AIBE-XVII SET-C

Question 1. Section 12 of Hindu maintenance and adoption Act

1956 deals with
(a) Rights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties
(b) Effects of adoption
(c) presumption as to the document relating to adoption
(d) cancellation of adoption

Ans. B

Question 2. Which of the following categories of cases will not

be entertaining as Public Interest Litigation(PIL)?
(a) family pension (b) petitions from right victims
(c) neglected children (d) landlord - tenant matter

Ans. D

Question 3. Who is known as father of public interest litigation

in India?
(a) Justice A. N. Ray (b) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(c) Justice R. S. Pathak (d) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

Ans. D

Question 4. which of the following is not a real purpose of

public interest litigation?

(a) Vindication of the rule of law

(b) Facilitate effective access to Justice
(c) Meaning full realization of fundamental rights
(d) Getting famous and making wealth

Ans. D

Question 5. In Hussainara Khatoon V. State of

Bihar,_________ emerged as a basic fundamental right.
(a) Right to Speedy justice
(b) Right to Clean environment
(c) Right to Free Legal Aid
(d) None of these

Ans. A & C

Question 6. Which of the following writ can be issued against

usurpation of public office?

(a) Writ of mandamus

(b) Writ of Certiorari
(c) Writ of Quo Warranto
(d) Writ of Prohibition

Ans. C

Question 7. Ridge V. Baldwin's case deals with

(a) Corporation
(b) Natural Justice
(c) State Liability
(d) Delegated Legislation

Ans. B

Question 8. Meaning of “Audi alteram partem”:

(a) A person cannot be condemned without being heard

(b) An adjudicating authority must give us picking order
(c) No man can be a judge in his own case
(d) No one should fear the courts.

Ans. A
Question 9. Rules made by Bar Council of India in exercising its
rule making power under_________.

(a) The advocates Act, 1951

(b) The advocates Act, 1954
(c) The advocates Act, 1961
(d) The advocates act, 1964

Ans. C

Question 10. Which one of the following is not a ground of

divorce in the Hindu Marriage Act?

(a) Mental Disorder

(b) Venereal Disease in communicable forum
(c) Incurable Unsound Mind
(d) Living separately for less than 3 months.

Ans. D

Question 11. Indian Christians can obtain divorce under which

of the following enactments?

(a) Special Marriage Act, 19

(b) Christian Marriage Act, 18
(c) Indian divorce Act, 1869
(d) Special Marriage Act, 1872

Ans. C

Question 12. If any advocate is aggrieved by an order of

Disciplinary committee of state bar council made intersection
35 of the Advocate or advocate general of the state may prefer
and appeal to the bar council of India within_________ days of
the date of Communication of order

(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90

Ans. C

Question 13 ABC Private Limited Company choose to convert

itself into a public company. It can do so by altering its
Memorandum of association and articles of association and by
passing________.

(a) Ordinary Resolution

(b) Special Resolution
(c) Board Resolution
(d) None of these

Ans. B

Question 14.” Doctrine of lifting of or piercing the corporate veil”

is associated with

(a) Labour Law

(b) Company Law
(c) Banking Law
(d) Service Law

Ans. B
(Fraud Conduct of Business. under section 339 of the
Companies Act, the court may order the lifting of corporate veil
and punish those who were responsible for the business
carried on by the company).

Question 15. Under which section of The Environment

(Protection) Act, 1986, an appeal to National Green Tribunal
(NGT) lies?

(a) Section 4A
(b) Section 5A
(c) Section 6A
(d) Section 7A

Ans. B

Question 16. Which one of the following fundamental duties

relates to Environmental Protection?

(a) Article 51 A (b)

(b) Article 51 A (g)
(c) Article 51 A (j)
(d) Article 51 A (k)

Ans. B

Question 17. Mr. A who was aggrieved by an order made by

controller or an adjudicating officer, made and appeal to Cyber
Appellate Tribunal, may prefer an appeal_________.

(a) In any district court

(b) In Higher Tribunal
(c) Only in High Court
(d) Only in Supreme Court

Ans. C

Question 18. Mr X, A person who is intended by Mr. Y and

originated to receive the electronic record is under the IT Act,
known as _________.

(a) Intermediate
(b) Originators Agent
(c) Addressee
(d) Key Holder

Ans. C
Question 19. The minimum number of members required for
registration of a trade union is-

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7

Ans. D

Question 20. The text of the Certified Standing Orders shall be

prominently posted by the employer in_________ and in the
language understood by the majority of his workmen.

(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Devanagari Script
(d) Language specified in 8th schedule of the constitution

Ans. B

Question 21. An advocate may, while practicing, take up

teaching of law in any educational institution which is affiliated
to a University, so long as the hours during which he is so
engaged in the teaching of law do not exceed______________
hours in a day.

(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4

Ans. B
Question 22. In which of the following Landmark case the
Advocate was held guilty of professional misconduct as he had
forged the court order?

(a) Pratap Narayan V. Y.P. Raheja

(b) Vikramaditya V. Smt. Jamila Khatoon
(c) Babulal Jain V. Subhash Jain
(d) Smt. P. Pankajam V. B.H.Chandrashekhar

Ans. A

Question 23. Suppose road accident occurs, then being an

Advocate what is the correct way of approaching the situation?

(a) FIR> petition> Summon to Insurance Company

(b) Petition> FIR> Summon to Insurance Company
(c) Summon to Insurance Company>Petition> FIR
(d) FIR>Summon to Insurance Company>Petition

Ans. A

Question 24. The principle of “Ubi jus ibi idem remedium” was
recognized in

(a) Winterbottom V. Wright

(b) Chapman V. Pickersgill
(c) Ashby V. White
(d) Rylands V. Fletcher

Ans. C

Question 25. Gloucester Grammar School Case is a Landmark

case based on which of the following maxim?

(a) Damnum sine Injuria

(b) Injuria sine damnum
(c) Volenti non fit injuria
(d) Audi alteram Partem

Ans. A

Question 26. The National Consumer Dispute Redressal

Commission under Consumer Protection Act, 2019 shall have
the jurisdiction to complaints where the value of the goods or
services paid as consideration exceeds Rupees __________.

(a) 1 crore
(b) 10 crores
(c) 50 crores
(d) 100 crores

Ans. B

Question 27. Under Section 41 of Consumer Protection Act,

2019 an appeal from the order of District Commission lies to
________.

(a) State Commission

(b) Consumer Tribunal
(c) National Commission
(d) High Court

Ans. A

Question 28. For an individual to be deemed to be resident in

India in any previous year one of the condition is :

(a) If he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during

the previous year.
(b) If he is in India for a period of 180 days or more during the
previous year.
(c) If he is in India for a period of 181 days or more during the
previous year.
(d) If he is in India for a period of 360 days or more during the
previous year.

Ans. A

Question 29. Mr Kapoor purchased a residential house in

January 2021 for Rupees 80 lakh. He sold the house in April,
2022 for Rupees 94 lakh. In this case the gain of Rupees 14
Lakh arising on account of sale of residential house will be
charged to tax under which of the following head?

(a) Income from capital gains

(b) Income from house property
(c) Income from profits and gains from business or profession
(d) Income from other sources

Ans. A

30. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the
factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called as

(a) Occupier
(b) Managing Director
(c) Chairman
(d) Manager

Ans. A

31. If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should
appoint qualified________to carry out the prescribed duties.

(a) Safety officer

(b) Welfare officer
(c) Development officer
(d) None of these

Ans. A
32. B, the proprietor of a newspaper, publishes at A‟s request,
a lible upon C in the paper, and A agrees to indemnify B
against the consequences of the publication, and all costs and
damages of any action in respect thereof. B is sued by C and
has to pay damages, and also incurs expenses. Decide in the
light of the Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act 1872.

(a) A is not liable to B upon indemnity

(b) A is liable to B upon indemnity
(c) A is not liable to C upon indemnity
(d) None of these

Ans. A

Question 33. A person whom the agent names to act for the
principle in the business of agency, under the express or
implied authority to name, is called _____________.

(a) Sub agent

(b) Substituted Agent
(c) Agent
(d) Procured Agent

Ans. B

Question 34. A __________Injunction can only be granted by

the degree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit;
the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from,
the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, which
could be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff.

(a) Temporary
(b) Perpetual
(c) Both Temporary and Perpetual
(d) None of these
Ans. B

Question 35. According to Section 5 Specific Relief Act, 1963 a

person entitled to the possession of specific immovable
property may recover it in the manner provided in _________.

(a) The Specific Relief Act, 1963

(b) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(c) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(d) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882

Ans. B

Question 36. Where the mortgagor delivers possession of the

mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to
retain such possession until payment of the mortgage-money,
and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property
in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-money, the
transaction is called an ________ mortgage.

(a) Conditional
(b) English
(c) Simple
(d) Usufructuary

Ans. D

Question 37. Mr. Manjot is a trader supplying goods from his

M/s Singh Traders. the office of the form is located in Delhi
whereas its go down are located in the state of Uttar Pradesh
Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir J and K respectively interest
rate supplies from different states during the current financial
year :

(i) Delhi- taxable supplies: rupees 21 lakh

(ii) Punjab- exempted supplies: rupees 6 lakh
(iii) Uttar Pradesh- taxable and exempted supplies: RS 3 lakh
 each respectively
(iv) J and K- Taxable and exempted supplies: rupees 8 lakh
and rupees 3 lakh respectively.

Ascertain the states in which Mr Manjot is required to take

registration Under GST

(a) Delhi, Punjab, Uttar and J & K

(b) Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and J & K
(c) Delhi and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Delhi

Ans. B

Question 38. The primary GST slabs for any regular taxpayers
are presently pegged at

(a) 0%,5%,12%,18%,26% (b) 0%,6%,12%,18%,28%

(c) 0%,5%,12%,18%,28% (d) 0%,5%,12%,16%,28%

Ans. C

Question 39 Which of the following is not an negotiable

instrument as defined under the Negotiable Instrument Act,
1881?

(a) Promissory note (b) Bill of exchange

(c) Cheque (d) Bill

Ans. D

Question 40. According to Right to Fair Compensation and

Transparency in Land Acquisition Rehabilitation and
Resettlement Act, 2013 appropriate Government can acquire
the land for which of the following purposes?
1. For strategic purposes relating to naval, military, air force,
and armed forces of the Union
2. Project for water harvesting and water conservation
structures, sanitation
3. project for project affected families
4. project for sports, Health Care, tourism, transportation or
Space Programme
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4 (c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans. D

Question 41. ‟Specified person‟ under right to fair compensation

and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement Act, 2013 means any person other than
_________.

(a) Appropriate government

(b) Government company
(c) Association of persons or trust or society wholly or
partially aided by the appropriate government or controlled
by the appropriate Government
(d) All of these

Ans. D

Question 42. Who shall be the Registrar of trademarks for the

purposes of Trade Marks Act, 1999?

(a) Controller-General of patents, designs and Trade Marks

(b) Controller-General of copyright, designs and Trade Marks
(c) Director-General of patents, designs and Trade Marks
(d) Director-General of copyright, designs and Trade Marks

Ans. A

Question 43. Which one of the following is not a type/s of IPR?

(a) Copyright (b) Patents
(c) Designs (d) Historical Indications

Ans. D

Question 44. In which of the following cases it was decided that

contract with minor is void?

(a) Carlill V. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co

(b) Chinnaih V. Ramaiah
(c) Mohori Bibee V. Dharmodas Ghose
(d) Harvey V. Facey

Ans. C

Question 45. Which of the following is/are correct with respect

to “Declaratory Decrees under The Specific Relief Act, 1963?

(a) Section 34 of the said act deals with it.

(b) It is discretionary in nature.
(c) Both, ( Section 34 of the said act deals with it) and ( It is
discretionary in nature)
(d) None of these

Ans. C

Question 46. By which of the following Amendment Act of 1985,

Anti Defection Law was added in the Constitution of India?

A. 51st Constitutional Amendment

B. 52nd Constitutional Amendment
C. 53rd Constitution Amendment
D. 54th Constitutional Amendment

Ans. B
Question 47. In which one of the following cases the Supreme
Court decided that, a constitutional amendment is a „law‟
within the meaning of article 13(2) and therefore if it violates
any of the fundamental rights it may be declared void?

(a) Sajjan Singh V. State of Rajasthan

(b) Keshavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala
(c) Indira Sawhney V. Union of India
(d) Golakhnath V. State of Punjab

Ans. D

Question 48. Uniform Civil Code in India is:

(a) Fundamental rights

(b) Directive principles of state policy
(c) Government policy
(d) Constitutional Right

Ans. B

Question 49. As per article 16, No citizen shall, on grounds only

of________ or any of them ineligible for, or discriminated
against in respect of, any employment or office under State.

(a) Religion, Race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth,

residence
(b) Religion, Age, caste, sex, descent, place of birth,
residence
(c) Religion, Race, age, sex, descent, place of birth,
residence
(d) Religion, Race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, age

Ans. A
(There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens)
Question 50. The minimum number of judges who are to sit for
the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial
question of law as to the interpretation of this constitution or for
the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be
______.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Ans. D

Question 51. According to the article 300A of the Constitution of

India, No________shall be deprived of his property saved by
authority of law.
(a) Person (b) Citizen (c) Foreigner (d) Indian

Ans. A

Question 52. Which of the following is not ‟Law‟ According to

Article 13 of Indian Constitution?

(a) Rule (b) By-laws

(c) Custom or usage (d) None of these

Ans. Delete

Question 53. Which of the following schedule deals with union

list, state list and concurrent list in constitution of India?

(a) Schedule 7 (b) Schedule 10 (c) Schedule 11

(d) Schedule 12

Ans. A

Question 54. The title of the Constitution of India is laid Down

in_____.
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 5 (c) Article 390 (d) Article
393
Ans. Delete

Question 55. Constitutional provisions of Fundamental

Rights(FRs) are given under which part of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Part I (b) Part II (c) Part III (d) Part IV

Ans. C

Question 56. Provisions for Right of Private Defence is given

between _________ of IPC.
(a) Section 74-84 (b) Section 96-106
(c) Section 107-120 (d) Section 141-160

Ans. B

Question 57. The consent is not a valid consent under Section

90 of IPC:
(a) If given under fear of injury or misconception of fact.
(b) If given by person of unsound mind.
(c) If given by child below 12 years of age.
(d) all of these

Ans. D

Question 58. Causing of the death of child in the Mother's form

is not homicide as provided under

(a) explanation III to Section 300

(b) explanation III to Section 299
(c) explanation III to Section 301
(d) explanation III to Section 302
Ans. B
59. Punishment for Defamation under Indian Penal Code is
simple imprisonment for a tem which may extend to ……. with
fine or with both.
(A) 2 Years (B) 3 Years (C) 4 Years (D) 5 Years

Ans. A

60. Assault or criminal force to women with intent to outrage

her modesty under IPC is which kind of offence?

(A) Non-Cognizable and Bailable

(B) Cognizable and Bailable
(C) Cognizable and Non-Bailable
(D) Non-Cognizable and Non- Bailable

Ans. C

61. 'A' places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and
tells 'Z', that they will fire at 'Z', if 'Z' attempts to leave the
building. 'A' is guilty of:

(A) wrongful confinement

(B) wrongful restraint
(C) Both wrongful confinement and wrongful restraint
(D) None of these

Ans. C

62. The provision of 'Plea Bargaining' under chapter XXIA of

CrPC are not applicable if the offence is committed against a
child below the age of _________.

(A) 12 years (B) 14 years

(C) 16 years (D) 18 years

Ans. B

63. Under Section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code, an offence

is punishable if it is done by a child
(A) of below seven years of age.
(B) of above seven years of age but below twelve years
having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
(C) of above seven years of age but below ten years having
attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
(D) of above seven years of age but below twelve years not
having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.

Ans. B

64. Name two essential conditions of Penal Liability.

(A) Guilty Body & Rightful Act

(B) Guilty Intent & Wrong Motive
(C) Guilty Mind & Wrongful Act
(D) Guilty Motive and Wrongful Act

Ans. C

65. Which Sections deal with the processes to compel

appearance under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 ?

(A) Sections 61 to 90
(B) Sections 154 to 173
(C) Sections 211 to 219
(D) Sections 274 to 282

Ans. A

66. An offence for which, a police officer may arrest a person

without warrant is known as

(A) Non-cognizable offence

(B) Cognizable offence
(C) Bailable offence
(D) None of these
Ans. B

67. In a summons trial case instituted on a complaint wherein

the summons has been issued to the accused, the non-
appearance or death of the complainant shall entail_______

(A) Discharge of the accused

(B) Acquittal of the accused
(C) Either discharge or acquittal depending on the facts &
circumstances of the case
(D) None of these

Ans. B

68. Suppose F.I.R. is not registered by the Station House

Officer. What are the options that the complainant has?

(A) Approach Superintendent of Police

(B) Approach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint
(C) None of these
(D) Both (Approach Superintendent of Police) & (Approach
Magistrate by filing Private Complaint)

Ans. D

69. Any police officer making an investigation under Section

160 of CrPC cannot require the attendance of a male, at a
place other than the place of his residence who is

(A) under the age of 15 years and above the age of 60 years
(B) under the age of 18 years and above the age of 60 years
(C) under the age of 15 years and above the age of 65 years
(D) under the age of 18 years and above the age of 65 years

Ans. C
70. Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code is "SECULAR"
in character was observed in which of the following case?

(A) Lalita Kumari V. State of Uttar Pradesh

(B) Arnesh Kumar's Case
(C) Mohd. Ahmed Khan V. Shah Bano Begum
(D) Selvy V. State of Kamataka

Ans. C

71. Who has the power of summary trial of a case?

(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Any Magistrate of first class specially empowered by the
High Court
(D) All of these

Ans. D

72. Which Order of Civil Procedure Code deals with Temporary

Injunction and Interlocutory Injunction?

(A) Order 38
(B) Order 39
(C) Order 40
(D) Order 41

Ans. B

73. A is a tradesman in Ahmedabad. B carries on business in

Delhi. B, by his agent in Ahmedabad, buys goods of A and
requests A to deliver them to the Western RoadwaysTransport
Company. A delivers the goods accordingly in Ahmedabad. A
may sue B for the price of the goods

(A) In Ahmedabad only

(B) In Delhi only
(C) In either Ahmedabad or Delhi
(D) Anywhere in India

Ans. C

74. Which of the following Section of Civil Procedure Code

deals with the concept of Res Judicata?

(A) Section 10
(B) Section 11
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 13

Ans. B

75. Mr. X. Mr. Y and Mr. Z are jointly and severally liable for
Rs.10,000 under a decree obtained by Mr. A. Mr. Y obtains a
decree for Rs.10,000 against Mr. A singly and applies for
execution to the Court in which the joint-decree is being
executed. Which of the following option is correct for Mr. A?

(A) Mr. A may treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under

Order 21 Rule 18.
(B) Mr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under
Order 21 Rule 18.
(C) Mr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under
Order 22 Rule 18.
(D) None of these

Ans. A

76. A, B and C are coparceners of Joint Hindu Family. They

jointly execute a mortgage in favour of Y. Y files a suit against
all of them. Summons is served to C but not to A and B. None
them appears and an ex parte decree is passed against all. A
and B applied to set aside the ex parte decree. The decree will
be set aside against

(A) Only C
(B) Only A & B
(C) A, B and C
(D) None of these

Ans. C

77. If someone lies before the court on affidavit, how it can be

tackled by the Advocate/s?

(A) Perjury Application can be filed.

(B) Withdraw from the case.
(C) File application to support that.
(D) Pay the fine for the same.

Ans. A

78. Proclamation for person absconding shall be published as

follows :

(i) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the

town or village in which such person ordinarily resides;
(ii) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house
or homestead in which such person ordinarily resides or to
some conspicuous place of such town or village;
(iii) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part
of the Court-house;
(iv) The Court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the
proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper
circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily
resides.
(A) Only ii, iii, iv are correct.
(B) Only ii and iii are correct.
(C) Only i, iii, iv are correct.
(D) All i, ii, iii, iv are correct.

Ans. D

79. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) First appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.

(B) Second appeal can be on substantial question of law only.
(C) Second appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.
(D) First appeal may or may not be in the High Court, Second
appeal has to be in the High Court.

Ans. C

80. As per Order V1, Pleading shall mean ?

(A) Plaint
(B) Written Statement
(C) Both Plaint and Written Statement
(D) None of these

Ans. C

81. Which of the following Order deals with "Death, Marriage

and Insolvency of Parties"?

(A) Order 20 (B) Order 21

(C) Order 22 (D) Order 23

Ans. C

82 The doctrine of 'Res Gestae' has been discussed in which

Section of the Evidence Act?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 6

(C) Section 10 (D) Section 11
Ans. B

83. When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to

the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then
an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be
an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the
suit. It has been so provided under which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Section 17 (B) Section 18

(C) Section 19 (D) Section 21

Ans. C

84. Judicial Evidence means

(A) Evidence received by Courts in proof or disproof of facts

(B) Evidence received by Police Officer
(C) Evidence received by Home Department
(D) Evidence received by Tribunal.

Ans. A

85. Which of the following is not a 'document' according to the

Indian Evidence Act. 1872?

(A) An inscription on a metal plate or stone

(B) A map or plan
(C) A caricature
(D) None of these

Ans. D

86. "Presumptions as to Dowry Deaths" is given under which

Section?
(A) 113A (B) 113B (C) 114A (D) 114B
Ans. B
87. Which of the following is not 'Secondary evidence' as per
Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Copies made from the original by mechanical processes

which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy, and
copies compared with such copies.
(B) Copies made from or compared with the original.
(C) Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by
some person who has himself seen it.
(D) Copies not certified under Section 63.

Ans. D

88. Which of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code,

1908 deals with the Institution of Suits?

(A) Section 22
(B) Section 24
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 28

Ans. C

89. Defendant shall, within _________ days from the date of

service of summon on him, present a Written Statement of his
defence (ORDER VIII).

(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 60 (D) 45

Ans. B

90. The Arbitral Tribunal shall not be bound by ___________ in

the determination of rules of procedure.

(A) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

(B) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(C) The Code of Criminal Procedure. 1973
(D) Both, (The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908) and (The Indian
Evidence Act. 1872)

Ans. D

91. Which of the following Section deals with "Arbitration

Agreement" in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

(A) Section 6 (B) Section 7

(C) Section 8 (D) Section 9

Ans. B

92. Under what circumstances the arbitral proceedings can be

terminated?

1. Final Arbitral award

2. Interim award
3. Where the arbitral tribunal issues an order for the
termination
(A) I and 3 (B) I and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1,2 and 3

Ans. A

93. Under Section 29 of The Arbitration And Conciliation Act,

1996 arbitral proceedings with more than one arbitrator, any
decision of the arbitral tribunal

(A) shall be made by all members

(B) shall be made by 2/3 majority of its members
(C) shall be made by the chief arbitrator
(D) shall be made by majority of its members

Ans. D

94. The provision for 'maintenance pendente lite' in Hindu

Marriage Act. 1955 is given in _________.
(A) Section 22 (B) Section 23 (C) Section 24 (D) Section 25

Ans. C

95. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of
Muslim Marriage Act. 1939 Section 2, if the husband has been
insane for a period of:

(A) 1 year (B) 2 years (C) 5 years (D) 7 years

Ans. B

96. Muslim woman has option to be governed by the provisions

of Sections 125 to 128 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973.
Which section of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on
Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with it?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 6

(C) Section 7 (D) None of these

Ans. A

97. Which of the following is not a ground of void marriage

under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act?

(A) Bigamy
(B) Degrees of Prohibited Relationship
(C) Sapinda Relationship
(D) Child marriage

Ans. D

98. Sapinda Relationship means

(A) 3rd generation (mother), 7th generation (father)

(B) 3rd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
(C) 3rd generation (mother), 4th generation (father)
(D) 2nd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)

Ans. B

99. A leading question may be asked in

(A) Examination-in-chief (B) Re-examination

(C) Cross examination (D) None of these

Ans. C

100. Extra Judicial Confession means

(A) Confessions made either to Police or person other than

Judges and Magistrates.
(B) Confessions made before Magistrates..
(C) Confessions made before Judges.
(D) None of these

Ans. A
 AIBE-XVI SET-C

1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955________ petition in which a

decree of restitution of conjugal rights has been passed to
apply to the court for a decree for divorce by showing that there
has been no restitution of conjugal rights as between parties of
marriage for a period of one year or upwards after passing of
the decree.

a) Does not permit any party to that

b) Does not permit the party against whom
c) Does permit any party to that
d) Does permit any person related to either party to that

Ans. C

2. The commission of offences under the Prohibition of Child

Marriage Act, 2006 are

a) Cognizable and bailable

b) Non cognizable and non-bailable
c) Cognizable and non-bailable
d) Non cognizable and bailable

Ans. C

3. An arbitration proceeding is a

a) Judicial proceeding
b) Quasi-judicial proceeding
c) Administrative proceeding
d) None of the above

Ans. B

4. What is ad hoc arbitration?

a) It is a proceeding administered by the parties themselves,
with rules created solely, for that specific case
b) Parties make their own arrangement with respect to all
aspects of the arbitration, including the laws and rules
(c) The seal of arbitration, the language, and the scope and
issues to be resolved bye means of arbitration.
d) (a) (b) (c)

Ans. D

5. Which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code

define the ' Mesne Profit'?

a) Section 2(4)
b) Section 2(14)
c) Section 2(6)
d) Section 2(12)

Ans. D

6. How many kinds of presumptions are there as classified by

the Supreme Court?

a) Permissive presumptions or presumptions of facts

b) Compelling presumptions or presumptions of law (
rebuttable presumptions)
c) Irrebuttable presumptions of law or conclusive p
resumptions.
d) All of them

Ans. D

7. What is the leading decision in the case of Menaka Gandhi

Vs Union of India?

a) Right of hearing
b) Separation of powers
c) Delegated legislation
d) Rule of evidence

Ans. A

8. Advocate's Act 1961 came into force on:

a) 19th May, 1961

b) 19th April, 1961
c) 1st May, 1961
d) 19th January, 1961

Ans. A

9. A Railway servant was killed in a bus accident during the

course of employment. His family members may claim
compensation under

a) The Motor Vehicle Act

b) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Either under (a) OR under (b)

Ans. D

10. "Casting Couch" in Bollywood, the Indian film industry, is an

example of

a) sexual assault
b) sexual harassment
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

Ans. B
11. According to section 2 of motor vehicles Act,1988 the term
motor cab means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to
carry not more than

a) 5 passengers including the driver

b) 6 passengers including the driver
c) 5 passengers excluding the driver
d) 6 passengers excluding the driver

Ans. D

12. The National Commission of Consumer Protection is

composed of

a) 7 members
b) 5 members
c) 8 members
d) 6 members

Ans. B

13. Which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and

Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with "amount of maintenance"?

a) Section 21
b) Section 22
c) Section 23
d) Section 24

Ans. C

14. In which of the following case the Supreme Court First of all
made an attempt to look into the question regarding the
extension of the right to life to the right to Health and other
Hygienic conditions
a) The Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs State of
Uttar Pradesh.
b) M.C Mehta Vs Union of India
c) V. Lakshmipathy Vs State of Karnataka
d) F.K. Hussain Vs Union of India.

Ans. A

15. Basel Convention is associated with one of the following

a) International Trade in Endangered species of wild Fauna

& flora
b) Climate change
c) Protection of Ozone layer
d) The control of transboundary movement of Hazardous
waste and their disposal.
Ans. D

16. The nature of Cyber crime is

a) Tangible
b) Intangible
c) Of mental Violence
d) None of the above.

Ans. B

17. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Foreign Court" means,

1908

a) A court situated outside India

b) A court situated outside India and not established under
the authority of Government of India
c) A court situated in India, applying foreign law
d) All of the above

Ans. B
18. Misuse of mechanism of PIL means-

a) filing PIL for protection of private interest

b) filing PIL for oblique motive
c) filing PIL only for publicity
d) All of the above

Ans. D

19. What is meant by procedural ultra-vires?

a) It is the non-observance of the procedural norms by the

rule-making authority
b) It may make the rule ultra vires due to non observance of
rule-making authority and hence become void
c) It means the lacuna in the procedure of law
d) (a) and (b)

Ans. D

20. The ground of "error of law apparent on the face of the

record" is connected with which of the writ?

a) Quo-warranto
b) Mandamus
c) Habeas Corpus
d) Certiorari

Ans. D

21. Under Civil Procedure Code find the incorrect match:

a) Section 5............ Revenue Court

b) Section 7............ Provincial Small Causes
c) Section 9............ Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts
d) Section 8………. Presidency Small Cause Courts.
Ans. C

22. What is the Period of Limitation for expeditious disposal of

Suit under Specific Relief Act 1963

a) 6 month
b) 10 month
c) 12 month
d) 18 month

Ans. C

23. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of

imprisonment

a) Not exceeding seven years

b) Exceeding seven years
c) For life
d) None of the above

Ans. A

24. Harbouring an offender who has escaped from custody, or

whose apprehension has been ordered, if the offence be capital
is dealt under

a) Section 215 of IPC

b) Section 216 of IPC
c) Section 217 of IPC
d) Section 218 of IPC

Ans. B

25. The maxim 'actus not facit reum nisi mens sit rea means

a) There can be no crime without a guilty

b) Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
c) Crime is the result of guilty mind
d) In crime intention is relevant, motive is irrelevant

Ans. A

26. Law laid down under section -73 of Indian Contract Act
1872 is related to which of the following cases

a) Hothester Vs De-la-tur
b) Rabinson Vs Devison
c) Hedley Vs Baxendal
d) Dikinson Vs Dads

Ans. C

27. Recovery of Specific Immovable Property may be obtained

by C.P.C within what period

a) Within 7 months
b) Within 6 months
c) Within 8 months
d) Within 10 months

Ans. B

28. Who appoints the Commissioner for rehabilitation and

resettlement under the LARR

a) LARR Authority
b) Minister of Environment and Forests
c) Central Government
d) State Government

Ans. D
29. The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C as security for good
behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period
not exceeding

a) Six months
b) Two years
c) One year
d) Three months

Ans. C

30. The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be paid to the wife
as maintenance under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C 1973 was
removed in

a) 1973
b) 1989
c) 2001
d) 2007

Ans. C

31. The term 'WIPO" stands for:

a) World Investment policy organization

b) World intellectual property organization
c) Wildlife Investigation and Policing organization
d) World institute for Prevention of organized crime

Ans. B

32. Health and education

a) All assesses
b) All assesses except company
c) Individual/HUF
d) Company only
Ans. A

33. Contractual Liability arises, where

a) There is offer and acceptance only

b) There is intention to create legal relation
c) There is loss to one party
d) The loss of one party is the gain of other

Ans. B

34. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are

a) Directory
b) Mandatory
c) None- Mandatory
d) Discretionary

Ans. B

35. Constructive res-judicata is contained in which

a) Explanation III to Section 11

b) Explanation IV to Section 11
c) Explanation VI to Section 11
d) Explanation VIII to Section 11

Ans. B

36. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding

constitutional validity of section 377 Indian Penal Code
reversed by Supreme Court

a) NALSA Vs Union of India

b) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT
c) Shabnam Hasmi Vs Union of India
d) Suresh Kaushal Vs Naz Foundation

Ans. D

37. Reference to the Arbitration is provided in which section of

the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,1996

a) Section 7
b) Section 8
c) Section 9
d) Section 10

Ans. B

38. Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following

type of conduct would be

a) Change of life
b) Evasion of justice
c) Fear, trembling
d) All of them

Ans. D

39. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian

Constitution is available in which of the following clauses?

a) Clause (1) (E)

b) Clause (1) (D)
c) Clause (1) (B)
d) Clause (1) (C)

Ans. A

40. Under which section of the Evidence Act, admissions are

defined?
a) 17
b) 16
c) 15
d) 18

Ans. A

41. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held
that the investigating officer should be allowed to refer to the
records of investigation

a) State of Karnataka Vs Yarappa Reddi

b) Mohammed Khalid Vs State of West Bengal
c) Baburam Vs State of U.P.
d) State of Rajasthan Vs Om prakash

Ans. A

42. If a party who obtained an order for leave to amend

pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he
shall not be permitted to do that without the leave of the Court

a) Fifteen days
b) Fourteen days
c) Twenty days
d) Thirty days

Ans. B

43. Punishment of advocates for misconduct has been given

under section of the Advocate's act 1961

a) 30
b) 32
c) 35
d) None
Ans. C

44. Under which Section of IPC, Professional Negligence is

often invoked against medical professionals in cases alleging
professional negligence?

a) 303A
b) 304A
c) 302
d) 305

Ans. B

45. A offers to bribe B, a public servant, as a reward for

showing A some favour in the exercise of B's official functions.
B accepts the bribe

a) A has abetted the offence define in Section 160, IPC

b) A has abetted the offence define in Section 161, IPC
c) A has abetted the offence define in Section 162, IPC
d) A has abetted the offence define in Section 163, IPC

Ans. DELETE

46. When Perpetual Injunction may be granted

a) Where the defendant is trustee of the Property for the

plaintiff.
b) Where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual
damage.
c) Compensation in money would not afford adequate relief
d) All of the above

Ans. D

47. An advocate is under an obligation to uphold the rule of law

and ensure that the public justice system is enabled to function
at its full potential. Any violation of the principle of professional
ethic by an advocate is unfortunate and unacceptable. Ignoring
even a minor violation/misconduct militates against the
fundamental foundation of the public justice system. It was said
in -

a) Hikmant ali khan Vs Ishwar Prasad Arya, (1997) 3 SCC

131
b) O.P. Sharma Vs high court of Punjab & Haryana, (2011) 6
SCC
c) LD. Jaikwal Vs state of Uttar Pradesh, (1984), (1984) 3
SCC 405
d) Shamsher singh Bedi Vs High court of Punjaba& Haryana,
(1996) 7 SCC 99.

Ans. B

48. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 contains provision

relating to

a) incorporation of company
b) formation of companies with charitable
c) effect of registration
d) Effect of memorandum and articles.

Ans. B

49. The verification of the registered office shall be furnished to

the registrar within a period of

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

Ans. A
50. Cyber law deals with

a) All activities concerning the internet

b) IPR
c) E-commerce
d) All of the above

Ans. D

51. The payment of compensation to railway employees by the

railway administration for injury by accident is governed by

a) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923

b) The payment of Wages Act, 1936
c) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
d) The Workmen Compensation Act, 1986

Ans. A

52. The minimum amount of compensation payable under

Employees Compensation Act,1923 in case of total permanent
disablement of a railway servant due to accident is Rs.

a) Rs 80,000/-
b) Rs 90,000/-
c) Rs 1,40,000/-
d) Rs 1,20,000/-

Ans. C

53. A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their
logo.

a) Copy rights
b) Trade mark
c) Patent
d) Industrial designs
Ans. B

54. The Section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, dealing

with the time of commencement of arbitral proceeding is

a) Section 20
b) Section 21
c) Section 22
d) None of the above.

Ans. B

55. Under Criminal procedure Code 1973, who shall record the
information of rape being given by a rape victim?

a) Officer in-charge of the police station

b) Deputy Superintendent of police
c) Officer not below the rank of Sub Inspector
d) Woman police officer or any Woman officer

Ans. D

56. Under the provision of the code of criminal procedure, 1973

a) Summons can be oral

b) Summons cannot be served on corporate
c) Summons are either for appearance or for producing a
document/thing
d) Summons can be served to servants in case the person
on whose name summons are made cannot be found

Ans. C

57. Every person who is a member of a defence service or hold

any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure
of the ___________
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Council of Minister
d) Both (A) and (B)

Ans. B

58. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are false for

the purpose of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

I) It is assumed that a person who is not Muslim, Santhal,

Christian, Jew or Parsi by religion is hindu
II) A person who belongs to Lingayat sub sect is assumed to
be Hindu
III) A person converted who converted to another religion
needs to follow local ritual/custom for converting back to
Hinduism

a) I only
b) I and II
c) III only
d) I and III

Ans. D

59. Provision for settlement of dispute outside court has been

provided under Section ...... of Civil Procedure Code

a) 91
b) 89
c) 51
d) 151

Ans. B

60. The Indian Evidence Act came into force on

a) 6th October, 1860
b) 1st March, 1974
c) 15th March, 1872
d) 1st September, 1872

Ans. D

61. According to the provisions of Article 315 of the Indian

Constitution:

I There shall be a public service commission for the Union

and a Public Service commission for each state.
II. The public service commission for the Union, if requested
to do by the governor of a state may, with the approval of
the president, agree to serve all or any of the needs of the
state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) I and II
d) None of them

Ans. C

62. Any private person may arrest any person who:

a) Commits non-bailable offence in his presence

b) Commits non- bailable offence and cognizable offence in
his presence
c) Commits compoundable offence in his presence
d) Commits offence in his presence or is a proclaimed
offender

Ans. B

63. How long a warrant of arrest shall remain in force?

a) 6 years
b) 10 years
c) 12 years
d) Until executed or cancelled

Ans. D

64. Rate of additional Depreciation will be---under section 32 --

Indian Income Tax Act/ TT

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 15%
d) 30%

Ans. B

65. Amount of deduction under section 24 of The Income Tax

Act from annual value is –

a) ½ of Annual Value
b) 1/3 of Annual Value
c) 3/10 of Annual Value
d) 17/10 of Annual Value

Ans. C

66. The test of reasonableness is not wholly test and its

contours are Fairley indicated by constitution.

a) Subjective
b) Objective
c) Descriptive
d) Summative

Ans. A
67. The power to enact a law relating to the citizenship of India
is left to _______ under the provisions of Article 11 of the
Indian Constitution

a) President
b) Council of ministers
c) House of people
d) Parliament

Ans. D

68. Promissory estoppel against Government agencies is

decided in:

a) Tweedle Vs Atkinson
b) Dutton Vs Poole
c) Pournami all Mills Vs State of Kerala
d) Kedar Nath Vs Gauri Mohamad

Ans. C

69. Frustration of contract is provided by which section of the

India contract Act?

a) Sec. 73;
b) Sec. 70
c) Sec. 2(d),
d) Sec. 56

Ans. D

70. Schedule II of the Employees Compensation Act 1923

deals with

a) Age factor for calculating the amount of compensation

b) List of persons who are included in the definition of
'Employee
c) List of occupational diseases
d) List of injuries Deemed to Result in Permanent Total
Disablement

Ans. D

71. Admission can be broadly categorised into:

a) Judicial
b) Extra-judicial
c) Either A and B
d) Both A and B.

Ans. D

72. Section 66, of Indian Evidence Act lays down:

a) A notice must be given before secondary evidence can be

received under section 65(a), Indian Evidence Act
b) Notice to produce a document must be in writing
c) Order XI, Rules 15, of Civil Procedure Code, prescribes
the kind of notice to produce a document
d) All of them

Ans. DELETE

73. Maxim "Res Ipsa Loquitur"

a) The thing speaks for itself

b) Where there is right there is remedy
c) Where there is remedy there is right
d) Where there is no fault there is no remedy

Ans. A

74. The Committee which led to the passing of the Criminal

Law (Amendment) Act. 2013 was headed by
a) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
b) Justice Altamas Kabir
c) Justice J.S. Verma
d) Justice A.S. Anand

Ans. C

75. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure Code non-

cognizable offences are:

a) Public wrongs
b) Private wrongs
c) Both public and private wrongs
d) None of the above

Ans. B

76. A discrimination against a man or a woman, only on

grounds of would be violative of Article 15(1)

a) Sex
b) Remuneration
c) Place of birth
d) Religion

Ans. DELETE

77. The "Objective Resolution" adopted by the constituent

assembly on January 22, 1947 was drafted by whom

a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) B.N. Rao

Ans. A
78. Right to the property was eliminated from the list of
Fundamental Rights during the tenure of

a) Indira Gandhi
b) Charan Singh
c) Rajiv Gandhi
d) Morarji Desai

Ans. D

79. When the accused states. "I will produce the share which I
received in such and such robbery” which of the following are
not admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian Evidence Act?

I) An admission that there was a robbery

II) An admission that the accused took part in it
III) An admission that he got part of the property
IV) A statement as to where the property is

a) 1, II and III
b) III and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) All of above

Ans. D

80. The rule of Strict Liability is based on the decision in :-

a) Donoghue Vs Stevenson
b) Homes Vs Ashford
c) Rylands Vs Fletcher
d) None of the above

Ans. C

81. The Rule of Last opportunity was Laid down in :-

a) Davies Vs Manh
b) State of A.P. Vs Ranganna
c) Nugent Vs Smith.
d) Kalawati Vs state of HP

Ans. A

82. In which of the following case was it held that "the rights
conferred under section 25 of the Hindu Adoption and
Maintenance Act, 1956 supersedes any contract to the
contrary. The fact that the date of decree makes no
difference"?

a) Surenderabal Vs Suppiah
b) Mukesh teli Vs Bharti Teli
c) Sesi Ammal Vs Thaiyu Ammal
d) Laxmi Vs Krishna

Ans. C

83. A plaint has to be presented to the Court under Order IV,

Rule 1 in

a) Single copy
b) Duplicate
c) Triplicate
d) No fixed rule

Ans. B

84. Omission to give notice under Order XXI. Rule 22will

a) Render the execution null and void

b) Render the execution irregular
c) Render the execution voidable
d) Not affect the execution
Ans. DELETE

85. Where a decree is passed against the Union of India or

State for the Act done in the official capacity of the person
concerned, under section 82 CPC, execution, shall not be
issued on any such decree unless the decree remains
unsatisfied for a period of

a) 3 months from the date of decree

b) 6 months from the date of the decree
c) 1 year from the date of the decree
d) 2 years from the date of decree

Ans. A

86. On which of the following dates did Hindu Marriage Act,

1955 come into operation?

a) 18h May, 1955

b) 17 June, 1955
c) 22 May, 1955
d) 18 June, 1955

Ans. A

87. Which of the following properties will section 30 of the

Hindu Succession Act, 1956, govern?

I. Tarwad
II. Tavazhi
III. Kutumba
IV. Kavaru
V. Illom

a) I, III, and V
b) II, IV and V
c) I and II
d) All of the above

Ans. D

88. The maximum limit of the members of the state bar council:

a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) None

Ans. C

89. Specific Relief Act 1963 contains-

a) 6 chapters and 40 Sections

b) 7 chapters and 42 Sections
c) 8 chapters and 43 Sections
d) 8 chapters and 44 Sections

Ans. D

90. The phrase "file a PIL, ostensibly in public interest but, in

fact, to serve personal or private interests" means –

a) filing PIL for protection of only public

b) filing PIL for protection of both public and private interest
c) filing for protection of only private interest
d) filing PIL alleging it to be in public interest but actually
seeking protection of private interest

Ans. D

91. Filing of frivolous PILs results in -

a) increasing backlog of cases

b) wastage of resources
c) lesser availability of time for hearing other genuine cases
d) All of the above

Ans. D

92. Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill X. Is Z

guilty of an offence. Has X the same right of private defence
which he would have if Z were sane?

a) Z has not committed any offence as per section 98 of IPC

and same right of private defence to X if Z is mad
b) As per Section 98 of IPC, X has committed an offence and
no right of private defence to X
c) Z has committed an offence for not using his mind
d) None of the above

Ans. A

93. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is

mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian
Constitution?

a) Article 21
b) Article 21A
c) Article 22
d) Article 22A

Ans. C

94. Article 300A of Indian Constitution i.e. Right to property has

been inserted in the Constitution by ________

a) 44th Amendment Act

b) 42nd Amendment Act
c) 40th Amendment Act
d) 51st Amendment Act
Ans. A

95. Which of the following sections of the Muslim Personal Law

(Shariat) Application Act, 1937 have been repealed/ amended
by section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?

a) Section 4
b) Section 5
c) Section 6
d) Section 7

Ans. B

96. As per section 53 of IPC, the word "injury" denotes any

harm whatever illegally caused to any person‟s

a) Body
b) Mind
c) Reputation
d) All above

Ans. DELETE

97. Which of the following cases can be cured under section

465 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?

a) Entertaining of complaint without complying with section

195 and 340 of the Cr.P.C
b) The reading and recording of the evidence taken in one
case into another companion
c) The examination of witness in absence of the accused
d) Non Compliance with 235(2)

Ans. B

98. Which of the following statements hold true for de nova

trials
a) Omission or illegality in the procedure even if it does not
affect the core of the case can become a ground for
calling de nova trials
b) A de nova trial should be the last resort
c) the court originally trying the case can order de nova trial
d) None of these

Ans. B

99. In case of land acquisition by the Central Government for

public-private partnership projects, consent of how many
affected families is mandated by the LARR Act?

a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%

Ans. B

100. A company which is not a domestic company will pay

income tax at the rate of:-

a) 25 %
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 20%

Ans. C
 AIBE – XV SET C
1. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land
belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The
land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set
aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he
had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title.
Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?

a) Section 92
b) Section 124
c) Section 115
d) Section 101

Ans. C

2. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals

a) The Arbitration Act, 1940,

b) The Arbitration (Protocol Convention) Act, 1937
c) The Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement)
Act,1961.
d) All of the above

Ans. D

3. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence

punishable under

a) Section 326 B of the Indian Penal Code

b) Section 120 B of the Indian Penal Code
c) Section 509 of the Indian Penal Code
d) Section 295B of the Indian Penal Code

Ans. A
4. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man
who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution
on the part of A, his act is

a) An Offence of murder
b) An offence of Culpable homicide
c) Not an offence
d) An Offence of causing grievous hurt

Ans. C

5. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a

criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z's
handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in
such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which
he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search - A
has committed an Offence under

a) Section 256 of IPC

b) Section 192 of IPC
c) Section 195 A of IPC
d) Section 201 of IPC

Ans. B

6. Section 66A of Information Technology Act was held

unconstitutional in the case of

a) Justice K. S. Putta swamy Vs Union of India

b) M P Sharma Vs Satish Chandra
c) Shreya Singhal Vs Union Of India
d) Gagan Harsh Sharma Vs The State of Maharashtra

Ans. C

7. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial

Disputes Act, held in the case of
a) The Workmen Vs Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors
b) John Joseph Khokar Vs Bhadange B. S. & ors
c) A. Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa
d) Dinesh Sharma and Ors. Vs State of Bihar

Ans. C

8. According to Factories Act

a) "child" means a person who has not completed his

fifteenth year of age;
b) "child" means a person who has not completed his
fourteenth year of age
c) "child" means a person who has not completed his
eighteenth year of age
d) "child" means a person who has not completed his
sixteenth year of age

Ans. A

9. Requisites of a valid adoption : no adoption shall be valid

unless- (i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the
right, to take in adoption; (ii) the person giving in adoption has
the capacity to do so; (iii) the person adopted is capable of
being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made in
compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter
mentioned under

a) Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

b) Section 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
c) Section 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
d) Section 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

Ans. A
10. According to the Muslim women(protection of right son
marriage) act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined
under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words,
either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other
manner whatsoever, shall be

a) Void
b) Cognizable
c) compoundable
d) All of the above

Ans. D

11. Suits by indigent persons is dealt under

a) Order 44 of C.P.C
b) Order 33 of C.P.C
c) Order 55 of C.P.C
d) Order 22 of C.P.C

Ans. B

12. Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same

transaction is dealt under

a) Section 6 of the Evidence Act

b) Section 17 of the Evidence Act
c) Section 18 of the Evidence Act
d) Section 20 of the Evidence Act

Ans. A

13. The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive
euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of

a) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs Union of India (2011)

b) Common Cause Vs Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1.
c) Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab (1996)
d) D Chenna Jagadeeswar Vs State of A.P. (1988)

Ans. B

14. Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about

a) Doctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with

reference to civil servants
b) Doctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil
servants
c) Doctrine of natural justice with reference to civil servants
d) Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants is

Ans. D

15. Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the

election flow from

a) Article 19 (1)(a)
b) Article 20
c) Article 13
d) Article 14

Ans. A

16. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression

'liberty is followed by the words

a) of status and opportunity

b) of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
c) Assuring the dignity of the individual
d) Justice, social economic and political

Ans. B
17. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an
offence which is done by a child under the age of

a) 14 years
b) 7 years
c) 18 years
d) 21 years

Ans. B

18. R. V. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that

a) Killing an innocent life to save his own is not a defence

and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against
murder
b) Necessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder,
killing an innocent life to save his own may become
inevitable
c) Killing out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be
pleaded as a defence against murder.
d) None of the above

Ans. A

19. On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession

(Amendment)Act, 2005, in a Joint Hindu family governed by the
Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by
substituting new section for

a) Section 6
b) Section 10
c) Section 11
d) Section 13

Ans. A

20. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to

a) Void marriages
b) Voidable marriages
c) Ceremonies of Hindu marriage
d) Conditions of Hindu marriage

Ans. D

21. A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal

uncles son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage
Act. Such marriage is

a) Valid
b) Voidable
c) Void
d) Valid only in north India

Ans. C

22. The national consumer dispute redressal commission was

constituted in the year

a) 1988
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 1997

Ans. A

23. What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums

in entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act,
1986

a) 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has

arisen
b) 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has
arisen
c) 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has
arisen
d) 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has
arisen

Ans. D

24. The UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part
of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the
provisions of the Act.- held in the case of

a) Union of India Vs East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers

Ltd.,
b) Union of India Vs M.C. Mehta
c) Tata Press Ltd Vs Union of India
d) Union of India Vs Indian Change Chrome Ltd

Ans. A

25. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation

Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in

a) a document signed by the parties;

b) an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of
telecommunication which provide a record of the
agreement ;
c) an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which
the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party
and not denied by the other.
d) All of the above

Ans. D

26. Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration

agreement is mentioned under of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act
a) Section 7
b) Section 4
c) Section 20
d) Section 22

Ans. B

27. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those

offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a
period of

a) 7 years.
b) 10 years
c) 11 years
d) 14 years

Ans. A

28. "From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest

that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends
to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190 (1) CrPC.;
and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to
investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable
offence....In other words, the statutory power of the Police to
investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or
circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.P.C."- This was held by the
Supreme Court in the case of

a) Nalini Vs State of Tamilnadu

b) Raj Singh Vs State [(1998)]
c) Shamsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
d) State of Himachal Pradesh Vs Tara Dutta

Ans. B
29. Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union Of India on10 January, 2020
relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution
seeking issuance of an appropriate writ

a) for setting aside orders of the Government by which all

modes of communication including Internet have been
shut down in J&K
b) for setting aside orders of the Government by which
private property was sought to be acquired in J&K
c) for setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K
was constituted as a UT
d) for setting aside orders of the Government by which
Ladakh was separated.

Ans. A

30. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck

down under Art. 19(1) (a) read with Article19 (2) in the case of

a) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India

b) Kharak singh Vs State of U.P.
c) Govinda Vs State of M.P.
d) Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India

Ans. D

31. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the

minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of
deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to
the interpretation of this constitution or for the purpose
of hearing any reference under Article143 shall be....

a) Two
b) Three
c) Five
d) Nine
Ans. C

32. According to Income Tax Act "zero coupon bond" means a

Bond

a) issued by any infrastructure capital company or

infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or
scheduled bank on or after the 1st day of June, 2005;
b) in respect of which no payment and benefit is received or
receivable before maturity or redemption from
infrastructure capital company or infrastructure
capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank
c) which the Central Government may, by notification in the
Official Gazette, specify in this behalf.
d) All of the above

Ans. D

33. Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution

by

a) The Constitution (one hundred and first) Act 2016

b) The Constitution (one hundred and second) Act 2016
c) The Constitution (eighty fourth) Act 2016
d) The Constitution (seventy seven) Act 2016

Ans. A

34. The utility of Public Interest Litigation

a) Liberalised locus standi

b) The proceedings are Non-Adversarial
c) Procedural requirements are liberalized
d) All of the above

Ans. D
35. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had
done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring
proper implementation of the constitutional provisions,
challenged the practice followed by the state of Bihar in
repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the
approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as
a member of public has 'sufficient interest' to maintain a petition
under Article 32 - This relates to the case of

a) Parmanand Katara Vs Union of India - AIR 1989, SC 2039

b) D.C.Wadhwa Vs State of Bihar, AIR1987 SC 579
c) Neeraja Choudhari Vs State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 1984
SC 1099
d) Chameli Singh Vs State of U.P. AIR1996, SC1051

Ans. B

36. Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person

or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of
any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in
contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or
without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury
or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate
class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or
disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position
unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public
can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order
or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any
breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate
class of persons, in this court under Article 32seeking judicial
redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such
person or determinate class of persons." - Justice Bhagwati in
the case of

a) Peoples Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India

b) Ashok Kumar Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
c) S. P. Gupta Vs Union of India
d) Janata Dal Vs H. S. Chowdhary

Ans. C

37. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or

vexatious claims or defences is dealt under

a) Section 33 of CPC
b) Section 35A of CPC
c) Section 30 of CPC
d) Section 35 of CPC

Ans. B

38. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals

with substituted service of summons upon the defendant

a) O.5 R.19A
b) O.5 R.19
c) O.5 R.20
d) O.5 R.21

Ans. C

39. According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986,

'environmental pollutant' means

a) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such

concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to
environment
b) only gaseous substance present in such concentration as
may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
c) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such
concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to
environment
d) any solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be,
or tend to be, injurious to environment
Ans. C

40. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with

reference to

a) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

b) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,2006
c) The Public Liability Insurance Act,1991
d) both A & B

Ans. D

41. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as

usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and
sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a
trustworthy entity in an electronic communication - is
known as

a) Pharming
b) Smishing
c) Phishing
d) Didling

Ans. C

42. Indemnity contract is defined under

a) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act

b) Section 67 of the Indian Contract Act
c) Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act
d) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act

Ans. A

43. Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to

a) Coercion
b) Fraud
c) Mistake of fact
d) Mistake of law

Ans. B

44. Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973

deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to
record confessions and statements?

a) Section 162
b) Section 164
c) Section 163A
d) Section 165

Ans. B

45. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done

under section of Cr.P.C.

a) 83
b) 82
c) 85
d) 86

Ans. A

46. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of

accused under _________ section of Cr.P.C

a) 201
b) 204
c) 205
d) 200

Ans. C
47. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, Where a
person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers
anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such
other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to
make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore,
the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as

a) A Contract of Uberrimae fide

b) Implied Agency
c) Quantum meruit
d) De nova contract

Ans. C

48. Agreement is

a) a promise or set of promises forming consideration to

each other
b) enforceable by law
c) enforceable contract
d) Un enforceable by law

Ans. A

49. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression "land"

includes

a) benefits to arise out of land

b) things attached to the earth
c) things permanently fastened to
anything attached to the earth
d) All of the above

Ans. D
50. Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure
when difference as to compensation exists is provided under

a) Section 32 of Land Acquisition Act

b) Section 30 of Land Acquisition Act
c) Section 35 of Land Acquisition Act
d) Section 31 of Land Acquisition Act

Ans. C

51. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not
patentable?

a) a method of agriculture or horticulture

b) a presentation of information
c) topography of integrated circuits
d) All of the above

Ans. D

52. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has

replaced pre existing

a) GATT
b) BIRPI
c) TPRM
d) PCT

Ans. B

53. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of Transformative

Constitutionalism' in the case of

a) Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018)

b) Suresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation (2010)
c) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
d) Aruna Roy Vs Union of India,(2002)
Ans. A

54. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any

offence committed by

a) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;

b) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India
wherever it may be
c) any person in any place without and beyond India
committing offence targeting a computer resource located
in India.
d) All of the above

Ans. D

55. The definition of 'money' under GST law does not include

a) Letter of Credit
b) Currency held for numismatic value
c) Pay order
d) Traveler cheque

Ans. B

56. Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by

a) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers

b) Respective Governors of the State
c) The President
d) A collective body of Union and States

Ans. C

57. The definition of Contract is defined under

a) Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act.

b) Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act.
c) Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act.
d) Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act.

Ans. B

58. Among other things, the Function of Bar council of India

includes laying down standards of professional conduct and
etiquette for advocates.- Under which section of the Advocates
Act

a) Section 7
b) Section 8
c) Section 9
d) Section 6

Ans. A

59. According to Justice 'Abbot Parry' what are the "Seven

Lamps of Advocacy".

a) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) professionalism (iv) Wit

(v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
b) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit
(v) Eloquence (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
c) (i) influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit
(v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
d) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii)Industry (iv) seriousness
(v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.

Ans. B

60. Minimum number of Directors in a Public company

a) 3
b) 10
c) 12
d) 5

Ans. A

61. An associate company, in relation to another company,

means

a) a company in which that other company has a significant

influence, but which is a subsidiary company of the
company having such influence and includes a joint
venture company
b) a company in which that other company has a significant
influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the
company having such influence and includes a joint
venture company
c) a company in which that other company has a significant
influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the
company having such influence and does not include a
joint venture company
d) a company in which that other company has full shares,
and is a subsidiary company of the company having such
influence and includes a joint venture company

Ans. B

62. Vis major means

a) Act of God
b) Act of Individual
c) Act of other party
d) Act of plaintiff

Ans. A

63. According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of

Torts means
a) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be
challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal
courts
b) an act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be
challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal
courts
c) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be
challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal
courts
d) None of the above

Ans. A

64. In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in

the committal of a wrongful act, are known as

a) Abettors
b) Joint tort feasors.
c) Tort holders
d) Tort holders in common

Ans. B

65. Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C deals

a) Forfeiture of property in certain cases.

b) Notice of forfeiture of property
c) Management of properties seized or forfeited
d) Identifying unlawfully acquired property

Ans. A

66. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of

limitation - is dealt under

a) Section 178 of Cr. P.C.

b) Section 469 of Cr. P.C.
c) Section 478 of Cr. P.C.
d) Section 168 of Cr. P.C.

Ans. D

67. "decree-holder" means

a) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or

an order capable of execution has been made
b) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or
an order incapable of execution has been made
c) any Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed
or an order capable of execution has been made
d) any corporation in whose favour a decree has been
passed or an order capable of execution has been made

Ans. A

68. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005

provides for women:

a) coparcenary rights at par with a men;

b) inheritance rights in agricultural and from her parents at
par with her brothers;
c) inheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her
deceased husband
d) All of the above

Ans. D

69. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for

a) Custody of the Children

b) Permanent alimony and maintenance
c) Maintenance Pendente lite
d) Division of matrimonial property
Ans. B
70. A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the
children had been brought up by her without any assistance
and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled
to separate residence and maintenance under

a) Section 18 (2) (f) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

b) Section 18 (2) (d) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance
Act
c) Section 18 (2) (a) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance
Act
d) Section 18 (2) (g) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance
Act

Ans. C

71. Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the

Code of Civil procedure is dealt under a

a) Section 21A
b) Section 15
c) Section 21B
d) Section 83

Ans. D

72. An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code 1908

as per order XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to
judgment creditor - is known as

a) IT Order
b) Garnishee Order
c) Decree Holder order
d) Bank Order

Ans. B
73. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908 deals with

a) Interpleader suit
b) Interlocutory Order
c) Restitution Order
d) Attachment Order

Ans. A

74. M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India 1986 Shriram food and

Fertilisers case relates to

a) Olieum Gas leak

b) Ganga water cleaning
c) Child labour
d) Bonded labour

Ans. A

75. A. K.Kraipak Vs Union of India relates

a) Likelihood of Bias
b) Delegated Legislation
c) Administrative Discretion
d) Notice

Ans. A

76. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised

on the ground of

a) Doctrine of Ultra vires

b) Malafides
c) Exclusion of Judicial Review
d) All of the above
Ans. D

77. The principle of Res Judicata is dealt under Section ---- of

CPC

a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

Ans. C

78. Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with

a) Presumption as to decisions of tribunals

b) Presumption as to foreign judgments
c) Presumption as to judgments of the lower court
d) Presumption as to judgments of High Court

Ans. B

79. A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements

defamatory of B. B may sue A

a) Only in Delhi
b) Only in Kolkata
c) in both the place of Delhi and Kolkata
d) either in Kolkata or in Delhi.

Ans. D

80. A is accused of waging war against the Government of

India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which a property
is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open.
The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the
general transaction, though A may not have been present at all
of them. - under which section of the India Evidence Act.
a) Section 12
b) Section 6
c) Section 3
d) Section 5

Ans. B

81. Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with

a) Documentary Evidence
b) Exclusion of Oral Evidence
c) Burden of proof as to ownership
d) Proof of guilt.

Ans. C

82. Section 113 (A) of the Evidence Act deals with

a) Presumption as to abetment of murder

b) Presumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a
woman
c) Presumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
d) Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married
woman

Ans. D

83. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of

the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act;

a) The facts that A asked C to lend him money,

b) D said to C in A's presence and hearing- "I advise you not
to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees,
c) A went away without making any answer
d) All of the above
Ans. D

84. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a

confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact
thereby discovered by the police may be proved under

a) Section 25 of the Evidence Act

b) Section 26 of the Evidence Act
c) Section 27 of the Evidence Act
d) Section 29 of the Evidence Act

Ans. C

85. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of

foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting,
or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of foreign
law, science or art, or in persons specially skilled in such
questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are
relevant facts. - this is under …………… of the Evidence Act

a) Section 42
b) Section 45
c) Section 50
d) Section 55

Ans. B

86. India, that is Bharat, shall be a

a) Federation of States
b) quasi federal
c) Union of states
d) Unitary state of a special type

Ans. C
87. In M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR1987 SC1086 (Sri
Ram Fertilizers case) the court held that

a) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and

absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected
by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of
the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious
principle of strict liability.
b) In escape of a dangerous animal the owner is strictly and
absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected
by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of
the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious
principle of strict liability.
c) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly liable to
compensate all those who are affected by the accident
and such liability is subject to any of the exceptions which
operate vis-à-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
d) A company or a corporation is not a state and hence not
liable for leak of toxic gas affecting the health of the
people

Ans. A

88. "Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell

unjustifiability" – Justice Krishna lyer. Name the case.

a) Chandramalai Estate Vs workmen

b) Associated Cement Ltd., Vs Their workmen
c) Gujarat Steel Tubes Vs Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor
Sabha
d) Indian General Navigation of Railway Co. Ltd., Vs Their
workmen

Ans. C

89. A workman aggrieved by the order of may directly

make an application to the labour court or tribunal for
adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered
to adjudicate such a dispute as it had been referred to it by the
appropriate government

a) Dismissal, discharge and retrenchment

b) Dismissal, discharge, retrenchment or otherwise
termination of service
c) Discharge simpliciter exclusively
d) Dismissal and retrenchment exclusively

Ans. B

90. In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in

issue

a) Queen Empress Vs Bal Gangadhar Tilak

b) Niharendu Dutt Mazumdar Vs Emperor
c) Kedar Nath singh Vs State of Bihar
d) All of the above

Ans. D

91. Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious

feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs.
- is an offence under a

a) Section 295
b) Section 295A
c) Section 265A
d) Section 276

Ans. B

92. Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C. The Court of a Chief Judicial

Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except
a) A sentence of death
b) Imprisonment for life
c) Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
d) All of the above Parliament may by law

Ans. D

93. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals

under ………….. of the Constitution

a) Article 323B
b) Article 323A
c) Article 233
d) Article 323

Ans. B

94. The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of
professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under

a) Section 3 of the Advocate Act, 1961

b) Section 7 (1) (b) of the Advocate Act, 1961
c) Section 17 of the Advocate Act, 1961
d) Section 18 of the Advocate Act, 1961

Ans. B

95. According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the bar

Council of India has power to make rules

a) qualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the

disqualifications for such membership
b) the class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as
advocates
c) the standards of legal education to be observed by
universities in India and the inspection of universities for
that purpose.
d) All of the above

Ans. D

96. X,Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/-

Subsequently X,Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to
pay?

a) A can, under Section 43 para 1

b) A can under Section 49 para 1
c) A cannot and will have to wait till X,Y become traceable
d) Z can be compelled only for one third

Ans. A

97. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some

purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is
accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to
the directions of the person delivering them. This process is
termed as

a) Agency
b) Bailment
c) Guarantee
d) Contingency

Ans. B

98. Section 14A inserted by the THE SPECIFIC RELIEF

(AMENDMENT) ACT,2018, relates to

a) Power of the Courts to engage experts

b) Establishment of Special Court
c) Expeditious disposal of case
d) Specific performance with regard to contracts

Ans. A
99. Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal
Procedure Code deals with the concept of

a) Unlawful Assembly
b) Arrest without warrant
c) Search and seizures
d) Plea bargaining

Ans. D

100. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is

dealt under

a) Section 109 of Cr.P.C.

b) Section 110 of Cr.P.C
c) Section 111 of Cr.P.C.
d) None of the above

Ans. B
 AIBE-XIV SET- B

1. Writ of Certiorari can be issued against

A. Judicial and Quasi-Judicial bodies

B. Quasi Judicial and Administrative bodies
C. Administrative Bodies only
D. None of the above

Ans. A

2. Supreme Court of India held that it is a permanent obligation

of every member of medical profession either government or
private to give medical aid to every injured person brought for
treatment immediately without waiting for procedural formalities
in the case of

A. Common Cause V/s Union of India (1996) 1 SC 753

B. Peoples Union of India, AIR 1983SC 339
C. Parmanand Katara V/s Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 2039
D. Lakshmi Kant Pandey V/s Union of India (1984) 25 SC
244

Ans. C

3. The Supreme Court of India has issued the direction to make

the CBI independent agency so that it can function more
effectively and investigate Crimes and Corruptions at high
places in public life in the Case of

A. Union of India V/s Association For democratic reforms,

AIR 2002 SC2112
B. Bangalore medical Trust V/s B.S Muddappa (1991) 45 SC
54
C. Vincent Panikurlangra V/s Union of India (1987) 2 SC 165
D. Vincent Narayan V/s Union of India, AIR 1998 SC 889
Ans. D

4. For the first time in India Income Tax was introduced by Sir
James Wilson in the year:

A. 1886
B. 1868
C. 1860
D. None of the Above

Ans. C

5. In which case Justice J.C. Shah of S.C observed "Since by

the exercise of the power a serious invasion is made upon the
rights, privacy and freedom of the tax payer, the power must be
exercised strictly in accordance with law and only for the
purpose for which law authorises it to be excercised"

A. Director of Inspection Vs Pooranmala

B. ITO Vs Seth Brothers
C. P.R. Metrani Vs CIT
D. None of the above

Ans. B

6. Which of the following statements are true?

i. Minor's contract can be ratified on attaining majority.

ii. Minor's contact be ratified on a attaining majority
iii. Minor's contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties t
to the contract.
iv. Minor is not liable under minor's contract

A. (i) and (iii)

B. (ii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
Ans. B

7. Which one of the following sections of CrPC deals with

irregularities which vitiate proceeding?

A. Section 460
B. Section 461
C. Section 462
D. Section 468

Ans. B

8. Which of the following is not an essential element of a

decree:

A. Conclusive determination of the rights of the parties.

B. Formal expression of adjudication.
C. An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal
from an order.
D. The adjudication must have been given in a suit before the
court.

Ans. C

9. Which of the following is an infringement of a Registered

Trademark:

A. Use of a mark identical to the Trade mark in relation to

goods without authorisation.
B. Advertising of that Trade mark such that the
advertisement is against the reputation of the Trade Mark.
C. Use of that Trade mark as a business name without
authorisation.
D. All of the above.

Ans. D
10. A person undergoing life imprisonment, if attempts to
commit murder and hurt is caused thereby, he may be
punished with:

A. Life Imprisonment
B. Death
C. Imprisonment
D. All of the above

Ans. D

11. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 a

Muslim wife can seek Dissolution of marriage if the husband
fails to perform marital obligation for:

A. 2 year
B. 3 year
C. 4 year
D. 5 year

Ans. B

12. The Concept of 'Curative' Petition was introduced by the

Supreme Court of India in the case of

A. Rupa Ashok Hura V/s Ashok Hura, AIR 2002 SC 1771

B. M.C.Mehta V/s Union of India, AIR1987 SC 1087
C. Krishna Swami V/s Union of India,(1992) 45 CC 605
D. Sheela Barse V/s Union of India,(1986) 35 CC 5962

Ans. A

13. Right to Fare Legal Aid was recognised as a Fundamental

Right under Art. 21 of Indian Constitution in the case of
A. Hussaainara Khatoon V/s State of Bihar, AIR 1979 SC
1360
B. M.H Hoskot V/s State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 SC 1548
C. Madhu Mehta V/s Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548
D. Rudal Shah V/s State of Bihar (1983) 45 SC 14

Ans. B

14. One of the following statements is not true, which one is

that:

A. A confession by one co accused implicating other co

accused would be proved.
B. A confession to a police-officer cannot be proved.
C. A confession by a person in the custody of a police officer
to any person in the presence of magistrate can be
proved.
D. If the confession of a person leads to recovery of a thing it
can be proved.

Ans. A

15. The Kashmira Singh Vs State of MP is a leading case on:

A. Dying declaration
B. Admission
C. Confession to police officer
D. Confession of a co-accused

Ans. D

16. The authentication to be affected by the use of asymmetric

cryptosystem and hash function is known as:

A. Public key
B. Private key
C. Digital Signature
D. Electronic Governance

Ans. C

17. Punishment for Cyber Terrorism under Section 66F shall be

punishable:

A. with imprisonment which may extend to three year or with

fine not exceeding two lakh rupees or with both.
B. with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven
years and shall also be liable to fine
C. With imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for
life
D. with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine.

Ans. C

18. Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 define

"Industry" means any

i. Business trade, undertaking

ii. Manufacture or calling of employers
iii. included any calling, service, employment, handicraft
iv. Industrial occupation of workmen

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. All of the above

Ans. D

19. 'A' places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and
tells 'Z' that they will fire at 'Z' if 'Z' attempts to leave the
building 'A' is:
A. Wrong fully restrains Z
B. Wrong fully confine Z
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Ans. D

20. 'A' incites a dog to spring upon 'Z', without Zs' consent. If 'A'
intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance to 'Z':

A. 'A' uses force to 'Z'

B. 'A' assaulted 'Z'
C. 'A' uses criminal force to 'Z'
D. None of the above

Ans. C

21. 'A' causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to 'Z',
intending to cause and knowing that he is likely to cause
damage to 'Z's' crop. 'A' has committed:

A. Mischief
B. Criminal trespassing
C. Criminal breach of trust
D. Extortion

Ans. A

22. Which of the following provisions of the Advocates Act,

1961 provides for the power of Bar Council of India to withdraw
to itself, any proceedings for disciplinary action pending before
any State Bar Council:

A. Section 35
B. Section 37
C. Section 36(2)
D. None of the Above
Ans. C

23. Which Court or Authority has the power to punish any

person for contempt of the National Company Law Tribunal:

A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
D. National Company Law Tribunal

Ans. D

24. Which of the following is not a vested interest:

A. 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' on his

death.
B. 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' on the
death of 'B'
C. 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' if he
marries 'B'
D. 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' after
ten years.

Ans. C

25. Which of the following is wrong in respect of the law of

Copyright:

A. Copyright protects only the expression and not idea.

B. There is no copyright in respect of a fact.
C. There is no copyright in a government work
D. Copyright doesn't require registration.

Ans. C
26. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held
that an International Commercial Arbitration is one which has
its juridical or legal seat of arbitration outside India:

A. Bhatia International v. Buk Trading S.A. (2002) 4 SCC

105.
B. Bharat Aluminium Company v. Kaiser Aluminium C
Technical services Inc. (2012) 9 SCC 552.
C. Booz Allen and Hamilton Inc. v. SBI Home Finance
Limited (2011)5 SCC 532.
D. Vimal Kishore Shah v. Jayesh Dinesh Shah (2016) 8 SCC
788.

Ans. B

27. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Succession

Act, 1956 lays down for the escheat:

A. Section 25
B. Section 26
C. Section 27
D. Section 29

Ans. D

28. Under which of the following Articles of the Indian

Constitution Parliament is empowered to legislate with respect
to a matter in the State List in National Interest?

A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 252
D. Article 253

Ans. A
29. In which of the following cases the court has laid down that
'Right to life' does not include 'Right to die'?

A. State Vs Sanjay Kr. Bhatia

B. Smt. Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab
C. R Vs Holiday
D. P. Rathinam Vs UOI

Ans. B

30. The question whether a bill is a money bill or not is decided

by?

A. The Prime Minister

B. The Finance Minister
C. The President
D. The Speaker, Lok Sabha

Ans. D

31. Decision under 10th Schedule is taken by?

A. President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister
D. Presiding officers of Houses

Ans. D

32. The case of Muhammad Allahdad Khan Vs Muhammad

Ismail Khan is related to:

A. Pre-emption
B. Gift
C. Mahr
D. Acknowledgement of paternity
Ans. D

33. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court was in

2017 declared pronouncements of talaq three times at a time
by a Muslim husband as unconstitutional?

A. Shayara Bano V/s Union of India

B. Shassnim Ara V/s State of U.P
C. Baitahira V/s Ali Hasan
D. Danial latifi V/s Union of India

Ans. A

34. Which one is a Foreign Award

A. An award in a arbitration where at least one party in non-

Indian
B. An award passed in a foreign seated arbitration
C. An award passed in a arbitration where both the parties
are non Indian
D. None of the above

Ans. B

35. If a man marries a girl who is within his prohibited

relationship and his custom does not permit such marriage,
such a man would be punished under:

A. Section 17 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955

B. Section 18 (a) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
C. Section 18(b) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
D. No punishment for such marriages

Ans. C

36. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that
a child from a void marriage would be a legitimate?
A. Section 11
B. Section 13 (a)
C. Section 12
D. Section 16

Ans. A

37. The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force on

A. First Day of January, 1894.
B. First Day of February, 1894
C. First Day of March, 1894.
D. First Day of April, 1894

Ans. C

38. Which of the following sentences can the Court of Session

pass:

A. Death Sentence.
B. Rigorous Imprisonment.
C. Simple Imprisonment.
D. Any sentence authorised by law but Death Sentence must
be confirmed by the High Court.

Ans.D

39. Which of the following is not a requirement for a foreign

judgment to be conclusive:

A. It must be given on merits of the case.

B. It must be pronounced by a Court of competent
jurisdiction.
C. It was not obtained by fraud.
D. It is by a court in an enemy country.

Ans. D
40. A reference can be made during the pendency of the case:

A. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court

for the latter's opinion on a question of law.
B. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court
for the latter's opinion on a question of evidence.
C. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court
for the latter's opinion
D. The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court
for the Latter's opinion on a question of court procedure.

Ans. A

41. A person can apply for review of judgment when

A. He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is

allowed, but no appeal has been preferred.
B. He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which no appeal is
allowed.
C. He is aggrieved by a decision on a reference from a Court
of small causes.
D. All of the above.

Ans. D

42. In which of the following cases, the remedy of revision is

not available?

A. Cases in which first appeal lies.

B. Cases in which second appeal lies.
C. Interlocutory orders.
D. All of the above.

Ans. D

43. The liability under Section 138 of the negotiable instruments

act 1881 is
A. Strict liability
B. Vicarious liability
C. Both 'A and B'
D. None of the above

Ans. A

44. The objectives of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 are

A. An Act to amend the law for the acquisition of land for

public purposes and for industry.
B. An Act to amend the law for the purchase of land for
public purpose and for business:
C. An Act to amend the law for the possessions of land for
public purpose and for manufacturing
D. An Act to amend the law for the Acquisition of land for
public purposes and for Companies.

Ans. D

45. It deals with the Internal Management and Affairs of

company:

A. Prospectus
B. Article of Association
C. Memorandum of Association
D. Debenture

Ans. B

46. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in

A. 1991
B. 1993
C. 1995
D. 1997
Ans. A

47. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory

under

A. Indian Forest Act

B. Air Act
C. Wildlife Protection Act
D. Environment Protection Act

Ans. D

48. Under which one of the following section of CrPC, police

officer can arrest an accused without warrant?

A. Section 40
B. Section 41
C. Section 42
D. Section 43

Ans. B

49. Which one of the following courts, under criminal procedure

code,1973 can try a murder case.

A. Judicial Magistrate 1st class

B. Chief Judicial Magistrate
C. Court of Session
D. None of the above

Ans. C

50. Public Interest litigation is relaxation of which of the

following requirements:

A. Jurisdiction
B. Locus Standi
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

Ans. B

51. Which of the following is not a case of Public Interest

Litigation:

A. Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala AIR 1973 SC 1461

B. Vincent Narayan v. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 889
C. Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms, AIR
2002 SC2112
D. Vincent Panikurlangara v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC
990.

Ans. A

52. Which of the following can be done by a Senior Advocate in

accordance with the Rules of Bar Council of India:

A. Make concessions on behalf of client on instructions from

junior advocate.
B. Accept instructions to draft pleading
C. Accept brief directly from a client
D. None of the Above

Ans. A

53. Effect of 'not negotiable' crossing is mentioned under

A. Section 125
B. Section 130
C. Section 131
D. Section 128

Ans. B
54. Section 16 of negotiable instrument defines

A. Restrictive endorsement
B. Conditional endorsement
C. Indorsement "in full" and Indorsement "in blank"
D. All of the above

Ans. C

55. Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is

the primary purpose of the:

A. Payment of wages Act, 1936

B. Industrial Dispute Act, 1947
C. Factories Act, 1948
D. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976

Ans. C

56. In which case Supreme Court held that whether teachers

are not workmen?

A. Dharangadhara Chemical work Ltd. V/s State of

Saurashtra, AIR1957 Section 264.
B. University of Delhi V/s Ram Nath, AIR 1963 Section 1873
C. J.K Cotton Spinning and Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. V/s L.T
AIR 1964Section 737
D. Sunderambal V/s Government of Goa, AIR (1988) Section
1700.

Ans. B

57. Under Section 2 (cc) of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947

'Closure' means:

A. The permanent closing down of a place of employment or

part thereof.
B. The partly closing down of a place of employment or part
thereof.
C. The temporary closing down of a place of employment or
part thereof.
D. The short-term closing down of a place of employment or
part thereof.

Ans. A

58. If it is proved that a man has not been heard of for by those
who would naturally have heard of him if he were alive,
the presumption under section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act
is that he is dead:

A. 3 year
B. 7 year
C. 15 year
D. 20 year

Ans. B

59. A dumb witness given his evidence in writing in the open

court, such evidence would be treated as

A. Oral evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Primary evidence

Ans. A

60. Which of the following is not a public document?

A. Bank Books
B. Post-Mortem Report
C. Judgement of the High Court
D. Registered Sale Deed
Ans. A

61. Under which one of the following section of CrPC, police

officer is under obligation to inform the accused ground of right
to bail.

A. Section 49
B. Section 50
C. Section 57
D. Section 60

Ans. B

62. Under what circumstance court can issue an order for the
attachment of property of person absconding;

A. Where the person to whom proclamation is issued is

about to dispose of the whole of his property
B. Where the person to whom a proclamation is issued is
about to dispose of any part of his property
C. Where the person to whom a proclamation is issued is
about to remove the whole or any part of his property from
the local jurisdiction of the court
D. All of the above

Ans. D

63. Inherent Power under section 482 CrPC can be exercised

by

A. The Supreme Court

B. The Court of Session
C. The High Court
D. All of the above

Ans. C
64. Residuary Powers in India may be exercised by

A. Parliament
B. State Legislatures
C. President
D. Both A & B

Ans. A

65. The Punishments to which offenders are liable under the

provision of I.P.C are:

A. Death and imprisonment for Iife

B. Rigorous imprisonment and simple imprisonment
C. Forfeiture of property and fine
D. All of the above

Ans. D

66. M' Naghten Rules form the basls of the law of:

A. Infancy
B. Insanity
C. Ignorance of fact
D. Mistake

Ans. B

67. 'Rule of Law' means

A. Equality before the Law

B. Supremacy of the Law
C. Predominance of legal spirit
D. All of the above

Ans. D
68. The purpose of writ of 'Quo warranto' is?

A. To compel public authority to perform duty

B. To restraint public authority to do illegal act
C. To oust illegal occupant of a public post
D. All of the above

Ans. C

69. Under the Indian Evidence Act, the character of a person is

not relevant in which of the following cases

A. Previous good character of an accused in criminal case

B. Previous bad character in reply to good character in
criminal case.
C. Character to prove conduct imputed in civil case
D. Character affected the amount of damage is civil case

Ans. D

70. Which one of the following is primary evidence

A. Document produced for the inspection of the court

B. Copies made from original
C. Certified copies of the document
D. Photostat copies of a document

Ans. A

71. From which of the following countries, the Constitution of

India has borrowed the 'Power of Judicial Review'?

A. Canada
B. United Kingdom
C. USA
D. Ireland
Ans. C

72. Enforcement of which of the following articles of the

Constitution of India cannot be suspended even during the
proclamation of emergency?

A. 14 & 19
B. 20& 21
C. 23 &24
D. 21 & 22

Ans. B

73. Which of the following fact is not relevant in civil and

criminal cases under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act

A. Motive
B. Attempt
C. Conduct
D. Preparation

Ans. B

74. BATNA Stands for:

A. Bilateral agreement to negotiation and arbitration

B. Best alternative to a negotiated agreement
C. Bilateral Trade negotiated agreement
D. None of the above

Ans. B

75. Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals

with

A. Interim measures by the court

B. Discretionary powers of the court
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Ans. A

76. Which one of the following is true about Latin Maxim 'Ubi
Jus Ibi remedium'?

A. Where there is right, there is remedy.

B. Where there is remedy, there is right.
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

Ans.

77. The Latin word 'Injuria Sine Damnum' Literally means:

A. Infringement of legal right without damages.

B. Damages without Infringement of legal right.
C. Both A & B
D. All of the above

Ans. A

78. The Provision relating to claims Tribunal is given under of

Motor Vehicles Act:

A. Section 165-175
B. Section 175-180
C. Section 170-175
D. Section 171-177

Ans. A

79. Which of the following is not a duty of an Advocate to Court:

A. To not commit breach of section126 of Evidence Act.
B. To not to appear on behalf of any organisation of whose
executive committee, he is a member.
C. To not appear before a Court, Tribunal or Authority in
which his near relation is a member.
D. To conduct himself with dignity and self-respect during
presentation of a case before a Court and otherwise
acting before a Court.

Ans. A

80. Which of the following rules of Chapter II of Part VI of the

Bar Council Rules deal with the duty of an Advocate in respect
of any moneys received by him from Client:

A. Rule 25
B. Rule 33
C. Rule 24
D. None of the Above

Ans. A

81. Under which of the following sections of CrPC provisions

relating to police report is given?

A. Section 173 (2) (1)

B. Section 177
C. Section 174 (2) (1)
D. Section 175

Ans. A

82. Which one of the following provisions of CrPC deals with

anticipatory bail?

A. Section 437
B. Section 438
C. Section 439
D. None of the above

Ans. B

83. The provision relating to cancellation of bond and bail bond

is given under:

A. Section 446-A
B. Section 446
C. Section 447
D. Section 450

Ans. A

84. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act,

1955 incorporates the fault theory of divorce?

A. Section 13(1)
B. Section 11
C. Section 13B
D. Section 13(2)

Ans. A

85. Under the Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956,

which of the both following circumstances can a dependent
enforce his right to maintenance against a transferee of an
estate out of which he has a right to receive maintenance:

A. Only when the Transferee has notice of such right.

B. Only when the transfer is gratuitous.
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above.

Ans. C
86. Which of the following Courts/Tribunals cannot entertain a
Public Interest Litigation:

A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. Central Administrative Tribunal
D. None of the Above

Ans.C

87. 'Mesne Profits' of property means:

A. Those profits by which the person in wrongful possession

of such property actually received or might have received
there from, together with interest on such profits.
B. The profits due to improvements made by person in
wrongful possession.
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above.

Ans. A

88. Which of the following is not a legal representative?

A. Executor and administrators.

B. Hindu coparceners.
C. Creditor
D. Intermeddler

Ans. C

89. The provisions relating to dowry is given under:

A. Section 304-B of the I.P.C

B. Section 304-A of the I.P.C
C. Section 304 of the I.P.C
D. Section 305-B of the I.P.C
Ans. A

90. Which of the following section is designed to curb

infanticide:

A. Section 317 of the I.P.C

B. Section 313 of the I.P.C
C. Section 318 of the I.P.C
D. Section 315 of the I.P.Ch

Ans. D

91. Which order has been specially enacted to protect the

interest of Minors and Unsound Mind:

A. Order 31
B. Order 32
C. Order 33
D. Order 34

Ans. B

92. Which order of the CPC lays down general rules governing
pleadings in a court?

A. Order 6
B. Order 7
C. Order 8
D. Order 9

Ans. A

93. Second appeal under section 100 is applicable:

A. Substantial question of law as formulated by the High

Court.
B. Substantial question of law as not formulated by the High
Court.
C. An appellate decree passed Ex Parte.
D. All of the above

Ans. A

94. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 come into effect on

A. 24th August 1986

B. 15th April 1986
C. 24th May 1986
D. 24th December 1986

Ans. D

95. Which one of the following sections of Consumer Protection

Act, 1986 defines the term 'Consumer'?

A. Section 2(1)(a)
B. Section 2(1)(b)
C. Section 2(1)(c)
D. Section 2(1)(d)

Ans. D

96. The principle of Law of Taxation that "No tax shall be levied
or collected except by authority of law". It is contained under

A. Article 265 of the constitution

B. Article 300 of the constitution
C. Article 19(1)(g) of the constitution
D. Article 285 of the constitution

Ans. A
97. Under which section of Income Tax Act" Income of other
persons are included in assessee's total income"

A. Sections 56-58
B. Sections 139-147
C. Section 246-262
D. Section 60-65

Ans. D

98. Which one of the following sentence is correctly method?

A. In India, consideration must follow from promisee only.

B. In India, consideration must follow from only promisor or
only promisee.
C. In India, consideration must follow from promisor or any
other person.
D. In India, consideration must follow from promisee or any
other person

Ans. D

99. Assertion (A): Collateral transactions to wagering are valid.

Reason (R): only wagering agreements are declared void under
section 30 of the Indian contract Act. Codes:

A. (a) is true, but (r) is false

B. (a) is false, but (r) is true.
C. Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is not correct explanation
of (a)
D. Both (a) and (r) are true, and (r) is correct explanation of
(a)

Ans. D

100. Term 'holder' include

A. The payee
B. The bearer
C. The endorsed
D. All of the above

Ans. D
 AIBE-XIII SET – D

1. Which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C deals with

examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner

a) Section 54-A
b) Section 55-A
c) Section 53-A
d) Section 60-A

Ans. C

2. According to section 167 of the Cr.P.C an accused person

can be remanded to police custody for not more than.

a) 7 days at one time

b) 30 days at one time
c) 15 days at one time
d) 60 days at one time

Ans. C

3. A communication made to the spouse during marriage,

under section 122 of the Indian evidence act-

a) Remains privileged even after dissolution of marriage

b) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage
only by divorce
c) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of
marriage only by death
d) Does not remain privileged in both the case (b) and (c)

Ans. A

4. Which section of the Indian Evidence act provides that an

accomplice is a competent witness
a) Section 114
b) Section 118
c) Section 133
d) Section 134

Ans. C

5. Which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C deals with

compoundable offence?

a) Section 319
b) Section 320
c) Section 321
d) Section 324

Ans. B

6. What is the time limit under section 468 of Cr. P.C for taking
cognizance :

a) One year
b) Two year
c) Three year
d) No Limit

Ans. C

7. "Industrial establishment" means -

i) A factory
ii) A mine
iii) A plantation
iv) An industry

a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

b) (i), (ii), (iii)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) Only (i)

Ans. B

8. Strike should be called only if at least......... per cent of

workers are in support of strike. (Fill in the blank).
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

Ans. B

9. Industrial relations cover the following area(s)

i) Collective bargaining ii) Labour legislation

iii) Industrial relations training iv) Trade unions

(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)

(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans. C

10. State of U.P. Vs. Nawab Hussain,1977 SCR(3) 428 relates

to:

a) Res subjudice
b) Res judicate
c) Constructive res judicata
d) Deemed rejudicata

Ans. C

11. X is living in Pune and Y, his brother in Mumbai, X wants

to file a suit for partition of their joint property situated in Delhi
and Bangalore.

a) The suit may be instituted in Delhi

b) The suit may be instituted in Bengalore
c) The suit may be instituted either in Delhi or Bangalore.
d) None of the above.

Ans. C

12. An immovable property held by Y is situated at Bhopal and

the wrongdoer personally works for gain at Indore. A Suit to
obtain compensation for wrong to the property may be
instituted.

a) At Bhopal
b) At Indore
c) Either at Bhopal or at Indore
d) None of these

Ans. C

13. Which of the following section of the motor vehicle Act 1988
defines the term „Owner‟

a) Section 2 (30)
b) Section 2 (31)
c) Section 2 (25)
d) Section 2 (32)

Ans. A

14. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 an industrial concern,

ordinarily, employing not less than workmen owned by an
individual or by an association of individuals and not being a
Company desiring to acquire land for the erection of dwelling
houses for workmen employed by the concern or for the
provision of amenities directly connected therewith shall, so far
as concerns the Acquisition of such land, be deemed to be a
company for the purpose of this part, and the references to
company in [sections 4, 5A, 6, 7, and 50] shall be interpreted as
references also to such concern. Fill in the blanks:
a) One Hundred
b) Two Hundred
c) Three Hundred
d) Four Hundred

Ans. A

15.Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 the expression

"Company" means-

a) a company as defined in section 3 of the Companies Act,

1956, other than a Government company referred to in
clause(cc)
b) a company as defined in section 2 of the Companies Act,
1956, other than a Government company referred to in
clause (c)
c) a company as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act,
1956(1 of 1956) other than a Government referred to in
clause (cc);
d) a company as defined in section 6 of the Companies Act,
1956 (1 of 1956), other than a Government
company referred to in clause (c)

Ans. A

16. Under which Section of Income tax Act,1961 'Income of

other persons included in Assessee's total income

a) 56-58 b) 60-65
c) 45-54 d) All of the Above
Ans. B

17. A period of 12th Months commencing on the 1st day of

April of every year is Known as

a) Assessment year b) Leap year

c) Previous year d) None

Ans. A

18. Which Section of the information technology (amendment)

Act, 2008 deals with the validity of contracts formed through
electronic means:

a) Section 12
b) Section 10A
c) Section 11
d) Section 13

Ans. B

19. Which of the following is essential for a valid adoption under

the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

a) Datta homam
b) Actual giving and taking of child
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the Above

Ans. B

20. Hindu male can adopt a female child, if the difference of

age between the two is of more than

a) 15 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 21 years

Ans. D

21. Which of the following relations is not dependent under

Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and maintenance Act 1956?
a) Grand Mother
b) Mother
c) Widow
d) Daughter

Ans. A

22. "Hadees" is one of the sources of Muslim law, it comprises"

a) Very words of god

b) Words and actions of the prophet
c) Unanimous decision of jurists
d) Analogical decisions

Ans. B

23. Intellectual Property appellate Board is established under

which Act

a) The Copyright Act, 1957

b) The Patent Act, 1970
c) The Trademark Act, 1999
d) The Designs Act, 2000

Ans. C

24. Which is the subject matter of neighbouring rights

protection

a) Performance
b) Dramatic work
c) Geographical indication
d) New varieties and plant

Ans. A
25. Adam Smith has enumerated cannons of taxation which are
accepted universally

a) Equality and Certainty

b) Equality, convenience and Economy
c) Equality and Economy
d) Equality, Certainty, Convenience and Economy

Ans. D

26. For the first time in India Income tax law was introduced by
Sir James Wilson in the year:

a) 1886
b) 1868
c) 1860
d) None of the Above

Ans. C

27. Under section 118 of the Indian evidence act, a person is a

competent witness if he or she –

a) Is a major
b) Is not lunatic
c) Is not of extreme old age
d) Is capable of understanding questions put to him and
giving rational answers Irrespective of age

Ans. D

28. Which of the following judgement is irrelevant under section

43 of Indian evidence act

a) Judgement of an insolvency court

b) Judgement of criminal court
c) Judgement of matrimonial court
d) Judgement of probate court

Ans. B

29. Under which section of the Indian evidence act a witness

has been given right to refresh his memory

a) Section 157
b) Section 158
c) Section 159
d) Section 160

Ans. C

30. The provision relating to free legal aid is given under

a) Section 301
b) Section 304
c) Section 303
d) Section 305

Ans. B

31. Under Which one of the following provisions of Cr.P.C

police officer is under an obligation to produce the person
arrested before a magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest

a) Section 56
b) Section 57
c) Section 60
d) Section 70

Ans. B

32. Who may record confessional statement under section 164

of the Cr.P.C ?
a) Police officer
b) Judicial officer
c) Both A and B
d) Judicial Magistrate having Jurisdiction only.

Ans. B

33. The provision relating Plea bargaining is not applicable in

following offence.

a) Scio-economic offence
b) Offence against women
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

Ans. C

34. What is the maximum duration within which fast track

arbitration must be completed.

a) 6 Month
b) 12 Month
c) 18 Month
d) 24 Month

Ans. A

35. Which one of the following section deals with form of

summons?

a) Section 60
b) Section 61
c) Section 62
d) Section 64

Ans. B
36. Under Cr. P.C provisions relating to prosecution of judge is
provided under.

a) Section 196
b) Section 197
c) Section 198
d) Section 199

Ans. B

37. A question suggesting the answers which the person

putting it wishes or expects to receive is called-

a) Indecent Questions
b) Leading Questions
c) Improper Questions
d) Proper Questions

Ans. B

38. Option of puberty is a ground of divorce Under Hindu

Marriage Act 1955 for –

a) Only Husband
b) Only Wife
c) Both Husband and Wife
d) None of the Above

Ans. B

39. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that
a child from a void marriage would be legitimate?

a) Section 11
b) Section 13 (a)
c) Section 12
d) Section 16
Ans. D

40. Which of the following appears to contribute to global

cooling rather than global warming

a) Nitrous Oxide
b) Aerosols
c) Methane
d) CFC
Ans. B

41. A and B agree to fence with each other for amusement

.This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm
which in the course of fencing, may be caused without foul play
and if A, while playing fairly, hurts B. A commits no offence.
The provision are given under:

a) Section 87
b) Section 85
c) Section 86
d) Section 88

Ans. A

42. The provision of the right of private defence are given:

a) Under section 96 - 108 of the Indian penal code

b) Under section 94 - 106 of the Indiana penal code
c) Under section 96- 106 of the Indian penal code
d) Under section 95- 106 of the Indian penal code

Ans. C

43. A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable

property may recover in the manner provided by:
a) The code of procedure, Act 1908.
b) The Indian registration Act, 1908
c) The Indian Contract Act, 1872.
d) The Transfer of property Act, 1882.

Ans. A

44. Section 39 of Specific Relief Act deals

a) Registration of Instruments
b) Cancellation of Instruments
c) Correctness of Instruments
d) None of the above

Ans. D

45. Joint sitting of both Houses of parliament may be cancelled

by the?

a) Speaker
b) Chairman
c) President
d) Prime Minister

Ans. C

46. Specific relief........... Where the agreement is made with

minor (fill in the blanks).

a) Can get
b) Cannot be given
c) Can release
d) Implemented with law

Ans. B
47. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific
performances of contract are provided in which section of
Specific Relief Act

a) 27
b) 28
c) 29
d) 30

Ans. B

48. What kind of property is transferable?

a) Pension.
b) Public office.
c) Right to re-entry
d) Any kind of property if not prohibited

Ans. D

49. Which of the following does not come under the 'immovable
property‟ as per the T.P. Act?

a) Sales of a ceiling fan.

b) Right to claim maintenance.
c) Right relating to lease
d) Easementary right.

Ans. A

50. X strike 'A'. 'A' is by this provocation excited to violent

range. 'y' a bystander intending to take advantage of 'A's rage
and to cause him kill 'X', gives a revolver into 'A's hand for that
purpose. 'A' kills X with the revolver:

a) A is liable for committing murder and Y is liable for

abetting murder.
b) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is not
liable.
c) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is liable
for abetting culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
d) A is not liable and Y is liable for abetting murder.

Ans. A

51. Right to free Legal Aid was recognised as a fundamental

right under art 21 of Indian Constitution in the Case of –

a) Hussaainara Khatoon Vs Home Secretary, State of Bihar,

Air 1979 SC 1360
b) M.H Hoskot Vs State of Maharashtra, Air 1978 SC 1548
c) Madhu Mehta Vs Union of India(1989) 4 SC 1548
d) Rudal Shah Vs State of Bihar (1983) 45 Sc 14

Ans. A

52. In Which Country was the concept of PIL originated

a) United Kingdom
b) United State of America
c) India
d) Australia

Ans. B

53. Delegated legislation was declared constitutional in?

a) Berubari case
b) Re Delhi laws act case
c) Keshwanand bharti case
d) Maneka Gandhi case

Ans. B
54. A Prospectus which does not include complete particulars
of the quantum or price of the securities included there in
known as :

a) Shelf Prospectus
b) Memorandum
c) Red Herring Prospectus
d) Issuing House

Ans. C

55. When there is no profit in one year or the profit of a

company is not enough to pay the fixed dividend on preference
shares, the arrears of dividend are to be carried forward and
paid before a dividend is paid on the ordinary shares. This is
called:

a) Participating preference shares

b) cumulative preference shares
c) Non- cumulative preference shares
d) Non-Participating preference shares

Ans. B

56. “Industrial dispute” means any dispute or difference

between

i) Employees and employers

ii) Employers ad workmen
iii) Workmen and workmen
iv) Master and worker
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iv)
c) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)
d) (i),(ii) and (iii)

Ans. D
57. Section 19 of the Hindu successions Act,1956 provides for
the Maintenance of:

a) Wife
b) Parents
c) Widowed daughter-in-law
d) Children

Ans. C

58. Section 30 of the Hindu successions Act, 1956 deals with:-

a) Woman estate
b) Testamentary Successions
c) Male Successions
d) Female Successions

Ans. B

59. When two or more person, by fighting in a public place

disturb the public the public peace, they are said to commit:

a) A riot
b) An affray
c) An assault
d) None of the above

Ans. B

60. Promotion of "class hatred" is given under :

a) Section 153-A of the I.P.C

b) Section 153-AA of the I.P.C
c) Section 153-B of the I.P.C
d) Section 144-A of the I.P.C

Ans. A
61. The distinction between section 299 and 300 was made
clear by MelvillJ.in :

a) Reg Vs Gorachand Gopee

b) Reg Vs Govinda
c) Govinda Vs Reg
d) Reg Vs Hayward

Ans. B

62. Who was the Chief Justice of India when the Concept of
PIL was introduced to Indian Judicial system

a) M. Hidayatullah
b) A.M.Ahmadi
c) A.S. Anand
d) P.N. Bhagwati

Ans. D

63. The Supreme Court of India issued a number of direction

for the prevention of Woman in Various forms of prostitution
and to rehabilitate their Children Through various welfare
measures so as to provide them with dignity of person means
of livelihood and socio- economic development in the Case of-

a) Vishaka Vs State of Rajasthan, AIR1997 Section

3011
b) Gaurav Jain Vs Union of India, AIR1997 Section 3021
c) Delhi Domestic Working women's Forum Vs Union of India
(1998)
d) Sheela Barse Vs Union of India(1986) 35 Section 596

Ans. B

64. A resides at Hyderabad, B at Calcutta and C at Delhi. A, B

and C being together at Allahabad, B and C make a joint
promissory note payable on demand, and deliver to A. A may
sue B and C :
a) At Allahabad where the cause of action arises.
b) At Calcutta, where B resides.
c) At Delhi, where C resides.
d) All of the above.

Ans. D

65. Section 25 empowers the supreme court to transfer any

suit, appeal or other proceeding :

a) From one High Court to another High Court.

b) Form one civil court in court in one state to another civil
court in any other state
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Only (a)

Ans. C

66. In which of the following cases, can C set-off the claim?

a) A sues C on a bill of exchange for Rs.500/-, C alleges that

A has wrongfully neglected to insure C's goods and he is
liable to pay compensation.
b) A sues C on a bill of exchange for Rs.500/-, C holds a
decree against A for recovery of debt of Rs.1000/-.
c) A sues B and C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to C alone
by A.
d) A and B sues C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to C by
alone.

Ans. B

67. "Mandamus" May be issued by

a) Supreme court b) High court

c) District court d) Both (a) & (b)

Ans. D

68. The provision for administration tribunals is added by

a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 24th Amendment
d) 43rd Amendment

Ans. A

69. Which of the following is not a Federal feature of any

Constitution

a) Written Constitution
b) Double set of Government
c) Rigid Constitutional
d) Single Citizenship

Ans. D

70. Parliament in exercise of its power to amend under Article

368, may not amend

a) Preamble
b) Fundamental Right
c) Supreme Court
d) Basic statement

Ans. D

71. Which article starts with "Subject to public order, morality &
health".

a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 28
d) Article 25

Ans. D

72. A "dumb witness" gives his evidence in writing in the open

court, such evidence would be treated as

a) Oral evidence
b) Documentary evidence
c) Secondary evidence
d) Primary evidence

Ans. A

73. Under the Indian evidence act, which of the following is not
a court

a) Persons legally authorised to take evidence

b) Judges
c) Magistrates
d) Arbitrators

Ans. D

74. The term 'Suit of a Civil Nature' refers to:

a) Private rights and obligations of a citizen.

b) Political, social and religious question
c) A suit in which principal question relates to caste or
religion.
d) All of the above

Ans. A

75. The rule of res Sub-Judice Implies:

a) Where the same subject matter is pending in a court of
law for adjudication between the same parties, the other
court is barred to
b) Where the same subject matter is pending in a court of
law for adjudication between the different parties, the
other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the
first suit goes on
c) Where the different subject matter is pending in a court of
law for adjudication between the same parties, the other
court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first
suit goes on.
d) None of the above

Ans. A

76. A suit brought by a person to recover possession from a

stranger of matth property claiming it as heir of the deceased
Mahant. The suit is dismissed on his failure to produce the
succession certificate. A second suit was filed by him as
manager of the matth.

a) The second suit will be barred by Res Judicata

b) The second suit will not be barred by Res Judicata
c) The second suit will be barred by Res sub – Judicata
d) None of the above

Ans. B

77. Section 66A was invalidated by the Supreme Court of

India

a) Anvar P. V. Vs P.K. Basheer, (2014)10 SCC 473.

b) Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India, AIR 2015 SC 1523.
c) Dr. Prafulla Desai Vs State of Maharashtra, AIR 2003 SC
2053
d) State (NCT of Delhi) Vs Navjot Sandhu,(2005) 11 SCC
600

Ans. B

78. Environmental impact assessment (ElA) is mandatory

under

a) Indian forest act

b) Air act
c) Wildlife protection act
d) Environment protection act

Ans. D

79. A suit may be dismissed under order IX

i) Where the summons is not served upon the defendant in

consequence of the plaintiffs failure to pay costs for
service of summons (Rule 2)
ii) Where neither the plaintiff nor the defendant appears
(Rule 3)
iii) Where plaintiff, after summons returned unserved, fail for
7 days to apply for fresh summons (Rule 5)
iv) Where on the date fixed for hearing in a suit only
defendant appears and he does not admit the plaintiff's
claim. (Rule 8)
Codes:
a) I, II and III.
b) I, III and IV.
c) II, III and IV.
d) All of the above.

Ans. D

80. The Ex-officio chairman of the council of state is?

a) The President
b) Speaker, Lok Sabha
c) Vice President
d) None of the above

Ans. C

81. Right to property in India is

a) Fundamental Right
b) Constitutional Right
c) Statutory Right
d) Legal Right

Ans. B

82. Which of the following writs means to produce the body of a

person?

a) Certiorari
b) Quo warranto
c) Prohibition
d) Habeas Corpus

Ans. D

83. Restrictions may not be imposed on freedoms provided

under Article 19(1)(a) on this ground

a) Defamation
b) Public Order
c) Sedition
d) Security of the state

Ans. C

84. Right guaranteed to citizen only is

a) Article 21
b) Article 20
c) Article19 (1) (a)
d) Article 25

Ans. C

85. President can be removed on the ground of?

a) Proved Misbehaviour
b) Incapacity
c) Violation of Constitution
d) All the above

Ans. C

86. Who among the following cannot transfer an immovable

property?

a) Hindu widow
b) Muslim widow
c) Natural guardian of a minor
d) Karta or manager of joint Hindu family

Ans. B

87. The doctrine of 'Lis pendens‟ was explained in the leading

case of:

a) Bellamy Vs Sabine
b) Cooper Vs Cooper
c) Streatifised Vs Streafield
d) Tulk Vs Moxbay

Ans. A
("lis pendens literally means a pending suit, and the doctrine of
lis pendens has been defined as the jurisdiction, power, or
control which a court acquires over property involved in a suit
pending the continuance of the action, and until final judgment
therein.")

88. When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an

act which is not illegal by illegal means such an agreement is
designated as:

a) Abetment by conspiracy
b) Abetment by Aid
c) Criminal conspiracy
d) Abetment

Ans. C

89. The provisions regarding sedition are given:

a) Under section 124 of the I.P.C

b) Under section 124-A of the I.P.C
c) Under section 121-A of the I.P.C
d) Under section 130 of the I.P.C

Ans. B

90. Which among the following is not an ADR method under

Section 89 of CPC 1908

a) Mini Trial
b) Judicial settlement through Lok Adalat
c) Concilliation
d) None of the above

Ans. A
91. What is the maximum number of Conciliators allowed in a
conciliations proceeding:

a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) None of the above

Ans. D

92. What is the status of a settlement agreement in conciliation

proceeding:

a) Non-binding
b) Same as a settlement award
c) Unlike a settlement award
d) None of the above

Ans. B

93. Disciplinary Committee of Bar Council is Conferred the

powers of Civil Court under code of Civil Procedure 1908 by-

a) Section 36 of Advocates Act 1961

b) Section 42 of Advocates Act 1961
c) Section 42 A of Advocates Act 1961
d) Section 28 of Advocates Act 1961

Ans. B

94. Which one of the following is a leading case on 'Injuria Sine

Damnum'?

a) Rylands Vs Fletcher
b) Ashby Vs White
c) Donougue Vs Stevension
d) All of the Above
Ans. B

95. Which one is leading case on Strict Liability?

a) Alen Vs Flood
b) Rylands Vs Fletcher
c) Borhil Vs Young
d) Donougue Vs Stevension

Ans. B

96. The Latin word 'Res Ipsa Loquitur' means:

a) Things speaks it's story itself

b) Where there is consent there is no injury.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the Above

Ans. A

97. In which of the following cases the 'Principal of common

Employment' was evolved for the first time?

a) Rylands Vs Fletcher
b) Priestley Vs Fowler
c) Ashby Vs White
d) Wagon Vs Mound.

Ans. B

98. The designation 'Senior Advocates' is provided under

a) Section 16, Advocates Act 1961

b) Section 26, Advocates Act 1961
c) Section 6, Advocates Act 1961
d) Section 15, Advocates Act 1961
Ans. A

99. Right to pre-audience is provided by

a) Section 33 of Advocates Act 1961

b) Section 23 of Advocates Act 1961
c) Section 16 of Advocates Act 1961
d) Section 36 of Advocates Act 1961

Ans.

100. The contempt of court belongs to

a) Entry 77 of Union list and entry 14 of State list in the VIIth

schedule of Constitution of India.
b) Entry 70 of Union list and entry 40 of State list
c) Entry 67 of Union list and entry 14 of State list
d) None of these.

Ans.