UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING

Past Questions & Solutions + 1 Year
SMS Alerts
2011 - 2005

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

PREFACE
Until the national consensus to adopt post-test by various tertiary institutions in the country, the Joint Admission and
Matriculation Board-JAMB had remained the only body charged with the responsibility of testing, screening, preparing and
presenting qualified secondary school leavers for admission into the over 76 universities (government and private inclusive).
The introduction of the POST-UME is not unconnected with the malpractices associated in the conduct of the jamb exams
nationwide in the past five years. Thus in 2010, the name degenerated from POST-UME to POST-UTME thereby
incorporating and involving both Polytechnics and Monotechnics nationwide.

The advent of this “menace” as often seen by prospective Nigerian students was as old as 2005, today no school accepts
candidates for admission without duly testing the person’s ability through the post Jamb test. This therefore possess yet
another hurdle and barricade to young school leavers; bridging them from getting admitted each year.

In the course of, and in preparation for this examination/test, the prospective student faces a lot of worries like; how many
questions am I expected to write? What schemes and subjects do I need to meet up with? When will the application start?
How am I going to be judged or graded? What are my chances of getting admitted? And of course where can I get a
prototype, copy and replica of ‘my choice of school’ past questions and possible solutions to the questions? All these and
more had remained rhetorical until the emergence of MYSCHOOL ADMISSION SUPPORT.

In our quest to remain, maintain and sustain our current status as the best and ever first corporate organization that manage
the entirety of Nigerian Undergraduates, we had in the past one year embarked on massive compilation, revision, analysis and
research on previous post UTME examinations conducted, the feasibility studies and chances of a candidate passing or and
of course failing the test. From our research findings, we have found without further verifiable hypothesis that the POST-UTME
past questions remain a secret to passing through these tests in success.

We therefore present and recommend these past questions for anyone/everyone preparing for this examination.
Our idea in this sense does not focus on duplicating the efforts made by several other Nigerians, Lecturers, teachers and
tutors in this direction. We only aimed at correcting some of their shortfalls, and most importantly; making these study, revision
and preparatory materials readily available to anyone in any part of the country.

The questions contained herein have been drawn from the candidate’s school of interest/choice in the relevant courses to
facilitate easy and more result orientated performance. In this respect, actual and real examination questions were extracted
from your school of choice and are therefore being presented to you, read well to succeed.

NOTE: COPIES OF THIS BOOK, AND OF COURSE GENERAL SCHOOL-RELATED ASSISTANCE IS AVAILABLE ON OUR
WEBSITE. RECOMMEND US TO YOUR FRIENDS TODAY BY GIVING THEM OUR WEBSITE:
Website: www.myschool.com.ng Official Helplines: 08184916861
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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

UNIVERSITY OF BENIN, BENINCITY, NIGERIA

Post Universities Matriculation Examination 2005
Time allowed 1 hour
Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Each question carries 2 marks.

Comprehension Passage I
Farming is the most important aspect of agriculture that has attracted attention
within the last few years. Agriculture has several other aspects like Fishery,`Livestock
poultry, All these are also important in that they have to do with the production of items, which human beings consume for
survival.
In many parts of the world today, farming has been regarded as the main stay
Of the economy, Crops such as cocoa, rubber and cotton have been produced in such
commercial quantities that are sold to other countries. In these other countries, there is
to spend a lot of money on agriculture, particularly farming. Most fanners use out modern tools.
A lot of them have to store crops, most of which are always destroyed by insects and pests before harvest time. All these
have adverse effect on their productivity.
The government can do a lot to help farmers. Farmer’s co-operative societies
can be encouraged and loans can be made available to farmers through government
Institutions like banks and finance corporations. Farmers can be taught how to build
good and strong structures for their produce. All these can help to improve the
conditions of farmers in these countries.

1. The most important aspect of agriculture mentioned in the passage is (a)

poultry (b) fishery (c) livestock (cl) farming.
2. Farming in many countries today is (a) an alternative to poultry (b) of great
assistance to the economy (c) for those who do 'not have jobs (d) for the illiterates.
3. Some countries produce more and better crops than others because the fanners
in the former (a) are more educated (b) have greater manpower (c) have more
Modern equipment (d) have fertile land.
4. In order to improve the state of farming, the Government should (a) give all
farmers enough money to work with (b) sell enough fertilizers to all Farmers (C)
find ways of financing and modernizing the farming system (d) help farmers
with the storage of their crops.
5. A lot of crops harvested are wasted because farmers (a) allow insect and pest to
destroy their crops (b) do not have enough money to invest in harvesters (Q) do
not have good storage facilities (d) harvest too much in a time.
+ Note: For more comprehension tips, see solution to 2006 comprehension passages.

COMPREHENSIVE PASSAGE II

Development in electronic science have transformed the art of record keeping in modern age. Traditionally, records of events
were kept only in 4 people’s minds. It depended very much on the retentive power of the human memory. This was extremely
dangerous as people either forget events wholly or in part, or deliberately falsified details to suit their various interests.
Interminable arguments were thus the order of the day. Even writing, which replaced mental recording was not entirely free
from these shortcomings as untruths could be written as true records either willingly or inadvertently. With the advent of the
electronic memory, however, these dangers have been largely overcome. Recordings in audio and videocassettes now show
not only what happened, but also who did or said what including how and when.

6. The author believes that electronic recording is

(a) superior only to mental recording
(b) inferior to both mental recording and writing

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(c) superior to both mental recording and writing

(d) inferior to only writing.
7. The writer believes that the art keeping has
(a) improved over the years
(b) endangered the art of writing
(c) enhanced human memory
(d) overcome all the problems
8. How many stages of development did the writer mentioned while discussing the art of record keeping?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d)Five
9. According to the author, human memory is unreliable because people
(a) die and we forget what they said (b) forget events or tell lies
(c) do not always know when event happened (d) do not always know who did what and when
10. From the passage, we gather that writing is almost
(a) as unreliable as human memory
(b) as unreliable as electronic memory
(c) more reliable than the electronic memory
(d) not to be compared to any other recording system.

In each of the questions 11 to 13, identify the option that has a stress pattern different from the rest

11. (a) Factory (b) Distinctive (c) Regular (d) National.

(From the above, the only word that has a different stress pattern is “distinctive” the other three words are stressed in
the first syllable. Only distinctive is stressed in the second syllable).
12. (a) Interpret (b) Period (c) Destructive (d) Forever
(The word “Period” is different from the rest in the sense that it is stressed in the first syllable, while the rest are
stressed in the second syllable).
13. (a) Useless (b) Enact (c) Unless (d) Combine.
(The word “Unless” is stressed in the first syllable while the others are stressed in the second syllable).

In each of questions 14 to 26 choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase(s) underlined.

14. The singer’s popularity is beginning to decline.

(a) slope (b) disappear (c) wane (d) darken.
(“Wane” means “to diminish”, “fade”, “ decrease”).
15. Ade is at the verge of nervous breakdown, so he must be careful.
(a) brink (b) margin (c) avenue (d) fringe.
(“Verge” means “very close to an extreme state or condition”).
16. An open car gives no protection against the elements.
(a) weather (b) atoms (c) dust (d) atmosphere.
(Connotatively, elements refer to factors of the environment which is the weather. But denotatively, it means the
building block of atoms).
17. He has never been a good mediator in family disputes because, in most cases, his views are jaundiced.
(a) coloured (b) prejudiced (c) suspicious (d) unscrupulous.
(“Jaundice” means “having unpleasant notion about something due to past experience’).

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

18. In some parts of our society, people are ostracized purely on the basis of their parentage.
(a) hated (b) disrespected (c) locked up (d) shut off from others.
(“To be ostracized” means “not to be allowed to be part of a group” i.e. “shut off from others”).
19. My friend will hate his Uncle forever because he left him in the lurch at his hour of need.
(a) abandoned him (b) punished him (c) disrespected him (d) despised him.
(“To be left in the lurch” means “to be abandoned or deserted when one is in dire need of help”). It is an idiom.
20. All the efforts made to settle the quarrel were futile
(a) successful (b) fruitless (c) wicked (d) reasonable.
(“Futile” means “unsuccessful”, “fruitless”, “unproductive”, “pointless”).
21. Kelechi hardly ever falls sick
(a) most often (b) very seldom (c) frequently (d) sometime.
(“Hardly ever” means “almost never”. Its synonym in the above is “very seldom”).It is a phrase.
22. It is sheer fantasy to believe that there could never be a miscalculation by any nation that has atomic weapon.
(a) dream (b) hope (c) nonsense (d) joke
(“Fantasy” means “an imagined pleasant situation unlikely to be a realty”, i.e. “a product of imagined situation”. It
synonym is “dream”).
23. The ingenious scheme of the robbers broke down because of the efficiency of the police officer.
(a) suspicious (b) ambitious (c) deceitful (d) clever.
(“Ingenious” means “extremely clever”).
24. Our town is so small that we are always meeting our school master accidentally.
(a) falling into (b) finding (c) running into (d) stepping on.
(“Meeting” as used in the sentence means “to come in contact with something or somebody”. “Running into” is the
most correct).
25. One has to score not less than 200 marks in the UME together with meeting other conditions to be qualified to write the
Uniben post UME screening test.
(a) to be exempted from (b) to become a candidate for
(c) to be considered for (d) to seek permission for.
(“To be qualified” means “to be eligible to do something without permission”).
26. He went through fire before he qualified as a doctor.
(a) a fire accident (b) a hilarious experience (c) some purification (d) a tough time.
(“Fire” as used means “harsh conditions”, “unpleasant situations”, ‘tough time”).

In questions 27 to 40, choose the options that are opposite in meaning to the words underlined.

27. The chairman’s verdict redressed the injustice meted out by the secretary.
(a) corrected (b) restored (c) aggravated (d) addressed.
(“To redress” means “to bring back to normal’, “restore”, “correct”, etc. Its antonym is “aggravate” which means, “to
worsen a situation”).
28. Uche could not travel last December
because of the severity of the harmattan.
(a) cold (b) mildness (c) warmth (d) moderation.
(“Severity” as used in the sentence means “extreme”. Its antonym is “mildness”).
29. Travelling in the night can be ordeal
(a) a great exercise
(b) a great fear

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(a) a great endurance

(d) a great pleasure.
(“Ordeal” means “very unpleasant
experience”).
30. Bola is very provocative in her style of dressing.
(a) modest (b) happy
(c) angry (d) beautiful.
(“Provocative” means “intended to make somebody very angry or sexually excited”. Its antonym is “modest” which
means “not intended to attract attention especially in a sexual way”).
31. Joke thought that her father was very callous.
(a) indifferent (b) compassionate
(c) wicked (d) careless.
(The adjective “callous” means “not caring that other people are suffering”. It antonym is “compassionate” which
means sympathy).
32. The lions of Cameroon is really an indomitable team
(a) a powerful (b) a difficult (c) a weak (d) an unexciting.
(“indomitable” means “powerful”, “unbeatable”, “strong” etc).
33. To almost everyone in the little village, Ada’s behaviour is the most odious
(a) repulsive (b) compassionate (c) interesting (d) charming.
(An “odious” behaviour means “an unpleasant or a repulsive one”. Its antonym is “interesting” which means ‘the quality
that something has when it attracts ones attention”).
34. Adamu was so vociferous during the meeting of the congregation that be succeeded in incurring the wrath of the
chairman.
(a) an ideal (b) admiration (c) displeasure (d) sympathy.
(“Wrath” means “extreme anger”. Its antonym is “admiration” which means, “having liking for someone”).
35. It was an inopportune moment for you to make that suggestion.
(a) an ideal (b) a wrong (c) an exact (d) a sad.
(An “inopportune moment” means “a wrong”, “not appropriate” or “convenient moment”).
36. He devoted too much time to the peripheral aspects.
(a) unimportant (b) superficial (c)minor (d) main.
(“Peripheral” means less important part of something”).
37. The climate of Nigeria is an enervating one.
(a) a weakening (b) an energy sapping (c) an invigorating (d) sluggish.
(“Enervating” as an adjective means “not full of vigor or strength”, “weak or tired”. Its antonym is “invigorating” which
means “strong and full of vigor’).
38. The girl’s idiosyncrasy was a passion for bread and butter.
(a) stupid outburst (b) general tendency (c) singular characteristics (d) occupational calling
(“Idiosyncrasy means a behaviour”, “peculiarity”, “foible”, “habit”).
39. Once he has decided that something needs doing, my brother is very unswerving of purpose.
(a) erratic (b) tenacious (c) stubborn (d) simple.
40. Those were the days of fallacy that some
languages are primitive while others are not.
(a) argument(b) exercise (c) misconception (d) truth.

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

ANSWERS
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C
6.C 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.A
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.A
16.A 17.B 18.D 19.A 20.B
21.B 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.B
26.D 27.C 28.B 29.D 30.A
31.B 32.C 33.C 34.B 35.A
36.D 37.C 38.B 39.D 40.D

SECTION B: GENERAL PAPER CHEMISTRY

PHYSICS
BIOLOGY
TIME ALLOWED: 1 HOUR

1. Which of the following is not true about semi conductors?

(a) Moving holes are equivalent to moving positive charges
(b) There are two kinds of charge carriers; free electron and a hole
(c) The escape of a valence electron from an atom produces electron hole pair of charge carrier
(d) Increase in temperature increases its electrical resistance.
(In a semiconductor, the electrical resistance decreases with increase in temperature).
2. The minimum energy necessary to remove an electron from a given atom at infinity is called...
(a) excitation energy (b) ground state energy (c) ionization energy (d) binding energy.
(The minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom is called ionization energy).
-34
3. Find the De Broglie wavelength of a 0.01kg pellet having a velocity of 10m/s [n = 6.63 x 10 Js].
(a) 6.63 x 10-31m (b) 6.63 x 10-32m (c) 6.63 x 10-33m (d) 6.63 x 10-35m
SOL: De Broglie formula for wavelength W=1=h/”2eVm where eV is electron volt or hpê, ê=hip, (Where P=mass x
-34 -33
velocity)∴ê=6.63 x 10 /0/01 x 10 = 6.63 x 10
4. A set-up transformer is designed to operate from a 25V supply. If the transformer is 80% efficient, determine the
current in the primary coil when the output terminals are not connected to 240V 100w lamp.
(a) 5.0 A (b) 4.0 A (c) 2.5A (d) 2.OA.
SOL: Efficiency = Output/input x 100/1. Input power = 1pEp i.e. 80 = 100/251 px100/1, 1p= 100x 100/25x80=5A.
5. An object of mass 0.2kg and density
-3
600kgm4 is suspended with a string so that1/10 of it is immersed in paraffin of density900kgm . Find the tension in the
string.
(a) 0.2N (b) 2.ON (c) 1 .ON (d) 0.1 N.
-34
SOL: D = M/V. When D = 600, ∴600 = 0.2/V, V= 0.2/600 = 3.3x 10
-34 -35 -3
Thus 1/10 of V = 1/10x 3.3 x 10 = 3.33 x 10 , there when D = 900kgm
D = mv where V = 3.33 x 10-5, m = 900 x
-5
3.33x10 , m=0.03, F=mg, F=l0 x 0.03,
F=0.3
-1 3 -1
6. A rocket burns fuel at the rate of 20kgs and ejects it with a velocity of 5.0 x 10 ms . Calculate the thrust exerted by
gas on the rocket.
5 -1 5 -1
(a) 1.0 x 10 ms (b) 2.0 x 10 ms
5 -1 5 -1
(c) 3.0 x 10 ms (d) 5.0 x l0 ms .

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

5 -1 5 -1
SOL: The thrust exerted by the gas on the rocket is the mass x velocity. i.e. 5 x 1 0 x 20kg = 1.0 x10 ms
7. Which of the following pairs consist fundamental quantities only?
(a) Velocity and gravitational potential (b) Acceleration and field strength
(c) Momentum and work done (d) Moment and mass.
(All are derived unit except mass; N.B
Mass, Length, Time, Temperature,
Viscosity, Amount of substance etc. are all fundamental quantities).
8. One of the limitations of Thomson’s model of the atom in that it does not explain.
(a) small angle (b) stability of the atom
(c) ionization process (d) the variation of the effective atomic radius.
(Thomson’s concluded in what is called plum pudding mode) of the atom which deals with large angle scattering and
not small angle scattering).
9. A wire carrying a current of 1 GA and 2.5min length is placed in a field of flux density 0.14T. What is the force of the
0
wire if it is placed at 60 to the field?
(a) 30.3N (b) 20.5N (c) 1 5.3N (d) 10.5N
SOL: F = BILSine. Therefore, F = 0.14 x 2.5 x
10Sin60, F=3.03N.
10. In the transformer, the magnetism of the core is repeatedly reversed by the magnetic field resulting in energy
dissipation as heat. This loss is called.
(a) eddy current (b) hysteresis loss
(c) flux linkage (d) joule heating loss.
(Eddy current is minimized by lamination, making a core of soft magnetic material to reduce energy needed to
facilitate reversal (Hysteresis).
11. An atom is said to be excited if an electron of the atom is P
(a) in the ground state (b) at infinity
(c) promoted to an energy level higher than its original level (d)having an energy value of 0.0ev.
(An atom is excited when it is not as its original level but at a higher one).
12. What happens to the proton number Z and the nucleus number A of nuclide which emits a-radiation?
(a) Z increases by I while A does not change (b) Z increases by I While A not change
(c) Z and A increases not decreases (d) Z increases by I while A decreases by I.
(When gamma rays a is emitted the proton and nucleus number are not affected).
13. A note that is an OCTAVE higher than a given note of frequency 256Hz would have a frequency of P
(a) 204Hz (b) 102Hz (c) 128Hz (d) 512Hz.
SOL: The octave of a given note F0=2F, therefore F0 = 256, F0 = 512Hz
14. A sound wave of frequency 130Hz and
wavelength 2.0m was produced at a distanced, from a target and an echo was heard at the source 0.5 sec later.
Calculate the values of d.
(a) 65.0m (b) 130.0m (c) 260m (d) 520.0m.
SOL: V = fe = 2d/t, Where d = distance,
t=time. i.e. 130x2=2xd/0.5, d=130x20.5/2=65m.
15. In an experiment, lead shot contained in a vertical cupboard cylinder falls through 100cm when the cylinder is inverted.
2
Calculate the rise in temperature caused by 100 such inversions. (Specific heat capacity of lead 130jkg; g = 10ms ).
SOL: Using mce = work done and mgh = work done. Thus, rn/ce = m/gh, cè = gh.
∴e =gh/c =100x10/130 = 7.7K
16. The quality and pitch of a musical note depend respectively on

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(a) frequency and harmonics (b) overtones and intensity

(c) intensity and frequency (d) overtones and frequency.
(Quality depends on overtones or harmonics and Pitch depends on frequency. N.B: Loudness depends on intensity).
-1
17. A body is projected with a velocity Vms inclined at angle β to the vertical. Which of the following gives the correct
expression for the horizontal component of velocity Vx after time t?
(a) Vcosβ (b) Vsinβ (c) Vgcosβ (d) Vtsinβ
SOL:

Vcos (90-β) = Vsinβ

18. A converging lens of radius of curvature

16.00cm, calculate the power of the lens
(a) 0.0625 (b) 0.125 (c) 0.250 (d) 0.500.
SQL: Power = 1/f’,
radius of curvature
Recall f = /2 ,
thus f = 16/2 = 8. Power =1/8=0.I25
8 -1
19. If the velocity of light in air is 3.0 x 10 ms , find the velocity of light in a medium whose refractive index is 1.5.
8 7 8 7
(a)5x 10 (b) 5.0x10 (c) 2.5 x 10 (d) 2.5x 10
SOL: D = velocity in air (vacuum) / velocity in medium. (D = refractive index)
l.5= (3.0 x 108) x X=3x108/1.52.0x108.
20. When an object is at infinity to the pole of a concave mirror the image is formed at;
(a) principal focus, real and diminished (b) centre of curvature, real and inverted
(c) centre of curvature, virtual and erect (d) principal focus, real and erect.
SQL: Object at infinity, forms an image at the principal locus, real inverted and diminished.
21. A total eclipse of the sun is seen when
the observer is in the
(a) umbra region of the sun’s shadow (b) penumbra region of the sun’s shadow
(c) umbra region of the moon’s shadow (d) penumbra region of the moon’s shadow.
(In the eclipse of the sun, the moon is
in between the sun and the earth, therefore the shadow of the moon is cast upon the earth. Total eclipse is
experienced in some places and partial eclipse in some other places. The total eclipse region is referred to as the
umbra while the partial eclipse region is referred to as the-penumbra).
22. A long drawn sound mixing from overlapping reflections together with the original sound which, gives rise to the
reflections is called
(a) beat (b) echo (c) diffraction (d) reverberation.
(Echo is the Sound heard by a person after reflection of the sound caused by him. Reverberation is caused as a result
of multiple sound reflections).
23. Which one of the following radiations for is used for examining the freshness or staleness of eggs in the poultry?
(a) Ultra-violet rays (b) x-rays (c) a-rays (d) Radio waves.

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(The staleness or freshness of an egg can be checked by ultra-violet rays).

24. Which of the following statements is not correct about electro magnetic radiations?
(a) They are quantized energies (b) They are transverse waves
(c) They are polarizable (d) They may be deflected in an electric or a magnetic field.
(Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves, polarizable and also have quantized energies).
25. A simple cell with mercury-amalgamated zinc plate minimizes
(a) sparkling (b) local action (b) back e.m.f (d) polarization.
SOL.: The two defects of a simple cell are polarization and local action. Polarization can be minimized with the used of
a depolarizer such as MnO2 (Leclanche cell) or CuSO4 (Daniel cell). While local action can be minimized by coating the
zinc surface with mercury-amalgam.
26. Which of the following is not a mixture?
(a)Seawater (b) Iron (II) Sulphide (c) Petroleum (d) Urine.
(A mixture is any substance containing two or more components not chemically combined together and can easily be
separated into its component parts by physical methods. Seawater, urine and Petroleum are mixtures but Iron (II)
Sulphide is a compound. NB: Mixtures have no chemical formulate. Of all the chemical samples only Iron (II) Sulphide
has a chemical formula (FeS)).
27. Carbon forms two oxides; the ratio of oxygen in both oxides is 1:2. If one mole of carbon separately combines with
oxygen, deduce the formula of the oxide.
(a) CO: CO2 (b) CO: CO3 (c) CO2: C2O (d)CO2 : CO3.
SQL: Oxide 1 Oxide 2
1 mole C+1 mole O: 1 mole C+2 mole O
CO CO2
3
28. If 50cm of CO2 gas and 50cm3 of SO2 gas are measured at S.T.P, calculate the amount of each gas in mole (Molar
3
Gas Volume =22.4 dm ).
(a) 0.023 mol (b) 0.0222 mol (c) 0.0002 mol (d) 0.0022 mol.
SOL.: From the question, one mol each of CO2 and SO2 is used.
3 3 3
Recall; one mole of any gas occupies a volume of 22.4dm (22400cm ). Thus if 1 mole of CO2 occupies 22.4dm x
mole of CO2 will occupy 0.05 dm3 (converting from cm to dm9. Cross multiply and make X the subject of the formula,
X = 1 x 0.05/22.4 = 0.0022 mol of CO2. It is the same with the number of moles of SO2 according to Avogadro’s law
which states: Equal volume of molecules.
29. How much volume of ethane will be required to produce 1.12rn/dm3 of carbon
(IV) oxide on combustion in sufficient oxygen?
2 C2H6(g + 702(g)
4CO2(g) +6H2O(g)
3 3 3 3
(a) 56dm of ethane (b) 2.24dm of ethane (c) 0.56dm of ethane (d) 5.6dm of ethane.
SOL: This is volume - volume relationship in stoichiometry between C2H6 and CO2
3
NB: 1 mole of any gas occupies a volume of 22.4 dm (MGV).
If 2 x 22.4dm3 (2moles) C2H6 is required to produce 4 x 22cm3 (4moles) CO2 Xdm3 of C2H6 will produce 1.1 2dm3 of
CO2 Cross multiply and make X the subject the formula,
Xdm3= 1.12x2x2.24/4x22.4=0.56dm3.
30. By how much would the volume have increased when 1 0dm3 of ozone were converted to oxygen? 2O3 3O2
(a) 15dm3 (b) 10dm3 (a) 0.5dm3 (d) 5dm3,
3
SOL.: Remember molar gas constant = 22.4dm3 If 2 x 22.4dm (2moles) of O3 gave 3 x
3
22.4dm (3moles) of O2
3 3
10dm of O3will give x dm of O2
3
X = 10x 3 x 22.4/2 x 22.4 = 15dm

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

Increase in volume = V2 - V1,

3 3
Where V1 = 10dm and V2 = 15dm
3 3 3
=15dm - 10dm =5dm .
31. The pressure exerted by a gas is as a result of
(a) the continuous random motion of its particles
(b) bombardment of the walls of the c container by its molecules
(c) the collision between the gas molecules
(d) the elastic nature of the gas.
{According to Pascal, pressure = force exerted per unit area. When gas molecules continuously bombard or hit the
walls of their containers, a force is exerted on a given area, which is called pressure. This is experienced in the
bubbling cover cork of a kettle during boiling. This vibration is caused by the bombardment of the cork by steam
molecules (water vapour)).
32. Which of the following will diffuse at the
slowest rate?
(a) Ammonium (b) Sulphur (IV) oxide (c) Carbon (II) oxide (d) Nitrogen.
SOL: According to Graham’s law of diffusion; the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square
root of its density or relative molecular mass at constant temperature and pressure.
i.e. R α 1/d or 1/’Rmm, thus as rate increases, the “d or “Rmm decreases
NH4 (14+1x4) = 18g Rmm,
“18
SO2 (32+2x 16) = 64g Rmm,
“64
CO2 (12 + 2 x 10) = 44g Rmm,
“44
N2 (14x2) =28g Rmm,
”28
Therefore, SO2 with the highest molar mass diffuses at the slowest rate.
33. Element P has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 6. Element R has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 8, 1. What is
likely to be form by P and R?
(a) A covalent compound PR (b) An ionic compound PR2
(c) An ionic compound PR (d) An ionic compound P2R
SOL: Element P Element R 2,8,6 2,8,8,1
Element P is a ground 6 non-metal while element B is a group I metal. Such a combination is ionic or electrovalent.
Using Radicals simultaneous method for electrovalent combination
No. of deficient electrons
(P)=2 PPPPPPP.(1)
No. of excess electrons
(R)=1 PPPPPPP.. (2)
Make No. of deficient electrons = No.
of excess electrons i.e. eqn 1 = eqn 2
P=2x1,R=1x2.
Thus make the multiple of P and R a subscript for them. i.e. P1 R2 = PR2
34. Which is the atomic structure of phosphorus with mass No. of 31?
(a) Protons = 15, Neutrons = 16, Electrons = 15. (b) Proton = 15, Neutrons = 16, Electrons = 16,
(c) Protons = 16, Neutrons = 15, Electrons = 15. (d) Protons = 16, Neutrons = 15, Electrons = 16.

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

SOL; Since the atom is neutral, No. of protons = No. of electrons. Phosphorus has 15 electrons and 15 electrons.
But mass No. = Protons + Neutrons
∴Neutrons = mass No. - Protons = 31-15 = 16. Thus protons = 15, neutrons= 16, electrons= 15.
35. Which metal has the least tendency to form positive ions?
(a) Iron (b) Aluminum (c) Sodium (d) Calcium
(In the periodic table of elements, ionization energy increases from left to right progressively but decreases down the
group. Thus, the higher the number of valence electrons, the higher their ionization energies (decrease in tendency to
form positive ions)
Fe has 2 valence electron, Na has 1 valence electron, Ca has 2 valence electrons but Al has 3 valence electrons).
36. Natural water includes the following except
(a) rain water (b) spring water (c) pure water (d) lake water.
SOL: Of all the options, only pure water is not a source of natural water. Sources of natural water includes rain or
precipitation, spring, stream, well, lake, pond, sea etc. Pure water as used in the option means treated water, which is
not actually pure, following the criteria for purity.
37. Which of the following methods cannot be used to remove permanent hardness from water?
(a) Addition of washing soda (b) Addition of caustic soda
(c) Permutit method (d) Adding alum to water.
{Permanent hardness is caused by the presence of Ca and Mg ions in water either as chlorides, carbonates, hydrogen
carbonates, or sulphates. These ions can be substituted using soluble metals like sodium containing compounds such
as washing soda (Na2CO3.10 H20), Caustic soda (NaOH), and Permutit or Zeolite (NaAISiO3)} NB: Alum is a double
+ + + + 3+
salt which conforms to the general formulae MM (SO4)2. 12H2O. Where M can be Na , K or NH4 and M can be
3+ 3+ 3+
Al , Cr or Fe
38. If the solubility of sodium tetraoxosulphate (IV) at 30°C is 1 8g per 100g. How much is this in gram per kilogram?
(a) 18kg per 1000g (b) 1 80g per l00g (c)180g per l000g (d) 180g per 1kg.
SOL: 18g per 100g = 18g per 100/1000kg
(converting from g to kg) = 18g per 0.1kg =180g per 1kg.
39. The following are examples of colloid except
(a) milk (b) starch in water (c) aerosol (d) ammonium chloride solution.
(A colloidal solution is one in which there are suspended particles in a medium capable of reflecting some amount of
light when viewed through a light source. This phenomenon is called Tyndal’s effect. Milk, starch and aerosol are
colloids except ammonium chloride solution which has no suspended particles, thus forming a clear solution). NB:
Colloidal solutions are also called false solutions.
40. The pH of the solution M,N, 0 and P are 4,6, 8 and 10 respectively. Therefore,
(a) none of the solution is acidic (b) the H of 0 is made neutral by adding water
(c) the most acidic solution is P (d) M is the most acidic solution.
H+
(According to Sorensen’s equation, pH = - log10 =log101/H+
Therefore, a solution with a lower H and a higher H+ concentration is more acidic than that with a higher P” and a
lower Ft concentration).
41. Sodium chloride may be obtained from brine by
(a) decantation (b) distillation (c) evaporation (d) sublimation.
{Brine is a concentrated solution of table or common salt (NaCl) and water (H20). While NaCl alone can be gotten from
brine by evaporation to dryness; both NaCl and H20 can be collected separated by distillation, due to large difference
in their boiling points with NaCl higher in boiling point than H2O}.
42. Oil Spillage in ponds and creeks can be4 cleared by
(a) burning off the oil layer (b) spraying with detergent

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(c)spraying with common salt (d) spraying with oil

(Oil is an immiscible solvent with water, forming the upper layer due to its lower density. This spreads over the
surface, cutting off the oxygen supply to the aquatic bodies from the atmosphere (reducing dissolved oxygen).
Detergent having hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail interlink these two immiscible liquids and dissolves the oil).
43. Which of the following is a chemical compound?
(a) Soap (b) Milk (c) Urine (d) Gold.
{A chemical compound contains atoms of a particular element and that of other elements combining together in a
means and have chemical formulae not symbols which is for elements.
Soap = C17H35Na (compound). Milk= No formulae (mixture). Urine = No formulae (mixture). Gold =Au (element)).
44. Crystallization is a separation method used
(a) where purity of the product is important
(b) where beauty of the product is important
(c) where the product is a solid
(d) where the products cannot be destroyed by heat.
{When salt solution containing impurity is heated to a particular temperature, it is allowed to cool to a certain
temperature where the pure crystals come out of the solution leaving behind the impurities in solution. Crystallization
can be induced by scratching and salting out (adding of crystals of the same salt)}.
NB: It is used where a salt can be easily decomposed by heat.
45. Which hydroxide dissolves in water to form an alkaline solution?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Calcium hydroxide (c) Copper hydroxide (d) iron hydroxide.
(A solubleoxide or hydroxide is called an alkali. Dissolves in water to form an alkaline solution. Other soluble
hydroxides (alkalis) include NaOH, KOH, LiOR, NH3.H2O, etc).
46. Starch molecules can be broken down into smaller molecules by heating with a dilute acid. What is this type of reaction
called?
(a) Cracking (b) Hydrolysis (c) Oxidation (d) Reduction.
{Cracking is the process of breaking down larger molecular petroleum fractions into smaller molecular units of desired
products; There are three types of cracking; thermal cracking, hydro cracking and catalytic cracking. Oxidation is the
addition of oxygen, removal of hydrogen,, addition of electronegative or removal of hydrogen, addition of
electronegative or removal of electrons from an atom or a compound. Reduction is the reverse process of oxidation.
Hydrolysis means the breakdown of higher molecules (macromolecules) by addition of acid and water. Sucrose
hydrolysis yields two invert sugars; glucose and fructose i.e. an aldohexose and a ketohexose}.
47. Which of the following cannot be used as an oxidizing agent?
(a) K2Cr2O7 (b) CO2 (c) H2S (d) HNO2
(See solution to question 46 K2Cr2O7, CO2 and HNO3 have the ability to donate oxygen, except H2S which is a strong
reducing agent).
48. What is the number of pairs of shared electrons in a methane molecule?
(a)l (b)29 c)3 (d)4
SOL:
H
o
x
H ox C XOH (CH4)
x
o
H

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

In this molecule, we have a total of 8 electrons according to the Lewis octet electronic structure i.e 8 shared electrons
but 4 pairs of shared electrons.
49. The percentage by volume of nitrogen
in the air is high because
(a) nitrogen is relatively inactive (b) nitrogen supports life
(c) nitrogen prevents corrosion of metals (d)nitrogen increases the rate of combustion.
(Options b and c are the functions of Nitrogen. It also decreases the rate of combustion and corrosion. It has a fairly
high percentage in due to its inactive nature, which is almost inert (unreactive).
50. What quantity of copper will be deposited by the same quantity of electricity that deposited lag of aluminum
(a) 64 (b)32 (cl6 (d)8.
SOL: First, calculate the quantity of electricity, needed for the decomposition of 18g of aluminum.
3+
AlAl +3e (3 faradays of
electricity. But I faraday = 96500
Coulombs)
27g 3 x 96500 Couloumbs
18g X Coulombs, X = 18 x 3 x
96500/27 = 1 93000Coulombs.
Finally, calculate the quantity of copper
deposited by 1 9300Couloumbs.
2+
Cu Cu + 2e (2 faradays of electricity)
64g 2 x 96500 Coulombs
Xgl9300Coulombs, X= 19300 x64/2
x 96500 = 64g.
51. When two genes for the same character are contained in the same individual, the character that shows is known as
(a) important character (b)dominant character (c) superior character (d) controlling character.
52. In Nigeria, a tropical rainforest can be found in
(a) Sokoto (b) Kaduna (c) Abuja (d) Abia.
(Tropical rainforest is associated with dense and thick vegetations arranged in strata Or layers, with evergreen leaves.
They are mostly found in the southern, eastern and western parts of Nigeria. Of all the options, only Abia is an eastern
state).
53. The sum total of the biotic and abiotic factors that affect living things is referred to as
(a) environment (b) lithosphere (c) hydrosphere (d) atmosphere.
(Environment is the sum total of both living (biotic) and nonliving (abiotic) factors that affect living organisms.
Lithosphere is the solid layer of the earth crust. Hydrosphere is the liquid part of the cosmos. Atmosphere is the
gaseous envelope that surrounds the earth, while the living component of earth is the Biosphere or Ecosphere).
54. Hygrometer is an ecological instrument that measures
(a) rainfall (b) humidity (c) temperature (d) light.
SOL: ECOLOGICAL FACTORS
MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
Rainfall
Rain gauge
Humidity
Hygrometer
Temperature
Thermometer

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

Light
Photometer
Turbidity
Secchi disc.
Wind speed
Anemometer
Wind direction
Wind vane.
55. Candida vagirfalis is a
(a) bacterium (b) fungus (c) virus (d) protozoan.
56. Which one of the following is airborne?
(a) Malaria (b) Yellow fever (c) Cholera (d) Tuberculosis
(Malaria is caused by Plasmodium malarae from mosquito (female anopheles) bite. Yellow fever is caused by
arbovirus from the of infested Aedes mosquito. Cholera is contracted through drinking of contaminated water. It is
caused by Vibrocholerae. Tuberculosis is airborne; it is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis).
57. All of these are vertebrates except
(a) lizard (b) rat (c) star fish (d) tilapia
(Lizard belongs to the class Reptilia. Rat belongs to the class Mammalia. Starfish belongs to the class Reptilia. Rat
belongs to the class Mammalia. Starfish belongs to the phylum Echinodormata. Tilapia belongs to the class Pisces.
One major characteristic of all vertebrates is the presence of backbone (vertebrae column). Thus lizard, rat and tilapia
are vertebrates, while starfish is an invertebrate).
58. A box was left in the lawn for two days. When the box was removed, the grass under had turned yellow due to lack of
(a) carbon dioxide (b) light (c) oxygen (d) water.
(While the grass was covered, photosynthesis ceased to occur in that area due to the absence of light responsible for
+
photolysis of water to produce H and OH in the light phase which enters into the dark phase where CO2 is reduced by
[t to form CH2O (starch). It turned yellow because of lack of nutrients resulting from the absence of sunlight, which is
the initiator).
59. Which of the following deaminates excess amino acid?
(a) Duodemnum (b) Ileum (c) Liver (d) Kidney
Deamination means the breakdown of amino acids into urea and keto acid. The urea is excreted, while the keto acids
perform the functions peculiar to the glucose. It is one function of the liver apart from its storage (glucose. It is one
function of the liver apart from its storage (glucose, iron etc) and secretory (bile for fat emulsification)).
60. In which of the following floral parts does meiosis occur?
(a) Anther (b) Petal (c) Receptacle (d) Style
{Meiosis occurs after fertilization of the ovules in the ovary by the pollen grains from the another. The fertilized ovules
divide within the style (a) region above the ovary). At maturity, ovules = seeds and ovaries = fruits}.
61. When an organism moves its whole body towards a stimulus, the organism is said to exhibit
(a) tropic movement (b) trophic movement (c) tactic movement different ways;
these are Tropism which involves movement of part(s) of the organism’s body to the direction or away from a
directional stimulus. E.g. phototropism (light), geotropism (gravity), thigmotropism (touch), chemotropism (chemical),
Tactism, which involves the movement of the whole body of an organism in, responds to a directional stimulus. e.g.
Chemotactism (chemical) thermotactism (temperature) thigmotactism (touch) and Nastism (Sleep movement) where
part(s) of an organism responds to a diffused stimulus)}.
62. A stable self sustaining environment produced by an interaction between the biotic and abiotic components is best
described as

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(a) niche (b) a community (c) an habitat (d) an ecosystem.

(Niche is the position occupied by an organism together with its functional role in the habitat (residence). Population is
a collection of plants or animals or animals of the same specie living together in a particular environment and free to
interbreed. Community is the population of different species of organisms in a particular environment. While an
ecosystem is an interaction between living (biotic) and nonliving (abiotic) components of the environment).
63. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell?
(a) Chromosomes (b) Nucleus (c) Genes (d) Mitochondria
(The living component of the cell is the protoplasm = nucleus + cytoplasm. Hereditary materials such as chromosomes
and genes are found in the nucleus, while the cytoplasm is a medium for cellular metabolism (biochemical reactions)
where organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies etc are found).
64. The release of useful substances from the cells of an organism is called
(a) excretion (b) evacuation (c) metabolism (d) secretion.
(Useful substances like hormones and digestive enzymes are secreted, not excreted by ductless (endocrine) and
ductful (exocrine)glands for a particular action in the body. While excretion is the removal of waste product of
metabolism from a cell).

65 The head of the femur articulates with the pelvis at the

(a) glenoid cavity (b) olecranon process (c) acetabulum (d) cornoid process.
(The femur (thigh bone), which is the longest bone in the body, articulates with the pelvis at the glenoid cavity. NB:
The smallest bones in the body are the ear ossicles viz; hammer (malleus), anvil (incus) and stirrup (stapes)}.
66. The mammalian cervical vertebrae invariably numbers
(a)4 (b)7 (c)12 (d) 15
(The human vertebrae column is arranged thus: Cervical = 7 bones. Thoracic = 12 hones. Lumber.= 5 bones. Saccra
= 5 bones. Caudal 4 bones.
Making a total of 33 bones).
67. What mechanism is responsible for the rise of water to the top of all trees?
(a) Transportation pulls (b) Root pressure (c) Osmosis (d) Capillarity.
(The xylem vessel transports water due to root pressure, transpiration pull and capillary action. Root pressure and
capillary action alone can carry water to a short distance, which is now assisted by transpiration pull, developed when
water moves up the stem, due to loss of water from the stomata of leaves by the process of transpiration, thus
enhancing tong distance transportation in higher plants).
68. Antibodies in mammalian blood are
formed by
(a) platelets (b) white blood cells (c) red blood cells (d) liver.
{Platelets (Thrombocytes) help in blood
clothing by the formation of fibrin network structure on wounds formed when thrombin combines with fibrinogen,
preventing blood attack from toxins secreted by disease causing microorganisms, by the formation of antibodies. They
are often referred to as the body soldiers for this function of defense. Red blood cells (Erythrocytes) transport food and
gases from the digestive system and the lungs to the body cells for utilization}.
69. Which of the following liquids supplies cells in the tissues of a mammal with oxygen and nutrients?
(a) Blood (b) Plasma (c) Serum (d) Lymph
(See solution to question 68).
70. The cockroach and grasshoppers have mouthparts adapted for
(a) sucking (b) piercing and sucking (c) biting and chewing (d) biting and lapping.
(Grasshopper and cockroach have strong manipulate mouthparts for biting and chewing food particles).

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

71. The sponging and lapping mouthparts occur in

(a) housefly (b) butterfly (c) cockroach (d) mosquito.
(The housefly has proboscis from modified labium. The proboscis is spong like and consists of two halves called
labella. The proboscis is used in feeding by digesting any solid food extra cellularly before sucking it in).
72. Which of the following is not an example
of sex-linked character?
(a) Baldness (b) Colour blindness (c) haemophilia (d) Height
(Baldness, colour blindness and
haemophilia are sex linked because they cannot be transferred to the next generation through the XY chromosomes
but through XX chromosomes where they are recessive traits; except height which is not sex linked).
73. Which of these is a vestigial structure?
(a) Appendix (b) Caecum
(c) Pancreas (d) Sacculus rotundus
(Vestigial organs or structures are structures that not useful to some animals but useful to others. e.g. the appendix in
man is non-functional. But it functions as a storage site for microbes (aecum) for cellulose digestion in herbivores}.
74. Which of the following air pollutants causes acid rain?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) lead oxide (c) carbon dioxide (d) hydrogen dioxide
(Acid rain is experienced when water reacts with acid anhydrides in the atmosphere from air pollution, e.g. CO2, SO2,
NO2,etc, forming an acid. Though options A, C, D, are correct but acid rain is mostly associated with SO2, because if
forms a pH lower than 5, 6 when dissolved in water).
75. Which of the following does not have a well- developed tissue?
(a) Moss (b) Fern
(c) Whispering tree (d) Maize.
(Of all the options, B, C and D have tissues like true root, stems and leaves. Moss is a bryophyte that lacks true roots,
stems, and leaves).

ANSWERS
1.D 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.nIL
6.A 7.n 8.A 9.n 10.B
11.C 12.C 13.D 14.A 15.D
16.D 17.B 18.B 19.n 20.A
21.C 22.D 23.A 24.D 25.B
26.B 27.A 28.D 29.C 30.D
31.B 32.B 33.B 34.A 35.B
36.C 37.D 38.D 39.D 40.D
41.C 42.B 43.A 44.A 45.B
46.B 47.C 48.D 49.A 50.A
51.B 52.D 53.A 54.B 55.B
56.D 57.C 58.B 59.C 60.D
61.n 62.D 63.D 64.D 65.C
66.D 67.A 68.B 69.A 70.C
71.A 72.D 73.A 74.A 75.A

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

POST UNIVERSITIES MATRICULATION SCREENING TEST 2006

SECTION A: USE OF ENGLISH TIME ALLOWED: 1 HOUR
Reading passage I carefully and answer the questions that follow.

When survey all known human societies, we find everywhere a form of family, some set of permanent arrangement by which
the males assist the females in caring for the children while they are young. The distinctive human aspect of the enterprise lies
hot in the protection the male affords the females and the young, this we share with the primates, nor does it lies in the lordly
possessiveness of the male over the female for whose favour he commends with other males-this too we share with the
primates. Its discipline lies instead in the nurturing behaviour of the male who among human beings everywhere helps provide
foods for the women and children.
Among our structurally closest analogues-die primates, the males do not feed the females, he may fight to protect her or to
possess her, but he does not nurture her. She has to fend for herself.
inventions were made under which males started nurturing females and their young.
In every known human society, everywhere in die world, the young male learns that when he grows up, one of the things he
must do in order to be a full member of die society is to provide food for some females and her young. Even in very simple
societies, a large number of men may escape the burden of feeding females and
young by entering monasteries and feeding each other or by entering some profession that dicir societies will classify as giving
them a right to be fed, like the Army and the Navy or the Huddhist order of Burna. But inspite of such exceptions, every known
human resist firmly on the learned nurturing behaviour of men.

1. Man differs from other animals because

(a) he forms a family (b) cares for the children
(c) he cares for women (d) he provides food for women.
2. The “lordly possessiveness” of the male over the female means that the male
(a) shows mastery over the female (b)is more aggressive towards the females
(c) claims right over the female (d) protects the female.
3. “Somewhere at the dawn of human history” refers to
(a) the beginning of Creation
(b) the creation of man
(c) die tune when man was monkey
(d) the beginning of civilization
4. Man takes ill upon himself to feed the
female except when
(a) he takes up the gun to fight
(b) he becomes religious
(c) he forms a religion
(d) he enters some profession.
5. According to the passage, a common
feature of all human communities is
(a)the family
(b) caring mother
(c) aggressive father
(d) nurtured women and children

Read Passage 2 carefully and answer the question thatfollows.

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

From ancient times, people commonly believed that life arose repeatedly by spontaneous generation from non-living materials
in addition to parental reproduction. For example, frogs appeared to arise from damp earth, mice from putrefied matter, insects
from dew and maggot from decaying meat. Warmth moisture, sunlight and even starlight often were mentioned as factors that
encouraged spontaneous generation of living organisms.
Among the accounts of early efforts to synthesize organism in the laboratory is a recipe for making mice, given by the Belgian
plant nutritionist Jean Bapliste van Helmont (1648). “If you press a piece of underwear soiled with sweat together with some
wheat in an open jar, after about twenty one days, the odour changes and (he ferment changes the wheat into mice. Hut what is
more remarkable is that the mice which came out of (lie wheat and underwear were not small mice, not even miniature adults or
aborted mice butadult mice emerged.
In 1961, the great French scientist Louis Pasteur convinced scientists that living organismscannot arise spontaneously from
non-living matter. In his famous experiment, Pasteur introduced fermentable materials into a flask with a long S-shaped neck
that was open to air. The flask and its contents were boiled for a long time to kill any microorganisms that might be present.
Afterwards, the flask was cooled and left undisturbed. No fermentation occurred because all organisms that entered the open
end were deposited in (he open neck and did not reach the fermentable material. When (he neck of (he flask was removed,
microorganisms in the air promptly entered the fermentable material and proliferated. Pateur concluded that life could not
originate in the absence of previously existing organisms and their reproductive elements, such as eggs and spores.
Announcing his results to the French Academy, Pasteur proclaimed, “Never will the doctrine of spontaneous generation arise
from this mortal blow”. All living organisms share a common ancestor, most likely a population of colonial microorganisms that
lived almost four billion years ago. This common ancestor was itself a product of a long period of prebiolic assembly of non-
living mailer, including organic molecules and water, to form self-replicating units. All living organisms retain a fundamental
chemical, composition inherited from the ancient common ancestor.

6. Throughout the passage, the word

“spontaneous” can best be taken to mean
(a) without reproductive element
(b) in a medium
(c) unthinking
(d) spirited.
7. In Pasteur’s experiment, why was the neck of the flask removed?
(a) To allow air to escape (b) To provide access to microorganisms
(c) To kill any micro organisms that may be present (d) To prevent the heating of the flask.
8. In the third paragraph, the word “mortal” most neatly means
(a) human (b) impermanent (c) fatal (d) earthly.
9. The expression “when the neck of the flask was removed” found in the third paragraph can be described as
(a) adverbial clause of time (b) adjectival clause (c) noun clause (d) adverbial phrase of time.
10. In what sense is the use of the word “water’ in the last paragraph ironic?
(a) It is n medium in which many living
organisms thrive
(b) It has a relatively low boiling point
(c)Pasteur’ did not mention it specifically in his description of his experiment
(d) It was not one of the ingredients in Helmont’s recipe.

Sonic secrets of comprehension

- Rend and carefully digest the <jHeslion Hi Si, Inking note of key words.

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

- Read the passage trying lo figure out the key words already noted.
- Read the questions ones more and pro Her answers correctly.
NB: All these must be done with speed and accuracy because you have a limited time.
Read the following passage and select (he hest option that tills the corresponding gap In the text.

By the 28 week, that is the end of the 7’—l I—, the foetus moves around vigorously with (he—12—and its heartbeat can be
heard by the—13—lls length is 38cm (15 inches) and its weight I000grams. Its body is thin, its skin reddish and Covered with n
—14— coating of a creamy, waxy substance, which is manufactured by small glands in the skin. It can open its eyes ami the —
15— covering (he pupils of tf/c —16—Jias gone. If it is — 17— at this stage, it can —18— but with difficulty. It can also cry —
19—, but —20—it’sleg energetically.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. Day Week Month Year
12. Stomach Uterus Bladder Belly
13. Audience Women Crowd Doctor
14. Defensive Kickin Plastic Protect live
15. Membrane Hand Glass Rubber
16. Eyes V Class Mouth Uterus
17. Left Sent Discharge Born V
18. Breathe See V Hear Hat
19. Angrily Weakly Loudly V Singly
20. Walk Wove V Wraps Fold

In questions 21-25, choose the option that has the opposite meaning 10 the word or group of words underlined in the
sentences to till the missing word(s).

21. One would have expected the students

to take a consultation with the school authorities instead of reporting to....
(a) mediation (b) confrontation (c) arbitratiàn (d) exultation
(“Consultation” is “the act of discussing something with somebody or group of people before making a decision about
ill’. Its antonym is “confrontation”).
22. It is surprising that one identical is an alcoholic but the other is
(a) teetotaler (b) dipsomaniac (c)agoraphobic (d) saboteur.
(The antonym of “alcoholic” is “teetotaler”, which means “a person who does not drink alcohol”).
23. While the man is yarsinjoiiigus, his wife is obviously....
(a) ingenious (b) curious (c) judicious (d) extravagant.
(The word “parsimonious” means “extremely unwilling to spend money”. Its antonym from the above options is
“extravagant” which means “spending a lot of money’).
24. The lackadaisical student failed the test, but the ....one passed it well
(a) enthusiastic (b) listless
(c) classical (d) obtuse.
(“Lackadaisical” refers to “lack of zeal, zest or willingness”. Its antonym is “enthusiastic” which has to do with “zeal”).
25. While a sinner will incur the wrath of God, a saint will enjoy the of God.
(a) anger (b) anointing (c) favour (d) pleasure
(‘Wrath” means “extreme anger”).

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

In question 26-35, from the words lettered A - D, choose the one that best complete the sentence.

26. The rich tnnn ... money lo his wives and children every Monday,
(a) disperses (b) dispensed (c) discuss (d) dispenses.
(“Dispense” means to give out something to people).
27. If I had known that the man was not a genuine pastor, J would not have ... too much confidence in him.
(a) imposed (b) reposed (c) inputted (d) disposed
28. ‘The poor woman has ... herself to fate,
(a) consigned (b) concerned
(c) resigned (d) reposed.
29. The clergy ... everyday for the success of (he present government,
(a) are praying (b) is praying (c) pray (d)prays.
30. The young girl, P.mind her language,
(a) have better (b) had better (c) have best (d) had best.
31. Many a secondary school student afraid of English Language examination nowadays,
(a) are (b) is (c) was (d) were.
32. The man with his three wives and seventeen children — just traveled abroad,
(a) is (b) are (c) has (d) have.
33. The lecturer does not ... his real age.
(a) seems (b) look (c) appear (d) resemble.
34. During the recent communal crisis, the place of the monarch was ... with charms and amulets
(a) decorated (b) fortified (c) embellished (d) resemble
(To “fortify” means to “strengthen a place against attack”).
35. I ... your father to stop going out with politicians; than I changed my mind,
(a) had told (b) have told (c) was going to tell (d) have being telling.

In questions 36 - 40, a list of options is given below every sentence; choose from the options the one nearest in
meaning to the word or phrase underlined in the sentence

36. Are they expecting celestial blessings?

(a) terrestrial (b) heavenly (c) religious (d) sacrificial
(‘Celestial” has to do with “sky or heaven”).
37. The indigent is my younger brother’s friend
(a) indolent (b) diligent (c) efficient (d) needy.
(“Indigent’ means “very poor or needy”):
38. Adults seldom visit the new amusement center,
(a) frequently (b) rarely (c) usually (d)reluctantly.
(“Seldom” means “rarely”, “hardly”, “less often”).
39. Really life is ephemeral
(a) enjoyable (b) difficult (c) transient (d) permanent.
(ephemeral has to do with lasting or used for only a short period of time. Its synonym is transient).
40. I want to tell you that Felix has an eclectic mind
(a) versatile (c) critical (b) shocking (d) narrow
(The adjective “eclectic” means “not following one style or set of ideas but choosing from or using a wide variety”. Its
synonym above is “versatile” which means “able to do many things”).

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

ANSWERS
1.D 2.D 3.D 4.D 5.A
6.A 7.B 8.D 9.D 10.A
21.D 22.A 23.A 24.A 25.C
26.D 27.A 28.C 29.D 30.B
31.B 32.C 33.A 34.B 35.C
36. B 37.D 38.D 39.C 40.B

SECTION B: GENERAL PAPER

CHEMISTRY
PHYSICS
BIOLOGY

1. A sample of orange juice has a P of 3.80. What is the molar concentration of hydrogen ion in the juice?
4 2 3 5
(a) 1.58 x l0 (b) 1-58 x l0 (c)1.58x10 (d)1.58x 10
SOL: pH =
+
H = Log10(H (according to Sorensen).
+
3.80 = -log10 (H )
Log,0(H) = -3.80
+
(H ) = antilog 3.80 or
+
(H ) = 1/antilog 3.80
4 4
= 1.58x10 -1,58xHr .
2. Which of the following is not acidic?
(a) Aluminum chloride (b) Zinc chloride (c) Copper (II) tetraoxosulphate (VI) (d) Silver chloride
(Acidic salts are formed from strong acids and weak bases, basic suits from strong useless and weak acids, while
normal salts are formed from either strong acids and strong buses or weak acids and weak bases. Many a student may
look at the whole salts as normal due to the absence of II or OH”; yes they are, but on hydrolysis (in solution), they
exhibit either acidic, basic or neutral properties. Hearing this in mind, AICl, CuSCXj and AgCl are acidic except ZnC2
which is neutral J on hydrolysis).
3. Calculate the current in amperes required
to produce 1 8.Og of Aluminum in 1.50
hours,
(a) 33.65A (b) 35.74A (c) 37.83A (d) 39.35A
(Al = 27, F = 9650CC).
SOL: Al A13 f 3e- (3 Faradays, but
I faraday - 965000) 27g required 3
X965000, I5.Qg will require Q Coulombs,Q = 18 x 3 x 96500/27 - 1 930000oulumbs.
But Q (Charge) = It. (Covert time in hours to time in seconds).

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

193000 - 1.50 x 3600 x I. Thus, I =

193000/1 .50 x 3600 - 35 74Amperes.
4. Calculate the oxidation number of chlorine in CbO;
(a) 17 (b) -2 (c) 5 (d) 11
SOL: Oxygen has an oxidation number -2, Chlorine Ins oxidation number X
Cl2O7 =2x4-(-2x7) - 0 (having no net
charge).
Cl2O7 = 2X -l [-14] -0, = 2X -14-0
+
Tims 2X = +14; X = 14/2 - + 7
5. The two nuclei of the hydrogen molecule are held together by
(a) mutual attraction (b) mutual sharing of elections
(c) a dative covalent bond (d) the two electrons having the same spin,
{Hydrogen molecule 11121 is formed when the Is electron from each atom of hydrogen goes into mutual relationship
(share electrons amongst each other) to attain 11 stable duplet structure of helium}.
6. Which of the following statements about catalysis is correct? (i) A small amount of catalyst often affect the rate of
chemical reactions for a long time (ii) A catalyst is always chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction (Ni) The
effect of a catalyst is often enhanced by adding promoters (iv) A catalyst is always physically unchanged at the end of
the reaction (v) A catalyst speeds up the rate of chemical reactions,
(a) 4 ii, iii, iv, v (b) I, ii, iü only (c) ii, iii, iv only (d) ii and iv only.
(The only wrong and incomplete statements are (iv) and (v) catalysts are physically changed in terms of colour,
texture, odour, taste at the end of the reaction and a catalyst does not only speed up the rate of chemical reaction hut
also lowers chemical rate thus it alters chemical reaction rate).
+
7. When K2Cr2O7 dissolves in water, the following equilibrium is established Cr2O7(aq) + H2O(l) CrOIN2H . State the
colour observed on adding a few drops of dilute H2SCXj in (he system.
(a) Orange (b) Pink (c) Yellow (d) Colourless
8. Which of the following statements is not line for Hydrogen Sulphide?
(a) It is a liquid at room temperature (b)it is a covalent compound
(a) It is a weak dibasic acid in aqueous solution
(d) It is a much stronger reducing agent than water.
(At room temperature, ll2S exist as a gas and not a liquid).
9. Which of the following are products of acid hydrolysis of sucrose?
(a) Fructose and Maltose (b) Glucose and Cellulose
(c) Maltose and Cellulose (d) Glucose and Fructose.
SOL: Sucrose, a disaccharide is broken down into two monosaccharides; Fructose and Glucose on hydrolysis with
acidic or enzymatic breakdown.
C12H22O11
C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
Sucrose glucose fructose
The major difference between glucose and fructose is that while glucose is analdohexose, fructose is a ketohexose.
10. When is the concentration in mol/dm a solution containing 0.28g potassium hydroxide per 100cm1 solution? [K -39, H
= 1, 0 = 16)
(a) 0.028 (b) 0.04 (c) 0.05 (d) 0.07
SOL.: Concentration in mot/dm = Molarity.
Hut Molarity = No. of moles of solutes x
1 000Nolume of solution (cm)
No. of moles - Mass/Molar mass - 0.28/

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

39 = 0.0071 moles, Volume = 100cm

Thus, Molarity - 0.0071 x 1000/100 =
3
0.07mol/dm
11. Determine the distance between two points P (8,5,3) and Q (2,1,-2).
(a) 3.87 (b) 3.32 (c) 15.00 (d) 8.77
2 2 3
SOL: Using Y - √(a-a) + (b-b) (c-c)
abc abc
P(8,5,3) Q(2,1,2)
2 2 2 2 2 2
V = V(8-2) + (5-1) (3-2) , Y - √6 +4 +5
Y = √77 = 8.7749 = 8.77
12. One person walk v south-east at 4m/s and another heads north at 3m/s. How far apart arc they in 10 seconds if they
stalled at the same point simultaneously?
(a).3m (b) 28.3m (e) 64.7m (d) 41 9.9m
Fa = 3Cos 90° ÷ 3Sin 90°, Fb - 4Cos3l 5° +4Sin 315°
Fa ± Fb-2.82i ± 0.172j12.822 +0.1722=2.83m. v = d/t,
D - vt, = 2.83 x 10- 28.3.
13. The centre of gravity of a rectangular object is at
(a) The intersection of the median (b) the middle of the rectangle
(c) the intersection of the diagonals (d) any of the vertices
SOL: The centre of gravity is determined by the intersection of the diagonals.
14. A uniform rule of weight 1 .0N is pivoted at the 4cni mark. A meter rule of 2N is hung from (he 15cm murk, where must
a weight of 2N be placed to balance the rule
(a) 60cm (b) 45cm (c) 55cm (d) 35cm

50cm

4cm 15cm 2N 1N

To determine where 2N will be place for the meter rule to be in equilibrium.

Total clockwise moment ∼ Total anticlockwise moment
i.e, lx(50-4)T2x(l5-4)-2x
lx46H-2x 11 -2x,46+22-2x,
Therefore 2x - 68, x - 68/2 -34
15. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60 to each other; determine the number of images in the two minors?
(a)6 (b)2 (c)5 (d)11.;
Using the formula (360/θ)-1, where θ is the angle between the minors.
(360/60)-1 - 6-1 = 5.
16. When an oil drop is placed gently on a clean water surface of 100cm
(a) the drop spreads until the film is 5 molecules thick
(b) the drop spreads to fill exactly an area of 100cm
(c) the volume of the drop decreases as it spreads
(d) the oil film formed is not less than one molecule thick,

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

-7
(This oil drop experiment was used to determine the diameter of a molecule as ranging x >1>10x 10mm = 2 x 10 ).
17. When illuminated by a light beam, a smoke particle in oxygen can be seen moving in different direction all the time
when viewed in a microscope. This is because
(a) the light beam intensity is not constant
(b) the smoke particle is affected by gravity
(c) oxygen molecules hit the smoke particles at different directions
(d) the smoke particle has a high speed in oxygen.
(Brownian theory postulates that when smoke particles are observed in air by a microscope, there is an irregular
motion of the same put titles as a result of continuous bombardment of the smoke particles by molecules of air around
it. This theory can also he illustrated by the bombardment of dust particles by air when viewed through a source of light
or bombardment of pollen grains by water molecules when viewed or observed under a microscope)
18. A siren having a ring of 200 holes make 132 revolutions per minutes, a jet of air is directed on to the set of holes;
calculate the frequency of the note produced. (Speed of sound in air – 350in/s
(a) 26.011 (b)1.5211 (c) <100M/ (d) 8.66Hz
SOL: 200 holes is completed in 132 rev/nun I holeis i.e. x - 132/200-0.66
1 oscillation is completed in 0.66
Since T - 1/1; F = 1/t = 1/0.66 = 1.52 Hz.
19. A concave mirror of focal length 20cm forms an image Vz the si/e of the object. Determine the object distance,
(a) 20cm (b) 60cm (c) 100cm (d) 80cm.
SOL: Image size is ½ of the object = 11/2
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/20 = 1/(U/2) + 1/u
= 1/20 =2/u + 1/u, 1/20 =3/u
U =60
20. A pool of Water is 1 2m deep, what is the apparent depth? (Refractive index of water-4/3)
(a) 1 6.0m (b) 48.0m (c) 9.0m (d) 36.Om
SOL: Refractive index -real depth =, 4=12 apparent dept 3 Ad
Cross multiply, 36 = 4 x Ad
Ad - 36.0/4 -9.0.
21. In the optical systems of the eye and lens camera, which statement is not true
(a) The cilliary muscle controls the focal length of the eye lens
(b) The focal length of the cameral lens is fixed
(c) The retina and camera film have similar purposes
(d)The focal length of the eye lens is fixed.
(The iris of the minimi eye lens lie functions is the diaphragm of the 0111101 ; i, while there in a of the human eye has
the same functions as the film of the camera).
22. A cell needed 3.OV of the wire of a potentiometer to balance its e.m.f, but only 2.OV to balance its p.d when a
resistance of 43Q was connected across the terminals. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell,
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
V1 L1 E1
SOL: Using /V2 = /L2 = /E2
E1 = V1, 0.3 + E = V + 2
0.3 + 1R + 1r = 1r + 2
1r = 2 – 0.3, 1r = 1.7
r = 1.7/0.5 = 2.4Ω
Recall

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

V = 1R
1 = V/R
1 = 2/4 = 0.5
23. When a steady current flows in aPPP Question not clear
24. A transformer has a primary coil of 400 turns and secondary coil of 200 turns.
If the primary coil is connected to 240V
ac mains, calculate the efficiency given that the current in the primary is3A and secondary is 5A.
(a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 83% (d) 62.5
SOL: Recall; 1S/1P = EP/ES = NP/NS
200/400 = Es/240, Es = 120V
Efficiency=output power/inputpowerx100
=120 x 5x 100 / (240 x 3) - 83%.
25. When a p-n junction diode of a semiconductor, is forward biased,
(a) a large current is obtained,
(b) a small current is obtained,
(c) no current is obtained.
(d) the current obtained remains the same.
(In a forward biased semi-conductor, a large current is obtained).
26. Which is the largest single cell in the body?
(a) the neuron (b) the ovum
(c) muscle (d) cell
(The largest single cell in the body is the ovum, while the liver is the second largest organ after theslu’ii).
27. Blue-green algae belongs to the phylum
(a) cyanophyta (b) schitophyta (c) chlorophyta (d) chryslophyta.
(When green algae and bacteria belong to the kingdom Monera and the phylum Schizophyta).
28. The concept of antibiotics started with the concept of
(a) GregorMéndel (b) Mary Slessor (c) Louis Pasteur (d)Alexander Fleming.
(Alexander Fleming discovered the antibiotic action of penicilium (fungi) when grown in a cultured bacteria zone. This
discovery was somewhat accidental).
29. The botanical name for yellow yam is
(a) Discoreacayenesis (b) Discorearatundala (c) Discoreaalata (d) Discoreadometorum.
SOL: Discoreacayenesis= 1- Yellow yam
Discorearatundata= White yam
Discoreaalata= Water yam
30. Which of the following tissues is made up of dead cells?
(a) Xylem vessels (b) Cambium (c) Mesophyll (d) Palisade
(Xylem vessels, nicsophyll and palisade are young living tissues in plants. Camhiuin tissues are dead, thus forming
secondary thickening in the stems of dicot plants).
31. Which is not a function of the liver?
(a) Storage of iron. (b) Formation of bile
(a) Breakdown of excess amino acids (d) Excretion of urea from the blood.
SOL: Sonic basic functions of the liver.
• Deamination of amino acids to urea and kelo acids.
• Storage of iron from the breakdown of haemoglobin i.e. Feratin
Storage of bile from bih’rubin for emulsification of fats.

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

• Storage of glucose as glycogen, while the kidney excretes urea. NB: Glucose is stored in plants as starch.
32. Alkaline pyrogallol was used in an experiment. Thai experiment must have been connected with
(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis (c) fratisphation (d) excretion.
(Alkaline pyrogallol is used to absorb oxygen gas (°2) in a system, making the non-oxygenated system a control and
the oxygenated system a variable. Thus of all the options, only respiration requires oxygen. Nil: Muring respiration,
oxygen is utilized, vfiilc during photosynthesis oxygen is evolved as a by-product).
33. The enzyme that breaks down sugarcane is
(a) lipase (b) ptyalin (c) invertase (d) peptidase.
(Lipase breaks down fats and oils to fatty acids, Ptyalin is found in saliva and converts starch to maltose. lnvertase
breaks down disaccharides
(omojiosaccharide, e.g. maltose, lactose, sucrose etc.) NB; the sugar found in sugar cane is sucrose, which is a
disaccharide of fructose and glucose, the simple monosaccharide invert sugars. The enzyme for such breakdown is
called invertase.
34. The largest single bone is the
(a) scapula (b) humerus (c) femur (d) skull
(The largest bone in the body is the thighbone (femur), which articulates with the pelvic girdle at the acetrtbnluin. While
the smallest bones in the body are found in the middle ear and they are railed the ear ossicles, which conduct sounds
to the oval window).
35. Auxins are produced at the
(a) root and stem apices (b) young leaves and nodes (c) flower buds (d) leave apices.
(Auxin is a growth hormone found in the apical region of the meristematic tissues of roots and shoots).
NB: The concentration of Auxins for shoot growth is inversely proportional to mat for root growth.
36. The hormone which tones up the muscle of a person in times 01 danger is from the
(a) thyroid gland (b) pancreas (c) adrenal-gland (d) sebaceous gland.
(Thyroid gland secretes thyroxin for growth Ft contains iodine and its deficiency leads to cretinism, dwarfism,
myxoeilema and hyperplastic goitre. Pancreas has both hormonal and digestive functions. If secretes insulin and
glucagon as hormones for normal blood sugar level and also secretes amylopsin, trypsin and lipase which foster
digestion. Deficiency of insulin causes diabetes mellitiis. Adrenal gland secretes an emergency hormone called
adrenaline in times of danger, anger, fright, excitement, etc. While sebaceous gland secretes oil in the skin).
37. A die! with a high concentration of iodine will probably be needed by a patient suffering from a malfunction of the
(a) thyroid gland (b) adrenal gland (c) nervous system (d)circulatory
(See the solution to question 36).
38. The sampling method is most often used in ecological study of habitat because; ______ JSj0clear options.
Reason: The mobile organisms are always randomly distributed in the habitat compared to the non-mobile organisms.
39. Which of (he following group of factors is completely abiotic?
(a) Soil, water, bacteria, salinity, (b) Salinity, tide, plankton, humidity, light,
(c) Wind, altitude, (d) Conifers, wind, 1>1, rainfall. turbidity,
(Biotic factors include plankton, bacteria, conifers, animals, etc. While abiotic/actors include Tide, P1 salinity, altitude,
humidity, light, water, turbidity, etc).
40. Nitrogen fixing bacteria and cowpea demonstrate an ecological succession known as
(a) predation (b) parasitism (c) mutualism (d) commensalisms.
{Cowpea needs nitrogen (atmospheric), whirl) it cannot absorb directly except with the influence of nitrogen fixing
bacteria that can convert nitrites to nitrates (the form for absorption) and the cowpea in turn houses the bacteria in its
root nodules and feeds it also, This association is termed mutualism).
41. Plants (hat live in sally water areas are called

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(a) hydrophytes (b) xerophytes (c) halophytes (d) salinophytes.

(Phytes mean plants; Hydrophytes are found in water, xerophytes are found in dry environments e.g. desert, while
halophytes are found in salty water environments).
42. A sample of soil was put into a measuring cylinder and water was added (o it. After (he mixture was shaken, (he
cylinder was left undisturbed for one hour. This experiment was probably performed to
(a) compare the capillarity of different samples
(b) find out the relative densities of different soil samples
(c) find out (he water retaining capacity of the soil
(d) demonstrate the presence bf air in the sample.
SOL: The layer separates into distinct zones on standing, after (borough shaking. Thus it is used to determine the
relative densities of different particles in the soil, the gravel, being the densest and the humus, the least dense.
43. A fanner X working in a swamp did not eat any food nor drink any water. Which of these diseases can he not contact?
(a)Bilharlia (b) Malaria (c) Cholera (d) Sleeping sickness
SOL: All of the following; bilharlias, malaria and sleeping sickness can be contacted without eating of food nor
drinking of water, since tlliey are not water borne or food diseases. But cholera which is water borne, can be contacted
through drinking of contaminated water.
B: Bilharlia —>Schistosoma Snail
Malaria – Plasmodium malarae -
Female Anopheles mosquito
Cholera – Vibrochoirac—> Contaminated water
Sleeping sickness Trypanosoma
Tse (se fly.
44. Which of (lie following element may be added to drinking wafer to lessen dental decay?
(a) Calcium (b) Phosphorus (c) Fluorine (d) Chlorine
SOL; Calcium - Formation of strong bones and teeth and muscle contraction.
Phosphorus - Formation of strong bones and teeth and for blood clothing. Fluorine” Prevention of denial decay.
Chlorine - Used for microbial destruction (antiseptic).
45. A man will] normal haemoglobin marries a woman who has sickle cell haemoglobin. They have a child who had sickle
cell trail. Which of (he following genotype could be associated with the child’s haemoglobin?
(a) SS (b) AS (c) AD (d) AA
SOL: Man AA Woman SS
Cross breed
The child’s haemoglobin is associated with AS from the Fl. generation.
46. Trichloromothane is a solvent to remove grease from clothing. How after use is the solvent separated from the grease?
(a) By crystallization (b) By chromatography (c) By distillation (d) By filtration
(The solution is now a mixture of organic compounds ami can be separated by distillation due to differences in their
boiling points)
47. Arrange the following elements of the second period in the order of increasing atomic radius: Lithium, Beryllium, Boron
and Carbon,
(a) Carbon > Boron > Beryllium> Lithium (b) Lithium> Beryllium> Boron> Carbon
(c) Lithium >Carbon> Boron> Carbon (d) Carbon > Lithium> Beryllium> Boron
SOL: According to the periodic law, atoms are arranged in the periodic table in order of their increasing atomic
numbers. No. of protons – no. of electrons! Lithium = 3 electron (2,1), Beryllium = 4 electrons (2,2) Boron = 5 electrons
(2,3), carbon = 6 (2,2,2), but along the period, atomic
radii decrease with an increase in the atomic number due to the screening

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

effects of the electrons and attraction

by the protons.
48. Argon is used in a gas filled electric lamp because
(a) it is radioactive (b) it has low pressure (c) it is combustible (d) it helps to prevent oxidation.
(For gases to glow, the voltage across the electrodes must be High and the gas maintained at a lower pressure. Thus
for every increase in voltage HIM! decrease in (lie pressure of the gas, the glow gets brighter. This is not the reason for
using argon, hut because of its inert nature, thus helps to in the prevention of the electric lump filament against
oxidation).
49. If 250cm of a saturated solution of
potassiumtrioxonitrate (V) at 30°C produces 3.49 of the dry salt calculate the solubility of the sail at 30°C. [K =39, N-
14,0- 16J)
3
(a) 0.ll2inolAW (b)0.1lSiiH)l/dni- (c) 0. l24molIdni’ (d)0. la4mol/dm
SOL: Solubility - Mass of solutes/Molar mass of solutes K 1 000/Volume of solvent
Mass of solute - 3.4g
Molar mass of solute - KN03 [39 + 14 +
(16x3)- 10/g
Volume of so Went = 250cm.
Thus, Solubility- 3.4/101 x 1000/250 =
0.13’lmoLfdm’.
3 3
50. Calculate the mass of ZnSO/i produced when excess of 7,nCOi is added to 50cm of 4.-moI/dm lkSQ/j. The equation
for the reaction is ZnCOj + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + CO2 + H2O [Zn-65,S=32,O-16]
(a) 32.2 (b) 37.5 (c) 38.6 (ci) 31.3
3
SOL: Molarity - No. of moles of solute! Volume of solution (cm ) x 1000 Molarity - 4.0mol/ din No. of moles = X mol
Volume of solution = 50cm
Thus, 4,0 - X/50 x 1000, X = 4.0 x 50/ 1000= 0.2nu>los. Out No. of moles = Reacting mass/Molar mass.
Reacting mass=Y.
Molar Mass = ZnSO4 [65 + 32 1(16 x 4)J -161g. Thus 0.2 moles = Y/161, Y = 161 x 0.2 = 32.2g.

ANSWERS
1.A 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.D
6.B 7.A 8.A 9.D 10.D
11.D 12.B 13.C 14.n 15.C
16.B 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.C
21.D 22.n 23.C 24.A 25.B
26.B 27.B 28.D 29.A 30.A
31.D 32.A 33.C 34.C 35.A
36.C 37.A 38.C 39.C 40.C
41.C 42.B 43.C 44.C 45.B
46.C 47.A 48.D 49.D 50.A

POST UNIVERSITIES MATRICULATION EXAMINATION SCREENING TEST

WEDNESDAY SEPTEMBER 19”, 2007.

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

SECTION A: USE OF ENGLSII

TIME ALLOWED: 1HOUR 3OMINS

Comprehensive passage 1

Cloning creates serious issues of individuality. The cloned person may experience concerns about his or her distinctive identity,
not only because the person will be in genotype (genetic make up) and appearance identical to another human being, but in this
case, because he or she may be twin to the person who is the “father” or “mother” if one can still call them that. What would be
the psychic burdens of being the “child” or “parent” of your twin? The cloned individual, moreover, will be saddled with a
genotype that has already lived, lie or she will not be fully a surprise to the world.

People will always likely compare a clone’s performance in life with that of the original True, a cloned person’s nature and
circumstances in life will be different*genotype is not exactly destiny. Still, one must also expect parental and other efforts to
shape this new life after the original or at least to view the child with original vision always firmly in mind. Why else then would
they clone from the star basketball player, mathematician and beauty queen or even dear old dad-ih the first place?

Since the birth of dolly, there has been a fair amount of doublespeak• on this matter of genetic identity. Experts have rushed in
to reassure the public that clone would in no way be the same person, or have any confusion alxntt his or her identity, they are
pleased to point out that the clone of film star Julia Roberts would n9t be Julia Roberts. Fair enough. But one is shortchanging
the truth by emphasizing the additional importance of the environment, rearing and social setting: genotype obviously matters
plenty. That, after all, is the only reason to clone, whether human beings or sheep. The odds that the clones of the basketball
star Larry Sini will play basketball arc, I submit, infinitely greater than they are for clones of Lockey Willie shoemaker.

QUESTIONS:
1. The author agrees that
(a) genetic characteristics alone cannot determine a person’s behaviour
(b) people who are cloned from others may have greater professional opportunities,
(c) cloning human beings is a greater technological. challenge than cloning sheep
(d) a formal code of ethical rules will be needed once human beings can be cloned.
2. The author use the word “True” to indicate
(a) acknowledgement that the passage’s opening arguments are tenuous
(b) distrust of those who insist on pursuing cloning..research
(c) recognition of a potential counter argument -
(d) conviction about the accuracy of the facts presented.
3. The question at the end of paragraph 2 (“why else... first place?”) chiefly serves to
(a) suggest that some issues are not easily resolved
(b) argue for the importance of parents in he life of children
(c) imply that cloning might displace more familiar means of reproduction
(d) suggest the value perceived in a person who might be selected for cloning.
4. In line 1 of paragraph 3 “For” most neatly means
(a) pleasing (b) considerable (c) promising (d) ethical.
5. The author mentions two sports stars in order to
(a) distinguish between tasting tame and mere celebrity
(b) highlight the need for greater understanding of he athlete’s genetic data
(c) suggest that athlete’s special skills have ‘a genetic component

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(d) argue against the genetic analysis of any sport star is physical abilities.

In questions 6 and 7, an idiom is underlined in. each of (he sentences, find under each sentences the group of words
that give the nearest meaning to the idiom.

6. Let us now get down to brass tacks,

(a) dodge the facts (b) tell a lie p (c) change the iron tacks to brass pie (d) face the actual fact.
(To “get down to brass tacks” means to start to consider the basic ‘facts or practical details of something).
7. He talked my head oil when I visited him
(a) wearied me with talking (b) pushed of T his heart
(c) had nothing to say (d) gave himself a headache.

In questions 8 and 9 choose the word or set of words fit best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole

8. His magazine was ... by the government for an offensive publication

(a) suspended (b) proscribed (c) condemned (d) sealed.
9. The mobile phone ... many times in the last thirty minutes
(a) rang (b) rung (c) been ringing (d) being rung.

In questions 10 and 11, select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

10. Can you mention any Iwo immoral acts?

(a) economical (b) dangerous (c) encouraging (d) fantastic..
(“Inimical” means harmful, dangerous etc).
11. Do your parents always decry insubordination?
(a) speak against (b) tolerate (c) embrace . (d) overlook.
(The word “decry” means to strongly criticize somebody or something especially publicly)

In questions 12 and 13 choose from the questions given in A - I) the one which is opposite in meaning to the word
underlined in each of the following sentences).

12. I know you will prefer a colossal amount as a monthly salaiytoa ... amount even though you are a bachelor,
(a) fantastic (b) meager (c) few (d) huge.
(“Colossal” has to do with “huge”, “large” etc. Its antonym from the above is “meagre”).
13. I think the manager should have embarked on actions that would soothe the feelings of the striking workers instead of
uttering statements that could ... them,
(a) incense (b) placate (c) stimulate (d) sensitive.

After each of the following sentences in questions 14 and 15 is a list of possible interpretations. Choose the
interpretation most appropriate for each sentence.

14. For all the cared, the match was as good as lost. This means that
(a) he didn’t care if the match was lost
(b) he was almost certain that the match would be lost

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

(c) he was afraid that the match would be

(d) he cared very-much about losing the match
15. It is possible that he has not read that book yet. This means that he
(a) has certainly not read that book yet
(b) has probably read the book
(c) may not have read that book yet
(d) has still not read (hat book.

ANWERS
1.A 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.C
6.D 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.B
11.A 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.C

SECTION B: GENERAL PAPER {PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY)

1. Which of the following consist of a pair of fundamental quantity only?

(a) Luminous Intensity, Time (b) Current, Weight (c) Mass, Velocity (d) Length, Speed
(Fundamental quantities includes Mass, Length, Time, Current, Luminous Intensity, Amount of substance,
Temperature etc).
2. Which of the following type of motion is least exhibited by the toy top?
(a) Random (b) Rotational (c) Oscillatory (d) Translational.
3. A cube if side 20cm floats in water with 15cm of its height submerged. What is the density of the material of the cube?
(a) 1 .85gincin’° (b) O.85gmcm”3 (c)0.75gmcm3 (d) O.65gmcm”3.
4. Which one of the following is not a contact force?
(a) Gravity (b) Viscosity (c) Tension ( d) Reaction.
(Gravity is a field force, whereas Viscosity, Tension and Reaction are contact forces).
5. The motion of the prongs of a turning fork can rightly be described as
(a) oscillatory (b) translational (c) random (d) rotational.
(Turning fork is a percussion instrument which exhibits oscillatory or vibratory motion when set into vibration)
6. The path described by a projectile motion is
(a) convex (b) Concave (c) parabolic (d) a straight line.
(This path is culled trajectory or parabolic as it is a curved motion with acceleration).
7. Which of the following sources of energy is renewable?
(a) petroleum (b) coal (c) nuclear (d) ocean waves.
8. Which of the following instruments has a pure
(a) Vibrating string (b) Turning fork (c)Siren (d)Violin.
9. Hot water is added to tour times its mass of water at 20°C and the resulting temperature is 30°C. What is the initial
temperature of the hot water? (Assume constant specific heat capacity)
(a) 50°C (b) 60°C (c) 70°C (d) 80°C
SOL; Let the Mass of hot water be = I.
Let the Mass of water be MH = 4 x 1 =4. Assumed S.H.C of water - 4200..
Initial Temperature of water = 20°C, Final temperature of water = 30°C.
Using the formula from Newton’s law of cooling;

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

θH = MW CHOW /MHCH = 4 x 4200 x (30- 20)/1x4200-40°C

∴Initial temperature of Mot water - 40°C + 20°C - 60°C
Final temperature of hot water = 40°C + 30°C - 70’t.
10. A certain radioactive source emits radiations that were found to be deflected by. both magnetic and electric fields.
The radiations are
(a) infrared rays (b) x-rays (c) gamma rays (d) beta rays,
(There are three types of radioactive emission, which are alpha rays, beta rays and gamma rays. Only alpha and beta
rays are deflected by both magnetic and electrical fields, while gamma rays are undeflected).
11. Which does not decolorizes bromine water?
(a) C2H2(b) H2 H4(c) C2H6 (d) C3H6.
(Decolorization of bromine water is one of the chemical properties of all unsaturated hydrocarbons. Thus all alkenes
and aIkynes do this except alkanes).
12. What is formed when starch is completely hydrolyzed?
(a) Fructose (b) Glucose (c) Lactose (d) Maltose.
13. Aluminum materials should not be exposed to alkalis because aluminum is
(a) basic (b) acidic (c) amphoteric (d) a reducing agent.
(Amphoteric substances react with acids and alkalis to form salt and water).
14. Sulphur
(a) forms two alkaline oxides (b) is spontaneously flammable
(c) bums with a blue flame (d) conducts electricity in the molten state,
(When Sulphur is heated in plentiful supply of air, it burns with a bright blue flame to form SO2 with a little amount of
SO3).
15. The bleaching action of chlorine in water is because
(a) of its reducing property (b) of its oxidizing power. (c) it is an oxygen acceptor
(d) it is a weak acid.
16. What change will occur during the electrolysis of brine, using carbon electrodes?
(a) Chlorine will be given off at the cathode
(b) Oxygen will be given off at the anode
(c) Sodium will be deposited at the cathode
(d)The resulting solution after electrolysis will be acidic.
1
17. A certain mass a gas has a volume of 241cm at 18°C and 7sammllg pressure.
What would its volume be at S.T.P7
3 3 3 3
(a) 224cm (b) 2.24cm (c) 22.4cm (d) 0.0224cm
SOL; P1 =753mmH1 V1 -241cm3,T1 - 18°C- 18+ 273K - 291K,
P2= 760mmHg(S.P), V2.-?
T2- 273K(S.T),
Using the general gas equation,
P1V1 P1 V2
:. V2-P1V1T2 -753 x 241 x 273
3
T1 T2T1 P2 760 x 291 - 224.0cm .
18. If the solubility of a salt at 25°C is 45g per l00g of water, how much of the salt will be obtained from 50g of the solution?
(a) 20g (b) J2g (c). 25g (d) 2.15g
19. What is not found in an atom?
(a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Molecule (d) Neutron
(An atom is made up of protons, neutrons and electrons).

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

20. If the P of a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid is given as 2, the concentration of this solution in moldnf3 is
(a) 0.01 (b) 0,02 (c) 1.0 (d) 2.0
+ 11
SOL: P = -Log,0[H J, /. if-AntilogP
”3
lf* = antilog^ = 0.0moldm .
21. Hydra is able to perform all the following except
(a) /ceding (b) photosynthesis (c) moving (d) egestion.
(Hydra performs all the above processes except photosynthesis, which is a major characteristic of chlorophyll is
plants).

22. Spherical bacterial cells arranged in chains are called

(a) staphylococci (b)streptococci (c) cocci (d) bacilli.
(Spherical shaped batten* cells are called cocci. When in cluster, they are called staphylococci, with in chains, they
are called streptococci and when ill-group of two, they a called diplococci). NO: Rod like bacterial cells are called
bacilli, spiral II ones are called spirallae, while comma shaped ones are called vibro.
23. One of the following factors that must be considered for safe blood transfusion is
(a) Social class of the donor
(b) rhesus factor of the donor and the recipient
(c) age of the recipient
(d) nationality of the donor.
24. The theory of use and disuse of organs was propounded by
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Jean Lamarck
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Robert Hooke.
25. Which of these is not a function of the kidney?
(a) Production of urine (b) Production of bile (c) Osmoregulation (d) Removal of urea.
(Production of bile is a function of the gall Madder in the liver).
26. Auxins are produced in the
(a) petioles of leaves (b) Epidermis of roots and shoots
(c) Parenchyma of roots and shoots (d) Apical regions of roots and shoots.
(They are produced at the apical regions (young buds) of roots and shoots). Nil:
The amount of auxins required for shoot growth is higher than that required for root growth.
27. Which of the following mammalian features acts as a shock absorber to the developing embryo?
(a) Umbilical cord (b) Amniotic fluid
(c) Placenta (d) Amnion.
28. The maintenance of a constant internal environment is called
(a) Environmental regulation (b) Balance in nature (c) Peristalsis (d) Homeostasis.
29. People in the blood group which receive blood from another blood group fall into (a) AB blood group (b) O blood group (c) A
blood group (d) B blood group – Answers is B because they are Universal recipients because they have no antigens on their red
blood cell membrane, while AB blood group are universal donors in that they have antigens A and B on their membrane.
30. Which of the following crop disease is caused by a fungus? (a) Groundnut Rosette (b) Block pod disease of cocoa (c) Yam
Mosaic (d) Cassava blight
ANSWERS
1.A 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.A
6.C 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.D

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 UNIBEN POST–UTME SCREENING Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011

11.C 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.B

16.C 17.A 18.D 19.C 20.A
21.B 22.A 23.B 24.B 25.B
26.D 27.B 28.D 29. B 30. B

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