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Fuel
1 - Refueling is possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power.

A - True

2 - With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO; the center tank
pumps:

A - Run for two minutes after both engines are running.

B - Will not restart untill slats are retracted in flight.
C - Continue to run until five minutes after the center tank is empty.
D - All the above.

3 - Fuel transfer from the outer compartment to the inner compartment of the
wing tanks occurs when the inner compartment quantity decreases to:

C - 750 kilograms

4 - What indication will you see on the overhead fuel panel if the center tank has
more than 250 kilograms of fuel and the left or right wing tank have less than
5,000 kilograms.

C - Mode select fault.

5 - The Fuel Used indication on ECAM is reset:

B - Automatically at engine start on the ground.

6 - The fuel quantity indication on ECAM for the outer cell is boxed amber if:

C - Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level.
:
 7- An amber line appears across the last two digits of the ECAM FOB indication
when:

A - Fuel quantity is unreliable.

8 - The fuel crossfeed valve is controlled by 2 motors.

A - True

9 - Which of the following would cause the fault light to illuminate on the MODE
SEL push button?

A - Fuel is being burned out of sequence.

10 - The message CTR TK FEEDG appears in the MEMO. What does this mean?

C - At least one center tank pump is energized.

11 - From which tanks will fuel gravity feed?

C - Outer cell of the wing tanks, and inner cell of the wing tanks.

12 - Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached.

C - Only on the ECAM Fuel page.

13 - During normal operations when should the fuel transfer valves open?

C - When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell.

14- What does an amber line across the last two digits of the fuel quantity
mean?

A - The fuel quantity indication is inaccurate.

15 - The APU fuel system:

C - Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed,
the APU fuel pump.

16 - With fuel in the center tank the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to
AUTO and CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), which of the following
conditions cause the center tank fuel pumps to stop?
:
 A - Extension of the slats (after completion of the short test cycle).

17- With fuel in the center tank, the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to
AUTO and the CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), the center tank
pumps:

A - Will operate for a short period after the first engine MASTER switch is selected ON
and while slats are retracted.
B - They will continue to run until the center tank is empty or slats are extended.
C - Both are correct.

18 - After engine start, center tank fuel pumps run for ______ minutes
regardless of slat position.

B - 2 minutes.

19- The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does this
mean?

A - It is a reminder to show that a transfer valve is open.

20 - The wing fuel transfer valves are:

B - Are electrically held closed.

21 - Why do the center tank pups stop automatically when then slats are
extended for takeoff?

C - To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff (feeding
segregation)

22 - What precaution should you observe when gravity feeding fuel?

A - Operate the aircraft below 15,000 feet.

23 - Refueling time at normal pump pressure is _____ minutes for the wing
tanks and _____ minutes for all tanks.

B - 17 & 20.

24 - After engine shutdown, what are your actions to close the fuel transfer
valves?
:
 C - No action is required. The valves will close automatically during the next refueling.

25 - Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank:

A - Only on the ground.

26 - How has the fuel been transferred from the outer to the inner tanks?

D - The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low level sensor in the
inner tank.

27 - What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?

C - 1,500 kg

28 - The AC powered auxiliary fuel boost pump for the APU operates whenever
the APU is operating and no other pump is on. it has an alternate power source on
the AC Static Inverter bus for battery-only starts.

A - True.

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Landing gear
1 - Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system?

A - Green

2 - The braking modes are:

B - Green or Yellow with anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, parking brake

3 - If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the

A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, which of the following will be
available?

D - Anti-skid.

4 - What is indicated by the autobrake DECEL lights?

D - Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.

5 - On the E/WD, you notice the NW STRG DISC memo. What does it mean?

A - The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel.

6- During pushback, you start engine #2. You observe the NW STRG DISC
memo has changed to amber. Why?

D - The memo has become amber because one engine is running.

7 - Landing Gear position is indicated by:

C - One panel on center instrument panel and ECAM

8 - If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center
pedestal, landing gear position must be verified through:

B - The landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the center
panel LDG GEAR indicator panel lights.

9 - Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds:

B - Above 260 knots +/- 5 knots.

10 - Can the gear be extended above 260 kts if necessary?

B - Yes, but only manually

11 - How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?

A - With the yellow electric hydraulic pump.

12 - You are ready to taxi. You apply the toe brakes on the rudder pedals and
release the PARK BRK. The BRAKES pressure falls to zero. What should you do?

B - Nothing as this is normal. The BRAKES pressure indicator only indicates alternate
(yellow) brake pressure.

13 - Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering?

A - Green

14 - The anti deactivates when ground speed is less than ______.

B - 20 kts.

15- If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID &
N/W STRG switch in the ON position:

B - The crew will be notified with an ECAM message.

16 - What is required to arm the auto brakes?

A - Green hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking system.

17 - What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?

C - Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.

 18 - How many turns are required on the gravity extension hand crank to extend
the landing gear?

B-3

19 - How do you manually extend the landing gear?

D - Lift the red handle and turn clockwise a 3 turns.

20 - If the Landing Gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the
center pedestal, what other systems will be inoperative?

B - Nose wheel steering only.

21 - Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.

A - True.

22 - Can normal landing gear operation be restored after a gravity extension if

green hydraulic pressure is available?

B - It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the
landing gear mechanism.

23 - When the landing gear is gravity extended, will nose wheel steering be
available?

B - No.

24 - Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:

D - The ground spoiler extension command.

25 - There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What do
they represent?

B - Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two computers
systems.

26 - What system pressure does the ACCU PRESS and BRAKES pressure
indicator indicate?

A - Yellow brake accumulator and yellow brake system pressure to the left and right
 brakes.

27 - The normal brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure and the alternate
brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure backed up by the hydraulic brake
accumulator

D - Green - Yellow.

28 - Wheel page of ECAM: if you see a green arc shown over a wheel indication:

A - It marks the hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100°C.

29 - Nose wheels and main wheels have fusible plugs that prevent the tires from
bursting if they overheat.

B - False.

30 - With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, if the BSCU detects
a brake system malfunction and/or normal braking is not available

B - Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic.

31 - You have just set the parking brake handle to ON. Is it still possible to check
the main brake system using the toe brakes?

C - No. When the PARK BRK is set, the other braking modes are deactivated.

32 - If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is your only source

pressure, which of the following will be available?

C - Seven applications of the brake pedals.

33 - The gear doors remain open after a manual extension.

A - True.

34 - The steering handwheels, which are interconnected, can steer the nose
wheel up to _____ in either direction.

C - 75°

35 - The green DECEL light on the autobrake pushbutton illuminates when the
actual airplane deceleration corresponds to what percentage of the selected
rate?

A - 80%

36 - Each main wheel has an antiskid brake.

A - True.

37 - The parking brake accumulator is designed to maintain the parking

pressure for at least ______.

B - 12 hours.

38 - The autobrake will arm if at least one ADIRS is functioning

A - True.

39 - What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied?

B - All other braking modes and antiskid are deactivated.

40 - Maximum speed for landing gear retraction is:

B - 220 kts

41 - Nose wheel steering is available when:

D - Nose gear doors closed

42 - Nose wheel steering is controlled by:

B - BSCU

43 - When is pressure in the nose wheel steering system shut off?

A - With towing lever in towing position or both engines are shut down or the A/SKID
& N/W STRG switch is OFF

44 - Hand wheel and pedals are operated simultaneously:

C - BSCU transforms these orders into nose wheel steering angle (signals are
mathematically added)

45 - Nose wheel steering by rudder pedals is limited to:

 D - Maximum +/- 6 degrees depending on aircraft speed

46 - When both hand wheels are operated simultaneously, the signals:

C - Are algebraically added

47 - Nose wheel steering is available:

C - Aircraft speed below 70 kts, one engine (required to be) running, Towing lever in
normal position, aircraft on ground.

48 - After T/O the left main landing gear shock absorber is stuck in the
compressed position.

C - The gear cannot be retracted, gear lever is blocked (interlock mechanism)

49 - Is it possible (system wise) to lower the gear by gravity above 260 kts?

A - Yes

50 - System page “Wheel”. L/G position indicators (triangles), first line shows
green triangles, second line behind shows amber crosses. Is the landing gear
down?

A - Yes

51 - During the approach you get master warning and ECAM “Gear Not Down”.
The reason is:

C - All of the above

52 - The alternate brake system uses:

C - The Yellow hydraulic system and the hydraulic accumulator

53 - The antiskid system gets its reference speed from:

A - The ADIRS

54 - The principle of the anti-skid is:

B - Comparing wheel speeds with aircraft reference speed

55 - Following failure of all 3 ADIRS, is antiskid available?

 A - Yes

56 - Alternate braking using the Yellow system. Autobrake is:

A - Lost

57 - Autobraking is initiated by:

D - Ground spoilers extension

58 - The brake & Accumulator pressure gauge shows pressure from:

D - Both Yellow brake system and the Brake Accumulator

59 - Max braking has been selected. Takeoff being aborted, engines in reverse,
you have forgotten to arm the ground spoilers. Is autobrake activated?

60 - The Hot light on the brake fan pushbutton illuminates when brake
temperature reaches:

B - 300 deg.C

61 - On wheel page of ECAM, Autobrake is flashing green. What does it mean?

A - Autobrake is disengaged

62- On the ramp with APU running, park brake is set on, message on ECAM
memo shows Park Brake.

A - In Green

63 - The landing gear indicator panel receives the information from micro
switches and proximity detectors connected to:

C - LGCIU 1

64 - The red arrow, near the landing gear lever illuminates when:

D - Landing gear is not down locked in approach configuration

65 - Landing gear indicator panel UNLK light illuminates red if

C - Gear is not locked in selected position

 66 - The maximum speed with landing gear extended (VLE) is:

B - 280 kts / M.67

67 - Which ADIRS close the safety valve of the green hydraulic supply when
speed is > 260 kts.

B - ADIRS 1 & 3

68 - What is the maximum tyre speed?

B - 195 kts

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Ice and Rain

1 - The ______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.

C - Three outboard slats

2 - Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:

C - Pitots, static ports, AOA probes, and TAT probes.

3 - When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves:

A - Close automatically.

4 - When either engine anti-ice valve is open:

B - Minimum idle rpm is increased.

5 - Window heat operates at what power level in flight?

B - High

6 - Probe heat comes on automatically when:

C - When at least one engine is running.

7 - On the ground the wing anti-ice valves will:

A - Open during a test sequence (30 seconds); provided pneumatic supply is

available.

8 - Where do the wing anti-ice indications appear on ECAM?

D - ANTI-ICE appears in white on the ECAM bleed page and W A.ICE appears in green
 on the ECAM memo when the wing P/B is pressed

9 - The Fault light on the engine anti-ice switches indicates the valve:

B - Position disagrees with switch position.

10 - What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice fault lights?

A - Both indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected position.
Wing light also could indicate low pressure.

11 - With reference to the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton, which of the

following is true?

D - Window heating comes on automatically after first engine start.

12 - If one engine anti-ice system fails, the second one takes over and provides
anti-icing for both engines.

B - False.

13 - What happens when either engine anti-ice is open?

B - Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum RPM is

increased.

14 - In the event of loss of electrical supply the engine anti-ice valve:

C - Opens when the engine is running.

15 - With the loss of electrical power the wing anti-ice valves:

C - Fail to the closed position.

16 - The drain masts are heated after first engine start.

B - False.

17 - What is the speed limit to operate the windscreen wipers?

C - 230 kts.

18 - In the event of an electrical power loss:

 A - The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically, anti-icing is ensured.

19 - At what power level does window heat operate while airborne?

A - High power while airborne.

20 - What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open?

C - The N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced

21 - Window heat operation begins:

A - Automatically after the first engine start.

B - if the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is selected ON by the crew prior to
engine start.
C - Both are correct.

22 - Rain protection is provided by:

B - Rain repellent and Windshield wipers.

23 - Can the wing anti-ice be tested on the ground?

A - Yes, with valves only open for 30 seconds.

24 - Anti-ice and de-icing protection is provided for:

A - The engine nacelle’s and three outboard wing slats.

25 - The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by

placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton.

A - True.

26 - What happens to the heat at the drain masts when the aircraft is on the
ground?

B - The heat is reduced to prevent injury to ground personel.

27 - The RAIN RPLNT (rain repellent) pushbutton is inhibited on the ground

when the engines stopped.

A - True.
28 - TAT probes are heated on the ground.

B - False.

29 - The ON light illuminates on the wing anti-ice P/B :

B - When the P/B is set to ON

30 - How is window heating regulated?

D - By two independent Window Heat Computers (WHC), one for each side

31 - The Window Heat Computer provides two power levels for the windshield:

C - High power in flight, low power on the ground.

32 - The engine nacelle is anti-iced by:

A - Air bleed from the high pressure compressor

33 - When an engine anti-ice valve is open:

A - N1 limit is automatically reduced and the idle N1 is automatically increased

34 - In the event of a low air pressure:

D - The engine anti-ice valve closes automatically

35 - How can you check that engine anti-ice has been selected on?

D - You can observe the blue ON light on the associated engine anti-ice P/B and the
ENGINE ANTI-ICE memo on the E/WD'

36 - The electric windshield wipers are controlled:

D - By two individual rotary selectors

37 - The wipers can operate at different speeds:

A - Low speed and high speed

38 - When the wiper is turned off:

D - The wiper stops out of view

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Equipment
1 - You want to open the cabin door, whilst lifting the control handle the white
light illuminates. What does it mean?

C - The slide is still armed.

2 - Which situation will automatically illuminate the escape path lighting?

A - The loss of power to the DC ESS SHED bus and The loss of power to the AC bus
#1

3 - When the door arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door from
the outside will:

B - Disarm the door.

4 - With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if AC bus #1 is

unpowered:

B - The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.

5 - Opening an emergency overwing exit will:

B - Automatically inflate the double lane slide off the trailing edge of the wing.

6 - Although no busses are unpowered, illumination of emergency exit lights in

the cabin is desired. Which of the following answers are correct?

A - The emergency lights, exit signs and the floor paths markings will illuminate if the
guarded EMER EXIT LT pb on the flight attendant CIDS panel is selected ON.
B - The emergency lights, exit signs and the escape path markings will illuminate if
the cockpit EMER EXIT LT switch is ON.
:
 C - Both are correct.

7 - The PBE provides a breathable atmosphere for approximately ______

minutes.

B - 15

8 - What are the indications that the PBE oxygen supply has depleted?

A - The hood collapses to the point that it touches your face or by a flashing red light
in addition to the flashing green light.

9 - How is crew oxygen provided?

A - From a single bottle.

10 - What cockpit lighting is available during an Emergency Electrical

Configuration (EEC)?

D - Dome light(right side only), main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and
the standby compass light.

11 - On the cockpit overhead panel there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT

LT switch. What lights are associated with this switch?

A - Exit signs, emergency lights, and floor path lights.

12 - What is Crew Oxygen minimum pressure, where can it be read?

D - 1300 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.

13 - There is no other way of deploying the overwing escape slide if it fails to

deploy automatically on opening the emergency exit.

B - False.

14 - What does HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel do?

D - None of the above.

15 - The HALON fire extinguisher should be used on what type fires?

C - Electrical and flammable liquid fires.

:
 16 - With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if DC shed bus #1 is
unpowered:

A - The escape path markings will automatically illuminate.

17 - Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?

D - HORN SHUT OFF.

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Electricals
1 - The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _____ KVA.

C - 90

2 - The number 1 AC bus channel normally supplies power to _____ and to the
_____ bus which supplies power to the ______ bus.

C - TR1 / AC ESS / AC ESS SHED

3 - The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is:

D - Engine generators, external power then APU

4 - The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by:

C - DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay.

5 - The A-320 has _______ batteries in its main electrical system.

B-2

6 - When no other power is available in flight, the static inverter converts _____
power to AC power for the ______ bus; and ______ powers the _______ bus.

A - BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / BAT2 / DC ESS

7 - An AC ESS FEED switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power
source for the AC ESS bus from:

A - AC bus1 to AC bus 2

8 - Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency

generator?

9 - The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator

10 - The emergency generator supplies power as long as:

D - The landing gear is up.

11 - After landing, in the emergency electrical configuration, the batteries

automatically connect to the DC BAT bus when speed decreases below _______
knots.

D - 100

12 - The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when:

B - Charging current increases at an abnormal rate

13 - Do not depress the IDG DISCONNECT switch for more than _______ to
prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism.

A - 3 seconds

14 - The IDG Fault light indicates:

C - IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat

15 - If normal electrical power is lost; essential cockpit lighting is maintained for

the:

A - Captain’s instrument panel.

B - Standby compass
C - Right dome light (provided the dome selector is not off).
D - All of the above.

16 - You enter a dark cockpit, what action is necessary before checking the
battery voltages?

D - You have to verify that both batteries are off.

17 - Having started the APU, how can you get the APU generator to power the
electrical system?
 B - By pushing the EXT PWR pushbutton thus disconnecting the external power.

18 - Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG?

D - Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor push the IDG
disconnect push button for more than 3 seconds.

19 - Which voltage requires recharging or replacing the batteries?

C - 25 volts or less.

20 - The APU is supplying the electrical system. What is the order of priority for
the different generators?

A - Engines, external power, APU.

21 - What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers?

B - Green collared circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM.

22 - With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, which situation will
activate the emergency lights and exit signs?

B - AC bus #1 unpowered

23 - If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will battery
power be available?

A - Between 22 and 30 minutes depending on equipment in use.

24 - What is the minimum voltage when conducting a BATTERY CHECK?

D - Greater than 25 volts.

25 - A battery fault light will illuminate when:

C - Battery charging current increases at an abnormal rate.

26 - Which flight control computer will be inoperative with gear extension while
in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

D - FAC 1

27 - If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you charge them?
 B - I have to check that the BAT pushbuttons are on and switch the external power on.

28 - What is the function of APU GEN push button located on the overhead
electrical panel?

B - When selected to OFF the APU generator field is de-energized.

29 - Is it possible to parallel generators?

C - The electrical system will not allow “paralleling” of generators.

30 - While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear

lowered which of the following control laws is in effect?

B - Direct.

31 - What cockpit lighting is available during an emergency electrical situation?

B - Right side Dome light, main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the
standby compass light.

32 - What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?

C - When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all busses but continues to
power one fuel pump in each wing.

33 - During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of
Gen #2 and the subsequent start of the APU?

C - Eng gen #1 continues to power AC bus #1 and downstream systems. The APU
powers AC bus #2 and downstream systems.

34 - When does the RAT automatically deploy?

B - Electrical power to both AC BUS #1 & #2 is lost and the aircraft speed is above
100 knots.

35 - During the five seconds it takes for the RAT to extend:

B - The BATTERIES power both BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, and ESS AC through the
STATIC INVERTER.

36 - The purpose of the AUTO BUS TIE is to allow either engine-driven IDG to
automatically power both main AC buses in the event of a generator loss until
either ground power or the APU generator is activated.

A - True.

37 - When will the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light illuminate?

A - When the EMER GEN is not supplying electrical power, AC busses #1 & #2 are
unpowered and the nose gear is up.

38 - What is the significance of the circuit breakers on the overhead panel?

C - They may be operational in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.

39 - If both engine generators are powering the system, and one subsequently
fails, are any busses unpowered?

B - No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys.

40 - How many times can you reset a circuit breaker?

B - Once, if authorized by the procedures.

41 - On the cockpit overhead panel, there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT

Light switch. What lights are associated with this switch?

A - Exit signs, emergency lights, and escape path lighting.

42 - Which flight control computers are operational in the Emergency Electrical

Power configuration (gear down and batteries powering the system)?

D - ELAC 1 and SEC 1.

43 - Which radios are inoperative with gear extension while in the emergency
electrical configuration?

A - DME 1 and transponder 1.

44 - While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear

lowered which of the following statements is correct?

C - On the ground at 100 knots, the DC BATTERY BUS automatically reconnects to

the batteries allowing APU start.
 45 - If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is depressed to “OFF”,
what effect would this have on power to the busses?

A - None.

46 - While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the

system, FAC #1 reset) which of the following control laws are in effect?

B - Alternate.

47 - Can you reconnect an IDG in flight?

C - No, it is not possible.

48 - Which communication and navigation radios are operational in the

Emergency Electrical Configuration with the EMER GEN powering the system?

A - ACP 1 and 2, VHF 1, HF, RMP 1, VOR 1, and ILS 1.

49 - Which condition will automatically illuminate the escape lights?

C - DC ESS BUS not powered.

50 - What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light?

A - External power is plugged in and parameters are normal. You must push the
external power to connect it

51 - What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean?

B - External power is supplying the aircraft’s electrical system.

52 - If EXTERNAL power is available and within limits:

B - The green AVAIL light will illuminate on the EXT PWR push button.

53 - Is it possible to determine the source of power for aircraft busses

C - Yes, press the ECAM ELEC push button and view the electrical schematic on the
ECAM

54 - Both batteries are charged by the external power unit. Approximately how
long does the charging process take?
 B - 20 minutes.

55 - While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the

system) what should the crew accomplish prior to lowering the landing gear?

B - Depress the guarded RMP NAV push button and tune the appropriate NAV facility
and course for the approach to be accomplished.

56 - The GALLEY FAULT light illuminates when any generator is exceeding 80%
of its rated output.

B - False.

57 - If the source of power for the ESS AC bus is lost, does another source of
power automatically power the bus?

C - No, this must be done by the crew.

58 - What would cause the GALLEY fault light to illuminate?

C - The load on any generator is above 100% of its rated output.

59 - While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the

system) how is it possible to properly complete the ECAM checklist with only an
upper display?

A - Depress and hold the specific ECAM page push button on the ECAM control
panel.

60 - After IDG disconnection why do you get a GALLEY SHED indication on the
SD?

C - It is a reminder that the main galley has been shed automatically following the loss
of one generator.

61 - Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN
begins producing power?

A - BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED.

62 - Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The EXT PWR
push button blue ON light is illuminated. Which of the statements below is
correct?

C - Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream systems; Ext power
supplies AC bus #2 .

63 - In cruise, you have suddenly a Master Warning and Caution comes on with
ELEC EMER CONFIG and APP OFF. You notice a red FAULT light on the RAT &
EMER GEN pushbutton. What do you think of this indication?

A - The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system.

64 - When are the Essential Shed buses powered by the battery?

A - Never. The purpose of the shed buses is to reduce the load on the batteries.

65 - The AC Essential bus is powered by the battery at speed above 50 kt.

A - True.

66 - In normal electrical configuration, how is DC ESS bus supplied:

A - From TR 1 via DC Bus 1 and DC Bat Bus

67 - What happens in case of total loss of main generators?

B - The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the
emergency generator

68 - DC Bat Bus can be supplied by:

B - DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2 or batteries

69 - Normal minimum battery voltage before APU start is:

C - 25.5 Volts

70 - When disconnecting the IDG the button should be pressed:

D - For no more than 3 seconds

71 - Where can the battery voltage be checked?

D - On the elec. overhead panel and ECAM elec. Page

 72 - In flight on batteries only, the AC ESS Shed bus and DC ESS Shed bus are
lost.

A - Yes

73 - The static inverter works:

B - When aircraft speed is > 50 kt and on batteries only.

74 - If a TR fails:

A - The other TR automatically replaces the faulty one and the ESS TR supplies the
DC Ess Bus

75 - In flight in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator not

running, the DC ESS Bus is supplied by:

A - Hot bus 2

76 - If AC Bus 1 fails the AC ESS bus is supplied by:

D - AC Bus 2

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Oxygen
1 - On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the
oxygen cylinder?

B - The DOORS page.

2 - What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior

preflight?

A - An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.

3 - Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to

produce oxygen?

A - 15 minutes.

4 - What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen
system?

B - Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder; passengers are supplied by chemical

oxygen generators .

5 - What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?

B - When selected to ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew’s
masks.

6 - What happens when the mask is used with the selection at 100% position?

B - Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.

7 - At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks

:
drop?

C - 14,000 feet (+0, - 500 ft)

8 - What does an amber OXY on the ECAM Doors mean?

A - The crew supply switch is turned off and/or oxygen pressure is less than 400 psi.

9 - Illumination of the SYS ON light is an indication that:

B - Electrical power has been sent to deploy the masks, either manually or
automatically.

10 - There are oxygen generators in each aircraft’s galley.

A - True.

11 - What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?

B - It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.

12 - When does passenger oxygen flow start?

A - When the mask is pulled toward the seat.

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Flight Controls
1 - The flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______ actuated.

A - Electrically / hydraulically

2 - What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and

horizontal stabilizer?

C - ELAC 2

3 - Sidesticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers; if both

sidesticks are operated:

B - Both inputs are algebraically added.

4 - Roll control is achieved by:

C - One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.

5 - When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:

C - Droop 5 degrees.

6 - If electrical power to a SEC fails:

A - The affected spoilers automatically retract.

7 - If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration Full:

A - Speed brake extension is inhibited.

8 - Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:

 B - Maintained by the other actuator.

9 - Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:

C - Speed brakes and rudder.

10 - Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after

landing.

A - True

11 - Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the
______ are extended.

B - Slats

12 - Automatic rudder trim is provided at the rate of _____ while the manual
rudder trim rate is ______ up to a maximum of ______.

B - 5 deg/sec - 1 deg/sec - 20 degs

13 - Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or
slats in case of:

C - Asymmetry, overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement

14 - While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship

between sidestick deflection and the corresponding aileron and spoiler
deflection.

A - True

15 - In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode; pitch trim is:

C - Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.

16 - Automatic pitch trim is inhibited when:

A - Radio altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled).

B - Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.
D - First two statements are correct

17 - In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the normal mode to a
protection mode when the angle of attack is greater than:

B - Alpha Prot

18 - TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when _______

engages the Auto-thrust system.

C - Alpha Floor

19 - Roll control in NORMAL LAW is achieved with:

C - Ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder.

20 - The purpose of the Load Alleviation Function is to:

A - Relieve wing structure loads by moving the ailerons.

B - Relieve wing structure loads by extending spoilers 4 and 5.
D - First two statements are correct.

21 - With the aircraft in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in _____ Law.

A - Direct

22 - When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:

B - Degrades to pitch direct law.

23 - In Pitch Alternate Law; the low Speed stability (nose down command) can
be overridden by the sidestick.

A - True

24 - In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the

airplane reverts to a _______ mode.

A - Mechanical

25 - To select speed brakes inflight:

B - Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.

26 - Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler

elevator computers (SEC’s)?
C - Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS
control.

27 - The autopilot will disconnect if the side stick takeover push button is
depressed.

A - True.

28 - Which of the following statements are correct concerning the side stick
takeover push button?

A - The last pilot to depress the push button has priority.

B - If the a takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds, the onside
system will retain priority after the push button is released.
C - Both are correct.

29 - Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup?

C - Yes, the THS and the rudder.

30 - What control surfaces do the FACs control?

C - The rudder.

31 - Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?

A - THS.

32 - What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure?

D - The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

33 - The alpha speed lock function:

B - Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at
high AOA or low speeds.

34 - In normal law, if one stick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft’s
maximum allowable “G” load be exceeded?

D - No. The load factor limitation overrides side stick commands to avoid excessive
“G” loads.
35 - Which controls are used for the mechanical backup?

B - THS and rudder.

36 - Mechanically backed-up control surfaces:

A - Require hydraulic power for actuation.

37 - Selection of flaps one prior to takeoff will select which of the following?

A - Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).

38 - Which of the following statements best describes the Load Alleviation

Function (LAF)?

B - Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the ailerons and spoilers.

39 - When ground spoilers deploy automatically:

A - All ten spoiler panels fully deploy.

40 - The FAC’s primarily control which control surface?

B - Rudder.

41 - Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?

A - Max altitude for extension is 20, 000 ft.

42 - The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?

A - A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.

43 - Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA and air data information from?

C - ADIRU

44 - How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and how many
hydraulic sources supply these actuators?

A - 2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.

45 - If both FAC’s fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?

 B - It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1
are selected.

46 - Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator

aileron computers (ELAC’s)?:

B - Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators,
ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer.

47 - The wing tip brakes, once activated:

D - Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position.

48 - Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats?

D - Two slat flap control computers (SFCC’s).

49 - The spoiler panels are the only flight control surfaces with no redundant
control.

A - True.

50 - What happens in the side stick-neutral high speed protection mode?

C - The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 40° and the aircraft rolls wings level
and pitches up to slow down to VMO/MMO.

51 - What is the maximum flap setting for in-flight use of the spoilers?

B - Flaps 3.

52 - What are the rudder trim rates?

A - A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 1 deg/sec.

53 - Can the crew make a flight control input that will over-stress the airplane in
direct law?

B - Yes, there are no protections provided in direct law.

54 - Can you manually trim the rudder with the autopilot engaged?

B - No.
 55 - When is the Flight Mode active?

C - From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50 ft RA.

56 - Automatic pitch trim is provided both on ground and in flight.

B - False.

57 - The Ground Mode is different in Alternate Law.

B - False.

58 - In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side
stick fully deflected?

C - 67°

59 - Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will:

D - Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.

60 - FAC generated slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are
visually displayed on which of the following?

C - Both pilot’s PFD airspeed displays.

61 - Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following?

B - The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.

62 - The wing tip brakes are:

C - Hydraulically actuated.

63 - Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following

configurations?

C - Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).

64 - The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged.

B - False.

65 - What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank?

 C - The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.

66 - When is alpha floor not available?

A - Out of normal law.

B - Below 100 feet RA in landing configuration.
C - If the A/THR is deactivated or unavailable.
D - All of the above.

67 - What kind of protections are provided if the aircraft is in Alternate Law?

D - G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.

68 - In Normal Law, what are the limits of Pitch Attitude protections with flaps
Full

C - 25° nose up, progressively reduced to 20° at low speed.

69 - You can degrade directly from Normal Law to Direct Law with gear down
and a dual radio altimeter fault.

A - True.

70 - When do you get FLARE Mode in Alternate Law?

A - Never. It goes directly from Alternate Law to Direct Law when the gear is selected
down.

71 - Turn coordination is available in Alternate Law.

B - False.

72 - If both pilots deflect their side sticks fully back:

D - The “pitch up” order is equal to a single stick deflection.

73 - To disable a side-stick, you have to depress the red take-over button on the
active stick. Holding the button down for 40 seconds will electrically lock the
other stick out until its own red take-over button is pushed again.

A - True.

74 - Let’s assume the F/O presses his takeover pushbutton and releases it after
more than 40 seconds.

B - The Captain is unable to re-activate his side-stick for the rest of the flight

75 - What condition will cause auto flap retraction?

A - Exceed 210 kts at Flaps 1

76 - What happens to the rudder limits if both FAC’s fault?

C - The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected. Then it resets to
the low speed limits for increased control.

77 - What happens to high speed (VMO/MMO) when you are in Alternate Law?

C - VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO does not change.

78 - Can the rudders be moved with both FAC’s inoperative?

A - Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats
are extended

79 - The FLAP lever sends signal to Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) to
command movement.

A - True.

80 - Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn
coordination functions?

B - No.

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Auxiliary Power Unit

1 - To start the APU the:

A - BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON.

2 - The Electronic Control Box (ECB) is primarily a full authority digital

electronic controller that performs the APU system logic for all modes of APU
operation such as:

A - Sequence and monitoring of start.

B - Speed and temperature monitoring.
C - Monitoring of bleed air and shut down.
D - All of the above.

3 - When the APU Master Switch is released, a normal APU shutdown occurs:

C - With a delay if the bleed air was in use.

4 - When selected on, the APU START push button, will:

B - Start the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON.

5 - The APU has an integral independent lubrication system for lubrication and
cooling.

A - True.

6 - The ECB (Electronic Control Box) controls the fuel flow.

A - True.

7 - When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON:

 A - The APU computer automatically completes a self-test, opens the air intake flap
and supplies fuel pressure.

8 - The APU MASTER SW FAULT light will illuminate:

B - When an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs.

9 - The APU may be started up to what altitude?

A - The APU can be started at any altitude using normal aircraft electrical power.

10 - The APU system page will appear on the ECAM:

A - When selected by the crew.

B - Automatically whenever the APU is started and AC power is available.
C - Both are correct.

11 - If APU bleed was used, after a manual shut down sequence, the APU:

D - Keeps running for 60 seconds

12 - With the engines off, if the AVAIL light is illuminated on both the APU START
push button and the EXT PWR push button, what is the source of electrical power
for the aircraft busses?

C - The APU.

13 - BAT 1 and 2 push buttons do not need to be selected ON if external power is

available.

A - It is normally left in the lights out position.

B - When selected OFF, the APU generator is de-energized.
C - Both are correct.

14 - What is the maximum altitude at which the APU may be started using the
batteries only?

C - 25, 000 ft

16 - When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump:

A - Runs when tank pumps pressure is not sufficient.

 17 - The APU BLEED valve is automatically closed above ______ feet descending
by the ECB.

A - 23,000 feet

18 - With nobody in the cockpit, if you have an APU FIRE, which statement is
correct?

A - On the ground, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be
discharged automatically.

19 - The basic element of the APU is a single shaft gas turbine which delivers
______ power for driving the accessory gearbox (electrical generator) and
produces bleed air (engine starting and pneumatic supply)

D - Mechanical shaft

20 - Fire on ground or in flight will cause the APU MASTER SW pushbutton

FAULT light to come on.

B - False.

21 - With battery power, what would an APU fire test look like?

A - APU FIRE pushbutton illuminated.

B - SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated
C - Both are correct.

22- The starter engages if the air intake is closed and the MASTER SW and the
START pushbuttons are ON.

B - False.

23 - A FLAP OPEN indication is displayed in amber when the APU air inlet flaps
is fully open

B - False

24 - The APU may obtain power for starting from:

A - Ground services.
B - Normal aircraft supply.
 C - The aircraft’s batteries or in combination with the external power.
D - All of the above.

25 - The APU cannot be shut down from outside the aircraft.

B - False.

26 - What are some of the causes for an APU automatic shutdown?

D - Fire (on ground only), underspeed, overspeed, EGT overtemperature, Reverse

flow, Low oil pressure, DC power loss.

27 - Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is:

C - 20, 000 ft

28 - Can the APU FIRE test be performed with the APU running?

A - Yes

29 - The APU is supplied from the:

A - Left fuel feed line.

30 - On ground, the No Break Power Transfer function is inhibited in case of

APU shutdown generated by which of the following conditions?

A - Automatic APU shut down triggered by the ECB.

B - APU shut down from the REFUEL/DEFUEL panel or from the APU FIRE pushbutton.
C - APU shut down from emergency control provided on the external power panel.
D - All of the above.

31 - Can the APU be used with wing anti-ice on?

B - Yes, but only for electrical power. The APU bleed valve should not be opened
while using wing anti-ice.

32 - On ground, can you start the APU using the aircraft batteries only?

A - Yes

33 - When starting the APU, the FUEL LO PR indication appears amber when an
APU fuel low pressure is detected.
 A - True

34 - The LOW OIL LEVEL advisory pulses in ____ if the APU oil quantity
approaches its minimum value.

D - Green

35 - If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection

available?

A - Yes

36 - A319/320/321. With the APU supplying bleed air what will be the pack flow
if the PACK FLOW selector is LOW?

A - A319/320 – HIGH and A321 – NORMAL

37 - What is the maximum operating altitude of the APU?

D - 39,000 feet

38 - How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are installed?

A - One

39 - Will the APU bleed valve close automatically during climb? Will it reopen
during descent?

B - No

40 - With battery power only, what would an APU fire test look like?

A - APU FIRE pb illuminated and SQUIB + DISCH lights illuminated

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Hydraulic
1 - Fluid can be transferred between hydraulic systems.

B - False

2 - Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?

B - Green and yellow.

3 - The Load Alleviation Function (LAF) accumulators are pressurized by which

hydraulic systems?

B - Green and yellow.

4 - The RAT pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system to approximately ______ psi.

B - 2500

5 - How many pumps has the yellow system to provide pressure (not counting
the PTU)?

C-3

6 - The hand pump supplies yellow system pressure to the:

D - Cargo doors.

7 - It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the
PTU when the parking brake is set.

A - True

8 - The Eng Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is
selected to off except for:

C - An overheat.

9 - With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO;
the blue pump will be energized when:

A - One engine is running.

B - The BLUE PUMP OVRD switch has been pressed.
C - First two statements are correct.

10 - The PTU Fault light illuminates when the:

B - Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure.

11 - The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber
when:

B - N2 is below idle.

12 - The _____ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction.

C - Green

13 - As long as the landing gear lever is up a hydraulic safety valve closes to cut
off the hydraulic supply to the gear when the airspeed is:

A - Greater than 260 KIAS.

14 - Autobraking is initiated by:

C - Ground spoiler extension command.

15 - The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes
except:

A - Anti-skid is inoperative.
B - Autobrakes are inoperative.
C - Both first statements are correct

16 - When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only; the
accumulator supplies:
 B - At least seven full brake applications.

17 - The maximum degrees of nosewheel steering available when using the

handwheel is ______.

B - +/- 75

18 - The green DECEL light on the Autobrake switch illuminates when the actual
airplane deceleration corresponds to ______ % of the selected rate.

A - 80

19 - The brakes pressure indication on TRIPLE PRESSURE INDICATOR reads

which system pressure?

A - Yellow

20 - To extend the landing gear with the Gravity Extension Handcrank requires
_______ turns of the handle.

C - 3 clockwise

21 - The aircraft’s three hydraulic systems are normally pressurized by:

A - Two engine driven pumps and one electric pump.

22 - When will the yellow system electric pump operate? (AC power is
available).

D - When the yellow electric system ELEC PUMP push button is selected to ON or the
ground crew activates a cargo door switch.

23 - What are the major equipment losses with loss of Green system?

B - Nosewheel steering, Autobrakes.

24 - The hydraulic PTU will activate if:

B - A significant pressure loss occurs in the green or yellow hydraulic system.

25 - After extending the RAT, is it possible to check its position and status?

C - Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.

 26 - The RAT is capable of powering a pump which will pressurize:

A - Only the blue system.

27 - How is the yellow hydraulic system pressurized?

A - An engine driven pump, an electric pump, the PTU using the green system and,
for the cargo doors only, a hand pump.

28 - When will normal operation of the BLUE system hydraulic pump begin?

A - During the first engine start.

29 - The PTU comes into action automatically when the differential pressure
between the GREEN and the YELLOW systems is greater than ______ psi.

B - 500.

30 - When will the yellow system electric pump operate? (AC power is
available)'

B - When the yellow electric system ELEC PUMP push button is selected to ON or the
ground crew activates a cargo door switch.

31 - What is the normal pressure in the hydraulic system?

C - 3,000 psi.

32 - You are at the gate. You have started engine #2. Before starting engine #1,
you notice that the PTU test has not been activated. Is it normal.

C - The PTU will not work until the second engine has been started.

33 - You get a G RSVR OVHT message. Why does the ECAM procedure ask you
to switch the PTU off first?

D - To prevent the PTU from pressurising the GREEN system.

34 - For hydraulic system malfunctions, when will the RAT deploy?

C - Only when the guarded RAT MAN ON push button is selected by the crew.

35 - What does the RAT MAN ON switch do?

 D - Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, does not start Emergency Generator.

36 - Describe the PTU status with a green system reservoir overheat, low
pressure or low fluid level.

C - The PTU fault light will remain illuminated as long as the problem exists. The PTU
should be selected OFF.

37 - During engine start up, when is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized?

C - Automatically after first engine start.

38 - If you lost the GREEN system, what equipment is lost?

B - Reverser 1, gear retraction and nose wheel steering.

39 - Crew members can use a hand pump to pressurize the YELLOW system in
order to operate the cargo doors when no electrical power is available.

A - True.

40 - If you lost the YELLOW system, what equipment is lost?

A - Reverser 2
B - Parking brake accumulator recharging
C - Cargo door.
D - All of the above.

41 - On the hydraulic quantity indicator what does the amber level indicate?

A - The warning level.

42 - What does a PTU FAULT light indicate?

A - GREEN or YELLOW reservoir overheat.

B - GREEN or YELLOW reservoir low air pressure.
C - GREEN or YELLOW reservoir low level..
D - All of the above.

43 - If you lost the BLUE system, what equipment is lost?

A - The Emergency generator.

44 - All hydraulic systems have a fire shutoff valve.

B - False.

45 - What is the signification of an amber RAT indicator (ECAM HYD page)?

46 - How can the pilot switch off the Fire Shut Off Valves?

C - By de-pressing the Engine Fire Switches

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Communications
1 - The audio management system allows the flight crew to use:

A - All the radio communication and radio navigation facilities installed on the aircraft
in transmission and reception mode.
B - The interphone system.
C - The call systems and Passenger Address (PA) system.
D - All of the above.

2 - How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?

A - Use the MECH pushbutton on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn.

3 - If the VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the word “CALL”

B - Indicates a SELCAL

4 - RMP #1 is dedicated to which VHF radios?

C - VHF 1 and 3.***************** VHF1 only

5 - On RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls:

A - The power supply to the RMP.

6 - You can tune the ILS receivers to different channels.

B - No.

7 - If you depress the guarded NAV button, the MCDU RAD NAV pages are
inhibited and the RMP controls navaid tuning.
 A - True.

8 - Which ACP switch configuration is correct for communication with other

cockpit crew members while wearing your Oxygen Mask?

9 - The AUDIO SWITCHING rotary selector allows replacement of a failed #1 or

#2 ACP with ACP #3.

10 - Which statement is correct regarding the cockpit voice recorder?

D - Is automatically energized after the first engine start or five minutes after AC
electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

11 - How do you erase the CVR?

A - Press the CVR ERASE pushbutton when the aircraft is on the ground with the
parking brake set.

12 - On the ground, CVR is stopped automatically ______ after the last engine
shutdown.

D - 5 minutes.

13 - On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the
GND CTL pushbutton.

A - True.

14 - Only the last 60 minutes of recording are retained by the CVR.

B - False.

15 - To make a PA announcement:

A - Depress and hold the PA transmission key push button.

B - Use the pedestal mounted headset
C - Both are correct.

16 - The service interphone has ______ interphone jacks and an OVRD switch
located on the overhead panel.

B - Seven
 17 - When selecting the guarded RMP NAV key:

C - FMGC auto tuning is inhibited.

18 - If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP

and frequencies and bars disappear from this RMP.

A - True.

19 - You receive a SELCAL on VHF 2, what happens on your ACP?

A - Amber sign call flashes on VHF 2 key.

20 - If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, SEL light illuminates white:

C - On RMP 1 and 2.

21 - In case of RMP 2 failure, VHF 2 is lost.

B - False.

22 - When looking at either RMP, how is it possible to determine if an RMP is

selected to a VHF system it is not dedicated to?

A - The white SEL light will be illuminated on both RMP’s. This is a normal occurrence
in-flight.

23 - If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and ATC assigns
a new communication frequency, what must be done?

C - Select the appropriate VHF communication radio transmission key, tune using the
rotary selector, press the transfer key.

24 - When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration:

B - RMP 1 and ACP’s 1 and 2 are operative.

25 - With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT3 position, the Captain uses
his acoustic equipment on ACP3.

A - True.

26 - To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the

engine:

C - Select the transmission key push button labeled CAB and the audio selector
labeled CAB.

27 - The flashing amber MECH light indicates that the interphone system is
faulty.

B - False.

28 - What is the function of the Guarded EMER push button on the overhead
panel?

C - To alert all flight attendants of a pending urgent need to speak to them.

29 - Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the flight attendants are
calling the cockpit?

B - CAB.

30 - Is STBY/NAV tuning possible on RMP 3.

B - No.

31 - Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant?

C - Using an overhead FWD or AFT call pushbutton.

32 - The BFO key enables the beat frequency oscillator for listening to the ID
signal.

A - True.

33 - Pressing the _____ key, on the audio control panel, allows the crew to
inhibit the audio navigation signals.

A - VOICE

34 - If ATC mode selector is at AUTO:

A - Selected ATC operates only in flight.

35 - On ATC Control Panel, the FAULT light comes on if:

 A - Selected Transponder fails.

36 - In case of dual FMGC failure selection of radio navigation frequencies is

possible with:

B - RMP 1 and 2 only.

37 - All communications radios are controlled:

C - From any one of the three radio management panels (RMPs).

40 - Only _____ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration.

B - RMP 1

41 - The Cockpit Voice Recorder will record:

A - Direct conversations between crewmembers.

B - All aural cockpit warnings.
C - Communications over radio and intercom.
D - Passenger address system announcements (as long as one PA reception knob is
selected on).
E - All of the above

42 - The cockpit voice recorder will automatically operate on the ground for
_______ minutes after electrical power is supplied to the airplane; or when at
least _______ engine is operating.

B-5–1

43 - When using the boom mike, oxygen mask mike, or hand mike: the PA key
must be pressed and held to use the aircraft PA system.

A - True

44 - When the ON voice key on an Audio Control Panel is pushed in; ADF and
VOR ident signals are inhibited.

A - True

45 - With the INT/RAD switch of an Audio Control Panel (ACP) in the INT position
and the sidestick Transmit Switch in the Transmit position, you are transmitting
on the:

B - Radio selected by the transmission switch on the Audio Control Panel.

46 - To transmit and receive on the service interphone, the pilot must select
the:

A - CAB reception knob and the ATT transmission key on the ACP.

47 - Illumination of the SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel indicates:

C - The RMP is being tuned to a transceiver from another RMP.

48 - When would a green AM light illuminate on RMP 1?

B - If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF1 and AM

49 - A VOR is tuned on RMP 1 using the STBY NAV function. Can this selection
be seen on the MCDU RAD NAV page?

A - No. Information on RAD NAV page is not available when the NAV pb on RMP is
pressed.

50 - Is it possible to tune a navaid with the STBY NAV function on RMP 3?

B - No. STBY NAV function is not available on RMP 3

60 - How can a navaid tuned through the STBY NAV on RMP 1 or 2 be identified?

A - The ident appears on the ND

B - By pressing out the corresponding reception knob on the ACP
C - All of the above.

61 - If an RMP fails:

A - The selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP

B - The frequency displays disappear
C - The green VHF or HF lights go out
D - All of the above.

62 - With the MECH transmission key on the Audio Control Panel pressed:

A - The flight interphone channel is selected for transmission via the ACP RAD switch
or the side stick radio selector.

63 - How could you receive ATIS information from a VOR?

B - Pressing and releasing out the VOR reception knob and selecting the ON voice
key on the ACP

64 - How do you cancel the ON VOICE green light?

A - By depressing the on voice p/b

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Indicating and
Reporting
1 - What does a pulsing green engine parameter indicate?

A - An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach the limit.

2 - On a bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean?

C - It means that there is more information to be seen.

3 - When should the EMER CANC push button be used?

C - Whenever a repetitive visual or aural warning, or caution is received that the crew
has determined to be false.

4 - The actual speed is indicated by the ______ reference line.

A - yellow

5 - If a PFD fails, does anything happen automatically?

B - The image automatically transfers to the display formerly occupied by the ND.

6 - Course information from the #1 ILS receiver will be displayed:

A - On the captain’s PFD when the captain’s ILS push button is selected ON.

7 - Information from the #1 VOR receiver will be displayed:

B - On the capt ‘s ND when the capt ‘s VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR.
8 - What causes a display unit (DU) to go blank?

A - Loss of power.
B - Display unit internal failure.
C - Both are correct.

9 - What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

A - DMC failure.

10 - The maximum speed to select next higher flap setting is indicated by two
amber dashes.

A - True.

11 - VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of
the following modes?

A - VOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE NAV modes.
B - VOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes
respectively
C - Both are correct.

12 - The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:

C - The # 1 VOR receiver is inoperative.

13 - What is the meaning of “9000” in blue at the top of the altitude scale?

A - It marks the FCU selected altitude.

14 - How many DMC’s are there?

C-3

15 - After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display
units?

C - Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with
DMC #3.

16 - Where is information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC#2?

 C - DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to
PFD#2, ND#2, and lower ECAM.

17 - If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

A - By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM
control panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
B - By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM
page will be transferred to either the Captain or FO’s ND.
C - Both are correct.

18 - If the UPPER ECAM DU fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit?

B - Engines and Warning page (E/WD)

19 - Weather radar can be displayed in what modes on the ND?

D - All modes except plan.

20 - RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following

modes?

A - ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.

21 - Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is

the correct procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal
presentation?

A - Press the respective system push button again.

22 - After the engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message. What does
it mean?

C - It is a reminder that the status page holds a maintenance message.

23- The upper ECAM Display Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the
DOOR/OXY page. How can you see it?

A - You have to press and hold the DOOR key on the ECP

24 - Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications?

C - Yes, to get E/WD information. It must be manually transferred to one of the NDs.
 25 - How are the FMAs displayed on the PFD?

A - There are 5 columns and 3 rows.

26 - In case of a double FWC failure master caution light, master warning light,
aural warnings and ECAM cautions and warnings are lost.

A - True.

27 - How did the PNF cancel the caution for the NAV ILS 1 FAULT before calling
the STATUS page on the ECP?

A - By pressing the EMER CANC pushbutton.

28 - How can the ILS 1 FAULT be restored from being a CANCELLED CAUTION?

D - By pressing and holding the RCL key for more than 3 seconds.

29 - VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system (autopilot or A/THR) will
fly the aircraft. This is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack
(AOA).

A - VLS will change with wing configuration change.

B - With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase
C - Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin
D - All of the above.

30 - The Speed Trend Arrow is a dynamic information displaying the speed t

which the aircraft will be in _____.

C - 10 seconds

31 - Of the three types of EIS displays, which one has the lowest priority?

A - The ND

32 - As you approach a selected altitude, when will the yellow altitude window
start flashing?

A - As you approach within 750 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within
250 ft.

33 - The Flight Path vector (FPV) represents the lateral and vertical trajectory of
the aircraft with respect to the ground. On the lateral scale, it indicates the
aircraft’s track. On the vertical scale, it indicates the aircraft’s flight path angle

A - True.

34 - When does the Side Stick Order indicator display?

B - After first engine start and disappears after rotation

35 - When is the ‘Green Dot’ displayed?

A - Only when flap handle is the zero position.

36 - What does Green Dot represent?

B - Maneuvering speed in clean configuration when speed is managed.

37 - The green ‘S’ of the speedtape is the Minimum Slat Retraction Speed. It is
only displayed when the flap handle position is in position 1

A - True.

38 - When will the PFD Heading tape revert to TRUE heading?

A - North of 73° North or South of 60° South

39 - Is the Side Slip indicator always yellow?

B - No, it turns blue when it becomes a beta target (displaying optimum side slip for a
given configuration)

40 - When will the Flight Directors bars flash?

A - When a reversion occurs.

B - When loss of LOC or G/S signal in LAND mode.
C - All of the above.

41 - The Flight Director bars are out of view when Bank angle exceeds 67°.

B - False.

42 - If the FPV (Flight Path Vector) symbol is right of center, where is the wind
coming from?
 B - Left.

43 - If the FPV is above the horizon line, what is the aircraft actually doing?

C - Climbing.

44 - The Glide slope index will flash continuously when the deviation exceeds
______ above ______',

B - 1 dot above 100 feet RA

45 - Both LOC and glideslope will flash if, after capture, the signal is lost.

A - True.

46 - The lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines the
VMAX speed.

A - It is the lowest of the following VMO (or MMO), VLE, VFE

47 - The SD displays the Gross Weight (GW) in green as soon as the second
engine is started.

B - False.

48 - In case of PFDU failure, the PFD image is transferred to the NDU:

B - Automatically

49 - What is the basic role of the DMCs:

A - They compute and elaborate displays

50 - Do the Check ATT. Messages appear on both PFDs at the same time?

A - Yes

51 - FACs calculate speed trend and VLS. The extremities of the trend vector
and V1s segment indicate respectively; speed value at the next 10 seconds and
1.23 Vs 1 g with present configuration. Is this correct?

A - Yes (for both cases)

52 - With radar selected on, what can you read on ND about antenna setting?
B - Tilt angle and gain mode

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Engine
1 - The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls which of the
following functions:

A - Fuel metering
B - Engine limits
C - Automatic and manual starting.
D - All of the above.

2 - The FADEC is normally powered by:

B - Its own magnetic alternator

3 - During an automatic start sequence; selecting the ENG MASTER switch to

on:

A - Closes the pack valves.

B - Initiates the start sequence.
D - First two statements are correct

4 - The FADEC has control during a manual engine start sequence except for:

C - An automatic abort.

5 - Continuous ignition is automatically provided during the following:

A - Flex or TO/GA thrust is selected on the ground.

B - ENG ANTI ICE switch is ON
C - Engine surge on stall occurs in flight.
D - Any of the above.
 6 - The A/THR is armed on the ground provided at least one FD is on by:

A - Setting the throttles to TO/GA.

7 - If a throttle is set between two detents; the FADEC selects the rating limit:

B - Corresponding to the higher mode.

8 - When the A/THR system is in use:

9 - A/THR engagement is confirmed when “A/THR” is displayed in ______ in the

right column of the FMA.

C - White

10 - If an A/THR disconnect switch is pushed and held for more than _______
seconds; the A/THR system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight;
including the _______.

C - 15 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection

11 - Takeoff can be performed using which power settings?

D - FLEX/MCT and TO/GA.

12 - When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?

C - TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 750 feet AGL.

13 - How many thrust lever positions are there, and how are they labeled?

B - There are 6 thrust levers positions: TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE, REV IDLE and
MREV.

14 - You are just about to take off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature.
Can you still takeoff?

C - Yes, but only using the TO/GA detent.

15 - During an engine start sequence, the gray background on N2 disappears at

about 57%. What does this indicate?

B - That the start sequence has finished and all engine parameters have stabilized.
 16 - What does the FLEX represent in the FLX/MCT detent?

A - This is a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff.

17 - How many FADEC’s are installed in the aircraft?

A - Two, one per engine.

18 - What is required for the FADEC to compute a reduced thrust setting?

C - A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU.

19 - Using manual thrust, the thrust lever position will determine the thrust
setting for the engine.

A - True. They will operate like conventional throttles.

20 - What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?

A - During single engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT
detent.
B - During two engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the CL detent.
C - Both are correct.

21 - If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still
available?

A - Yes Thrust lever position is disregarded.

22 - Is there any mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?

D - No, it is totally electrical.

23 - What is Alpha floor protection?

A - It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling and protects against windshear
encounters during takeoff and approach.

24 - Alpha floor protection is available:

A - From lift off and down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.

25 - How do you arm the A/THR in flight?

B - A/THR switch ON when throttles are not in the engagement mode.

26 - What is the difference between variable thrust and the speed mode?

A - In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is fixed and the elevator controls the speed.

27 - The left column, first line of the FMA is used to indicate:

B - The mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active.

28 - What are the two basic modes of the A/THR system?

C - Variable thrust and fixed speed.

29 - Is any thrust lever action required if an engine failed at rotation while using
FLEX takeoff power?

A - Yes.

30 - Can the engines be overboosted in the TOGA position?

B - No, because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and
HMU fuel flow adjustments.

31 - How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?

A - Whenever a takeoff or go-around is initiated with at least one flight director ON.
B - When Alpha floor protection is activated.
C - Both are correct.

32 - During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?

C - By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton’s on the overhead panel while the
ENG MODE selector is out of the NORM position.

33 - When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?

A - Decreasing below 5 qts.

34 - Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?

B - No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.

35 - Auto Thrust System: When are the throttles in the engagement range?
 A - Both throttles are above idle but not above the CLB detent when both engines are
running.
B - A single throttle of an operating engine is above idle but not above the MCT
detent when one engine is running.
C - All of the above.

36 - The idle setting on the aircraft is capable of modulating due to certain

conditions. During descent, what might cause the IDLE N1 setting to increase?

A - The slats are extended.

B - For a higher than normal bleed air demand or warmer than normal engine oil temp
in flight.
C - Both are correct.

37 - Verification that Autothrust (A/THR) is active can be made by:

C - Only by looking at column five of the FMA.

38 - When Alpha floor is activated, what power setting is automatically

commanded and what FMA annunciation would appear in Column one?

A - TOGA / A. FLOOR

39 - Holding the instinctive disconnect push button’s for more than fifteen
seconds will:

D - Disengage the A/THR (including Alpha Floor) for the remainder of the flight.

40 - During the automatic start sequence of ENG 2, you notice that only igniter
B is powered. Is it normal?

D - Yes, igniters are used alternately for engine start.

41 - As far as FMA annunciations are concerned, what would indicate that the
A/THR system is active?

B - “A/THR” changes from blue to white as shown in column five, line three.

42 - If a thrust lever is set between two detents, the FADEC selects the rating
limit corresponding to the higher limit.

A - True. This limit is displayed on the upper ECAM.

 43 - What would happen during the takeoff roll if the thrust levers were set to
the FLX/MCT detent without FLEX temperature being entered?

C - A LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM
message.

44 - What abnormals would cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start?

A - A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightoff.

45 - During an in-flight start or a manual start, will the FADEC auto abort for an
abnormal?

C - No.

46 - For reverser actuation, the left engine uses ____ hydraulic system pressure
and the right engine uses _____ hydraulic system pressure.

A - Green - Yellow.

47 - While flying the airplane with A/THR active, the speed knob is pulled and
turned to a selected speed that happens to be slower than Alpha prot. What
speed will the airplane slow to?

A - Vls.

48- Where is the thrust reduction altitude found and is the number always the
same?

B - TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU (it can be modified).

49 - During a manual start, what function does the FADEC perform?

A - Passive monitoring of the start sequence, to close the start valve and cut off the
ignition on the ground.

50 - During normal operation, in what detent are the thrust levers positioned
once the thrust reduction altitude has been reached?

A - CL

51 - After take off the A/THR will not become active until:
 A - The thrust levers are placed in the CLIMB position.

52 - Continuous ignition is provided automatically when:

C - ENG ANTI ICE is selected ON and/or engine flameout is detected in flight and/or
the EIU fails.

53 - Is it possible to disconnect Alpha floor?

C - Yes, by depressing the autothrottle push button on the FCU.

54 - The FADEC will automatically abort an abnormal start thereby providing

engine limit protection, but will the FADEC also automatically dry crank the
engine?

C - Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.

55 - What would happen in flight if the FADEC’s alternator failed?

C - The FADEC would now be powered using ship’s power.

56- You are in the middle of a manual engine start. What are you looking for
when you select ENG MASTER 2 ON?

C - The fuel used is reset, both igniters are powered and fuel flow is indicated.

57- Each FADEC is a dual channel (A&B) computer providing full engine
management.

A - True.

58- In addition to when the engine is operating, when else will the FADEC be
powered?

C - For five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft, when the FADEC
GND PWR pb on the maintenance panel is depressed, or when the ENG MODE control
switch is placed to IGN/START position.

59 - During an automatic start, the FADEC controls:

D - The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves, and fuel flow.

60 - How is manual arming of the A/THR system accomplished?

 A - By pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU confirm the pushbutton illuminates green or
confirm an A/THR annunciation is displayed in column 5 of the FMA.

61- You are at the start of a descent and a blue N1 arc is displayed showing the
new thrust demand. When does this happen?

D - Whenever there is power change with auto thrust engaged.

62 - A few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication changes
to green. What does this mean?

B - The reversers are now fully deployed.

63 - During engine start the amber FAULT light on the ENG MASTER panel
illuminates. This indicates:

A - A failure in the automatic start sequence.

64 - Which steps of a manual start are being taken care of by the FADEC?

A - Starter valve closure and ignition cut off.

65 - Can Alpha-floor be disengaged while in Alpha Protection?

A - Yes, by manually disengaging the auto throttles.

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Automatic Flight
1 - The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

C - Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

2 - How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

A - Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

B - Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
C - Both are correct.

3 - What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

A - The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

4 - What information is supplied by the IR’s and displayed on the PFD?

A - Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

5 - How long does a normal IR alignment take?

C - Approximately 10 minutes.

6 - The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

A - Alignment has been completed.

7 - An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

B - Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

8 - What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:

 C - Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

9 - A/THR in white means that A/THR is:

C - Active

10 - The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

B - No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR
was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

11 - What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match
the clock date?

A - Check Data Base Cycle.

12 - Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

A - The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
B - The respective ADIRU will become deenergized.
C - Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.
D - All of the above.

13 - While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:

C - The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick
deflection is proportional to AOA.

14 - What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

B - 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.

15 - What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

B - FMGC position & actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

16 - The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to

obtain some additional thrust?

B - Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

17 - What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed
on the PFD’s?
 B - Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

18 - Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

A - Yes.

19 - During the takeoff phase:

A - SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed
reference

20 - If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

D - The ADIRU is not energizeD: AD and IR information is lost.

21 - Which of the following statements is always true when operating in

alternate law?

A - Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

22 - Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

D - Alpha floor.

23 - What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

C - Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.

24 - If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach

restrictions?

C - Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden.

25 - The DDRMI provides the pilot with:

D - Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

26 - The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:

A - When one or more IR’s are operating on aircraft battery power.

B - For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.
C - Both are correct.

27 - If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?

 B - SECs.

28 - Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?

C - DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data
for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.

29 - While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and

subsequent return to neutral will command:

A - A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected
for pitch attitude.

30- In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the
most complete list?

B - Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and
High speed.

31 - When in alternate law, all protections except _______ protection will be

lost.

D - Load factor.

32 - When does the sideslip indicator change to a blue Beta target?

B - Any EPR exceeds 1.25, and EPR’s differ by more than 0.30

33 - High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:

D - Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall
the aircraft.

34 - What is the function of the FACs?

D - Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and
windshear protection

35 - What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

B - DMC failure.

36 - If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

 A - Pressing and holding the related systems page pb on the ECAM control panel; the
page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
B - Rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to
either the Captain or First Officer’s BND.
C - Both are correct.

37 - Can the aircraft be controlled with a loss of all electrics?

A - Yes.

38 - The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM
position indicate that:

B - ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI; ADIRU 2 is

supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

39 - What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?

C - Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

40 - How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s) are installed?

C - Three

41 - On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?

A - FMGC 1

42 - After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display
units?

C - Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with
DMC #3.

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Fire Protection
1 - The avionics compartment is the only area where there is no fire
extinguishing system installed.

A - True.

2 - Engine fire loops are installed in the:

A - Pylon nacelle
B - Core
C - Fan
D - All the above

3 - If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within _____ seconds of each
other a _____ will occur.

D - 5 sec./ a FIRE warning

4 - The aircraft has dual fire detector loops to ensure that a fault in one fire loop
will not affect fire detection capabilities.

A - True

5 - If there is an APU fire in flight the APU:

B - Must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.

6 - Fire protection for the cargo compartments includes:

C - One single shot fire extinguisher agents which can be discharged to either
compartment.
 7 - The engine extinguishing agent switch is armed when:

C - The engine fire switch is released out.

8 - The APU test switch on the APU Auto Exting panel when pushed will:

A - Test APU fire warning.

9 - When the APU FIRE SWITCH is released out:

C - The APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.

10 - DISCH light on either the engine or APU fire agent switches indicates:

B - The extinguisher bottle has been discharged.

11 - The GEN 1 LINE smoke light indicates:

B - Smoke in the avionics ventilation system.

12 - Can the APU FIRE test be performed using battery power only?

A - Yes.

13 - When the aircraft is on the ground and the APU is started on battery power
only, is fire protection available?

A - Yes, the APU will initiate an auto shutdown and discharge the extinguishing agent.

14 - How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?

15 - APU fire detection is accomplished by:

B - Two parallel fire detection loops.

16 - Engine heat sensing are located in pylon nacelle, engine core and fan
section.

A - True.

17 - After an APU fire has been detected how long will the chime continue to
sound?

A - Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
 B - Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU FIRE push button.
C - Both are correct.

18 - STATUS page: INOP SYS indicates “ENG1 LOOP B”.

B - One detection loop for engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for both engines is still
available.

19 - Which of the following have automatic fire extinguishing systems?

A - APU, and lavatory waste bins.

20 - The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of:

B - Four smoke detectors and a two channel smoke detection control unit.

21 - If an engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red FIRE
annunciator light extinguish?

B - Only after the fire warning no longer exists.

22 - How long will the red APU FIRE pb on the overhead be illuminated?

B - For as long as the fire warning is present.

23 - With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement

is true?

C - There is only one fire bottle, when it is discharged both amber DISCH lights come
on.

24 - Should you lose both loops or FDU, fire detection is no longer available for
the respective engine or the APU

A - True

25 - What is indicated by a missing red APU thermal plug during an exterior

preflight?

B - An APU fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.

26 - If an engine fire is detected, when will the guarded red ENG FIRE push
button light extinguish?
 A - Only after the fire warning no longer exists.

27 - In the event a lavatory smoke detector detects smoke:

C - warnings will be generated in the cockpit and in the cabin.

28 - Are there any warnings to alert ground personnel when there is a fire in the
APU compartment?

C - Yes, the external fire warning horn will sound and the APU red fire light will
illuminate.

29 - What systems are affected when the guarded red ENGINE FIRE push button
is pushed and released?

A - The Master Warning and the chime will be canceled and the AGENT pb’s will be
armed.
B - All fluids, pneumatics and electrics relating to that engine are shut off
C - Both are correct.

30 - The avionics smoke detection system consists of the following:

B - A smoke detector, and smoke detection control unit.

31 - Will an APU fire test shut down the APU?

B - No.

32 - Illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light indicates:

C - Smoke has been detected in the avionics compartment ventilation duct.

33 - In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:

C - The crew must depress the appropriate DISCH switch.

34 - How many halon fire extinguishing cylinders are there per engine?

A - Each engine has two fire extinguishers.

35 - The APU provides for automatic fire extinguishing:

A - On the ground only.

 36 - You have detected avionics smoke. You have selected the GEN 1 LINE push
button off and the RAT has been deployed. Generator 2 has been removed from
the system. Which of the following is TRUE?

C - The aircraft will be in the Emergency Electrical Configuration

37 - After depressing the CARGO SMOKE TEST push button once, a satisfactory
test of the aft cargo compartment smoke detector consist of:

A - Two complete cycles with associated warnings.

38 - In conjunction with illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light and MASTER
CAUT light:

A - The BLOWER and EXTRACT push button FAULT lights will be illuminated.

39 - If you perform the APU FIRE TEST with only DC power available, you get the
MASTER WARN on the ECAM.

B - False.

40 - In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:

C - A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.

41 - How does the APU fire test on battery power differ from the APU fire test
with all busses powered?

B - While on battery power, only the red APU FIRE and AGENT/DISC push button will
illuminate.

42 - During the walk-around, you have to check that the APU Fire extinguisher
overpressure indication (green disc) is in place. This is an indication that the fire
bottle has not been discharged.

B - False.

43 - The AFT SMOKE light closes the aft cargo inlet and outlet isolation valves
and shuts off the aft cargo extraction fan.

A - True.

44 - Each lavatory is equipped with:

 C - One smoke detector, and for lavatory waste bins, an automatically discharging fire
extinguisher.

45 - Each engine nacelle and pylon area is equipped with:

A - Two fire detection loops.

46 - In addition to the CRC and red MASTER WARN light, a good engine fire test
will display which of the following (AC power available)?

C - E/WD red 1 (2) ENG FIRE warning, lower ECAM engine page, red FIRE annunciator,
red ENG FIRE push button, and AGENT SQUIB/DISC.

47 - If an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU shuts down automatically
and the agent is discharged ______ after the warning is activated.

C - 3 seconds.

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FMS and Navigation

1 - What are the different types of flight guidance?

C - Managed and selected.

2 - One A/P can be engaged on the ground if the engines are not running.

B - This A/P will disengage when one engine is started.

3 - When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS updates
its position at takeoff using:

C - The navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU by the
pilot.

4 - The takeoff bias is:

A - Replaced when a bias is computed based on radio position.

5 - With the DATA selector set to HDG, the time remaining until the completed
IRS alignment is displayed on the control display. How long does it take normally?

D - Approximately 10 minutes

6 - How does the FMGS derive Vapp?

A - Vapp=Vls+5+(1/3 surface headwind component).

7 - When flying at cruise altitude, the aircraft navigates using radio navaids
only.

B - False.
 8 - The IR alignment count down stops one minute prior to accomplishment and
the ALIGN lights are flashing. Why does it happen?

C - It is an indication that alignment has stopped as the present position data has not
been entered from the FMGS.

9 - What is managed climb speed below 10,000 feet?

C - 250 knots.

10 - The selected database date has expired. When must the active data base
be changed?

A - Prior to entering the preflight data.

11 - Which of the following navaids can be autotuned?

A - ILS and ADF (for NDB data base approaches).

B - VOR and DME.
C - Both are correct.

12 - Cost Index = 0 (zero) corresponds to:

A - Minimum fuel consumption (max range)

13 - While taxiing on the ground, the FMGS displays the position of the aircraft
using:

B - IRS only.

14 - With the autopilot engaged, either sidestick can be moved freely.

B - False, moving either sidestick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengage

15 - When the aircraft is in the Managed Guidance mode, it is:

D - Following lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.

16 - What is managed climb speed above 10,000 feet?

D - Econ climb speed.

17 - An amber box on the MCDU screen indicates:

 B - A mandatory data entry.

18 - When can managed vertical navigation be engaged?

A - Only after managed speed has been engaged.

19 - Managed guidance is engaged by:

B - Pushing on the desired FCU selector knob.

20 - What speed will the FMGS use in an Expedite climb?

A - Green dot speed.

21 - The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?

D - All modes except Plan.

22 - How does the FMGC compute radio position?

C - IRS, DME/DME.

23 - You have been cleared to intercept the localizer. You have pushed the LOC
push button on the FCU. If all necessary data has been entered in the MCDU, can
you now engage both autopilots?

C - No, the APPR pushbutton must be pushed.

24 - What does pushing the APPR push button do?

D - Arms managed vertical navigation.

25 - What does pushing the APPR push button do?

A - Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localizer and glide slope if the
information has been entered into the MCDU.

26 - During a turnaround, you notice that there is a residual ground speed on

both NDs. How do you correct this?

C - It is possible to carry out a rapid alignment by turning off all 3 ADIRS momentarily.

27 - SRS will command:

 B - V2 or current aircraft speed (whichever is higher) in the case of an engine failure.

28 - In flight, either the AP/FD pitch control, or autothrust may acquire and hold
a target speed or Mach number, depending on the engaged modes. Speed control
is “Managed” when the target comes from the SPD/MACH FCU window.

B - False.

29 - The FMGS data base contains:

A - Performance information, such as engine fuel flow, engine thrust, green dot data
(L/D data), etc.
B - Navigation information, such as navaids, waypoints, airways, airports, runways,
etc.
C - Both are correct.

30 - If one GPS receiver fails, the three ADIRUs automatically select the only
operative GPS receiver.

A - True.

31 - FMGC 1 is not working. To enter data into the FMGC, which MCDU would
you use?

C - Either MCDU 1 or MCDU 2.

32 - The pilot interfaces with the FMGS using the:

A - FCU.
B - Thrust Levers.
C - MCDU.
D - All of the above.

33 - When is the SRS active?

A - During a Go Around (after the thrust levers are placed in the TOGA position) up to
the acceleration altitude.
B - At T/O, when TOGA or FLX power is set, SRS is displayed on the FMA and provides
guidance up to the acceleration altitude.
C - Both are correct.

34 - The energy circle is a green arc, centered on the aircraft’s position and
oriented towards the current track line. It is displayed on the NDs during descent,
when HDG or TRK mode is selected.

A - True.

35 - Can the crew depress the RMP ON NAV pushbutton and use the RMP for
navigation simultaneously with FMGC autotuning?

B - No, RMP backup tuning supersedes the autotuning function of both FMGC’s.

36- The Captain’s FMA indicates - FD2 in column five, line two. What does this
mean?

C - FMGC #1 has “timed out” and FMGC #2 is now providing flight guidance for both
pilots.

37 - What do the white round lights on the FCU display mean?

C - Managed guidance has been armed or engaged.

38 - During descent, if you push the Expedite (EXPED) push button, what speed
will the aircraft try to maintain?

B - 340 knots

39 - OPEN CLIMB (OP CLB) is a Managed mode.

B - False.

40 - If you have depressed the EXPED push button and want to cancel this
function, how could this be accomplished?

B - Pull the altitude, vertical speed, or speed knob.

41 - The LOC mode disengages when:

A - Another lateral mode is engaged.

B - The pilot presses the LOC pushbutton again (engaging the HDG/TRK mode on the
current HDG/TRK).
C - Both are correct.

42 - Will the aircraft capture and navigate via the ILS signals if the ILS push
button on the FCU is not pushed?
 A - Yes.

43 - The Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) consists of _______

identical display units.

C-6

44 - The three Display Management Computers (DMCS) acquire and process all
input from airplane sensors and computers to generate the display images.

A - True

45 - The aircraft has _______ Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s).

B-3

46 - GPWS aural and visual warnings cannot be inhibited.

B - False

47 - Selection of the correct takeoff runway on the FMGC prior to each flight is
necessary because:

C - Selection of the correct runway permits the FMGC to update its position at
takeoff.

48 - The two basic modes of flight guidance are:

B - Managed and selected.

49 - Both autopilots can be engaged and active in any phase of flight.

B - False

50 - All navaids are normally autotuned by:

A - The FMGC

51 - VOR data can be displayed on:

C - First two statements are correct

52 - What is the preferred method of radio position updating for the FMGS?
 C - DME/DME

53 - The windshear function of the FAC’s is independent of the flight director

on/off switch.

A - True

54 - All PFD displays except attitude; speed; heading; altitude; and vertical
speed are removed when pitch attitude exceeds 25 degrees nose up or 13
degrees nose down.

A - True

55 - Sidestick position and max. sidestick deflection are displayed on the

ground on the PFD:

B - After the first engine start.

56 - The airspeed indication on the PFD starts at:

D - 30 kts.

57 - The speed trend arrow on the PFD airspeed scale indicates the speed value
that will be attained in _____ seconds if the acceleration remains constant.

58 - Radio Height is displayed on the PFD:

A - Below 2500 feet.

59 - The Armed Vertical Modes are displayed on the Flight Mode Annunciator on
the second line in:

A - Blue or magenta.

60 - The Engaged Vertical Modes are displayed on the Flight Mode Annunciator
on the first line in:

A - Green or Blue

61- ILS 1 information is displayed on ______ when operating in the rose ILS
mode:

C - PFD 1 & ND 2
 62 - The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates:

C - When one or more ADIRU’s; are supplied by airplane battery only.

63 - In the event of failure of the AIR DATA function of ADIRU 1 or 2; the affected
displays can be manually selected over to ADR 3 by the:

B - AIR DATA selector.

64 - When a double entry is needed on the MCDU (e.g. wind direction/speed:

270/110) the separating slash must be used. The trailing entry of a pair must be
preceded by a slash if it is entered alone.

A - True

65 - Box prompts on the MCDU indicate data:

B - Entry is required for minimum FMGS operation.

66 - An FMGS message which requires immediate attention is displayed in:

B - Amber

67 - If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the Takeoff Page of the MCDU:

C - A FLX takeoff is not available.

68 - Zero Fuel Weight is entered on:

A - Init B page.

69 - If the SPD/MACH knob on the FCU is not pulled within a predetermined time
to engage selected speed:

B - The selection is lost and dashes are re-displayed.

70 - When the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled:

C - OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT engages.

71 - The Standby Attitude indication will remain available for ______ minutes
after total electrical failure.

A-5
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Doors
1 - How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked?

D - The red ring below the release button should be in view.

2 - Opening a passenger door from the outside disarms the door and the
escape slide.

A - True.

3 - What does illumination of the red cabin pressure light represent on the main
cabin door?

B - This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door should
not be opened.

4 - The cargo doors are powered by:

C - The yellow hydraulic system.

5 - The forward and aft cargo doors can be opened from:

B - The outside only

6 - On the ECAM DOOR/OXY page, the SLIDE indication appears _____ when the
slide is not disarmed.

A - White.

7 - Each passenger door has one CABIN PRESSURE warning light that:

A - Warns of residual pressure in the cabin.

:
 8 - Where does the Door and Slide Control System (DSCS) generate warnings?

9 - What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?

10 - The cockpit windows can be opened both from inside and outside.

B - False.

11 - What does illumination of the white slide armed light represent on the main
cabin door?

B - This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened
from inside the aircraft.

12 - Can the flight compartment sliding windows be used as emergency exits?

B - Yes, there are escape ropes mounted above each window behind an access panel.

13 - When the electric pump is operating the FWD or AFT cargo doors, the only
other yellow system devices that can operate are braking and engine 2 reverse.

A - True.

14- When the slide arming lever, on the emergency opening system, is in the
ARMED position, where is the slide connected?

C - To the floor brackets on both sides of the door.

15 - When the Cargo door switch for the yellow hydraulic pump is in use, the
flight controls are:

B - Inhibited

16 - The cockpit door:

C - Normally opens into the cockpit but can be forced in either direction

17 - When opened in an emergency, the passenger entry doors:

A - Pneumatically assisted into the open position

18- If door handle is lifted and the white indicator illuminates, what does this
mean?
:
A - The escape slide is armed and if you go on lifting the handle, door opens and slide
will deploy.

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Pneumatic
1 - Engine bleed air temperature is controlled by:

B - A pre-cooler that uses fan air.

2 - If BMC1 fails BMC2 takes over all monitoring functions except:

A - Engine 1 and APU leak detection.

3 - Bleed air normally comes from the _______ of the engine.

B - Intermediate stage.

4 - In flight if the air pressure is insufficient even with the HP valve open:

A - The engine spools up automatically.

5 - The pressure regulating and shutoff valve will close if _______ pressure is
_______ or _______ airflow occurs

C - Upstream / low / reverse

6 - The crossbleed valve has two electric motors; one for the automatic mode
and one for the manual mode:

A - True

7 - The overheat detection system uses a single loop for:

A - The pylons and APU.

8 - The APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates amber for an APU:

 C - Bleed leak.

9 - The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:

B - The APU bleed valve is open.

10 - Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to
which area?

C - The Mixing unit.

11 - Temperature regulation for the A320 is controlled by:

A - One zone controller and two pack controllers.

12 - Should both channels fail in a zone controller:

B - Temperature optimization and the backup mode are lost.

13 - The lavatory/galley extract fan operates:

C - Continuously when electrical power is available.

14 - If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails; pack flow will
go to what rate?

C - High.

15 - What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected
ON?

B - The outflow valve opens if cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.

16 - When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches are in OVRD; air from the
air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.

A - True.

17 - How many motors are available for the outflow valve?

C-3

18 - Transfer between the two cabin pressure controllers is:

 B - Automatic after landing or in case the operating controller fails.

19 - The maximum cabin descent rate is limited in automatic to:

B - 750 ft/min.

20 - The third motor (manual) in the pressurization system is activated:

C - When the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL switch is positioned to MAN.

21 - When the cabin vertical speed exceeds _______ fpm; the vertical speed
display on ECAM _______.

C - 1800 / flashes green

22 - The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for:

A - Air Conditioning, water pressurization and engine starting

B - Wing anti-icing.
C - Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
D - All of the above.

23 - High pressure air has ______ sources.

B-3

24 - With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illuminate
when:

A - The valve position differs from that of the push button.

25 - Air bleed from the engines is:

B - Cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from Fan section.

26 - If a Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails:

C - The remaining BMC will automatically assume most of the failed BMC’s functions.

27 - A leak detection system detects any overheating in the vicinity of hot air
ducts.

A - True.
 28 - When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak:

C - The wing anti-ice on the associated side will be lost, and the engine anti-ice on
the associated side will continue to function.

29 - Each bleed valve is electrically operated and controlled pneumatically by

its associated BMC.

B - False.

30 - If a BMC detects a bleed leak:

B - All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will
automatically close.

31 - If one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed
system to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary:

A - Overpressure
B - Overtemperature
C - Wing leak
D - All of the above.

32 - Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:

A - Detection loops associated with BMC #1.

B - Detection loops associated with BMC #2.
C - The APU BMC.
D - All of the above.

33 - With the loss of pneumatic system pressure, the engine bleed valve will:

D - Assume the closed position.

34 - Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by:

C - Two bleed monitoring computers.

35 - ECAM BLEED page: when is the GND symbol displayed?

A - Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.

36 - In automatic mode, the crossbleed valve opens when the system is using
APU bleed air.

A - It closes if the system detects an air leak (except during engine start).

37 - What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply
the corresponding engine bleed valve?

C - HP valve opens, IP stage remains in the same configuration.

38 - When additional pneumatic air is required for anti-ice, engine starting, or

air conditioning:

A - Additional pneumatic air will be requested by the BMC to the FADECs or the APU.

39 - When selected, APU bleed air:

B - Has priority over engine bleed air.

40 - With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X
BLEED selector to AUTO, the APU will:

B - Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic
crossbleed valve automatically opens.

41 - Which source controls the crossbleed valve?

B - Electric.

42 - The crew may directly control the following bleed valves:

C - Engine, APU, crossbleed.

43 - APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system if the APU speed is above
_____:

D - 95%

44- A check valve near the crossbleed duct protects the APU when bleed air
comes from another source:

A - True.

45 - Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT, why can you only use one pack if
Wing Anti Ice (WAI) is on?

B - Only ENG BLEED system cannot supply 2 packs and WAI.

46 - Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and

limits the temperature at:

D - 200°C

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Air Conditioning,
Pressurization and
Ventilation
1 - Conditioned air is distributed to:

B - Cockpit, fwd and aft cabins

2 - Hot air fault light illuminates on the air conditioning panel,

C - The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close.

3 - Does the trim air provide the warm air or the cold air to the air conditioning
system?

B - Warm air

4 - In case of zone controller primary and secondary channel failure, what

temperatures are maintained by pack one and pack two?

C - 20 °C (68 °F) for pack 1 and 10 °C (50 °F) for pack 2

5 - In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilation

system controls the temperature of the cooling air by:

D - Passing air through a skin heat exchanger

6 - To enable Ram air to the mixture unit, The Ram air switch should be used:
 B - Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi.

7 - Pack controller, primary channel failure.

A - The secondary computer operates as a backup mode and regulation is not

optimized

8 - Pack controller, secondary channel failure

A - No effect on pack regulation backup mode is lost

9 - Pack controller, primary and secondary channel failure

A - Pack outlet temperature is controlled to between 5 and 30 deg.C by the anti-ice

valve

10 - Hot air pressure regulating valve failed open:

C - No effect

11 - Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is
automatically selected:

A - High

12 - Trim air valve, each one optimizes the temperature by:

A - Adding hot air

13 - Hot air pressure regulating valve:

A - Regulates the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs

14 - Pack flow control valve:

A - Is pneumatically operated and electrically controlled

15 - Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone
cannot be satisfied:

B - The minimum idle is increased automatically

16 - What is the normal maximum cabin altitude?

 A - 8,000 ft

17 - What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin?

B - 1 psi.

18 - It is permissible to use simultaneously packs and Lp ground unit during

long stops in a hot airfield?

B - No

19 - What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and
pressurization?

C - Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated
air.

20 - During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you
expect to find the avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be
in?

B - Open.

21 - What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?

D - They automatically close.

22 - The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of:

D - A TRIM AIR valve.

23 - When does normal pressurization occur?

C - Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll.

24 - When does normal depressurization occur?

B - It is complete 1 minute after touchdown.

25 - Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to LO?

A - With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and improve fuel
efficiency.
 26 - Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL
VALVE fault light?

B - Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch
position.

27 - Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:

A - LGCIU, ADIRU, FMGS, and EIU.

28 - What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air?

D - One zone controller that passes information and instructions to two pack
controllers for three zones.

29 - When would you select RAM AIR ON?

B - Dual pack failure or smoke removal.

30 - What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted?

A - A signal is sent to the zone controller requesting a different temperature.

31 - With APU BLEED ON and engine BLEED switches ON with engines running,
what is the position of the engine bleed valves?

A - Closed

32 - Pressurization is normally automatic. Can you interfere with it?

A - Yes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to OVERRIDE and MAN V/S CTL toggle switch.

33 - Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to HI?

C - With a high passenger load in hot conditions in order to help reduce the cabin
temperature.

34 - What is the function of the ram air valve?

B - Emergency smoke removal and ventilation in the event of dual pack failure.

35 - Placing the EXTRACT push button to override:

C - Insures the extract fan will continue to be energized.

 36 - The Ram Air valve:

D - Must be manually activated.

37 - What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?

A - Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi.

38 - With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which valves are
closed when the ditching push button is selected on?

A - All valves below the water line.

39 - What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin?

B - 1 psi.

40 - The HOT AIR valve push button controls:

B - The hot air manifold.

41 - Both pressurization auto controllers are set by the active flight plan loaded
in the MCDU. The QNH entry on the MCDU Approach Performance page refines
the depressurization schedule for the landing.

A - True.

42 - Aft cargo indications may be found on which ECAM page(s)?

D - The CRUISE page and the COND page.

43 - Avionics ventilation system indications may be found on which ECAM

page(s)?

B - Only the CAB PRESS page.

44 - When APU is supplying the packs, the pack controller sends a demand
signal to increase airflow when a zone temperature cannot be satisfied. This
signal is sent to the:

B - APU ECB.

45 - In case of zone controller primary and secondary channel failure, what

temperatures are maintained by Packs 1 and 2?

C - 20 deg.C for Pack one and 10 deg.C for Pack two

46- The PACK FLOW controller is set to NORM and yet the ECAM display shows
PACK FLOW to be high. How is this possible?

C - HI flow is automatically selected regardless of PACK FLOW selector position

because air is only being supplied by the APU.

47 - When would you select PACK FLOW to HI?

A - Smoke removal or hot/humid conditions.

48 - Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air?

D - Recirculating fans draw cabin air to a mixing unit where conditioned air is added.

49 - How many temperature selectors are there on the A320? How many
temperature zones are there?

B - Three rotary temperature selectors, one each for the cockpit zone, the forward
cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone.

50 - The temperature selectors are located in:

A - The cockpit

51- During normal flight, the avionics ventilation system controls the
temperature of the cooling air by:

D - Passing air through a skin heat exchanger.

52 - Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration:

D - De-energizes the blower fan, extract fan runs, and opens the air conditioning
extract valves.

53 - How can you change controllers during flight?

B - Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then back to
AUTO.
 54 - Hot air “FAULT” light illuminates on the air conditioning panel.

C - The hot air press reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close.

55 - How many trim air valves are there?

B - Three: one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin
zone.

56 - What position do the pack valves go to in the event of a loss of the bleed
system pressure?

D - Closed.

57 - The RAM AIR switch should be used:

B - Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi.

58 - What is the function of the Pack Flow selector?

A - Allows the pilot to increase pack flow but will not allow a manual decrease in flow
if needed by the aircraft demands.
B - Always allows high flow regardless of switch position when the APU is used for air
conditioning.
C - Both are correct.

59 - Which configuration is the avionics ventilation system in while airborne

with no abnormals present?

D - Closed.

60 - What is the maximum altitude associated with the pressurization system?

A - 39,100 feet

61 - Trim air valves are controlled by:

A - The zone controller.

62 - Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation?

C - Only the aft cargo compartment is heated and ventilated. Cabin ambient air is
mixed with hot trim air and drawn through isolation valves by extraction fans.
 63 - The APU BLEED FAULT indicates that the main APU controller is in fault.

B - False.

64 - Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:

B - The cargo ventilation controller.

65 - The vent fan runs any time there is a normal ships power and the isolation
valves are open.

A - True.

66 - The cabin zone temperature sensors are ventilated by the air extracted by
the lavatory and galley fans.

A - True.

67 - Placing the BLOWER push button to override:

C - De-energizes the blower fan.

68 - Pressurization indications are found on which ECAM page(s)?

C - The in-flight ECAM cruise page and the CAB PRESS page.

69 - How many outflow valves are there?

B - One valve with two doors.

70 - At what cabin altitude do you get an ECAM warning?

C - 9,550 feet

71 - When the pack flow control knob is positioned to HI, air flow is:

C - 120% of normal rate.

72 - If you select a position other than the AUTO detent on the LDG ELEV AUTO
selector, how can you see the actual landing elevation value?

C - On the ECAM CRUISE or the PRESS page.

73 - What will cause the ENG BLEED fault light to come on?
 C - Wing or engine leak on associated side.

74 - What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR FAULT light indicate?

A - A duct overheat is detected.

B - The Aft Cargo Pressure Regulating valve closes.
C - The system will reset if the ISOL VALVE switch is ON.
D - All of above.

75 - During Ground function operation, the Outflow Valve is:

A - Fully open.

76 - The outflow valve is powered by:

B - One of three electric motors.

77 - The purpose of the safety valve is to avoid:

A - Excessive positive pressure differential.

B - Excessive negative differential.
C - Both are correct.

78 - When landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is sent to the
controller from:

A - FMGS.

79 - The mixing unit is connected to:

A - Packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and Lp ground connector

80 - Once set to “ON” the air conditioning packs operate:

A - Automatically and independently of each other

81 - Emergency ram air inlet. When set to “ON” the ram air valve will open and
supply airflow:

B - Diff. press < 1 psi, and ditching not selected

82 - Cond. Zone regulator fault (primary channel failed):

 A - Cabin zone is at fixed temperature

83 - Temperature control is automatic and is regulated by:

C - Zone controllers, pack 1 and 2 controllers

84 - If a pack controller fails (primary and secondary channel failure), the pack
outlet air temperature is controlled by:

C - Anti-ice valve

85 - The zone controller optimizes temperature by action on:

B - Trim air valve

86 - When using APU bleed to supply the packs, with the pack flow selector at
LO, the pack airflow is:

C - 120% of normal

87 - The pack flow control valve closed automatically in case of:

A - Pack overheat, engine starting, or operation of the fire or ditching push button
B - Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase
C - Trim air valve failure
D - All of the above.

88 - In case of trim air system fault (zone controller primary channel failure),
the secondary channel of the zone controller regulated the zone temperature at:

B - 24 deg.C

89 - In case of total zone controller failure:

C - Hot air and trim air valves close and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature (20
deg.C pack 1 and 10 deg.pack2)

90 - During landing run, Ram Air Inlet flaps open when speed is less than:

C - 70 kts (after 20 seconds delay)

91 - The ditching switch when selected sends a closure signal to:

 A - Outflow valve
B - Ram air inlet and ventilation extract valves
C - The pack flow control valves
D - All of the above

92 - In flight with pressure controller 1 in use, if it fails:

B - Transfers automatically to controller 2

93 - In normal operation, pressurization is:

A - Fully automatic

94 - During ground function operation, the outflow valve is:

A - Fully open

95 - To see the operation of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call ECAM:

C - Press page

96 - Two identical, independent, automatic digital pressurization controllers are

used for system control:

A - One controller active, one in standby

97- Which controller generates excess cabin altitude and pressure signals for
ECAM indication in manual mode:

B - No.1

98 - The safety valves are operated:

C - Pneumatically

99 - The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid:

A - Excessive positive differential pressure

B - Excessive negative differential pressure
C - All of the above

100 - When mode selector is selected to manual, the outflow valve is controlled
by signals sent via controller 1 or 2
 B - False

101- On ECAM Cab. pressure page, the outflow valve indicator changes to
amber if:

C - It is fully open in flight

102 - On ECAM Cab. press page, the safety valve indication changes to amber if:

D - One safety valve is open.

103- On ECAM Cab. press page, the cabin altitude indication changes to red
when cabin altitude is:

D - > 9,550 ft

104 - Following a system 1 fault:

D - System 2 takes over automatically without any crew action

105 - The pressure safety valve opens at:

B - 8.6 psi

106- After the engine start, the Pack Flow Control Valves automatically open,
however on the ground, reopening of the valves is delayed for _____ after the
first engine start.

A - 30 seconds

107 - The Ram Air Inlet Flaps remain open during takeoff and landing to allow
extra airflow during high power situations.

B - False

108 - The temperature of the air that exits the compressor section is displayed
above the Pack Flow. It normally displays green, but displays amber for
temperatures over:

C - 230 deg.C

109 - The trim air valves are _____ controlled by the zone controller
 A - Electrically

110 - The avionics ventilation system is not capable of using external air to
provide cooling airflow

B - False

111 - During flight below _____, the Ram Air Valve can provide an emergency
source of conditioned air during non-pressurized flight.

C - 10,000 feet

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