NATIONAL LAW TRAINING INS E CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES (2024-2025) CLAT MOCK-15 Duration: 120 Minutes Name of the Candidate: ‘Maximum Marks: 120 Contact Number: INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES * Oh, by all means, don’t feel free to ask for clarification on the question paper. Answer the questions as they appear anid maybe, just maybe, take a printout of the PDF before diving in. + We thought 119 questions would be too few, so we bumped it up to 120 multiple-choice questions for your entertainment and educational pleastre. + Now, for a little extra excitement, we've added negative marking. Incorrect answers are worth minus 0.25 points because, let's face it, we all need to feel a bit more jeopardy in our lives. On the other hand, each question you do get right is an entire, exhilarating one point! Your potential for earning up to 120 points should be the highlight of your day, maybe even your month, or for the next five years© + Ever thought about choosing more than one answer? Well, don’t. Because that’s wrong, just like not wearing socks with sandals, + Feel like doodling on the OMR Answer Sheet? Please go ahead, turn it into the next Mona Lis(A) Just know that if you do, we'll ignore anything you wrote that isn't your details, turning your artistic endeavors into meaningless scribbles: Isn't that fun? * After you're done with your masterpiece of a test, you might be tempted to hand in that OMR Sheet and Test Paper, but why deprive yourself of such a memorable keepsake? Take it home. Frame it. Show your grandchildren. + Unfair means? You mean like using your inherent psychic powers? Feel free, but know that we will catch you, and your dreams of test-taking glory will be permanently cancelled, which would be a real tragedy. + Ah, impersonation! Because taking exams is such a biast, why shouldn't two people get to experience it for the price of one? But alas, should you choose this daring route, not only will you be disqualified, but you'll also get to explore the criminal justice system from a unique perspective. All the Best!!National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 'NGLISH LANGUAGE PAssace I On the question of what you envy, I’d forgive you the predictable answers: other people’s apartments, careers, lifestyles, bank accounts. But today [urge you to examine, within yourself, an envy more specific: that of other people’s sweatshirts. Softness, thickness, color, cut—these are just a few of the qualities other people’s sweatshirts have seemingly perfected. The same qualities, I suspect, your own collection is lacking, How is this possible, you may wonder, if we're all “other people” to someone else? Though it may seem unassuming as an object of desire, there’s a lot to love about the sweatshirt. It has a humble shape, a forthright utility, a generous way of swimming around the body then holding steady at the wrist. It's never too precious, never too serious —it isn’t placed on its wearer, but thrown, When no longer needed, it can be tied around the’ waist, chest, or neck and look pleasant in a'different way. Too casual to be stuffy, too usefill to be sloppy, the sweatshirt is, fundamentally, the garment of the people. Which raises the question of why I feel its spoils are distributed so undemocratically. The coveting of other people's sweatshirts is a philosophical conundrum, not a rational one. Crystal and Alicia, people who do not desire other people’s sweatshirts, have something the rest of us don’t, but it’s not the right sweatshirt, I suspect it’s self-knowledge, Which is to say, the rest of us are searching for something that can’t be sold. We want patience, discernment, satiety, Instead, we look for the perfect t-shirt, the perfect jeans, the perfect wool coat, As David Lynch once put it, “I never found a pair of pants that I just love. If they're not right, which they never are, it's a sadness.” He said it: They never are. ‘And yet, to love another’s sweatshirt doesn’t feel so bad. Actually, it feels kind of good. Not nearly as existentially threatening as envying someone’s job or wealth or jeans, all of which could potentially require a lifestyle overhaul, Instead, it feels alittle like experiencing hunger in your own kitchen, The solution is right there! Oftentimes, it costs no more than a nice meal out. The potential eggs you on: Some sweatshirts really are better than others. Structured but soft, roomy but secure. (Thin, polyester sweatshirts are an insult.) Unlike pants, they fit most bodies as designed. The search, then, doesn’t feel futile, necessarily most of my sweatshirts are heaverily to wear, and, of course, before sullied by the fact of my ownership, were oftee perfect too. And yet that’s exactly the problem. The relative scratchability of this itch only stands to highlight how silly it is that we still can’t scratch it. What we have here is not a shopping problem, but something much deeper. Something psycho-social. The very fuel on which America runs! To reckon with other people’s sweatshirts, then, we must first reckon with desire itself—with our propensity to seek in others what we mustseck within: comfort, solace, seeurity. A ecitain sturdiness around the neck, And theif, more fundameritally, we must aeknowledge'the flaw in ovr lonzif fromthe very beginaing; Other people’s sweatshirts can never be ours. 1, What metaphorical interpretation could be drawn from the author's comparison of sweatshirts to hunger in one's own kitchen? 2 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative The existential longing for fulfillment in material possessions The societal inequalities perpetuated by consumerist desires The inherent comfort found in one’s personal space The superficiality of desire contrasted with basic human needs caopp 2. What is the main function of the sentence, "The potential eggs you on: Some sweatshirts really are better than others"? To introduce a new argument To provide a counterpoint To reinforee the author's perspective To transition to a new topic vaopp 3. What does the authorsimply by stating, "The relative Seratehability of this itch only stands to highlight how silly it is that we still can’t scratch it"? A. The author suggests that the widespread availability of sweatshirts should make it easy to fulfill the desire for the perfect one, yet people still struggle toido so. B. The author argues that the desire for the perfect sweatshirt is insignificant compared to more pressing societal issues. C. The author implies that people's desire for sweatshirts is irrational and lacks logical reasoning. D. The author emphasizes the importance Of self-awareness in overcoming the desire for material possessions like sweatshirts, 4, How does the author employ irony in discussing the desire for other people's sweatshirts? By suggesting that the pursuit of material possessions leads to existential fulfillment, By implying that the search for perfeetion in clothing reflects deeper psychological issues By porttaying the sweatshirt, a simple garment, as a symbol of complex human desires By juxtaposing the frivolity of consumerist desires with the seriousness of existential questions pomp In what way does the author use the sweatshirt as a symbol fo critique American culture? A. By highlighting the disparity in wealth distribution By questioning the true Source of happitiéss and contentment C. By emphasizing the importance of self-awareness and introspection D. By challenging the notion of material possessions as markers of sui cess 6. Which rhetorical strategy does the author primarily employ to engage readers with the topic of ‘sweatshirt envy? ‘A. Logical reasoning B. [Emotional appeal ©, Ethical appeal D. Anecdotal evidence clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Passace IT After ten minutes, I’m beyond my party limit, am starting to shake, and am working my way to the door. She says, “Hello.” If I assume cooperative principle, it follows that she is talking to me because she wants to; and, furthermore, I’m talking to her because I want to. That, I think, is a given. I am certainly talking to her because I want to. She is pausing. Her emeraldine eyes are searching, shifting left first, a good sign that she is feeling rather than thinking. Prolonged pauses suggest thought, disaffection, or—ah, you fool—merely a relative transition point in the conversation. She has passed the baton to you. Pick it up. Say hello. No. Any idiot can say hello. A question. Ask a question to show interest. “So,” I start. [hate coordinate openings. They are false implications of continuation of cooperative exploration of existing discourse goals. But I’m in it now. Utterance can’t be revised, erased, or modified. I add, “you're not attending classes here?” The eyes come back to me. Her long, red hair Catches light, refracts, creates linear prismatic effects. I almost gasp. Her pupils are deep and black. Dilated pupils are a good thing. I hope it's because she likes me and not from drugs or alcohol. Does alcohol dilate? I'l have to look it up. “Yeah,” she says. Cooperation, Minimal utterance. She’s continued the conversation and fulfilled all four of the basic axioms: truth, quantity, relevance, and clarity. The pause is my queue. I don’t want to ask Hier where she is attending classes. She might not be. It would be awkward to get past that, “What do you do to fill your days?” “Massages, manicures, and energy work." Her pupils narrow. The delicately plucked line of her red brow pulls in toward the center line of her face. She's scrutinizing me. She’s still working in the frame of the conversation according to cooperative prineiples, though she hasn’t established a.personal discourse. goal. A man.can-hope.though. As long.as she has not.violated or flouted. any. of the four axioms of cooperation, I can assume we are headed toward similar goals. Assumption. Perhaps not \Pethaps'sie is hereby aceident, Certainly, it would seem an odd place for a massage therapist to spend her Saturday evening, especially one as pretty as this. I have to guess now, She’s examining me for something....Judgment, I decide. Contrasting the socio-economic mean of the population of the party against the stated and, assumed cooperative, utterance, the most likely intent of scrutiny is her own self-conscious expectation of judgment. clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 7. In the context of the passage, what does the speaker mean by the term "frame of the conversation"? The physical setting in which the conversation takes place. The mental context or focus of the ongoing discussion. The structure and organization of the dialogue. The linguistic framework guiding the interaction. pomp 8. What does the speaker mean by "The pause is my queue"? A. The speaker perceives the pause as an opportunity (o exit the conversation. The speaker interprets the pause as a signal for him to continue speaking C. The speaker sees the pause as a chanée to reflect on the conversation. D. The speaker views the pause as a cue to introduce a new topic. ‘h of the following is not one of the characteristics of the narrator? Inquisitive Introspective Methodological Vexxed yap 10. W +h of the following best describes the writing style and structure of the passage? ‘A. The passage employs an expository style with a linear structure. B. The writing style is descriptive, while the structure is chronological C. It features an introspective style with a fragmented structure. D. The passage utilizes a narrative style with a cyclical structure. 11. In the context of the passage, why does the speaker find "coordinate openings" undesirable? A. They implya lack of cooperation, B. b) They hinder the progression of discourse goals. C. ©) They create false implications about conversation continuity. D. d) They inerease the likelihood of awkward exchanges. 12. How does the speaker's deliberation on the significance of asking a simple question like "hello" reflect broader themes of social norms, linguistic conventions, and interpersonal expectations? ‘A. It underscores the importance of linguistic precision and rhetorical strategies in effective communication. B. Itcritiques the superficiality of social niceties and the pressure to adhere to conventional scripts in social interactions C. /It interrogates therrole of politeness and social etiquette in mediating power dyamicsjund social hierarchies. D. It highlights the complexities of social interaction and the nuanced negotiation of social roles and identities in interpersonal encounters. clatniti.com NLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Passace IIT Thave been living in the UK for the past two years after completing my master’s in creative writing (Poetry) from the University of East Anglia. I have been moving between jobs and finding means to earn any little income to support my writing. On one such morning, I got to know that IIT Madras has reduced its five-year- long Integrated Masters to two. I was very unhappy to know about this, as it had taken us five long tedious years at the programme to showcase our rigorous academic merit. We learned a lot during these years in courses on literature, economics, international development, language sciences, and more. I was heartbroken to hear about this change in the curriculum. The Integrated Masters in Humanities and Social Sciences provided us a gateway — for some, this was a means to exploring the beautiful new city of Chennai, and for others this might have been about seeking plentiful opportunities. One could get into a high- paying, elite job after the course, or one could opt for higher studies that matched their interests and aptitude. Such an exposure, soon after our secondary education, proved to-be inspiring for our intellectual pursuits Personally, | would have preferred for it to stay as a five-year-long program, of I would have liked to see another Bachelors in Humanities and Social Sciences to be introduced at IIT Madras, With each passing day, I realize how difficult is to learn a humanities subject, including language and language sciences. To pursue the humanities, we requite institutions such as archives and publishing houses, as well as corporations to provide both material and financial support. I couldn’t at all grasp the reason why the humanities programme at the IIT Madras was reduced to a two-year master’s programme, The incoming students, coming from other institutions in India after completing their BA, wouldn’t be similar to.a sophomore seeing her future flourishing in a reputed center of higher eduéation, which was pretty much my case. With the revised system of two-year Masters at IIT Madras, a large number of students from different parts of the country will join the institute. However, we joined the institute as undergraduates ~ straight after our secondary education, It took me forever to complete the course. I remember, during the long five years of my Integrated Master’s program, the academic and artistic output I produced was intermittent and sparse. The shortened years of the eourse are similar to a vicious cut between theory, philosophy, texts, life skills and ways of living. Entry into this prestigious and important institute was to me about sharing interests, and ways of life with others who held different sets of values and beliefs. In a world where many reputed colleges and universities in India haye been shying away from offering a comprehensive humanities education, the 5-year Integrated Master’s programme at IIT Madras was a beacon of hope. The shutting down of the course'is symboli¢ of the impoverished state of humanities education in the country. B.W h of the following best defines the term "intermittent" as used in the passage? Continuous and uninterrupted Occurring regularly and predictably Occasional and irregular Rapicl and fleeting A. B. c D. 14. What does the author's reference to "a vicious cut between theory, philosophy, texts, life skills and ways of living" suggest about the impact of the reduction of the Integrated Masters program? A. It implies a loss of intellectual richness and depth in the educational experience. clatniti.com NLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative B. It underscores the disconnect between academic learning and practical application. C. Ithighlights the challenges of balancing diverse academic pursuits within a limited timeframe. D. It suggests a fragmentation of knowledge and a lack of coherence in the curriculum. 15. What underlying societal critique can be inferred from the author's disappointment regarding the reduction of the Integrated Masters program? The commodification of education and its impact on intellectual pursuits. The inequitable distribution of resources in higher education. The erosion of traditional values in academia. The prioritization of vocational training over liberal arts education. camp 16. What tone does the author primarily Convey in the passage? A. Optimistic and enthusiastic Disheartened and critical C. Sanguine and indifferent D. Reflective and discontended What role does the sentence "It took me forever to complete the course" have in the overarching argument? A. It serves as evidence of the atithor's perseverance despite challenges. B. It seeks to reinforce the idea that there is a significant need to have a longer and more holistic humanities course C. Itillustrates the author's impatience with the educational system. D. Itdoes not serve any significant purpose in furthering the overarching argument 18. What stance would the author most likely take regarding educational program duration? Advocating for flexible program durations tailored to individual student needs. Supporting the idea of shorter program durations to expedite entry into the workforce. Arguing for longer program durations to ensure comprehensivé leaning and skill development. Proposing the elimination of integrated programs in favor of specialized degrees. poRPp Passace IV In our times, owning land seems as natural as owning cars or houses. And this makes sense: The general presumption is that you can privately own anything, with rare exceptions for items such as dangerous weapons of archaeological artifacts. The idea of controlling territory, specifically, has a long tenure. Animals, warlords, and governments all'do it, and the modern conception of “fee simple”—thet is, unrestricted. perpetual. and private-ofand ownership has{existed in Englisiveormmon Iaww'sinee the 13th-eentury ‘THE RIGHT TO live is generally considered the first of the natural rights. But living requires physical space— a volume of at least several dozen liters for your body to occupy. It’s pointless to declare that someone has a right to something if they can’t acquire its basic prerequisites. For example, as a society we think everyone has a right to a fair trial; since you can’t meaningfully have a fair trial without a lawyer, if someone can’t 7 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative afford a lawyer, we provide one. Similarly, on planet Earth at least, occupying space necessarily implies oceupying land. Upper-floor apartments or underground bunkers still need the rights to the land below or above them. Thus, the right to life is actually derivative of the more primal right to physical space—and the right to space is derivative of the right to land, The problem with the right to land is that it’s all been taken. Long before our births, every inch of habitable land in the United States was claimed. Historically, the ethies of land ownership were probably shaped by a sense that it was always possible to find more land somewhere. In the 1800s, newspaperman Horace Greeley famously (might have) said that “Washington [DC] is not a place to live in. The rents are high, the food is bad. the dust is disgusting and the morals are deplorable.” The solution? “Go West, young man, go West and grow up with the country.” While some would argue that the first two sentences still apply. it is no longer possible to go west and claim 160 acres. Of course, we also can’t look, at. those sentences today Without feeling moral outrage. The land the homesteaders moved into was not, in fact, unclaimed, Native Americaiis had lived on and stewarded that land for generations. This is reminder of an important truth: Almost everyone who owns land today is the descendent, inheritor, or counter party of someone who took that land by force! Plus, no one made it, and as Mark Twain (probably never) said, “they’re not making any more of it.” The fact that we all need land to live, and that there’s no more land available, is the erux of the immorality in profiting from it. You're renting someone's rights baek to them, Everyone today is born with a kind of existential debt, From the moment you emerge, you're in a space that belongs to someone else, and from then on, money is spent each day to give you access to the space you require to exist. Land ownership, and the accompanying system of sales and rentals, merely allows some people to make money by gatekeeping a resource that no more belongs to oné OF ts than any of us. Economists call this “rent seeking,” and most of us call it “immoral.” 19. Which of the following figures of speech is being used in the underlined sentence? Sarcasm. Irony Allegory Satire pomp 20. Which philosophical concept underlies. the author's argument against profiting from land ownership? A. Utilitarianism: B. Social contract theory C. Virtue ethies D, Distributive justice 21. nthe passage, the/author's reference to Mark Twain's purported quote serves to: A. Highlight the transient nature of land ownership. B. Emphasize the ethical responsibility of property owners. C. Critique the capitalist exploitation of natural resources, D. Advocate for sustainable land management practices. clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 22. What is the author's main argument against the concept of land ownership as a natural right? The scarcity of habitable land necessitates stringent regulations. Land monopolization perpetuates inequality and exploitation. The historical origins of land acquisition are often unjust. The right to physical space is derived from the right to live. papp 23. Which statement best summarizes the author's argument regarding the morality of land ownership? A. Land ownership is a natural right that has been upheld since anci B. Profiting from land ownership is morally justifiable due to historical precedents. C. Land ownership perpetuates an unjust system of gatekeeping a finite resource, D. The scarcity of land necessitates stringent regulations on property ownership. times, 24. What is the author's primary purpose in discussing Horace Greeley's famous statement "Go ‘West, young man, go West"? To highlight the prevalence of Western expansionism in American history. To underscore the moral implications of land acquisition during the 19th century. To illustrate the historic belief in the availability of unclaimed land for settlement. To critique the unethical practices of land acquisition promoted by prominent figures. A. B. c. D. << | MATERIAL BHAIYA clatalti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PAssacE I ‘Narendra Modi has secured the backing of his political allies in order to form a government and is expected to be swom in over the weekend, after a dramatic election in which his party failed to secure an outright majority, At a meeting in Delhi after Tuesday’s shock results, parties in the National Democratic Alliance, which is led by Modi’s Bharatiya Janata party (BJP), pledged their support to Modi and backed his retum as prime minister for a historic third term, “We, the leaders of the NDA, unanimously elect Narendra Modi as our leader,” the party leaders said in a resolution. The BIP lost more than 60 seats in Tuesday's polls, bringing its total down to 240 — not enough for a parliamentary majority on its own. It was)the party’s worst electoral performance since it came to power in 2014 and was seen as a big blow to Modi But by Wednesday aftemoon thé BIP-léd alliance had announced an agreement to form a coalition government after a meeting at the prime minister’s residence, which would give them a total of 293 parliamentary seats. The BIP’s campaign had been largely centred on the strongman prime minister and relied heavily on the popularity and cult of personality of Modi, with almanifesto that was simple titled *Modi’s guarantee” However, the party suffered unexpectedly heavy losses in Hindi heartland states which had previously been considered BIP bastions, including Uttar Pradesh, home to 240 million people, after swathes of lower-caste voters tumed against Modi and the Hindu nationalist politics of his party. 25.How many members are to be nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha as mentioned under article 80 of the constitution? (As (By2 (C2 (D)10 26.In the recently held general elections 2024, which constituency was won uncontested by a BJP candidate? (A)Lucknow (B)Surat (©)Thrissur (D)Varanasi 27.Which of the following is true regarding India’s p I. Maharashtra has maximum number of constituencies. TL, The two union territories which have their separate legislative assemblies are New Delhi and Chandigarh, IIL, Narendra Modi is the only leader in history to be elected as the prime minister of India for 3 consecutive times. ical landscape? (A&I (BI & (C)AIL of the above (D)None of the above 40 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 28.Who among the following civil servants was recently in news for resigning from the post of election commissioner right before the announcement of general elections 2024? (A)Ashok Lavasa (B)Rajiv Kumar (C)Arun Goel (D)Gyanesh Kumar 29.In which year, Lok Sabha was dissolved prematurely for the first time? (Ay1970 (B)1999 (C1979 (Dy1984 Passage IL The US has said it is “evaluating” Hamas’ formal response to its Gaza ceasefire proposal, as the secretary of state, Antony Blinken, attémpts to channel global support for a UN security council resolution backing the proposal into pressure on the Palestinian militant group and Israel, Late on Tuesday, a Hamas official said they had submitted a response to Egyptian and Qatari mediators, seeking some “amendments”, and that their priority was to bring a “complete stop” to the war. A separate Hamas spokesperson, Jihad Taha, said the response included “amendments that confirm the ceasefire, withdrawal, reconstruction and [prisoner] exchange” Washington received the reply and was “evaluating it right now,” national security council spokesperson John Kirby told journalists on Tuesday night, while declining to provide details On its content, Blinken on Wednesday heads to Qatar, which along with Egypt is a key mediator with Hamas. On his second day of a visit to the Middle East on Tuesday, he said Israel’s prime minister, Benjamin Netanyahu, had “reaffitmed his commitment’*to the proposal, although the Israeli government, which has far- right members, has not formally endorsed it. Blinken met Israeli opposition leaders on Tuesday morning, and spoke privately to hostages” families before travelling to Jordan for an emergeniey summit on humanitarian aid for Gaza, where more than a million people are on the brink of famine and most of the population are displaced. 30.Who is the current president of Israel? (A)Benjamin Netanyahu (B)lssac Herzog (©)Yair Lapid (D)Naftali Bennet 31.Which among the following were the signatories of the historic camp David accords ? (Ajisraet’“ncl Saudi Arabia, (B)Israel and ran (Chisrael and Egypt (D)Israel and Jordan 1 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 32.W (AJUAE, (B)Bahrain (C)Morocco (D)Syria +h among the following country was not a signatory of the Abraham Accords? 33.Who among the following leader represented Palestinian interests in the Oslo Accords? (A)Yasser Arafat (B)Khaled Mashal (C)Mahmoud Abbas (D)Ismail Haniyeh 34.Which among the following is false? 1, UAE was the first Arab country to recognise Israel, II, Hamas was founded in the year 1987. IIT, 2000-20005 marks the petiod of Ist Palestinian intifada. IV. Israel captured Golan heights from Jordan in the year 1967, (ALI & Ul (B)I, I & IV (OL, MI & IV (D)All of the above Passage IIL Results of the June 6-9 European Parliament elections, in which about 51% 6370 million-plus electors in 27 European Union (EU) countries voted, showed gains for right wing and far right parties at the cost of mainly Left and liberal parties. The centre-right group European People’s Party (EPP) was projected to win the most seats, 186, in the [A]- member House that meets in Strasbourg, France — 10 more than in 2019, when too, the EPP was the largest group. The right wing Identity and Democracy (ID) group, which includes the French opposition leader Marine Le Pen’s far-right National Rally (NR), was projected to win 58 seats, a gain of 9 seats. In response, French President Emmanuel Macron called a snap election to Parliament, saying he could not ignore the outcome of the European election in which his pro-Europe Renaissance party performed badly. The Eurosceptic European Conservatives and Reformists (ECR) group, which is dominated by Italian Prime Minister Giorgia Meloni’s Brothers of Italy party, was projected to win 73 seats, a gain of 4. The EU is a unique supranational entity. Its member states pool their sovereignty to acquire a collective strength and global influence that they cannot achieve individually. 35. What is the maximum strength of Furopean parliament as replaced by [A] in the passage? (A)420 (B)620 (©9520 (D)720 12 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 36.Who among the following is the president of European parliament? (A)Giorgia Meloni (B)Emmanuel Macron (C)Roberta Metsola (D)Ursula Von Der Leyen 37.Who among the following is the president of European commission? (A)Ursula Von Der Leyen (B)Giorgia Meloni (C)Roberta Metsola (D)Christine Lagarde 38.Which among the following is true? 1, European parliament is the largest democratic electorate in the world IL, The length of a term of European parliament is 5 years. IIL. The first election to the European parliament took place in 1979. IV. David Sassoli is the cutrent secretary general of European parliament. (A&I Bue mM (OM &IV (D)L& IV 39.In which city are the offic (A)Strasbourg, France (B)Luxembourg city, Luxembourg (C)Lyon, France (D)Brussels, Belgium headquarters of European parliament located? Passage IV Multiple heavyweights find themselves in a scramble to qualify for the Super 8s of the ongoing T20 World Cup at the moment. Some teams aréunder pressure due to-washouts:ih group games while others suffered defeats that have put their chances in the balanee. The washout of their game against Nepal on Wednesday morning surely hurt the Sri Lankan team. The irony of this situation is that they will be forced to pray to the weather gods to help them move to the super 8 stage. After the washout in Lauderhill, Sri Lanka’s final game is against the Netherlands on June 17. If they win that, they will have three points since they were handed defeats by both South Africa and Bangladesh, Meanwhile, Bangladesh and Netherlends are already on two points with two games to £0 Aftersutféring defeats to USA and India, Pakistan finally mahaged to get some points onboard with a vietory over Canada, Their net run rate has risen to 0.191. Pakistan will need to beat Ireland, but will also need USA. to lose both their two remaining matches. According to calculations, even if USA manage to lose their two group matches by a combined margin of ten runs (with scores of 140 by the team batting first), a win by any margin will be enough for Pakistan as long as they score at least 112 batting first. 13 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 40.Which among the following is the correct venue of the ongoing ICC men’s T20 world cup? (A)England and Wales (B)USA and West Indies (C)Australia and New Zealand (D)South Africa and Namibia 41.Which among the following is the correct combination of the most successful teams in T20 world cup? (A)India and Australia (B)India and England (C)West Indies and England (D)West Indies and South Africa 42.Which among the following is false? I. Babar Azam is the highest fun scorer in 720 world cups. IL, Australia won its Ist ever T20 world cup in 2022 by defeating Pakistan. IIL. The inaugural T20 world cup was held in the year 2007, (L&I (By It (Ole Ml (D)AIlL of the above 43. Who among the following was awarded the ICC ODI player of the year 2023? (A)Virat Kohli (B)Babar Azam (C)Rohit Sharma (D)Kane Williamson 44.Which among the following teams won the inaugural edition of ICC Men’s T20 World Cup? (A)Australia (B)England (C)West Indies (DyIndia Passage V The Supreme Court of India on Tuesday issued notice to the centre and the National Testing Agency (NTA) of @ petition for the cancellation of the NEET UG result and noted the sanctity of the medical entrance examination has been affected. However. the top court did not put a stay om the counselling process for undergiad{iate medical acimissions The court said, “Sauctity has been affected, we need answers,” and tagged the petition filed by 10 NEET candidates and posted it along with a pending petition to be heard on July 8. The petitioners have caught the Supreme Court's direction to cancel the NEET UG exam and hold it again. They also challenge the National Testing Agency's decision to award grace marks to around 1,600 students, 14 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Meanwhile, the NTA has issued a statement regarding the viral video of a UP candidate's torn OMR sheet. There is growing dissatisfaction among students and parents regarding this year’s undergraduate medical entrance examination, Some students got 718 and 719 marks, and some scored 720 marks to become toppers, which was possible because of NTA’s decision to award grace marks to them. Ina press conference last week, NTA’s Director-General pointed out that the decision to give grace marks was taken as per a committee's recommendation, It added that those candidates were affected by time loss due to the distribution of wrong question papers and/or torn OMR sheets. Another four-member committee has been formed to review the issue. The agency said a final decision, including the possibility of a re-examination, will be made after the committee submits a report, which is likely within a week. 45.Who among the following is the Director General of NTA? (A)M. Jagdeesh Kumar (B)Ravneet Kaur (C)Subodh Kumar Singh (D)Ajay Sood 46.Who among the following is the current Education minister of India? (A)Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank (B)Dharmendra Pradhan (C)Ashwini Vaishnay (D)Hardeep Singh Puri 47.Which among the following is true? L. National Testing Agency was established in November 2017. Il. Ministry of Education is the parent ministry of NTA. IIL. The government appointed Vineet Joshi as the first Director-General of the agency. (A&I (BY & IL (Cl & I (D)All of the above 48.Which among the following is the correct abbreviation of NEET? (A)National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (B)National Entrance cum Eligibility Test (C)National Elimination cum Entrance Test (D)National Elimination cum Eligibility Test Passage VE After Rafi! Nadal rolled back onto the red clay as a.Gtend Slam championan Parissfor the third tinge 17 Years ago, he matter-of-fact declared his dream was the product of working “very hard to be the best”. ‘Nadal has epitomised big-match mentality in Paris and his blueprint, especially among future Spanish aspirants, of the efforts required to rule the roost on the terre battue in the French capital has become legendary. 15 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Spain did not have to wait long to crown their next Roland-Garros champion after Carlos Alearaz on Sunday denied Germany’s [A] for his third Grand Slam trophy, two years after Nadal’s 14th. Humble and diligent like his idol, Alcaraz rolled onto the terracotta dirt, battle-weary in triumph after he secured his third major title, 6-3, 2-6, 5-7, 6-1, 6-2. “Since I was a little kid finishing school running just to put the TV on to wateh this tournament and now I'm lifting the trophy in front of all of you,” Alcaraz said. “It's been unbelievable the support I receive. I feel like home.” 49.Who among the following emerged as runner up in the recently culminated Rolland Garros as replaced by [A]? (A)Stephanos Tsitsipas (B)Alexander Zverev (C)Rafael Nadal (D)Daniel Medvedev 50. Which among the following tournament is also known by the name of Rolland Garros? (A)French Open. (B)US Open (C)Australian Open (D) Wimbledon 51. Which among the following is the only player to win a Golden Grand Slam? (A)Pete Sampras (B)Rafael Nadal (O)Steffi Graf (D)Novak Djokovic 52.Which among the following is true? I. Novak Djokovic and Margaret Court currently hold the record for most grand slam singles titles. Il. Mahesh Bhupathi is the first and only Indian tennis player to win an Olympie Medal. IM. Rohan Bopanna is the oldest player to reach the top of the tennis doubles rankings. IV. Sania Mirza, Rohan Bopanna, Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupatiyafe the only four Indian tennis players to have won a Grand Slam in their careers. (AVL 1 & HL (B)IL, HI & IV (OL, WI & IV (D)AIl of the above << | MATERIAL BHAIYA 16 clatalti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative LEGAL REASONING PASSAGE I: ‘Nuisance as a tort refers to illegal interference with a person’s use or amusement of land, or a few rights over land, or something about it. The interference can be in any way, e.g., noise, vibration, water, smoke, smell, gas, etc. For an act to represent nuisance it should be prima facie wrongful or it ought to be an illegal interference with someone or his property. Firstly, it must create an inconvenience that the law considers actual damage. Every interference isn't always a nuisance. To represent a nuisance, the interference ought to be unreasonable. Thus, someone simply can’t deliver action for the inconvenience made by the traffic noise if his/her house is near a road, nor can someone sue his neighbour for playing or listening to normal music. The interference must be unreasonable. An interference that is not authorised with the use of the property of another person through some object either tangible-or intangible, which causes injury to the property, is actionable as nuisance. The interference may be through water, smoke, fumes, branches of trees, ete, Secondly, injury to comfort or health is actionable as'a nuisance. The standard of comfort varies from place t0 place and from time to time The test of discomfort isn't done keeping in mind selected person however the test is how a median man residing within the same space would take it. Thirdly, actual damage is required to be proved in an action for nuisance. The prescription can legalise an act of Nuisance in the ease of Private Nuisance i.e. doing the same activity causing nuisance for 20 years or more. When an act is carried out following the law, it isa complete defence. The remedies available to nuisance are generally in monetary form. An injunction or abatement may also be provided under certain conditions, An abatement order requires a business operating out of compliance to take specific actions or to shut down its operation. This is a severe remedy normally reserved for serious and repeated violators. An injunction is a court order requiring a person to do or cease doing a specific action. Source- https://www.northeastlawjournal.com/post/a-complete-guide-to-the-tort-of-nuisance Q53. Emily and David, neighbours for many years, find their peaceful coexistence disrupted when David begins hosting late-night outdoor events with loud speakers. This creates a disturbance for Emily, impacting her ability to rest and focus on her tasks. Despite Emily's attempts to address the issue with David, he dismisses her concerns, insisting on-his right to enjoy his property. Even after rec warning from local authorities about the noise levels, David not only continues but amplifies the disturbance by hosting even larger gatherings. Faced with persistent disruptions affecting her well- being, Emily decides to take legal action, filing a lawsuit for nuisance against David. Predict the likely outcome of the case. (A)Emily will not succeed because hosting events with loud speakers is a reasonable use of David's property. (B) Lolly will succeed hecansé thé)bagoiig disiiicbaaee Aas resulted if'bil tangible damageto,fier health. and daily life, (C) Emily will not succeed because David has been hosting events for a long time, making it permissible. (D)Emily will succeed because the continued unreasonable interference with her peaceful enjoyment of her property has caused harm. 7 clatniti.com NLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative QS4. Liam owns a quaint bookstore in a lively downtown district. One day, he becomes aware of a recently established gaming arcade that has opened up next door. Initially, he doesn't pay much attention, but over time, he notices that the areade is generating excessive noise and disruption in his store. The constant sounds of games and large crowds deter Liam's regular customers, and his employees struggle to focus on their tasks. The uncomfortable environment affects Liam's well-being, causing anxiety. Despite Liam's attempts to discuss the matter with the arcade owners, they refuse to make any adjustments or acknowledge the disturbance. Liam decides to take legal action, filing a lawsuit against the arcade owners for the tort of nuisance. Determine the likely outcome of the case. (A)Liam will prevail in the case because there was unreasonable interference with his rights over his property, causing discomfort and harm to his business. (B) The arcade will succeed in the case because they have the right to operate their business as they deem appropriate. (C) Liam will win the case as his property rights were unreasonably disrupted, resulting in the discomfort of an average person and harm to his business. (D)The arcade will succeed in the case as they established the areade in a commereial area with legal authorization to create reasonable interference with neighbouring establishments. Qs. ia resides in a serene suburban community, and her neighbouring house undergoes a transformation into a home-based music studio. The owners initiate a music school, attracting numerous students daily, causing noise and heightened activity in the otherwise tranquil neighbourhood. The persistent disturbance from the music school disrupts Olivia's abi to work from home, sleep peacefully at night, and enjoy her backyard. Despite Olivia's attempts to address the issue with her neighbours, they dismiss her concerns, asserting their right to operate a business from their residence. Frustrated, Olivia decides to pursue legal action and files a nuisance lawsuit against her neighbours. She presents evidence of the disruptive noise and activity caused by the music school accompanied by testimonies from other affected neighbours. If she prevails, what potential remedies might the court award in this case? (A) The Court may grant Olivia monetary compensation, considering factors such as the duration of interference and the extent of her discomfort. (B) The Court might issue an abatement order, requiring the music school to self-regulate noise levels, student numbers, or potentially cease operations, (C) The Court would issue an injunction instructing Olivia's neighbours to limit the student count, reduce noise levels, and implement measures to minimise the impact on the neighbourhood, coupled with potential monetary damages. (D)The Court may recommend. relocating the music school to-@ commercial area, prompting the neighbours to vacate their residential premises in the neighbourhood. Q56. Jake settles into a peaceful suburban neighbourhood with his family, anticipating a quiet living environment. However, the tranquillity is disrupted by the long-established Anderson family next door, who have been part of the community for over a decade. The Andersons frequently engage in noisy late- night activities, organising lively gatherings, and_allowing their visitors to park on Jake's proper Despite Jake's respectful requests to minimise the noise and avoid parking on his land, the Andersons persist in their ineonsiderate conduct, Adding fo the challenge, the Andersons own « boisterous parrot that squatwks incessantly, causing disturbance not only to Jake but to theentire neighbourhood over the years. Despite various complaints from fellow residents and interventions from animal control, the ‘Andersons remain unresponsive. In frustration, Jake decides to pursue legal action by filing a nuisance case against them. Will Jake succeed, and what potential outcomes may arise? (A)He will not succeed due to the Andersons benefiting from prescription, having engaged in these activities for many years before Jake moved in. 18 clatniti.com| ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative (B) He will succeed, as there was unreasonable interference causing discomfort to an average person, resulting in damages. (C)He will not succeed because the Andersons’ actions are deemed reasonable interference with Jake's rights, and managing animals can be challenging. (D)He will succeed, and the Andersons may be required to pay damages and cease their disruptive behaviour. Q57. Raj, a new resident in a bustling locality in Delhi, discovers that his next-door neighbour operates a noisy and odorous recycling facility that runs around the clock, causing nuisance to all the people living nearby. The fa .as been functioning for over twenty years. The persistent noise and pollution from the recycling plant severely disrupt Raj's sleep and contribute to health issues for him and his family. Seeking solidarity, Raj consults his neighbours, who express similar grievances. Despite Raj’s continuous appeals to his neighbour to mitigate the noise and pollution, the plant continues its operations with no consideration. for the adverse impact on. Raj's and his neighbours’ quality of life. Frustrated, Raj decides to pursue legal action against his neighbour for the nuisance they are causing him. Assess the situation. (A)Raj will succeed because there is unreasonable interference with his rights, causing discomfort to an average person and resulting in damage. (B) Raj will not succeed because he is a recent addition to the neighbourhood, and the duration is insufficient for him to claim nuisance. (C) Raj will succeed because the situation amounts to public nuisance, which is severely penalised in the Indian Penal Code. (D)Raj will not succeed because the recycling plant has been in operation for two decades, establishing its validity. PASSAGE 2: Section 56 of The Indian Contracts Act, begins by laying down a straightforward principle that “an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void”. For instance, an agreement to discover treasure by magic, because of its impossibility of performance, is void An agreement to do an act that is impossible from the very beginning whether the parties were aware of such impossibility or not the agreement will be void. This principle is not restricted to just physical impossibilities; it also applies to cases wherethe very. reason/object why the parties entered into the contract fails to materialise Hence, the doctrine of frustration applies in fWo-seenarios: 1. first where performance is physically impossible and 2. second where the very object/reason why the parties entered into the contract has failed to materialise, The doctrine of frustration is applicable to a great variety of contracts. It is impossible to lay down a straightforward list in which this doctrine applies and in which this doctrine does not apply. The law in this matter is always growing and evolving. Yet thcreafe few well-established Situatiois recognised by the courts where:the docirine 6* frustration applies and they are as follows: a. a party to a contract can be excused from performance if performance depends on the existence of that person or if the party becomes so ill that they will be unable to perform their obligations. Therefore, 19 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative where a contract requires personal performance by the promisor, his death or incapacity will put an end to the contract. b. The doctrine of frustration applies with full force when the actual subject-matter of the contract has ceased to exist. Subject matter of the contract is a thing without which a contract cannot be performed. Source- https://blog.ipleaders.in/impossibility-performance-frustration-contract/ Q58. Sophia, a renowned businesswoman, inherited a majestic mansion upon her marriage to the town's royal figure. Her sons lived independently, and she shared the grand residence with her husband. her husband passed away a few months later. In the aftermath, Sophia's dedicated caretaker, provided exceptional support and assistance. Grateful for Emily's unwavering commitment, Sophia decided to express her appreciation. During a conversation, they agreed that if Emily continued her valuable assistance, Sophia would allocate 20% of her art collection to Emily within a year. Unexpectedly, the following day, Sophia passed away. What will happen to the arrangement now? (A)Based on the principle of frustration; the agreement become null and void upon Sophia's demise. (B) In adherence to the doctrine of frustration, Sophia's heir is obligated to transfer the promised 20% of the art collection to Emily. (C) The agreement would be upheld since Emily had shown genuine dedication inher role, coupled with her commitment to supporting Sophia. (D)The contract will be annulled as Emily is no longer requited to provide assistance, resulting in the absence of any art collection share. Q59. Ella, an avid art collector, approached her friend David, who owned an art studio with several prized paintings. Ella was particularly drawn to a vibrant landscape painting, and the two agreed on a price. The contract was scheduled to be finalised on April 15th. Unfortunately, the painting was damaged beyond repair on April 10th. Ella now insists that David should offer another painting from his collection. Comment on Ella's demand based on the passage. (A) David is obligated to offer an alternative painting because the contract has already been established, and Ella has already made the payment. (B) David is not obligated to provide another painting as a replacement be: the irreparable damage to the chosen painting, (C)It is at David's diseretion to decide whether to offer an altemative painting after the damage to the chosen artwork. (D) David is required to offer an alternative painting because the damage to the chosen artwork resulted from David's negligence. se the contract is void due to Q60. Emily, a seven-year-old, had a special plant given to her by her grandmother. After watching a movie featuring a magical talking plant, she expressed her wish to her father, Jason, for her plant to communicate. In response, they reached an agreement where Jason promised to make the plant communicate. Despite Jason's sincere efforts and extensive research, he couldn't fulfil the promise. What legal options are available to Emily? Decide. (A)As Emily is « minor, she lacks legal recourse, as the agreement is considered void from the beginning. (BY Considering Jason's inability tomake theplant communicate constitutes a breach oFagreement, Emily, presented by a légal gnardian, can iifiatelle sal action agdinst her fathe dl (C) Emily is not eligible to sue her father because the agreement to make the plant communicate is null and void due to its impossibility to perform. (D)Sinee there cannot be a valid contract between a father and a daughter regarding a plant, Emily has no legal recourse 20 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Q61. Sarah and Mark agreed to a contract in which Mark promised to offer cooking lessons to Sarah for a month in exchange for a fee of one thousand dollars. The initial sessions were successful, but during the second week, Mark faced a sudden injury and was advised complete rest by the doctor. Consequently, he was unable to conduct the lessons as per the agreed terms of the contract. Despite this setback, Mark assured Sarah that he would make up for the missed classes once he recovered. With a cooking competition coming up the following month, Sarah, concerned about the breach of contract, decided to take legal action against Mark. Decide. (A) Since Mark's injury caused the cancellation of the classes, rendering the contract void, Mark shall not be held accountable (B) Mark will be held accountable because his breach of the contract put Sarah at risk of performing poorly in the cooking competition. (C) Mark will be held responsible for his failure to fulfil his contractual obligations in a timely manner. (D)Since Mark committed to make up for the missed classes in the future, he shall not be held accountable. Q62. Which of the following statements cannot be concluded from the passage? (A) Whether the parties were aware of the impossibility or not, an agréement to perform an act that is impossible from the start will be void. (B) The rule of frustration will not simply apply to logical impossibiliti parties’ original intent behind entering the contract was unsuccessful (C) The court determined that the law of frustration is applicable because both parties to the contract acknowledged that the primary purpose of the agreement was to view the coronation proceedings. (D)A wide range of contracts are subject to the notion of frustration hence it is impossible to establish a clear list of situations in which this idea applies and in which it does not. it also holds true when the PASSAGE 3: ‘Mens rea is the source of the Latin maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea. Actus non facit reum nisi ‘mens sit rea clarifies the application of mens rea in criminal law. It asserts that a person is only guilty of committing a crime if the conduct is done with the purpose to commit a crime. This maxim is used to judge whether certain conduet is illegal or not. Crimes done with a particular intent, rather than unforeseen or inadvertent acts, are subject to harsher penalties, However, no violation of the law may go unpunished. The defence of insanity is a law that protects a person who is incapable of understanding the nature of the act done by him. If the person knew what he was doing or was only under a partial delusion, then he is punishable There is an assumption that every man is prudent or sane and know’ whathe is doing, and is responsible for the same. To establish a defence based-on insanity, it must be ascertained at the time of perpetrating the act the accused was in such a state of mind as was unable to know the nature of the act committed by him, A person who has sufficient medical knowledge or is a medical man and is familiar with the disease of insanity cannot be asked to give his opinion because it is for the jury to determine and decide upon the questions. It must be clearly demonstrated in order to establish the defence of insanity that at the time of the act, the accused was working under such a defect of reason from mental illness, as he didn't know the nature and the qualities of the act he was doing, or he did not know what he was doing was wrong. The unsouringss of mind should be of sib Alex fEht that it makes the offender completely incompetent in knowing the uature of the act. Uhe factor thai the person is sufieung from a mental illness is by itself not sufficient to prove that he is insane, Under Indian law, the rationale of insanity as a defence is incorporated in Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, and is based upon the “MeNaughton's Rule.” The burden of proof is always on the defendant, and it has to be proved beyond a reasonable doubt. The Law Commission of India in its 42nd report, made an effort to reanalyse Section 84, but no modifications were made. 21 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Source - https://blog.ipleaders.in/insanity-defence-indian-penal-code/ Q63. Rachel, a person struggling with substance abuse, attended a gathering where she learned about new types of medications. She consumed a pill, and suddenly, she felt disoriented. Soon, she began experiencing vivid hallucinations, envisioning a threatening figure resembling her abusive family member. Reacting out of fear, she grabbed a nearby object and, in the haze, unintentionally caused harm to the person. Tragically, the individual succumbed to the injuries. Later, Rachel realised that the person was her close friend and not the imagined threat. In the legal proceedings following the incident, can she use the defence of insanity? (A) She can use the defence of insanity because certain substances are known to impair cognitive functions. (B)She cannot use the defence of insanity as she was merely hallucinating and not experiencing diminished mental capacity. (C)Rachel genuinely believed that her abusive family mémber was present, and her actions were driven by fear, making the defence of insanity applicable: (D)She will be held responsible forthe incident as her actions Were influenced by substance use, and the defence of insanity may notbe applicable. Q64. Alex, a devoted parent, celebrated the first birthday of his child after a year of marriage, Overjoyed with fatherhood, he decided to take his six-month-old daughter on an outdoor adventure near a lake. Unfortunately, they both accidentally fell into. n muddy pond, raising concerns about nfections due to the mud. Spotting a nearby well, Alex attempted to clean his daughter by lowering her into the well and then jumped in himself. passerby, who was tending to his flock of sheep, discovered them. Alex was unconscious, and tragically, his daughter did not survive. Can he be held responsible for the unintentional death of his child? Decide. (A)No, as the actions suggest awareness of the potential consequences, he cannot escape liability (B) His intention was solely to clean his child, and the child's death occurred accidentally during the process. (C) There is evidence to indicate that he intended harm, making it challenging to establish liability. (D)No, his actions indicate potential insanity, suggesting he was not in control of his actions, and he may claim insanity as a defence. Q65. Professor Michelle, a renowned psychologist, had a flourishing career in the field of mental health, attending to numerous patients. One day, her spouse noticed an unusual occurrence; they found her engaged in a conversation with an inanimate object, sparking concerns of possible possession. Although the incident seemed isolated, such behaviour became recurrent. Tragically, Professor Michelle committed a grievous act, leading her spouse to seek: legal intervention. Claiming insanity, Professor Michelle argued that her profession and expertise in psychology should be considered valid grounds for her defence. Can she legitimately make such a claim? Decide. (A)No, as if she were genuinely insane, she might lack the self-awareness to make such a determination. (B) Yes, given her successfull career in psychology, she possesses a deep understanding of her mental state. (C)No, her personal opinion does not carry weight; the court must impartially decide on her mental condition, (D) The vidlent act she committed) iddicd{SS pOTontial insanity, warrdiling considotation Forj@ defence base«! on mental incapacity. Q66. Vikram, an artist deeply immersed in his craft, harboured unconventional beliefs, including an interest in mysticism. He sought guidance from a spiritual mentor named Guru Ananya, who suggested that committing a unique act would bring Vikram unparalleled success in his artistic endeavours. 22 clatniti.com| ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Acting upon this advice, Vikram, dun fellow artist. Consequently, he faced charges related to the incident, influence and his desire for artistic acclaim led to his actions. Can he legitimately claim insanity? Decide. (A)No, as he demonstrated awareness of his actions, making an insanity defence unlikely. (B) Yes, given his unquestioning adherence to Guru Ananya's guidance, indicating potential mental instability. (C) The determination of whether he had comprehension of his actions needs to be thoroughly examined. (D) The available facts suggest Vikram had an understanding of his actions, making an insanity claim plausible. Q67. Suppose, in the revised scenario, it was later revealed that Guru Anirudh was genuinely mentally unstable and was feigning a spiritual persona without a true understanding of his actions. Can Vikram still be held responsible? Decide. (A) Yes, as now Vikram eaninot be blamed; he placed trust in soméone he believed was a genuine spiritual guide (B) Yes, as Vikram still demonstrated awareness of his actions despite the misled guidance. (C)No, as Vikram relied on a spiritual figure and committed an offence unknowingly. (D) Vikram's pursuit of acclaim and decision to harm someone was independent of Guru Anirudh's mental state, making him accountable. PASSAGE 4: The term ‘copyright’ concerns the rights oftthe creators/authors of literary and artistic works. Copyright is also called a ‘literary right” or ‘author’s right’. Copyright gives an author exclusive right to his creation and prevents the copying and unauthorised publishing of his works Copyright protection begins at the very moment a work is created and expressed in some tangible form and is granted to an original creation/work and extends only to expressions. Mere ideas are not granted legal protection and they do not form the subject matter of copyright. Copyright protects the following two rights of the author: a. Economie rights, of the owner's ability to profit financially from another party's use of their creations. For example, the ability to permit or forbid the use of the work in varius forms of reproduction, the ability to thwart unauthorised translations of the work, etc. b. Moral rights ie., protection of'non-economie interests of the author. Example the right to oppose changes to work, the right to claim authorship; etes"The following categories of works typically come under copyright protection: Literary works (novels, plays, poems, magazines and newspaper articles); Computer programs and databases; films, musical compositions, and choreography; Artistic works (photographs, paintings, drawings, and sculpture); Architecture and advertisements, maps, and technical drawings. In India copyright is dealt under The Copyright Act, 1957 which states that copyright protection is granted throughont the lifetime of the author anc 60 years then after. Section 51 of ihe Copyright Aci. 1957 provides for ‘Wiha constitutes copyright infringement ewhich include’ When someone uses a space for the purpose of communicating a work to the public without permission or in violation of the terms of a licence, or when they do something that the copyright owner of the work has the sole right to do. Infringing copies of the work may not be made, sold, rented, shown, offered for sale or rental, 23 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative distributed, displayed in public, imported into India, or used for commercial purposes in a manner that would be unfair to the owner of the copyright. Section 52 enlists the acts which don’t constitute an infringement of copyright including fair dealing in any work for private use /research, reproducing any work for the purpose of a judicial proceeding or replication by a teacher or a pupil in the course of teaching ete Source- https://blog.ipleaders.in/an-overview-of-the-copyright-act-1957, Q68. Arjun had a unique concept for a new mobile application. Uncertain about its potential, he shared his thoughts with his friend Rohan to gain insights and feedback. However, Rohan, intrigued by the idea, decided to develop and launch the application under his own name, taking credit for the concept. When Arjun discovered this, he decided to pursue legal action for intellectual property infringement. Will he succeed? (A) Since intellectual property Jaws protect Ofiginal ideas from unauthorised use, Arjun has a strong ease for enforcement. (B) Arjun cannot claim intellectual property infringement as the Concept for an application is not safeguarded under these laws. (C) Given the illicit theft of Arjun's idea without consent, he is likely to succeed in asserting intellectual property infringement. (D)Arjun's concept, being an idea, is not covered by intellectual property rights, and hence, he may not be successful in claiming infringement. Q69. Aditi conducted extensive research on workplace discrimination for her article intended for publication in a journal. She also sought copyright protection for her work. R, an adyocate representing an employee facing discrimination, incorporated Aditi's article into the legal arguments during a court hearing. Upon discovering this, Aditi filed a lawsuit against R under the Copyright Act of 1957. Given the new scenario, select the most appropriate response. (A) The author holds an exelusive right to their work through copyright, and Aditi is likely to succeed in her lawsuit (B) As per section 52, utilising a work for legal proceedings is not a copyright infringement, making Aditi's case less likely to succeed. (C) Considering R's unauthorised use of Aditi's work, infringing on her copyright, she stands a good chance of success in the lawsuit, (D)Aaiti's legal action may ‘hot suéceed against R because the subjéct matter she is claiming is not protected by copyright and lacks such protection, Q70. In 1975, Aman designed a unique logo for the brand PQR Coffee, which received copyright protection. The distinctive logo garnered widespread attention due to its innovative design. Aman passed away in 1990. Fast forward to 2025, a new coffee brand, LMN Coffee, emerged. Faced with challenges in creating their own logo, LMN Coffee opted to unlawfully use the copyrighted logo from the PQR Coffee brand in their marketing materials. Subsequently, a legal action was initiated against LMN Coffee for violating the copyright of the logo. Share your insights on the situation. (ayiPfe legal action hay 01 siicceed since Jogos ate ot typically protected under copyright aud. are excluded from the copyright act of 1957. (B) Given that the legal action is initiated within 60 years of Aman's death, there's a chance it could succeed under the copyright act of 1957. (C) The fact that the logo was copied after Aman’s demise might hinder the success of the legal action under the copyright act of 1957. 24 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative (D)Considering the infringement occurred, the legal action may have grounds for success under the copyright act of 1957. Q71. In 2010, filmmaker Zara created an original documentary and secured copyright protection fc her work. Meanwhile, renowned director Alex aspired to produce a groundbreaking documentary for theatres but struggled to develop a compelling storyline. One day, Alex encountered his former colleague Zara and previewed her unreleased documentary. Impressed, he sought Zara's permission to release the documentary under his own name. Zara, trusting her friend, agreed to the proposal. However, upon watching the released documentary, Zara realised that her work had been modified, leading to a violation of her copyright under the Copyright Act of 1957. Assess the situation. (A) Since the documentary is yet to be released, Zara's copyright is not infringed under the Copyright Act of 1957, (B) The alterations made to the original work constitute a violation of Zara's copyright under the Copyright Act of 1957. (C) While Zara's work is tangible, it falls outside the protected categories of copyright, and thus, there is no infringement, (D)As Alex copied and réleased Zara's documentary in theatres, which is Safeguarded by the Copyright Act of 1957, the copyright infringement is evident. Q72. Which statement cannot be directly inferred from the information provided in the passage? (A) When an individual engages in actions that mimié the exclusive rights of a copyright owner, such as utilising a space to share a work with the public without permission or in violation of a licence. (B) Copyright protection is granted to original works and only encompasses expressions. It commences the moment a work is ereated and expressed in some tangible form. Basic ideas are not shielded by copyright and lack legal protection, (C) The Copyright Act of 2030 specifies that copyright protection is extended for 80 years after it comes under copyright. (D)As per Section 36, reasonable dealings with works for personal enjoyment or exploration, replicating works for lawful purposes, instructors employing copies produced by students during lessons, and other practices are not considered copyright violations. PASSAGE 5: In the wake of murder of a young’doctor at\a government hospital in Kerala’s Kollam district, the state government brought an ordinance that Would make punishments for acts of violence against healthcare workers more stringent. The ordinance to amend the Kerala Healtheare Service Persons and Healthcare Service Institutions (Prevention of Violence and Damage to Property) Act, 2012 proposes that anyone who commits, attempts to commit, incites or inspires an act of violence against a health worker be given a minimum of six months and almaximum of five years imprisonment. A fine of «minimum of Rs 50,000 and-e maximumof RS 2 lakh will also be levied trom the ofiender. Under the existing “gt, the punishafient fox, such eringes inéluded imprisonment foF@ mnaikibnum period of three years and a maximum fine of Rs 50,000. In ease an act of violence on a healthcare worker causes grievous bodily harm, the ordinance proposes imprisonment for a minimum of one year and a maximum of seven years The fine in such cases will be a minimum of Rs | lakh and a maximum of Rs $ lakh. Approved at a Cabinet meeting, the ordinance also extends protection under the Act to paramedical students, security guards, 25 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative managerial staff, ambulance drivers, helpers and other health workers notified by the government. The existing Act already covers registered medical practitioners, registered nurses, medical students, and paramedical staff working at healthcare institutions. As per the ordinance, cases registered under the amended Act would be investigated by an officer of the rank of inspector, and the investigation would be completed within 60 days. A court in every distriet would be assigned as a fast-track court for the trial of such cases. The ordinance came amid a clamour from the medical fraternity in Kerala to ensure the safety of healtheare workers in the state following the murder of Dr Vandana Das. The 23-year-old was stabbed to death in the government taluk hospital at Kottarakkara in Kollam district by school teacher $ Sandeep, who was brought to the hospital by police for treatment of an injury he had sustained earlier The man was an alcoholic and was under the influence of algohol at the time, police had said. The Indian Medical Association and the Kerala Government Medical Officers Association had highlighted that under the existing Act, those committing violence against healtheare workers Were not getting deterrent punishment. Source- _ https://indianexpress.com/article/india/kerala/doctor-murder-kerala-cabinet-ordinance-amend- healthcare-service-law-8614254, Q73. Upon receiving an urgent call demanding immediate assistance at Prime Tranquil, a residential complex in the outskirts, James, the ambulance driver, was tasked with mobilising his team swiftly. However, en route, James encountered an unexpected roadblock caused by an impatient driver, Lisa. Lisa, visibly annoyed, honked incessantly and verbally berated James before physically pushing him aside and speeding away. Determine the appropriate consequences for Lisa's actions. (A)Considering the urgency of James's mission, Lisa may be exempt from penalties for momentarily halting the ambulance. (B) Lisa should be held accountable for resorting to violence against an ambulance driver and should face legal consequences. (C) Lisa's liability might be dependent on whether James, the ambulance driver, sustained any injuries during the altercation. (D)Given that James had the chance to manoeuvre the ambulance upon noticing Lisa's continuous honking, James may share responsibility for the incicent. Q74. In the midst of a widespread health crisis, where a new strain ofa contagious illness swept through the nation, a large portion of the population fell victim to the virus. Hospitals, overwhelmed by the influx of patients, reached their capacity. Emily, who had just experienced a severe allergic reaction, urgently arrived at the hospital seeking immiediate care. However, due to the shortage of available spaces, the hospital was unable to admit any more patients. Frustrated and in pain, Emily's agitation grew, leading her to throw objects at both the attending nurse and doctor. Assess Emily's legal responsibility in this situation. (A)Emily cannot be held liable 2 urgent medical condition. B)Emity will be held accountable for pressuring the hospital to sdmit her despite the exhausted ‘aoComnodations (C) Emily should not face the hospital. (D)Enmiily is responsible for committing a violent act against hospital staff and will face consequences for her actions. she had no intention to harm healthcare workers and was reacting to her lity as she was in a medical emergency and should have been admitted to 26 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative Q75. Lakeside Retreat, a wellness centre in Thiruvananthapuram, catered to individuals seeking serenity and mental health support. In order to maintain a secure environment, the centre enforced locked doors, and Mark was appointed as the security guard. Greg, who was visiting a friend for emotional support, arrived during a period when entry was restricted. Frustrated by the refusal, Greg, without any mental health issues himself, swung his weapon at the security guard, damaging the lock, and gained unauthorised entry. This resulted in a disruption, with several therapy animals escaping the facility. Evaluate Greg's accountability in this scenario. (A) Greg will be held accountable because he resorted to violence against the security guard. (B) Greg should be held responsible as his actions directly led to the escape of therapy animals from the facility. (C) Greg should not be held liable if it can be proven that the security guard did not suffer any injuries (D)Greg should not be held liable based on. the premise that security guards are not covered by the Thiruvananthapuram Wellness Service Persons and Wellness Service Institutions Act of 2015. Q76. Victor, the mastermind behind the notorious criminal syndicate "Shadow Serpents," was apprehended in a dire state, having suffered the traumatic severance of his right hand. Rushed to the hospital for urgent medical attention, Victor became the focal point of a daring rescue mission orchestrated by his accomplices. Operating under the cover of darkness, armed with heavy weaponry and explosives, the gang infiltrated the medical facility. A vigilant nurse named Sarah discovered their activities and promptly alerted the hospital staff. In their endeavour to free Victor, the gang members resorted to firing shots in the air, creating chaos before successfully liberating him. Following the incident, the gang members were apprehended, and an inquiry was initiated. Determine the appropriate course of action in handling this situations (A) The inquiry might not be warranted since no harm was inflicted on hospital staff: (B) An investigation in such cases should be conducted by an inspector-ranked officer and concluded within a stipulated time frame, not exceeding sixty days. (C) The CBI should take charge of the investigation, as cases involving criminal organisations often fall within their jurisdiction, (D) The passage provides no information about the ongoing investigation in eases of this nature PASSAGE When one party delegates some authority to another party whereby the latter performs his actions on behalf of the first party, the relationship between them is called an agency. An Agent is a human person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealing with third persons. The person for whom such an act is done, or who is so represented, is called the “principal”. Therefore, the person who has delegated his authority will be the principal. Any person who has attained the age of majority and has a sound mind can appoint an agent. In other words, any person capable of contracting can legally appoint an agent. Minors and persons of unsound mind cannot appoint an agent. The person who has attained the age of majority and has a sound mind con become an agent, A sound mind and a mature age is a necessity because an agent hs fo, bosfiswerable to the prineipal. An agency is generally created by: 1. Direct (express) appointment: The standard form of creating an agency is by direct appointment. When a person, in writing or speech appoints another person as his agent, an agency is created between the two. It can also be done by implication 27 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 2. Necessity: In a situation of necessity, one person can act on behalf of another to save the person from any loss or damage, without expressly being appointed as an agent. This creates an agency out of necessity. 3. Ratification: When an act of a person, who acted as another person’s agent (on his behalf) without his knowledge is later ratified by that person, this creates an ageney by ratification between the two. Authority of an agent can be either express or implied or both. The authority is said to be express when itis given by words spoken or written, Authority is said to be implied when it is to be inferred from the facts and circumstances of the case. In carrying out the work of the principal, the agent can take any legal action. That is, the agent can do any lawful thing necessary to carry out the work of the principal. Source- https://blog.ipleaders.in/law-of-agency-what-is-principal-agent-relationship/ Q77. In the lively town of Rivertown, Rachel is the proud owner of an event planning business named "Epic Occasions." Keen on expanding her success, Rachel ventures into a new territory by establishing a satellite office in the neighbouring city. Seeking professional guidance for this expansion, Rachel enters into a contractual arrangement with a business consultant named Nathan, Renowned for his expertise, Nathan is granted authority by the contract to act on Rachel's behalf in all matters concerning the new office, from negotiating with vendors to staffing and marketing decisions. During Rachel's absence at an industry conference, Nathan stumbles upon a captivating opportunity — an offer from a prominent convention centre to collaborate with Epic Occasions for exclusive event planning services. Nathan thoroughly evaluates the proposal and, deeming it advantageous, proceeds to sign the agreement without awaiting Rachel's explicit approval, assuming she would appreciate the outcome. Upon Rachel's return, she was initially taken aback by Nathan's independent decision. However, after reviewing the terms, Rachel ultimately approves the contract. Evaluate the validity of the contract considering the circumstances. (A)It is valid because there was authority given to Nathan for signing the contract. (B) It is not valid because Nathan lacked the authority to sign the contract (C)IIt is valid because there was ratification of Nathan's act by Rachel (D)It is not valid because Nathan is an independent contractor, not an agent. Q78. In the pursuit of acquiring a smaller firm named "Inno Tech," a company named "Tech Solu aims to optimise its contract negotiations and risk management. Opting for cutting-edge AI solu Tech Solutions engages the services of "Cogni Contracts," an AL agency specialising in contract analysis and negotiation. Cogni Contracts employs their state-of-the-artAT system, "Contract Genius," to scrutinise existing contracts, identify potential risks, and propose modifications. In a groundbreaking decision, Tech Solutions grants Contract Genius the authority to independently negotiate and finalise the acquisition contract based on the information provided by Tech Solutions' representatives. Assess the legality of this arrangement. (A)IItis legally sound as Tech Solutions explicitly authorised Contract Genius to sign the contract (B) Itis illegal since the relationship between Tech Solutions and Cogni Contracts is that of a contractor, not an agent. (CTL is-tegally permissible even without welearprinei ogni Contracts. (D)Itis unlawful since Contract Genius doesn't fall within the legal definition of an agent. ageat relationship between Tec’ Solutions and Q79. Mark, the owner of a successful design firm called Visionary Studios, receives an exciting proposition to collaborate with a renowned sports brand-named Athletic Trends. The sports brand seeks Visionary Studios! expertise for a high-profile design project related to their upcoming athletic gear 28 clatniti.com| ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative line. While Mark is enthusiastic about the opportunity, he realises that his company is currently stretched thin with ongoing client commitments. Recognizing the potential of the collaboration, he decides to delegate the responsibility to a trusted colleague, Emily, who also has a background in design. Mark verbally empowers Emily to make time-sensitive decisions, sign contracts, and negotiate on behalf of the firm. He provides her with a general budget and specific design guidelines, requesting weekly progress reports. However, in a time-sensitive situation, Emily exceeds the budget by arranging an impromptu photo shoot and funds it by borrowing money from an unconventional source. Evaluate whether Emily has exceeded her authority. (A)No, she has not exceeded her authority because she was authorised to make urgent decisions (B) Yes, she has exceeded her authority because she engaged in an unlawful activity to execute Mark's work. (C)No, she has not exceeded her authority because it falls within implied authority (D) Yes, she has exceeded her authority because she was allocated a specific budget. Q80. A rising star in the culinary world, Chef Olivia, known for her innovative cooking style, attracts the attention of a prestigious restaurant group named "Gourmet Ventures." The group, represented by their spokesperson, David, approaches Olivia with a contract proposal The agreement outlines the terms for a collaboration on a series of signature dishes, promotional activities, and profit-sharing arrangements. David asserts that he acts as an authorised agent for Gourmet Ventures, possessing the authority to negotiate terms, including finaneial aspects, and to enter into contraets on their behalf. Trusting David's representation, Olivia is the contract after successful negotiations on financial terms. However, it later surfaces that David lacked the authority to negotiate financial terms in the contract. What corrective action could be taken to validate the contract in this context? Decide. (A)Gourmet Ventures can execute a new contract with David, explicitly authorising him to negotiate financial terms. (B)An amendment can be made to the existing contract” between Gourmet Ventures and David, incorporating provisions for financial negotiation. (C) Gourmet Ventures can ratify David's signing and negotiation, thereby validating the contract. (D)The contract was inherently valid, as it constituted a lawful exercise of authority by David under express authorization. PASSAGE It refers to a person charged with a ¢riminal offence (accused) negotiating with the prosecution for a lesser punishment than what is provided:in law by pleading guilty to a less serious offence. It primarily involves pretrial negotiations between the accused and the prosecutor. It may involve bargaining on the charge or in the quantum of sentence. Cases for which the practice is allowed are limited. Chapter XXI A was inserted in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005, Plea Bargaining is mainly of three types: 1. Charge bargaining: This is the form of bargaining in which the defendant agrees to plead guilty to the offence in exchange fora leSserserious.ehiuge than the one initiall tiled by the prosecutionyin ‘yhieh There Were miuch. ore serious charges. This, kind ot, bargaining, is pesmissiblesin cases Where\the ‘maximum punishment is imprisonment for seven years or less. 29 clatniti.com| ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 2. Sentence bargaining: In this form of bargaining, the defendant or the accused agrees to plead guilty to the offence on the original charges filed by the prosecution in expectation of receiving a lesser sentence than they might receive if convieted at the trial 3. Fact bargaining: This form of bargaining is generally not favoured by the courts, as it is considered to be against the criminal justice system. It involves an agreement between the defendant and the prosecution where they both agree on specific facts or evidence that will be presented or omitted at the trial. This way, only a particular set of facts is presented to the court. This could affect the strength of the case, and there are chances that a more favourable outcome would come in favour of the defendant. Under the CrPC, plea bargaining is available for offences that are punishable by up to seven years imprisonment. This instrument also cannot be used in offences that affect the socio-economic condition of the country (for example offences affecting health & safety of the general publie ete.) or where the offence is committed against a woman or a child below 14 years of age. Source- https://blog.ipleaders.in/plea-bargaining-practice-india/#Types of plea bargaining Q81. Sarah faced allegations of selling counterfeit cosmetics in her beauty store and was found liable under section 8 of the Consumer Protection Act, which mandated a penalty of 4 years of imprisonment. Before the trial commenced, Sarah submitted a plea-bargaining application in court. In this context, which of the following statements is accurate? Decide. (A)Plea Bargaining is relevant here since the prescribed punishment is less than 7 years. (B) Plea bargaining is applicable here since the offence committed is notof severe nature (C)Plea bargaining is not applicable here as the offence committed pertains to the safety of the general public. (D)Plea bargaining is not applicable here since the application should be submitted after the trial. Q82. In a legal matter, Alex was accused of violating environmental, regulations under the Environmental Protection Act, carrying a potential penalty of three years of imprisonment and a fine of twenty thousand dollars. Alex pursued a plea-bargaining application, which was approved by the court. Subsequently, an agreement was reached between Alex and the prosecutor, involving a selective presentation of facts in return for a guilty plea. In this scenario, which of the following statements holds true? Decide. (A) The above situation is an example of Sentence bargaining, as the prosecutor refrained from presenting certain fact (B) The above situation is an example of Fact bargaining, as the prosecutor committed to dropping specific charges against Alex. (C) The above situstion:is-an example of Sentence bargaining, as the prosecutor negotiated foraless severe punishment, (Dy Tho-cbave situation is an cxample of Fact bargaiaing, as there wosa selcetive representation of facts iring\the agreemént process. Q83. In a trade agreement, Green Scape Co. and Blue Craft Ltd. entered into a contract where Green Scape was obligated to deliver 50 crates of customised pottery to Blue Craft by November 15, 2022. Unfortunately, unforeseen logistical challenges led to Green Scape inability to fulfil its contractual 30 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative obligations, resulting in a breach of contract. Green Scape was directed to compensate damages amounting to 75,000 dollars. Subsequently, Green Scape filed an appeal in the civil court for pl bargaining. In this context, which of the following statements is accurate? Decide. (A) The application will fail since a breach of contract has widespread implications for the country's socio- ‘economic condition (B) The application will be suecessful since Green Scape breach of contract was unintentional. (C) The application will be suecessful since the penalty imposed was solely a fine and not imprisonment. (D) The application will fail since plea bargaining is not applicable in cases of breach of contract. Q84. After being accused of embezzlement and fraud under the Financial Fraud Act, Rachel submitted a plea-bargaining application in the district court. Following negotiations with the prosecution, she secured a reduction in the prescribed punishment. Unhappy with the district court's verdict, Rachel lodged an appeal in the Appellate court. Will her appeal be considered by the court? Decide. (A) Yes, as anyone dissatisfied with the district court's decision has the right to approach the Appellate court. (B) Yes, as an appeal is equivalent to a writ petition. (C)No, as the judgement after plea bargaining is deemed final. (D)No, as her punishment was already mitigated, << | MATERIAL BHAIYA 31 clatalti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative LOGICAL REASONING PASSAGE I Wrestlers demanding the arrest of Wrestling Federation of India (WF) president and Bharatiya Janata Party Member of Parliament Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh, who has been accused of sexual harassment, continue to discuss their plans to keep their stir alive. The protest is no longer about the technicality of the investigations. There can be no two opinions on the platitude of the law taking its own course. The fact that an MP of the ruling party faces no political censure in the face of such serious allegations, including under POCSO, is disturbing for probity in public life, and sports administration. The Delhi Police maintain that the cases against Mr. Singh are under investigation and a status report will be submitted in the court. But the fact that the police force had to delete its own social media posts that made this benign claim raises questions about the faimess of its probe. On Tuesday, the stir by the wrestlers (they include international medal winners), took an emotional tum when they gathered in Haridwar to immefse their medals-in. the Gariga. They stepped back at the last moment, but are unwilling to give up their clamour for justice. The protest has found. support from civil society, and has been noticed by international sporting bodies, including the Intemational Olympic Committee and the United World Wrestling that have condemned the police crackdown on the wrestlers, which happened on the day India inaugurated its new Parliament building. Jat farm leaders in Uttar Pradesh (U-P.) and Haryana have also come out in support of the wrestlers, resolving to strengthen the agitation. Meanwhile, Mr. Singh, far from facing condemnation by the ruling party, appears to enjoy the patronage of its leadership. The powerful MP from U.P.’s Kaiserganj is blaming the protesters and mobilising his supporters. Once accused in a TADA ease, Mr. Singh appears to be too valuable in the BIP’s scheme of things. There can be no case that anyone should be punished without due process which involves investigation and trial, but the question of probity must have'a higher standard. The allegations against Mr. Singh are of a serious nature that diminish his capacity to be at the helm of a prestigious sporting body. While the criminal investigation must not be influenced by street protest, the message has to be clear to all, particularly the victims and the perpetrators, that there is zero tolerance of sexual harassment in India. Source: Wrestling for justice: On the protest by the wrestlers, The Hindu Editorial, June 2, 2023. 85. What is the primary focus of the passage? (A) The political implications of the protests against Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh. (B) The effectiveness of the Delhi Police's investigation into the allegations against Mr. Singh. (C) The response of international sporting bodies to the treatment of protesting wrestlers. (D) The probity and ethical concerns raised by the allegations against WFI president Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh. 86. According to the passage, why does the author view the lack of political censure for Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh in light of the allegations as disturbing? (A) It indiextes a potential bias within the rating party towards its members (B) ThedCk of censure naderminés the intezcity and credibifity of the sports adrainistration in Tidia, (C) Itreflects a general apathy in Indian politics towards addressing sexual harassment allegations. (D) This situation suggests a systemic issue within the Wrestling Federation of India. 32 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025National Law Training Institute: An NLSTU Students" Initiative 87. What can be inferred from the passage about the relationship between the Dell of the eases against Mr. Singh and the perception of fairness in their investigation? (A) The Delhi Police's investigation is widely regarded as thorough and unbiased. Police's handling (B) The deletion of social media posts by the police raises questions about the fairness of their investigation. (C) The police force's actions indicate a swift move towards ensuring justice in the ease. (D) Public confidence in the Delhi Police's investigation has been strengthened by their transparent approach, 88. What is the main concern raised by the passage regarding the protest by wrestlers, ineluding the immersion of their medals in the Ganga? (A) The protest is seen as an ineffective way to bring about change in sports administration, (B) It highlights the emotional intensity and seriousness of the wrestlers’ demands for justice. (C) The protest is criticized for its potential to negatively impact India’s international sports reputation, (D) The immersion of medals is viewed as a symbolic act with no real impact on the investigation. 89. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument about the need for higher standards of probity in cases like Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh's? (A) Historical data showing that political figures in similar cases have been promptly investigated and censured. (B) Evidence that allegations of misconduct against politieal figures often lead to immediate legal action without thorough investigation. (C) Instances where sports administrators with similar allegations were quickly removed from their positions. (D) Statistics indicating a high rate of false allegations against public figures in similar situations. 90. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument about the need for higher standards of probity in cases like Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh's? (A) Historical data showing that political figures in similar cases have been promptly investigated and censured. (B) Evidence that allegations of misconduct against political figures often lead to immediate legal action without thorough investigation, (C) Instances where sports administrators with similar allegations were quickly removed from their positions. (D) Statistics indicating a high rate of false allegations against public figures in similar situations. Passage II Gross Goods and Services Tax (GST) revenues grew 11.5% to cross 21.57 lakh crore in May. While this marks the slowest growth in six months, with collections 16% lower than April’s inflows, a nuanced reading is warranted. April’s revenues, which crossed a record 21.87 lakh crore, were bumped up by financial year-end compliances. Although May’s collections, for transactions during April, the first month of this financial year, ‘were the lowesv in three months, they signal a broader positive trend. White GST revenues have heen over the 214 dakiv‘Mar¥ for 15 successive fnonths, May's revenues mark only the sixth time tha GST revénues*have crossed the 21.5 lakh crore mark. Four of those occasions have been in 2023. More significantly, even after discounting the April spurt, the average monthly revenues between October 2022 and May 2023 are over 21.53 lakh crore (and 21.57 lakh crore-plus if April’s record kitty is included). Revenues have held up despite retail inflation cooling to 4.7% in April and wholesale prices slipping into deflation. Given this backdrop, if 33 clatniti.com ‘ONLTI Mock 15 — CLAT 2025