospasm

166. Manifestations of toxic action of cardiac glycosides don’t include

A. Extrasystoles
B. Nausea, vomiting
C. AV-block
D. Arterial hypertension

167. Mistaken statement about ACE inhibitors

A. Are one of the first choice antihypertensive drugs
B. Inhibit cardiac output and thus decrease BP
C. Decrease AT II formation
D. Don’t cause postural hypotension

168. Extracardial effects of cardiac glycosides don’t include

 A. Increased contractility of myocard
B. Diuretic action
C. Normalizing of liver size
D. Decrease pressure in veins

169. The correct statement about mechanism of action of Calcium channel blockers
A. Decrease Ca+ movement into the cell
B. Block beta-adrenoreceptors in heart
C. Increase concentration of adenosine
D. Release the nitric oxide in the smooth muscle cells.

170. The wrong statement about prostaglandin E

A. It can be used for medical abortion
B. It contracts the uterus but relaxes the cervix
C. It can be used intraamnionally
D. It’s effective only at the end of pregnancy

171. Choose the wrong statement

A. Oxytocin and prostaglandins E and Fa are effective drugs to induce labor
B. Ergot alkaloids should not be used in pregnancy and in labor
C. Beta-adrenomimetics are effective drugs to preserve pregnancy
D. Prostaglandins and oxytocin are effective drugs for medical abortion

172. Choose the indication for beta-adrenomimetics

A. Preservation of pregnancy
B. Stimulation of labor
C. Stopping of uterine bleeding
D. Medical abortion

173. Indications for spironolactone do not include

A. Thiazide-induced hypokalemia
B. Hyperaldosteronism
C. Immediate treatment of hypertensive episode
D. Chronic treatment of mild hypertension

174. Drugs that increase tonic contraction of uterus are used for
A. Preservation of pregnancy
B. Stimulation of labor
C. Stopping of uterine bleeding
D. Medical abortion

175. Vitamin K antagonizes the anticoagulant effect of this drug

A. Streptokinase
B. Warfarin
C. Heparin
D. Acethylsalicylic acid

176. These drugs are used for treatment of anxiety

A. Phenotiazines
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Barbiturates
D. Butyrophenones

177. This drug belongs to butirophenones

A. Chlorpromazine
 B. Amitriptyline
C. Imipramine
D. Haloperidol

178. This drug is used as a hypnotic

a. Diazepam
b. Closapine
c. Phenytoin
d. Levodopa

179. Choose the wrong statement about chlorpromazine

a. It antagonizes a-adrenoceptors
b. It increases BP
c. It causes sedation
d. It used in schizophrenia

180. Atypical neuroleptics comparing with typical ones

A. Do not antagonize dopamine receptors
B. Doesn’t have antipsychotic activity
C. Cause less movement disorders
D. Have no sedative activity

181. This drug acts by antagonizing benzodiazepine receptors

A. Oxazepam
B. Diazepam
C. Flumasenil
D. Phenobarbitone

182. This is a common feature for diazepam and flumazenil

A. They both act on benzodiazepine receptors
B. They both cause sedation
C. They both cause hypotension
D. They both cause hypothermia

183. These drugs are general anesthetics EXCEPT

A. Halothane
B. Morphine
C. Enflurane
D. Ether

184. Choose the wrong statement about nitrous oxide

A. It is very effective anesthetic
B. It is very effective analgesic
C. It is practically non-toxic agent
D. It is used by inhalation

185. Halothane and ketamine are

 A. Barbiturates
B. Given by inhalation
C. General anesthetics
D. None of the above

186. This drug nearly does not affect a sleep cycle

A. Phenobarbitone
B. Nitrazepam
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

187. This drug can be used for treatment of the status epilepticus
A. Levodopa
B. Diazepam
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

188. Morphine causes all these effects EXCEPT

A. Analgesia
B. Euphoria
C. Cough suppression
D. Psychosis

189. This drug is used in treatment of acute psychosis

A. Droperidol
B. Reserpine
C. Oxazepam
D. Chlordiazepoxide

190. Halothane
A. Is an inflammable gas
B. Sensitizes heart to adrenaline
C. Is used intravenously
D. Has long stage of delirium

191. Acute overdose of morphine can lead to all of the following EXCEPT
A. Miosis
B. Seizure
C. Breath depression
D. Unconsciousness

192. Side effects of diazepam include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Muscle weakness
B. Dependence
C. Tolerance
D. Arterial hypertension

193. Side effects of diazepam include

A. Constipation
B. Sleepiness
C. Hyperthermia
D. Dermatitis

194. Chlorpromazine belongs to

A. Phenotiazines
 B. Benzodiazepines
C. Barbiturates
D. Butyrophenones

195. This drug is a neuroleptic

A. Diazepam
B. Closapine
C. Phenobarbiton
D. Levodopa

196. Indications for neuroleptics include

A. Insomnia
B. Anxiety
C. Psychosis
D. All of the above

197. Choose the wrong statement about chlorpromazine

A. It antagonizes GABA receptors
B. It belongs to phenotiazines
C. It belongs to neuroleptics
D. It belongs to antipsychotics

i. Extrapyramidal side effects of haloperidol

ii. Extrapyramidal side effects of clozapine

A. i) is greater than ii)

B. ii) is greater than i)
C. i) and ii) are equal or very nearly equal
D. Not typical for both

198. Diazepam is NOT indicated for

A. Anxiety
B. Epilepsy
C. Psychosis
D. Seizure

199. Diazepam is indicated for

A. Insomnia
B. Psychosis
C. Parkinson’s
D. Depression

200. This is a general anesthetic used by inhalation

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Thiopentone
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

201. This barbiturate is used as a general anesthetic

A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
202. This drug is used as a hypnotic
A. Morphine
B. Ketamine
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

203. All these drugs are opioid analgesics EXCEPT

A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Naloxone
D. Phentanyl

204. Morphine’s side effects do not include

A. Diarrhea
B. Tolerance
C. Dependence
D. Constipation

205. Choose the wrong statement about phentanyl

A. It is used for neuroleptanalgesia
B. It is more effective than morphine
C. It has short duration of action
D. It is a natural opioid

206. The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of typical neuroleptics is mostly connected with
antagonism with
A. Cholinoceptors
B. Adrenoceptors
C. Dopamine receptors
D. GABA receptors

207. Codein is also indicated for treatment of

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Motion sickness
C. Constipation
D. Cough

208. Side effects of chlorpromazine include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Hypotension
B. Hyperthermia
C. Irritation in the site of injection
D. Dry mouth, urine retention

209. Side effects of morphine include

A. Midriasis
B. Diarrhea
C. Tolerance
D. Insomnia

210. The inhalational anaesthetics are, EXCEPT

A. Thiopentone sod
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Halothane
 D. Enfluorane

211. The intravenous anaesthetic is

A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Thiopentone sod
D. Nitrous oxide

212. Mistaken statement about nitrous oxide

A. Noninflammable, nonirritating gas
B. Low potency anaesthetic and a poor muscle relaxant
C. Poor analgesic
D. Is quickly removed from body by lungs

213. Mistaken statement about intravenous anaesthetics

A. Are generally used for induction
B. Also serve to reduce the amount of maintenance anaesthetic
C. Supplemented with analgesics and muscle relaxants, they can also be used as the sole
anaesthetic
D. The depth of anaesthesia can be regulated

214. Correct statements, EXCEPT

A. Sedative is a drug that calms the subject
B. Hypnotic is a drug that induces and/or maintains sleep
C. A hypnotic at lower dose may cause general anaesthesia
D. Sedation-hypnosis-general anaesthesia may be regarded as increasing grades of CNS
depression

215. Mistaken statement about Benzodiazepines

A. Are agonists of benzodiazepine (BZD. receptors, increase sensitivity of GABA receptors to
GABA
B. Act preferentially on midbrain ascending reticular formation and on limbic system
C. Short acting drugs and are good for sleep induction for those with sleep onset difficulties
D. Don’t cause prolongation of reaction time, hangover, dependence, withdrawal syndrome

216. Correct statements, EXCEPT

A. Opiods cause anaesthetic action
B. Analgetics – drugs selectively decreasing pain
C. Opiod analgetics directely act on opiod receptors
D. Opiod analgetics are agonists of opiod receptors

217. Natural opium alkaloid is

A. Morphine
B. Pethidine
C. Fentanyl
D. Naloxone

218. Agonists of opioid receptors are, EXCEPT

A. Morphine
B. Trimepiridine (promedol)
C. Fentanyl
D. Naloxone

219. The main mechanism of action of morhine is exerted through

A. Dopamine D receptors
 B. Opioid receptors
C. Benzodiazepine receptors
D. GABA receptors

220. Pharmacological effects of morphine, EXCEPT

A. Analgetic
B. Sedative
C. Antipsychotic
D. Potentiating action of general anaesthetics

221. Morphine doesn’t depress

A. Respiratory center
B. Nucleus of III nerve
C. Cough center
D. Nothing of above

222. Morphine activates

A. Respiratory center
B. Center of vagal nerve
C. Cough centre
D. Nothing of above

223. Morphine doesn’t increase tone of

A. Sphincters of g.i.t. and bladder
B. Sphincter Oddi
C. Smooth muscles of bronchi
D. Smooth muscles of blood vessels

224. Repeated use of opiod analgetics doesn’t cause

A. Cumulation
B. Tolerance
C. Synergism
D. Dependence

225. Symptoms of acute intoxication by morphine, EXCEPT

A. Unconsciousness
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Respiratory depression
D. Miosis

226. Mistaken statement about trimepiridine (promedol)

A. Synthetic agonist of opiod receptors
B. More than morphine depresses respiratory centre
C. Doesn’t have spasmogenic action
D. Causes drug dependence
227. Mistaken statement about fentanyl
A. Synthetic agonist of opioid receptors
B. Has potent and quick anesthetic action (also right)
C. Depresses respiratory center
D. Is used for neuroleptanalgesia

228. The mistaken statement about nonnarcotic analgesics

A. Compared to morphine they are weaker analgesics
B. They act primarily on peripheral pain mechanisms
C. They have analgesic, antipyretic and antiinflammatory actions
D. They depress CNS

229. The major mechanism of action of NSAIDs

A. Block impulses conduction in CNS
B. Agonists of opioid receptors
C. Block Na+ channels in sensory nerves
D. Inhibit COX

230. Mechanism of action of non-narcotic analgesics

A. Blockade of opioid receptors
B. Blockade of Na+ channels in sensory nerves
C. Activation of opioid receptors
D. Inhibition synthesis of PGs

231. The mistaken statement about Antypyretic action of non-narcotic analgetics is

A. Is due to blockade of synthesis of prostaglandins in center of termoregulation
B. Is accompanied of increased sweating
C. Can be used in surgery to produce hypothermia
D. Develops within first hour

232. Mistaken statement about nonnarcotic analgesics and NSAIDs

A. Most NSAIDs inhibit COX- and COX- nonselectively
B. There are selective COX-1 inhibitors
C. Selective COX- inhibitors act preferably in the site of inflammation
D. Paracetamol doesn’t have potent anti-inflammatory action

233. Nonselective COX inhibitors don’t include

A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Indomethacin
D. Celecoxib

234. Analgesic-antipyretics with poor antiinflammatory action is

A. Nimesulide
B. Nimesulid
C. Paracetamol
D. Diclofenac

235. Beneficial actions due to PG synthesis inhibition don’t include

A. Heamostatic
B. Analgesia
C. Antipyresis
D. Antiinflammatory
236. Mistaken statement about analgesic effect of NSAIDs is
A. Decrease hyperalgesia caused by PGs
B. Block the pain sensitizing mechanism induced by algesic substances
C. Analgetic action is result of action on opioid receptors
D. Are more effective in inflammation associated pain

237. Correct statement about nonnarcotic analgesics is

A. Cause hypothermia in normothermic individuals
B. Must be used in all cases of hyperthermia
C. Act on hypothalamus and increase heat loss
D. Decrease heat production

238. Side effects due to PG synthesis inhibition don’t include

A. Gastric mucosal damage
B. Bleeding
C. Na+ and water retention
D. Depression of respiratory centre

239. Mistaken statement about gastric mucosal damage caused by NSAIDs

A. NSAIDs enhance acid secretion
B. NSAIDs reduce mucus secretion in stomach
C. Is mostly caused by nonselective COX inhibitors
D. It is mostly caused by selective COX- inhibitors

240. The mistaken statement about non-narcotic analgetics and NSAIDs

A. Act primarily on peripheral pain
B. Don’t have abuse liability
C. Are especially effective in inflammatory pain
D. Have potent anaesthetic action

241. Acethylsalicylic acid is used as antiaggregant because

A. It inhibits both COX and COX
B. Has few side effects
C. Inhibits COX in platelets irreversibly
D. Has short action

242. Contraindications of aspirin don’t include

A. Hypersensitivity
B. Postmyocardial infarction treatment
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Bleeding tendencies

243. Mistaken statement about Paracetamol

A. Has central analgesic action
B. Has weak peripheral antiinflammatory action
C. Doesn’t act on COX
D. Is effective acting antipyretic
E. Can be used in children even in high doses (also right)

244. Correct statement is

A. Tranquillizers are used to control psychoses
B. Neuroleptics have therapeutic effect in psychoses
C. Anxiolytics stimulate CNS
D. Antipsychotics stimulate CNS
245. Correct statement about mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs
A. Are agonists of benzodiazepine receptors
B. Are agonists of opioid receptors
C. Have potent dopamine D receptors blocking action
D. Don’t block adrenergic and cholinergic receptors

246. The mechanism of antipsychotic effect

A. Blockade of adrenergic receptors
B. Blockade of muscarinic receptors
C. Blockade of hystamine receptors
D. Blockade of dopamine D receptors

247. Pharmacological effects of typical neuroleptics, EXCEPT

A. Antipsychotic action
B. Sedative action
C. Hypotermic action
D. Anticonvulsant action

248. Adverse effects of typical neuroleptics don’t include

A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Anticholinergic effects
D. Artetial hypotension

249. Atypical neuroleptics don’t cause

A. Antipsychotic action
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms
C. Adverse effects
D. More potent dopamine D receptor blocking action

250. Extrapyramidal side effects of neuroleptics are caused by

E. Activation of motor centers in cortex
F. Stimulation of n-cholinoreceptors in skeletal muscles
G. Blockade of D receptors in nigrastriatum
H. Blockade of D receptors in mesolimbic system

251. Antipsychotics –phenothiazines don’t include

A. Clorpromazine
B. Triflupromazine
C. Haloperidol
D. Levomepromazine

252. The mistaken statement about droperidol

A. Is used for chronic treatment of schizophrenia
B. It is short acting potent neuroleptic
C. Is used for neuroleptanalgesia
D. Is butirophenones derivative

253. The main effect of antianxiety drugs is

A. Stimulation of respiratory center
B. Control of psychotic symptoms
C. Decrease anxiety
D. Stimulation of CNS
254. The main effect of antianxiety drugs is
A. Antipsychotic action
B. Anxiolytic action
C. Reduce of depression
D. Stimulation of CNS

255. Mistaken statement about benzodiazepines

A. Have anxiolytic action
B. Have sedative-hypnotic action
C. Can be used to decrease action of general anaestetics
D. Have anticonvulsant action

256. The antianxiety drugs – benzodiazepines don’t include

A. Diazepam
B. Oxazepam
C. Fenazepame
D. Buspirone

257. Diazepam doesn’t

A. Activate benzodiazepine receptors
B. Have anticonvulsant activity
C. Have hypnotic activity
D. Cause withdrawal syndrome

258. The drug used in convulsions

A. Diclofenac
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Diazepam
D. Caffeine

259. Psychostimulants
A. Are used in endogenous depression
B. Decrease anxiety
C. Activate mental and motor functions
D. Have antipsychotic action

260. Mechanism of action of amphetamines

A. Agonists of BDZ receptors
B. Antagonists of DA receptors
C. Antagonists of adenosine receptors
D. Release monoamines in brain

261. Amphetamines are not widely used because

A. They have weak action on CNS
B. Cause extrapyramidal side effects
C. Produce marked psychological dependence
D. Don’t change BP

262. Pharmacological actions of caffeine on CNS don’t include

A. Fatigue is allayed
B. Motor activity is increased
C. Stimulation of vasomotor centers
D. Stimulation of n.oculomotorius centre
263. Correct statement about caffeine
A. Always increases BP
B. Decreases force of myocardial contractions
C. May be used in collapse
D. Is contraindicated in migraine

264. Mechanisms of action of caffeine include

A. Blockade of adenosine receptors
B. Blockade of Ca2+ channels
C. Inhibition of MAO
D. Inhibition of acethylcholinesterase

265. Caffeine doesn’t cause

A. СNS stimulation
B. Tachycardia
C. Mild diuretic action
D. Decrease secretion of acid in stomach

266. Adverse effects of caffeine don’t include

A. Insomnia
B. Constipation
C. Gastric irrirarion
D. Tachycardia

267. The main use of antidepressants is

A. Psychosis
B. Endogenous depression
C. Depression of vital centers
D. Сonvulsions

268. Tricyclic antidepressant NA+HT reuptake inhibitor

A. Moclobemide
B. Imipramine
C. Amphetamine
D. Fluoxetine

269. Antidepressant — selective HT (serotonin) reuptake inhibitor

A. Moclobemide
B. Imipramine
C. Amitriptyline
D. Fluoxetine

270. Analeptics are

A. Psychostimulants
B. Respiratory stimulants
C. Antidepressants
D. Cardiostimulants

271. Analeptics
A. Decrease depression
B. Are antihypertensive agents
C. Stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centers
D. Are sedative drugs
272. Mistaken statement about use of analeptics
A. May be used in hypnotic drug poisoning
B. Acute respiratory insufficiency
C. Respiratory failure
D. Convulsions

273. Indications of cognition enhancers don’t include

A. Dementia
B. Dizziness and memory disturbances
C. Mental retardation in children
D. Insomnia

274. The mechanisms of action of cognition enhancers don’t include

A. Increasing cerebral blood flow
B. Adrenomymetic action
C. Direct support of neuronal metabolism
D. Antihypoxic

275. Wrong statement about penicillins

A. They all cause bactericidal effect.
B. They all inhibit the synthesis of cell wall.
C. They all are orally active.
D. They all posses T-lactam ring.

276. This drug is a monobactam antibiotic

A. Aztreonam
B. Imipenem
C. Sulbactam
D. Cefotaxime

277. Procaine penicillin and benzylpenicilin have similar

A. Mode of action
B. Duration of action
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

278. Side effects of amoxycilline do NOT include

A. Candidosis
B. Ototoxicity
C. Diarrhea
D. Allergic disorders

279. Cephalosporines are distinguished from benzylpenicillins by

A. Mode of action
B. Spectrum of activity
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

280. These two drugs are resistant to T-lactamase

A. Oxacilline and Amoxicilline+clavulanic acid
B. Amoxicilline and flucloxacillin
C. Both of the above pairs
D. None of the above pairs
281. Doxycycline belongs to
A. Tetracyclines
B. Macrolides
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Cephalosporines

282. This is a typical side effect of tetracyclines

A. Teeth discoloration
B. Irreversible deafness
C. Peripheral neuritis
D. Blur vision

283. Chose the correct statement regarding gentamycin

A. It is a very safe antibiotic.
B. It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
C. It is effective orally.
D. It causes discoloration of teeth.

284. Side effects of chloramphenicol do not include

A. Superinfection
B. Bone marrow suppression
C. Ototoxicity
D. “Grey baby” syndrome

285. This drug belongs to antitubercular antibiotics

A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazide
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

286. These two drugs are antibiotics

A. Nystatin and rifampicin
B. Amphotericin B and cycloserin
C. Both of the above pairs
D. None of the above pairs

287. Sulphonamides
A. Are synthetic drugs
B. Are very weak antimicrobials
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

288. Wrong statement regarding co-trimoxazole

A. It has a bacteriostatic effect.
B. It is a moderately effective antimicrobial drug.
C. It is metabolized in the organism.
D. It is indicated for urinary infections

289. Chloroquine is indicated for

A. Treatment of malaria
B. Prophylaxis of malaria
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
290. Chloramphenicol and streptomycin have similar
A. Mode of action
B. Spectrum of activity
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

291. Polymyxines
A. Are used only topically
B. Are broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

292. The typical side effect of tetracyclines

A. Teeth discoloration
B. Irreversible deafness
C. Peripheral neuritis
D. Blur vision

293. Antitubercular antibiotic

A. Rifampycin
B. Etambutol
C. Isoniazide
D. Ethionamide

294. The main side effect of chloramphenicol

A. Allergic disorders
B. Bone marrow suppression
C. Ototoxicity
D. Nephrotoxicity

295. Amoxicillin
A. Has broad spectrum of activity
B. Is used only parenterally
C. Is resistant to penicillinase
D. Is natural penicilline

296. Antibiotics that inhibit the synthesis of cell wall

A. Macrolides
B. Cephalosporines
C. Tetracyclines
D. Aminiglycozides

297. Cephalosporins
A. Are group of broad spectrum bactericidal antibiotics
B. Are narrow spectrum antibiotics
C. Are used only parenterally
D. Are ototoxic drugs

298. The most important uses of thyreoid hormones

E. Stimulation of release of thyrotropin
F. Hypertensive states
G. As replacement therapy
H. Hyperthyroidism
299. Mechanism of action of oral hypoglycaemic drugs – sulfonylureas
A. Bind to insuline receptors and increase its action
B. Provoke brisk release of insulin
C. Increase glucose disposal in muscle and fat
D. Decrease absorbtion of sugar in g.i.t.

300. The correct statement about isoniazide

A. It Is antibiotic
B. Has broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity
C. Is used only parenterally
D. It is one of the antitubercular drugs

301. All b-lactame antibiotics have same

A. Spectrum of antimicrobial activity
B. Mechanism of action
C. Duration of action
D. Routs of administration

302. Procaine decreases antibacterial effect of sulfonamides because

A. After chemical reaction inactive compound is formed
B. Sulfonamides are degraded by procaine
C. PABA is formed after biotransformation of procaine
D. Slowers biotransformation of sulfonamides

303. Correct statements about co-trimoxazole, EXCEPT

A. Is antibiotic
B. Is a combination of two active components
C. Inhibits synthesis of dihydrofolic and tetrahydrofolic acids
D. Has bactericidal activity

304. Correct statement about penicillins

A. Have narrow spectrum of activity
B. Are bactericidic
C. Are not resistant to penicillinase
D. Inhibit protein synthesis

305. Mechanism of action of sulfonamides

A. Inhibition of synthesis of cell wall
B. Competitive antagonism with PABA
C. Affecting permeability of cytoplasmic membrane
D. Inhibition of protein synthesis on ribosomes

306. Fluoroquinolones, EXCEPT

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Nitroxoline

307. Antitubercular antibiotic

A. Isoniazid
B. Etambutol
C. Rifampycin
D. Ethionamide
308. Amoxycilline+clavulanic acid
A. Is used only parenterally
B. Is effective against viruses
C. Has bacteriostatic action
D. Is resistant to penicillinase

309. Macrolides and azalides don’t include

A. Clarythromycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Roxitromycin

310. Combination of sulfamethoxazole with trimethoprim is

A. Sulfadimetoxin
B. Co-trimoxazole
C. Amoxiclav
D. Sulfacetamide

311. Mistaken statement about tetracyclines

A. If necessary are used in combination with nystatin
B. Are used in combination with Ca+ supplements
C. Are used in combination with vitamins of group B
D. All of above

312. Antibiotics that don’t act on protein synthesis of bacteria

A. Macrolides
B. Cephalosporines
C. Tetracyclines
D. Chloramphenicol

313. Mistaken statement about clarythromycin and roxitromycin

A. Are semisynthetic macrolides
B. Are more active than erythromycin
C. Are effective against Chlamidia, Micoplasmes, Legionells
D. Are used only parenterally

314. Is not active against TBC

A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Penicillin E.

315. Mistaken statement about Isoniazid

A. Inhibits synthesis of micolic acids
B. Has a broad spectrum of antimicrobial action
C. Acts selectively on Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Has a bactericidal or bacteriostatic effect
316. Oxacilline
E. Has broad spectrum of activity
F. Is used only parenterally
G. Is resistant to penicillinase
H. Is natural penicillin

317. Antibiotics affecting permeability of cytoplasmic membrane

A. Macrolides
B. Cephalosporines
C. Tetracyclines
D. Polymixines

318. The spectrum of antimicrobial activity of sulfonamides don’t include

A. Bacteria
B. Chlamydia
C. Viruses
D. Malaria Plasmodium

319. Mistaken statement about Fluoroquinolones

A. Are highly antibacterials with broad spectrum
B. Violate DNA replication and the formation of RNA
C. Have bactericidal activity
D. Are not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract

320. Main use of natural hormones

E. A, To stimulate the gland
F. B. To activate pituitary gland
G. C. Replacement therapy
A. D, Inflammation

321. Combination with clavulanic acid makes amoxicillin

A. Longer acting
B. Resistant to penicillinase
C. Bactericidic
D. Resistant to acid of stomach

322. Penicillins
A. Are bacteriostatic
B. Inhibit protein synthesis
C. May be used orally
D. Posses beta-lactam ring

323. The typical side effect of tetracyclines

A. Teeth discoloration
B. Irreversible deafness
C. Peripheral neuritis
D. Blur vision

324. Antitubercular antibiotic

A. Rifampycin
B. Etambutol
C. Isoniazide
D. Ethionamide
325. The main side effect of chloramphenicol
A. Allergic disorders
B. Bone marrow suppression
C. Ototoxicity
D. Nephrotoxicity

326. Amoxicillin
A. Has broad spectrum of activity
B. Is used only parenterally
C. Is resistant to penicillinase
D. Is natural penicilline

327. Antibiotics that inhibit the synthesis of cell wall

E. Macrolides
F. Cephalosporines
G. Tetracyclines
H. Aminiglycozides

328. Cephalosporins
A. Are group of broad spectrum bactericidal antibiotics
B. Are narrow spectrum antibiotics
C. Are used only parenterally
D. Are ototoxic drugs

329. The most important uses of thyreoid hormones

A. Stimulation of release of thyrotropin
B. Hypertensive states
C. As replacement therapy
D. Hyperthyroidism

330. Mechanism of action of oral hypoglycaemic drugs – sulfonylureas

A. Bind to insuline receptors and increase its action
B. Provoke brisk release of insulin
C. Increase glucose disposal in muscle and fat
D. Decrease absorbtion of sugar in g.i.t.

331. The correct statement about isoniazide

A. It Is antibiotic
B. Has broad spectrum of antimicrobal activity
C. Is used only parenterally
D. It is one of the antitubercular drugs

332. All b-lactame antibiotics have same

A. Spectrum of antimicrobial activity
B. Mechanism of action
C. Duration of action
D. Routs of administration

333. Procaine decreases antibacterial effect of sulfonamides because

A. After chemical reaction inactive compound is formed
B. Sulfanilamides are degraded by procaine
C. PABA is formed after biotransformation of procaine
D. Slowers biotransformation of sulfanilamides
334. Correct statements about co-trimoxazole, EXCEPT
A. Is antibiotic
B. Is a combination of two active components
C. Inhibits synthesis of dihydrofolic and tetrahydrofolic acids
D. Has bactericidal activity

335. Correct statement about penicillins

A. Have narrow spectrum of activity
B. Are bactericidic
C. Are not resistant to penicillinase
D. Inhibit protein synthesis

336. Mechanism of action of sulfonamides

A. Inhibition of synthesis of cell wall
B. Competitive antagonism with PABA
C. Affecting permeability of cytoplasmic membrane
D. Inhibition of protein synthesis on ribosomes

337. Antitubercular antibiotic

A. Isoniazid
B. Etambutol
C. Rifampycin
D. Ethionamide

338. Combination of sulfamethoxazole with trimethoprim is

A. Sulfadimetoxin
B. Co-trimoxazole
C. Amoxiclav
D. Sulfacetamide

339. Mistaken statement about tetracyclines

A. If necessary are used in combination with nystatin
B. Are used in combination with Ca+ supplements
C. Are used in combination with vitamins of group B
D. All of above

340. Antibiotics that don’t act on protein synthesis of bacteria

A. Macrolides
B. Cephalosporines
C. Tetracyclines
D. Chloramphenicol

341. Is not active against TBC

A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Penicillin E.

342. Mistaken statement about Isoniazid

A. Inhibits synthesis of micolic acids
B. Has a broad spectrum of antimicrobial action
C. Acts selectively on Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 D. Has a bactericidal or bacteriostatic effect

343. Antibiotics affecting permeability of cytoplasmic membrane

A. Macrolides
B. Cephalosporines
C. Tetracyclines
D. Polymixines

344. Mistaken statement about Fluoroquinolones

A. Are highly antibacterials with broad spectrum
B. Violate DNA replication and the formation of RNA
C. Have bactericidal activity
D. Are not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract

345. Main use of natural hormones

A. To stimulate the gland
B. To activate pituitary gland
C. Replacement therapy
D. Inflammation

346. Combination with clavulanic acid makes amoxicillin

A. Longer acting
B. Resistant to penicillinase
C. Bactericidic
D. Resistant to acid of stomach