PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION FOR THE POST OF CIVIL JUDGES - 2023

aoaci Btaargafl gjQ?^- 2023

Time: 3.00 PM to 4.30 PM Marks - 100

3.00 Sod 4.30 - 100
Date: 23rd July 2023
23?3e 2&^ 2023
Note:

If there is any discrepancy/difference in the questions in English

language and Kannada language, the questions framed in English
language shall prevail.
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1 The offence of “stalking” is punishable under:
A) Section 354A IPC
B) Section 354B IPC
C) Section 354C IPC
D) Section 354D IPC

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2 Which of the following persons is not entitled to maintenance under

Section 125, Cr.P.C. from a man who has sufficient means and refuses to
maintain them?
A) The man’s wife.
B) The man’s illegitimate minor child.
C) Daughter-in-law.
D) The man’s father.
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3 Who was the First President of the Republic of India?
A) Sri. V. V. Giri
B) Sri. Zakir Hussain
C) Dr. Radhakrishnan
D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

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4 After completion of investigation, the police is to submit a final report to

Magistrate. The Magistrate:

A) is not bound by conclusion drawn by police and may order further

investigation.
B) may issue a process against the accused person(s).
C) is bound by conclusions drawn by police and accept the same if police
recommended that there is sufficient ground for proceeding further.
D) Both (A) and (C).
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5 The Defendant may seek leave to defend the suit upon appearance in a
summary suit under Order XXXVII of C.P.C.:-
A) Within 30 days of service of summons
B) Within 60 days of service of summons
C) Within 90 days of service of summons
D) Within 10 days of service of summons

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2
6 Who is the present Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India?
A) Justice Dr. D. Y. Chandrachud
B) Justice N. V. Ramana
C) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
D) Justice Jagadish Singh Kheher

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7 Where there are several Defendants and one of whom dies after the
matter was heard and reserved for Judgment and Judgment is
pronounced, what happens:-

A) Proceedings abate as regards the dead Defendant as cause of action

does not survive on the other Defendants

B) The Judgment is a nullity as being passed against a dead person

C) The Judgment is a nullity only as against the dead Defendant

D) There shall be no abatement even if one of the Defendant dies, if

death is between conclusion of hearing and pronouncement of
Judgment and Judgment will be deemed to have been pronounced
before the death of the Defendant

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3
 I

8 Statement under Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

A) is required to be signed by the person making the statement.
B) is not required to be signed by the person making the statement.
C) is required to be signed by the person making the statement if it is
recorded at the direction of the SHO.
D) is required to be signed by the person making the statement if it is so
directed by the Magistrate.
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9 Where a decree is passed for the payment of money, the Court can
award interest on the principal sum adjudged from the date of the suit
to the date of the decree under:-

A) Section 151 of C.P.C.

B) Section 34 of C.P.C.
C) Section 35 of C.P.C.
D) Order XXI of C.P.C.
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10 Vande Mataram' was written by

A) Sri. Subhash Chandra Bose
B) Sri. Surendranath Banerjee
C) Sri. Rabindranath Tagore
D) Sri. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

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11 When ‘A’ dies as a result of act of violence by person ‘B’, person ‘C’ not
present at the scene of crime can be prosecuted under the Indian Penal
Code:

A) under Section 120A to 120B of the Indian Penal Code.

B) under Section 141 to 149 of the Indian Penal Code.
C) for act done in furtherance of common intention under Section 34 of
the Indian Penal Code.
D) for vicarious liability as ‘C’ was aware the offence was likely to be
committed by <B’.

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12 A Judgment can be passed taking note of admission of fact made in

pleading or otherwise, under which of the following provision:-
A) Under Order XII Rule 6 of C.P.C.
B) Under Order XII Rule 4 of C.P.C.
C) Under Order VIII Rule 3 of C.P.C.
D) Under Order VII Rule 10A of C.P.C.

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13 As per Section 5 of the Karnataka Rent Act, 1999, in the event of death of
a tenant, right of tenancy shall devolve for a period of from the date
of the death of said tenant, to his successors.
A) seven years.
B) five years.
C) three years.
D) one year.

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14 The Fundamental Right conferred under Article 19 of the Constitution of

India is available to:
A) Citizens of India
B) Both Citizens of India and Foreigners
C) Foreigners living in India also
D) All the above
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15 A tries to pickpocket B. B has a loaded pistol in his pocket. A’s hand

touches the pistol and triggers it, resulting in the death of B.
A) A is guilty of B’ murder.
B) A is guilty of culpable homicide by negligence.
C) A is guilty of grievous hurt.
D) A is guilty only of pick pocketing.

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16 Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 statutorily

mandates that a Judicial Magistrate shall record statement of the person
against whom offence has been committed:
A) under any Section of the Indian Penal Code.
B) for all offences punishable with life imprisonment.
C) in all cases where the accused moves an application for the said
purpose.
D) for cases punishable under Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code.

6
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17 In which of the following case(s), the offence of abetment is committed:

A) X & Y attend reception of bride who was only of 13 years.
B) M officiates as priest or pandit in marriage of a girl aged 15 years &
boy aged 12 years.
C) X widow prepares herself for sati & proceeds towards the pyre of her
husband. X, Y & Z follow her by shouting repeated “Ram, Ram”.
D) Only in (B) & (C).
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18 Compounding of an offence under Section 320 of the Criminal Procedure

Code, 1973 has the effect of:
A) discharge.
B) probation.
C) acquittal.
D) release on bail.
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19 Article 39A of the Constitution of India pertains to

A) Equal justice and free legal aid
B) Equal opportunity in matters of public employment
C) Equality before law
D) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions

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20 Under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. a witness can be called:

A) on motion of defence.
B) on its own motion by Court.
C) on the motion of prosecution.
D) all the above.

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21 Who is the present Speaker of Karnataka Legislative Assembly?

A) Sri. U. T. Khader
B) Sri. K. R. Ramesh Kumar
C) Sri. Vishweshwaraiah Hegde Kageri
D) Sri. Kagodu Thimmappa

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22 Under Section 468 Cr.P.C. the period of limitation for an offence

punishable with a term not exceeding one year is:
A) one year.
B) two years.
C) three years.
D) six months.

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23 Which of the following are false?
The plaint may be rejected where:

A) Plaint does not disclose cause of action

B) Where plaint is not filed in duplicate
C) Where there is no compliance with Order VII
Rule 9 of C.P.C.
D) None of the above
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24 A National Leader, whose birthday is observed as the 'National Education

Day' on November 11th, is
A) Sri. J. B. Kriplani
B) Sri. Rajiv Gandhi
C) Sarojini Naidu
D) Sri. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

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25 Who is the Executive Head in India?

A) The President
B) The Prime Minister
C) Both (A) 86 (B)
D) Either (A) or (B)

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9
26 Where the Court finds after hearing the parties under Section 80 of Code
of Civil Procedure that no urgent or immediate relief need be granted in
the suit, it may:-

A) Dismiss the suit reserving liberty to file afresh after the notice as
contemplated is served
B) May reject the plaint granting liberty to file afresh after the notice
period
C) May dismiss the suit as withdrawn keeping all contentions open
D) May return the plaint for presentation after complying with the
requirements of notice.

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27 On a complaint for offence(s) triable by Court of session after recording of

statement of the complainant and his witnesses on oath:
A) the police can be directed to investigation under Section 202 Cr.P.C.
B) the police cannot be directed to investigation at all and Magistrate has
to conduct an enquiry.
C) the police can be directed to investigation under Section 156(3)
Cr.P.C.
D) Both (A) and (B)

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28 Which is the allied provision to Order XLI of C.P.C.

A) Section 104 of C.P.C.
B) Section 151 of C.P.C.

10
 C) Order XLVI ofC.P.C.
D) Order XLVIII of C.P.C.

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29 In which of the following case the evidence given by the witness will not
be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A) When the witness is staying abroad
B) When the witness is dead
C) When witness cannot be found
D) When the witness is in coma

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30 As written in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, one of the

following is in correct order:
A) Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Republic, Democratic.
B) Sovereign, Republic, Secular, Socialist, Democratic.
C) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
D) Republic, Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist.
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31 Whether in a summons trial case instituted otherwise than upon

complaint, a Magistrate of first class can stop the proceedings and
discharge (not acquit) the accused without pronouncing judgment?
A) No. Magistrate must after recording entire evidence pronounce final
judgment of conviction or acquittal.
B) Yes, after evidence of principal witnesses has been recorded.

11
 C) Yes, for reasons to be recorded, where evidence of principal witnesses
has not been recorded.
D) Yes, as Magistrate has discretion to discharge or acquit regardless of
the stage of the proceedings.

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32 Which of the following mortgage does not require registration?

A) Equitable mortgage
B) Anomalous mortgage
C) Usufructuaiy mortgage
D) Mortgage by conditional sale

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33 For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication:

A) administered against his will or knowledge.
B) shall not be self administered.
C) can be self administered.
D) all of the above.

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12
34 Which of the following is false?
Under Order VI Rule 2, every pleading which includes plaint and written
statement shall contain
A) evidence by which the material facts are to be proved
B) Statement in concise form of the material facts relied upon for claim,
or defence
C) Each allegation contained in separate paragraphs numbered
consecutively
D) Dates, Sums and Numbers shall be expressed in the pleading in
figures as well as in words

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35 As per the Karnataka Amendment to Section 54 of Code of Civil

Procedure, 1908, partition of estate or separation of share in executing a
Partition Decree can be made by division by the:
A) Tahasildar
B) Deputy Commissioner
C) Gazetted sub-ordinate to the Collector
D) By the Court
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36 Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been
amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013?
A) Section 32
B) Section 55
C) Section 119
D) Section 124

13
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37 Essential supply or service as defined under Explanation I of Section

49(5) of the Karnataka Rent Act, 1999, includes

A) supply of water, electricity, lights in passage and on staircases,

conservancy and sanitary services
B) supply of water, electricity, lights
C) supply of water, electricity, lights in passage and on staircase, road
D) supply of water, electricity, lights in passage and on staircase
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38 Anticipatory bail can be granted by'the Sessions Court:

A) when the offence committed is bailable.

B) when the accused has committed a non-bailable offence and has been
arrested.
C) when the accused it is alleged has committed non-bailable offence and
is yet to be arrested.
D) when the First Information Report has not been registered.

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39 ‘X’ and Y’ go to murder *2’, <X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but
did not hit ‘Z’ at all. V killed ‘Z’.
A) Only Y’ is liable for murder of ‘Z’.
B) X’ and *¥’ both are liable for murder of <Z’.

14
 C) <X’ is not liable as he did not perform overt act.
D) both (A) and (C).

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40 As per Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, if the donee dies
before the acceptance of the gift, the said gift is.
A) valid.
B) void.
C) voidable.
D) illegal.
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41 Who is the present Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court?

A) Justice Jagadish Singh Kheher
B) Justice Abhay Sreenivas Oka
C) Justice Ritu Raj Awasti
D) Justice Prasanna B. Varale

F^oirooc&d dcosDs ^s^oddxra^F odsdo?

£>) FTO^C&odJS^F toriatSJ* &OH4 a^SoO*
a) Fra^c&djja^F es^oir5
*) ^CdoddJS^F OM3 0323s
Q) oje^cddddJS^F djrjd^ <£). doeic^

42 Accused wants to submit a document for consideration under Section 35

of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the following cases will the
document become irrelevant?

A) It does not deal with a fact in issue

B) It does not deal with a relevant fact

15
 C) It is not an entry made in public or other official book, register or
record
D) It is not an entry made by public servant

edje)?(& 1872d Sjjad^od 7jc)gs ^aodjcd 35d dOriradnafi

zjcdTjd^ad. odad djtfdcart^e). c3e)SDe3abd
€5 edj o3e) rt)

a) ‘Sid)
S3) SSICi) ^0200^3

djadcjad ddx/adCdc),
Q) 'ojdd rScdx^dd edac&d

43 Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals
with proof of other official documents?
A) Section 78
B) Section 82
C) Section 71
D) Section 74

i872d zpad^ced ?3e)gs oirod crasodrt^

^oadrt^ 2ortn d5ddO^d^,d?
a) 78
23) 82
Aj) 71
a) 74

44 In relation to First Information Report, which of the following statements

is not correct:
A) It is not substantive evidence.
B) It merely marks the beginning of the investigation.
C) It cannot be used as a previous statement for any purpose.
D) The informant need not be an eyewitness.
oirod aoe^Srttf)
.a)
&) Sfsto ^^<s3oi) TtozSTbdd.

Q)' e3ec£>s3s3db —d&S

’ &J»
^Sc&aAdz&saAtz
o)i ei

16
45 A instigates B a child below 7 years of age to set fire to a dwelling house:
A) A is not guilty as there is no question of abetment of child.
B) A is guilty of abetting B to set fire.
C) can’t say.
D) none of these.

23) ’<£• olid ’a!)’ ri a3o& aoza^od cOce&cd

Ai) ?Je>q$5(0Om.
a) cdjse^ci/a 'sjq,.

46 As per Article 227 of the Constitution of India, eveiy High Court shall
have superintendence over in relation to which it exercises
jurisdiction.

A) all subordinate Courts throughout the territories

B) all District Courts throughout the territories
C) all Civil Courts and Tribunals throughout the territories
D) all Courts and Tribunals throughout the territories
z^dSeod Soa^add ssdoded 227d d,tsad d.^oiooda erozd j^oda^od^fa ef>do odad uaz^
dozjodAjdod ssQsad ssa^&odd^ doaoddaddolrae daee5
eia^raoddo.
' sjt <
^jaoddddda
e

a) « <sicfo53 zSua
&) w ££7$) asrozS c^oiroooa sado Bozart $
a) « ^cbd cS^oijaoofcri^ dado

47 " Before memory fades" is an autobiography of

A) Fall S Nariman
B) Soli Sorabjee
C) Venkatramani
D) None of the above
"za^jaeo* dadjao odad d^ri^ de>3,
«a) epa’jD cQaOdo^^
zs) ^jaoaz^zSf
Aj) do&addo^
a) doeOdda oda^jda

17
48 A party wants to get the judgment set aside under Section 44 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the following circumstances can
he do so?

A) In case the judgment was passed by a superior court

B) In case the person challenging is a stranger to the proceedings
C) In case the judgment was a result of gross negligence
D) All of these

1872d ?3e)?k too 44d

23) edj^ded eds-8,cdx> cd^odsdd^rt ei>ed0Z^^?5e)^(dod

a)

49 As per Section 497 of IPC A person commits ‘adultery’,if he:

A) has sexual intercourse with a person, who is, and whom he knows, or
has reason to believe to be, the wife of another man, without the consent
or connivance of that man, such sexual intercourse not amounting to
rape.

B) has sexual intercourse with a person, who is, and whom he knows, or
has reason to believe to be, the wife of another man, with the consent or
connivance of that man, such sexual intercourse not amounting to rape.

C) has sexual intercourse with an unmarried man.

D) has sexual intercourse with a married woman.

fobSab too 497d esodcdd?

(0) edd^J3,2Oi) e^)dOcd^ e^OCdO ^^?EbdJcd €5^333 cdOZOOd zSSdESe^dded

535ao5jooS)ri. « e^dosSed ^ad^sd ^02^^ edcS&cM

») ^)dded?d eSOCfc ^Kidded e>$e3e) FdOZ^QO 5e)d£9a3dde3

5d54ol®o£5rt, e od5^, Zu^rtodjao&rt e>qje3a ^^^adcdjao&rt
?3c3&cdod, e3dofi3 ^oz^Crtod) tsK^zssd^

ty 65e3eOe)3o^ e^)dded^J3O&7i TaOZOOCjj adjaoSbcOe^rd.

a) q3cUc)co^

18
50 One of the following relief can be granted under the Specific Relief Act,
1963:
A) Recovery of money
B) Perpetual Injunction
C) Redemption of mortgage
D) Ejectment of tenant
aarsg sjOarod 1963d ds doaaaddd^ daosijacb
djadxdada
£) dr® d&raua^
23) ^rod^a^
£j) s^rae^d^ ^djaedd dsada^da
Q) zsaartadded^ JOa^Ara^sd^da

51 Under Order XXXIII Rule 1A of C.P.C., an Inquiry into the means of an

indigent person can be made by:-
A) The Chief Ministerial Officer of the Court
B) After the report is submitted under (a), the Court may adopt such
report
C) The Court itself may make an inquiry into the question
D) The Court may follow any of the above

^daaded XXXIII ciodda 1^ t5>QodS, d^od escaaodd isaddAs? xrt

^zsadraodda,<=< ds daadaadada.
£>) eja^odaoodd daas^ edsao
23) (id) ?5dcd<2 ^<2^^ dddcdda^ ^odauod^j dda^ ddd iaoda e)tfdQX)&a^23dada.
&) esa^odaood^) ^d: ds d^od zort dddzadada.
S) ^cdaecd^) ds dae£>d^)rt^s5 odas^d^ddua ^dadodzadada

52 Relief of damages in a suit for injunction cannot be granted under

Section 40(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
A) unless the plaintiff has claimed such relief in his plaint
B) if the suit of the plaintiff is dismissed
C) if the suit is frivolous
D) can be granted irrespective of whether the plaintiff has claimed the
same or not
1963d tosfc 40(2)dQcd3^

<a) ctosto
so) sroQoi) crod
O
Q) sraO ®ad<5 aboskfada

19
53 Under Section 216 of Cr.P.C. the Court has the power to:
A) add to the charge(s) already framed
B) alter the charge(s) already framed
C) neither to alter nor to add to the charge already framed
D) add to and alter the charge both

<£) Swrorttfe

'
eidjaedded,< dodo-e zcd^o^o^eo ddd&aO .

54 In terms of Order XX Rule 6A of C.P.C., the decree shall be drawn:

A) within 30 days of pronouncement of judgment
B) within 60 days of pronouncement of judgment
C) within 45 days of pronouncement of judgment
D) within 15 days of pronouncement of judgment

Foarios saafcF&Odad ^okdcrio XX Scdodo 6A d,5ad, dedrdo^

Q^cdodo^ ^dQduarto^do:-
«a>)' s^edor ddtSXid 30 co

83)' 60 co

Xi) d,^xd45 acSrttftf

Q)' ^daF d^xd 15 co

55 ‘A’ a foreigner stabbed *6’ another foreigner in a foreign vessel on the

high seas. Both ‘A’ and 13’ were brought to Bombay for treatment where
13’ died. “A’ is also available in Bombay. Which one of the following
propositions is correct in respect of applicability of Indian Penal Code
(IPC) to the trial of ‘A?

A) As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign countries and
the occurrence of offence has taken place on the high seas, IPC is not
applicable to ‘A’ and hence he cannot be prosecuted in India.

B) IPC is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence ‘A’ cannot be

tried in India.

C) As the offence is completed in India territories and accused ‘A’ is

available in India. IPC is applicable and he should be tried at Bombay.

D) As IPC is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners ‘A’ must be

tried in India.

20
 A
•A’ esoso e3dc> d^c&o ^ddddjde), e3dcl> ddnde)„do 'B' c5d^
*s}0ac3aod. ’A’ ’B’ dd®^ 29-^^naA zjaodri ^ddduacOo^o. &9cD„ 'B' (Od^craddo.
"A" zjaodode^odja o^se5c5aod. ’A’ eOzaads^rt z^ad^Cod TioSo^ (soc&Sj)
Ttozoo^&do^ oda^do ^©odaAd?

a) ed^ ed^o, edaatd ^zo^da oOdcdri^rt ^fOddoaAdae^dOod afc^a, e^doa^d

e^&doda ^abadjd estfd^, ddddae^dOod, zpad^eodod dod ’<£• ri
ad^a e5d0dod e^d e5dado Q
zpad^dc^ ^ad/ada 3jad
^rba^earbe^dQ,.

a) zpad&eodod dod dofod <£d$ djz^rt do^/azarcuaA e^d^cibdde^dQ

esd^dod ’<£• tsd04 zpad^de^ e3z3®d^ri z^d^duarbe^dex

esdoac^) zpad^d asajo^d^e^ eg/azarrijao&doc^dOod ad^d, esdja^ ’A’

Zj^ad-dde^ oz^eSdaa^dOod, s^ddfoded dod zjoSo^ e>dojd)0^a^,d ah^d e^ddoA
zjaodede^ dizsad^rt

a) doc3 z^d^ccxfoort sdo^o, eOdc&afcOrt e^ofcaaart^dOod ’A*

?i>ddA zpe)d^de)„ eOss^d^ri z^dC^d^b

56 The plaintiff may unite in one suit different causes of action in terms of:-
A) Order I Rule 2 of C.P.C.
B) Order I Rule 3A of C.P.C.
C) Order II Rule 3 of C.P.C.
D) Section 24 of of C.P.C.
sros eroded^)ro ds Sdodod aad■
—J q q
sadrartecd,=< krtjaSdsododo:-
£>) I Sodd: 2
&) ^dsaded I Soddo 3<a
Xi) ^draded II £oddd 3
a) sao&rsxpcid Sokd, 1908 d d^dra 24

57 Who is the present Chairperson of Rajya Sabha?

A) Smt. Nazma Hepthullah
B) Sri. Om Birla
C) Sri. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat
D) Sri. Jagdeep Dhankhar

dj^o,^ oaz35A)Zj3od e5d5gdd odado?

4^) |jcai>3. dzsa^, soe^jzjc^
es) do zOuar

21
 aj)&jC. z&djaW Aon*
a) £jC. ssriftW d’d4o*
58 Who among the following does not participate in the Election of the
President of India?
A) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
B) Elected members of the Loka Sabha
C) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha
D) Elected members of Vidhana Sabha

oirodd z^rod^d oaesS^ed^rtV z^^e^^cdoc^ zpsri&dco^de^&e),?

a) cra&s^oij z^ktocDo^ ?jd^dj
a) ei®C3A)^ccb z^)o33Ci)o^ TScj^dd
^) oszs^zpc) c&^O. ei®^A)Zt3o±) KJe)e±>cOrfCF£M ^dA^dd
a) e^QadA^cd zabJuscOo^ ?ad^dd

59 Where a decree is passed ex-parte against a defendant, he may apply to

the Court which has passed a decree for an order to set it aside under:-
A) Order IX Rule 9 of C.P.C.
B) Order IX Rule 11 of C.P.C.
C) Order IX Rule 13 of C.P.C.
D) Order IX Rule 14 of C.P.C.
3s
^Ad oirosd dzoo^dod ©Qo±)£> eszSr d<gdzja£>ci)?
£) IX So&dd 9
z3) IX aodsd 11
&) IX ciofcsfc 13
Q) IX 14

60 How a document will be proved under Section 61 of the Indian Evidence

Act, 1872?
A) The contents of the document must be proved by primary evidence
B) The contents of the document must be proved by secondary evidence
C) The contents of the document must be proved by both primaiy and
secondary evidence
D) The contents of the document must be proved either by primary or by
secondary evidence

i872d Zjjad^Coi) sjagg 6id es&odet, ^odo crosodcdd^ 3oeri

ADzOc^d^duarb^d?
a) crowded eSdodrt^d^ csajqjo^o^ Tja^dod AazOc^ddddCsb
a) exuded cOdodA^d^ dj^cd Aja£5dod ArazOc^oddAdCd

22
 *) £b3d, e^CCdd ?je)j5r5ri#OC5 ?3e)?5^£)e^25e£)
a) craaOdoi: ^rojqj^o^ es^&ja j^g^od

61 A valid proclamation under Section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,

1973 requires:

A) public reading of the proclamation in a conspicuous place of town or

village where the accused ordinarily resides.

B) copy of the proclamation should be affixed at some conspicuous place

of the house in which the victim resides.

C) if passed by the Sessions Judge, a copy of the proclamation should be

affixed to some conspicuous part of the High Court of the State.

D) copy of the proclamation is affixed on conspicuous part of all police

stations in the town/village where the crime was committed.
$,£03^ Iraes* 1973d 82d ^od<g adadsad
©rid.dQstodd:
5 -e

£>) tJdJSfiSj ?rodTO^2TOA 3jfc3p a^Ofc £)dd53£c0£ ^d<g

EsdFfca&aah

d>) jlraod da^&d d^o& oda^csaddja <ad^ sazaod ^dO

Q) csdoaqS ddd dwra / rro,dod <ae>a ^d^saraad

z?artd<g ooyduarb^d.

62 ‘A’ was relieved of his wristwatch worth Rs. 100 by ‘B’ in a running train.
When the train was about to stop at a railway station, ‘A’ raised an
alarm. At this point of time, ‘C’ pushed ‘A’ as a result of which ‘A’ fell
down and sustained injuries. This was done by ‘C’ to enable <B’ to carry
the stolen watch. ‘C’ has committed the offence of:

A) Hurt.
B) Grievous hurt.
C) Abetment of an offence.
D) Robbery.

23
 dj<£>d§ «s oi> ^AaodJsdsSc^ eo odx Sdo&soQcd^, d^
djsAlrsocssr: es&cd ’Vdsddo «s odoeds, ^dd sjO^ss^sjsA a EOcfc
nsoi>rVsoQc^, so A stossSjscto & ds ds cdsssd ^sdus^d^
E&sQc^d?

»5) I le)Cdd

») rrooi)
&) ®dj&5L/c)ecdes3.
8) O3W0.

63 As per Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, every offence
punishable under the said Act is.
A) non-compoundable.
B) compoundable with the permission of the Court.
C) compoundable.
D) None of the above.
1881d tfoo 147d gsad «

w>
eistadrtsb
~
atedrartvsAdod^
—> _c
£>) osz5 sdzscto yrtrf ^d^
a) cSSjOfcaoabaod Eddsro^rt Eddd: use?
Xi) USES EftsdEo^crod
Q) sfoetfcS Cd3S^)ClfS

64 What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of either

House of the Parliament?
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) Nine months
D) One year

e^c^sWri*^ rt0^o &t>c^o3d eosiv

^) ^ii/add 3ori%*j
&) tsdd ^ort^j
^) ^ozj^o,
3) SajOC^O ede^F

65 In which of the following cases, the Court may presume under Section
114 of Indian Evidence Act:

A) that a man in possession of stolen goods after the theft is either the
thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen.

24
 B) that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed.

C) that evidence which could be and is not produced would, if produced,

be unfavourable to he person withholding it (e.g. the police withholding a
piece of evidence).

D) All of the above.

oirosd ii4?dc
e^oi>e)<*>

a) do^d Ajd^bri^d^ djaoddod d^afco ^foafidoa^d

ei>dc3e) ;3d3)ri$b efid eoodd ^dodbaodo

ft) ?d^Oe>Arf.

Ai) 2oe)&>ddddrj2oaodC3e)d 2oa&jdodS^A)d aoa&jddd£&A>dd, eddo^

^dSo^cddd ds-&rt dj3£/aec2e)fidd3,d <e.g. ^/©ciJc^dd e^)Oc)e3
e£)oad ^orao^d^
^doo^dcs^d).

©) odC^c^/c).

66 Which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 postulates that

criminal Courts would be open, to which the public would generally have
access, save in exceptional cases?
A) Section 324.
B) Section 327.
C) Section 330.
D) Section 333.

toes* 1973d oSjssS

—1 £>
Edzfcd
—'
s&o^AdodsS
-s s>

324.
&) 327.
Xj) 330.
Q) 333.

67 The rule against perpetuity is provided in Section of the

Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
A) 15
B) 14
C) 17

25
 D) 16
Tjjfc 18823 3<t>o
cd -c

id) 15
23) 14
&) 17
a) 16

68 The Court has the power to permit a person or body of persons to

present opinion or take part in the proceedings in terms of:-
A) Section 92 of C.P.C.
B) Order I Rule 8 of C.P.C.
C) Section 151 of C.P.C.
D) Order I Rule 8A of C.P.C.

~ O-o

u <
^odseod&ddd
Ou
«f>Q5ad:-
(£) FTorios saoddF&d^ 92
(z3) ssodorad^ Tjok^odo ^droded I Sioddo 8
(^) FTOrtOS d^dra 151
(Q) 53odoFddt>d 7jo&3o±> ^dssded I aoddi 8<a

69 Which of the following proceedings of the Domestic Tribunal and

Departmental Inquiries, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is not applicable?
A) Officers conducting departmental inquiries
B) Departmental proceedings
C) Disciplinary proceedings Tribunal
D) All of them

cft&coi) ^ccbe&oc^ oirosd

gjjsd^oi) 1872,
a) era are eOzsrad^r^^ jd^ded
a) ^eraara sdj&jc&rfeb
M ^oijEddo^
Q) tseddojdja

70 The power of withdrawal and transfer by the High Court and District
Court under Section 24 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 can be
exercised only as regards:-
A) Suits
B) Appeal
C) Other Proceedings

26
 D) All of the above
adAoiro 19083 24 d ro ©

83)

Q)

71 "Once a mortgage, always a mortgage" means:

A) Mortgagee has no right to assign the mortgage debt to any other
person
B) Mortgage can not be redeemed after the expiiy of fixed period
C) Mortgage is always redeemable
D) Mortgager has no right to assign right of redemption to any person

&
siroacd ateesartcus ^sdrod^Adodd"
-s
£>ocdd:
s3) ad^dsdort, ded drodco
'sd^aex
83) ©ddroddd^ tsdcp dxihd £dja?d?5 dsaderari^au
&) ^ddradddo, odrod ssudexi £>djaed^ dsadzododo
Q) eiddrodsadort £djaedE5 dsac&d ded d^rt do3jaezsd dsadeo
‘ada^o^

72 In which countiy the ’2010 Common Wealth Games' were held?

A) Canada
B) India
C) Britain
D) Malaysia

20103 oiras5
<£)

a)
*) 23/3^
a)

73 Under Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the cancellation of

instrument can be granted
A) only if the instrument is valid
B) if the instrument is void or voidable
C) only if the instrument is voidable
D) only if the instrument is void

27
 SiQfsJ sjOarod 1963d too SldSotoO Ostteri deft sftscftft^oftjft^ aftosuaeft
sftactoaftcft
<£) ^oft ?j5ftfed5TOAc^<2 sftad,

74 Decision regarding disqualification of Members of Loka Sabha are taken

by
A) Speaker
B) Prime Minister
C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
D) Parliamentary Secretary

e>d3oF^rt doaoo$&d cOqaardddda. rt Ci)

20) djCpeJcO
Ai) TtoAjStfcift dsdaoadri*?/ Ajsa&jseaaft
a) ^aaftFd^F

75 Which of the following is false?

Under Order VI Rule 16 the Court may at any stage of the proceedings
order to be struck out or amended any matter in any pleading ?

A) which is beyond the pecuniaiy jurisdiction of the Court

B) which may be unnecessary, scandalous, frivolous or vexatious, of
C) which may tend to prejudice, embarrass or delay the fair trial of the
suit, or
D) which is otherwise an abuse of the process of the Court.
ofta^da dda?
^.daaded VI aoftda 16 a^ad, Esa^ociaaocft^ ofta^de d^oftoft oiaa^de dodd£)
ofta^de saad esqta d^aaad dd,d^ edaa^de adoftdEft^ ddortjaSdftaftda escjftaa
dd^d^ daadeo dod^rrt^S daadaodada:-

<a) ^eft esaoftaoaftd sorarf es^sad sa^ofteft^ £fteoc3d tsqto

&) ©cTO^d^srondwaoacjad, ^oeaad^asaAdsacftcjad, gautoafidwaftesad esdaaa
Scft&tfsaOoftahdftaftcaad;
&) nadoftEft^ ^oftoftadsah daaeft^d^ d^&aodEft^owa daadsjaftesad,
dedEft^owa daactoaftcaad ©qisaa oa^owdda^owa daactoaftcaad;
'
<gdd oedofttf
ro
Esa^oftaeoft £dad cftdadoftaertd^aadacaad

28
76 Who is the legal advisor to the State Government?
A) Solicitor General
B) The State Chief Legal Officer
C) The High Court
D) The Advocate General

a) a^dtr5

a)

77 Who is the persent Governor of Karnataka?

A) Sri. Tawar Chand Gehlot
B) Sri. V. V. Giri
C) Sri. S. M. Shrinagesh
D) Sri. Jayachamarajendra Wadiyar

OSa^Eraodd OCfrsdd?
£) ^ETOCT5 2^0CT5
E3) &3. g3. f\0
A)) cOrT5. GOO.

a) ajo±)2^aei>Oe)^todj a^otoo*

78 The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 I.P.C. is:

A) Section 149 is rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific
offence.
B) Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149
requires mere passive membership of unlawful Assembly.
C) Section 34 need not be joined with principal offence, whereas Section
149 must be combined with principal offence.
D) that whereas in Section 34 there must atleast be 5 persons Section
149 require only two persons.

34 149 I.P.C fdC&eOa e3s3e)^. eOOdds?

£) 73g?O* 149 e^)Oe)e5 cOc&ELETOndjl 34 d.

a) 34 zpsridSoAbe^^ccbdd^ z^oi)Xj3jd esdd 149

?re)djc)ddaje)3od X$oi> cO&^qI) ajod^o^d.

29
 M 34^ esajjocjqjdjao&d tsdd 149^

a) tsdd 34?3c 5 'sidEft^b, esdd 149dc

•si^do ^dd^rd^d.

79 Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 gives
provisions regarding proof as to electronic signatures?
A) Section 67
B) Section 67A
C) Section 67B
D) Section 67C

s^d^cd 5e>od0, i872d & oirod

aj^cO1' 67

S3) 67 eO
M 67 Z3
a) 67 X

80 The allied provision to Section 114 of C.P.C. is:-

A) Section 151 of C.P.C.
B) Section 105 of C.P.C.
C) Order XLI of C.P.C.
D) Order XLVII Rule (1) of C.P.C.
EaodF&qroS 1908 114d swodcS
o±ro^^?
£) riokSoft s^dra 151
a) cssrioa 3o&j3c& ^dra 105
&) esartoS zfoSo^od XLI
3) ssodF^^a^ Ttok^od ^droded XLVII ^odsd (1)

81 In which State is the Statue of Equality situated?

A) Telangana
B) Gujarat
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka

r\)e3je)<3^Cdd oxjj^eA) CdJa>e3 Oc>&j§C3C^, 'cjrf?

a)
a) rtajOc)^

30
 a,)

3)

82 One of the following relief cannot be granted under the Specific Relief
Act, 1963
A) Redemption Mortgage
B) Rectification of Instruments
C) Rescission of Contract
D) Cancellation of Instrument

&)' todorfci dQcdro^

Q>

a) d^ofcaS

83 Whether Indian Penal Code, 1860 applies to an offence committed by a

citizen of India outside India?
A) Yes.
B) No.
CS) If the offence is associated and has nexus with another offence
committed in India.
D) Only if there is a mutual treaty between India and the country in
which the offence was committed.

aojadri cdjeS ciro&d 1860,

£>)

*) aojaoddjd ddd dd^japdd eitdcjej^djsodd

djsoddjd.
8) 2j5c)d^ ddd dts^d dddd dd^d z^d^od <o)d0d dia^j.

84 Where the Judgement Debtor has paid the Decree Holder of a money
decree outside Court and a second suit is filed regarding the same
amount, the Court can reject such claim only where:

A) The Judgment Debtor produces the receipt signed by the Decree

Holder
B) Statement is made by the witness of such discharge to the Court
C) Extract of pass book showing payment is produced
D) Record of adjustment/satisfaction of Decree as recorded by the
Executing Court is produced.

31
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0 —1
alfadrt a$, alraoddoddort
4
dradd^
Q _e
srod^ddd dodo ?5de
djad^ doaooQddod adddf nadcdodo^ d£)ddd, sjodd d^ TjaQdod
tsado&do^ ds ^Ad dod^rri^O drad, ^d^odsododo:

s3) FTOpdraoodt alfafsroofoi) £)7j&rdoi) sort TraSod SedDdjdD

&) dod^d jroddd^ soa&dodQd^do
a) ©ddu^o ETO^oiroood^) s>dd dx>od cja£)d/3e&Fd
□aalO^do^dd^ sosssdodadd^dd

85 Where an order granting injunction is passed without notice to the

opposite party, then in terms of Order XXXIX Rule 3A of C.P.C., course
of action to be followed by the Court:-

A) Vacate the order of injunction automatically after 60 days

B) Should endeavour to dispose off the application within 30 days and
failing which, must record reasons
C) Upon expiry of 60 days, call upon the applicant to furnish security
for the loss that may be sustained by the other side if the injunction is
vacated
D) All of the above

—’ <sp Qro —>

XXXIX Soddo 3^

£) doe<£)do3 «ded draad 60 adrte dodd wdeddd^ ^d^rt^d^do.

a) 30 adri&fa^d ©sSFobd^ atfedao dradeo dp&^dd^td dodo tsdo
^drart^do, cro£)<Sdde&.
d) ^sjFod^^od? 60 adds’ esdQ dxAd dodd dd^Af^dd dod^rd#
^roo&artd dsgdd^ #odod d^srofi d^ ^d^ctod^ ^dfidodo^ ^zSrasdod Sd
dfc&^do.
a) dx£d

86 The 'World Sparrow Day' is observed on

A) March 21
B) March 23
C) March 25
D) March 20

dodo
£) EheJZS^F 21
S3) dJe)25*F 23

32
 *) 25
a) 20

87 An acceptance may be revoked in terms of Section 5 of the Indian

Contract Act, 1872.
A) At any time before the communication of the acceptance is complete
as against the acceptor, but not afterwards
B) After the acceptance comes to the knowledge of the promisee
C) At any time at the option of the acceptor
D) All of the above
tod: 1872d 5do3 dc5^
<£) £)d^ sioiddF Tjsftoftdg, edd

ft)' sssrrod
Q
Astertis eJ
ftotf dodd

©) Soffit

88 When India won the Cricket World Cup in 2011, who won the 'Man of the
Series' award?
A) Sri. Sachin Tendulkar
B) Sri. M. S. Dhoni
C) Sri. Yuvraj Singh
D) Sri. Virat Kohli

2011de^ 2^6^ <0^55* ric3c>ori, ft rtdjrfcfo

oftacb?

S3) cdO. eSAi*.

a)

89 Which of the following statements hold true for dyeing declarations?

A) Dyeing declarations cannot be used as a sole basis of conviction

B) Dyeing declaration unless corroborated cannot be used as a sole basis

of conviction

C) Dyeing declaration which is brief must be discarded

D) When eye witness affirms that deceased was not in a fit state to make
the declaration, medical opinion cannot prevail

33
 cdJaed ^oc&cs?
<a) c±>df®i5a0e?S aoeCtfrisb

83) EbdrasaOfrf aoe$3 sojad^d e&f2e&

edscteh so^ejsrtde^aQ,
*) ?to$j3,c3e>d
a) d^c&d ao^abcfc* aecto o3j9tri5 eoodo
d^de^CJeJri, dejd^tod ©SpETOjOde^) diCOdd^) ^^Ak)d)£>Q,

90 The Karnataka Lokayuktha Act was enacted in which of the following

years?
A) 1987
B) 1984
C) 1986
D) 1990

oi)do&)c3 oiroed edESFc5<^„ sraOrt

a) 1987
83) 1984
Xj) 1986
Q) 1990

91 X & Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures

the poison and delivers it to Y in order that he may administer it to Z. Y
in pursuance of the conspiracy, administers the poison in presence of X
and thereby cause death. What offence X 86 Y have committed:

A) both X & Y have committed the offence of Criminal Conspiracy.

B) since X has procured the poison, X has committed offence of murder
and Y was an abettor.
C) Both X & Y have committed the offence of murder.
D) Y has committed the offence of murder.

‘X’ & ‘Y* ZuOdorijsa ’Z’ ri c^ddjsrad Etrodeo ^><>30 ddxfo^d . & <&^j9dod
e>dd?5e)d ’X* ’c5dddd4 3odd ddA Y d . ’Y* 'add esdo^sd z • d
X’ d Crod^^CdC^, e3dE3j2J5d E5Jc)C^?5d^E,d . dO^c)Ei)E5e)7\ ’ z ’TJSdde^Jj^e^d .

x & Y odsd esdosc^ddo^ EfrEC^csEjd.

£>) x Y
E>) X A)Odjoo^dOc^)Cj&OCd, X E15c)£^CJe)0o5 cdd^d, Y

34
 *) x Y sL®doi) e^oaq^^
a) Y ^ado±) ^edosc^ed^d^ eiro&crajd.

92 Which Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 says that every
agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor,
is void?
A) Section 26
B) Section 28
C) Section 27
D) Section 29

1872d odrasd too sdodo^ctod odra^de

^oiraodd s^god^ Eta^saahcbdd ^odo
£>) too 26
£3) duo 28
2j) too 27
a) duo 29

93 An employer deducting the employee’s contribution under EPF &

Miscellaneous Provision Act from wages payable for credit to fund, but
does not deposit the same with the fund, is guilty of committing offence:
A) U/s 405 IPC.
B) U/s 378 IPC.
C) U/s 403 IPC.
D) No offence.

'S&odep* eMqj ejud/e^fiofo

erod/a^ricra^, escdd^ dcsdsi
odrad&cdjd, -d? ^^Fdc^ri^Fd^ drodied
£) 3eo 405 6o<&^) e>&ol)e^.
a) too 3?8d so<£X)
M too 403 so<S)^ es^cddet.
a) ccbae^cdc

94 The procedure to be followed by the Court, when there is dispute as to

the relationship of landlord and tenant between the parties, is stated in
the following section of the Karnataka Rent Act, 1999:
A) Section 42
B) Section 43
C) Section 44
D) Section 45

35
 sroartrod dodo-o ^oeoodd sortA d^rrodd
W|
ddod d^osdo snoddsrod
sp
3oddrd£)m
^oiroexdo^ o±rod Soddori^do^ ^do^ddo^ esddoddo, 1999d
&tod 3oo a^dodd?
£>) 42
23) 43
A>) 44
Q) tfeoo 45

95 Definition of secondary evidence has been given under Section of

the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A) Section 61
B) Section 62
C) Section 63
D) Section 64
epsd^COd ^e)0d0, 1872
cO^dtro^d.
£>) 61
23) 62
X) 63
3) 64

96 Under Section 498A I.P.C. cruelty includes:

A) physical cruelty only
B) mental cruelty only.
C) cruelty by wife.
D) harassment of woman.
498£) docS ^Ooo3 esaodQ,.

23) ^jO±)F
*) d^cDdod ^c&F.
a) ddeo^cd dxd

97 Where time is fixed for doing any act by the Code, the Court may extend
such time under Section 148 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 by--------
days?

A) 45 days
B) 90 days
C) 120 days
D) Not exceeding 30 days

36
 ixIoMoi) ^QoSto o±ro^)c3e saotorsSc^ ztocto ariMQXjdosS £oa$Fcto
^cdraooi)^ curios saofcrac^ XjO&>3, 1908 (es.s.ts.) d s^dra 148d es^cdto esodaa
^sdoodosdedo, ----------- a^rt^drijB a^ojtoa&cfc.
-C

&) 45 Qctfrisb
a) 90
xj) 120
a) 30 ^edsrodido
98 Which is the largest State (areawise) in India?
A) Rajasthan
B) Maharashtra
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Karnataka
2jJe>d^Ci Ue)&jg (SlljfrSF) CdJe)c^)C3d?
s0) OcJ&jAJe^td

K>) e&SoeJOSe^J

X)

99 Which Section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 states that the
evidence of the complainant may be given by him on affidavit?
A) Section 144
B) Section 145
C) Section 146
D) Section 147
18813 oirosS too ^ua^o^ xroft assadrao*^ tsd
e>3,c5 c^ec^zoadocdo ^oda a&s&drf?
£) too 144
25) too 145
Xi) too 146
Q) too 147
100 Which Section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 deals with effect
of material alteration of the Negotiable Instruments ?
A) Section 85
B) Section 86
C) Section 87
D) Section 88
tsQSoiisfc, 18813 too
sort ele3aoO&3c39
n 6 S’
£>) too 85
&) too 86
Xj) too 87
Q) too 88

37