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New Physics Numerical Notes Class 10 THE AIMS INSTIUTE

Section (B) Structured Questions: CHAPTER (WAVES)

1. Define the term transverse wave.

Ans) Transverse waves are waves that travel in a direction perpendicular to the direction of
wave motion.

2. Define the term longitudinal wave.

Ans) Longitudinal waves are waves that travel in a direction parallel to the
direction of wave motion.

3.
a) Write a short note on the mechanical wave.

Ans)
Mechanical wave

Definition: Mechanical waves are such waves that need a medium for propagation.

Properties:
1. Mechanical waves cannot travel through the vacuum.
2. All mechanical waves travel through their media at different speeds depending upon the
physical properties of the respective medium.

Types: The types of mechanical waves are given below.

Transverse wave
Definition: Transverse waves are waves that travel in a direction perpendicular to the direction
of wave motion.
Example: Vibrations in a guitar string.

Transverse wave

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Longitudinal wave
Definition: Longitudinal waves are waves that travel in a direction parallel to the direction of
wave motion.
Example: When the free end of slinky spring moves back and forth longitudinal waves produce
in it.

b) How can you say that mechanical waves are also material waves?

Ans) Because mechanical waves require material to propagate.

4. Waves are the means of energy transfer without matter. Justify this statement with the
help of everyday life examples.

Ans)

Wave motion by using a rope: We can produce waves on a rope by attaching one end

to a wall and continuously moving the other end up and down. These up and down

movements produce oscillations or vibrations. We can observe that the generated rope

waves travel towards the wall, whereas the rope itself moves only up and down. The

rope is the medium through which the waves travel or propagate.

Wave motion in water: Drop a stone into a pond of water. Water waves will be produced on
the surface of water and will travel outwards. Place a cork at some distance from the falling
stone. When the waves reach the cork, it will move up and down along the motion of the water
particles by getting energy from the wave.
This experiment shows that water waves like other waves transfer energy from one place to the
other without transferring matter.

Water waves
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5. a) Define the following terms of a wave:

i) amplitude
ii) period
iii) frequency
iv) wavelength

Ans)
Amplitude: Amplitude is the maximum displacement moved by a point on a vibrating body
from the rest or mean position.

Period: Time period is the time taken for any one point on the wave to complete one
oscillation.

Frequency: Frequency is the number of complete waves produced by a source per unit
of time.

Wavelength: Wavelength is the linear distance between two successive crests in a transverse
wave and two successive compressions and rarefactions in a longitudinal wave.

b) Derive the formula of wave speed, v=f λ

Ans) Derivation:
Speed = Distance travelled /time taken.

Let us consider for a wave,

Distance travelled = λ and
time is taken = T, then
v=λ/T
Since, 1/T = f
v=fλ

6.
a) What is a ripple tank, and explain its working?

Ans) Ripple tank: A ripple tank is a shallow glass tank of water used to demonstrate the basic
properties of waves.

Working of ripple tank: Waves in ripple tank: We can produce water waves with the ripple
tank. In the ripple tank, a small vibrator moves up and down the water surface, resulting in the
water particles at the surface that are in contact with the dipper being made to move up and
down. This up and down motion soon spread to other parts of the water surface in the tank in
the form of ripples. Here the water is the medium through which the ripples travel or
propagate.

Schematic diagram of a ripple tank

b) Define the wavefront?

Ans) Wavefront: The wavefront is an imaginary line on a wave that joins all points that are in
the same phase.

7. Reference an experiment to explain the refraction of waves concerning the ripple tank.

Ans) When a flat piece of a block is immersed in the ripple tank, water depth becomes shallow.
You will find that the wavelength of the plane waves shortens and changes direction; Figures (a)
and (b), as they move from the boundary between two media, deep to shallow water. This
effect is called refraction.

(a) (b)

8. What is the phenomenon of diffraction?

Ans) Definition: The spreading of the waves near an obstacle is called diffraction.

9.
a) What is simple harmonic motion?

Ans) Definition: when an object oscillates about a fixed position main position its
acceleration is directly proportional to its displacement from the main position and his always
directed towards the main position its motion is called SHM.
a ∝ -x
a = -k x
Where k is spring constant.

b) What are the necessary conditions for a body to execute simple harmonic motion?

Ans) Necessary conditions for a body to execute simple harmonic motion are:
(i) There must be an elastic restoring force acting on the system.
(ii) the system must have inertia.
(iii) the acceleration of the system should be directly proportional to its displacement and is
always directed to mean position.

10.
a) With the help of a diagram, explain SHM in the pendulum.

Ans) Consider a simple pendulum of length "L" consisting of a bob of mass "m". If the
pendulum is disturbed from its mean position it starts vibrating between two extreme
positions. Let at any instant "t" the bob be at point P and at this point two forces are acting on
the bob.
1. The force of gravity= Fg = mg
2. Tension in the string = T

The force of gravity is the weight of the body and can be resolved into two components.
(i) (Fg.)ll= mg Cos θ, along the string
(it) (Fg.)⊥ = mg Sin θ, perpendicular to the string.

Since there is no motion along the string

T = mg Cos θ ……. (1)

If "a" be the acceleration of the bob at P, then by Newton's second law of motion.

F=ma …… (2)

Comparing eq (1) & (2)

ma = -mg Sin θ
a = -g Sin θ

If "θ" is small then Sin θ= θ

a = -g θ

But
length
θ(in radian)= radius
x
θ= l
Then
x
a = -g l

g
a=- l x
g
As l
is constant
a ∝-x

Thus, the acceleration of simple pendulum is directly proportional to its displacement and is
directed towards its mean position. Hence the motion of the pendulum is S.H.M.

Simple Pendulum

b) The period of simple pendulum executing SHM gives the formula

T =2π√g
What will be the effect of the period if there is an increase in its
i) length ii) mass.

Ans)
i. With increasing the length of string, the period of pendulum will also increase.
ii. With increasing the mass of bob, the period of pendulum will remain same.

11.
a) With the help of a diagram, explain SHM in the ball and bowl system.

Ans) Ball and bowl system and SHM: Let us examine that the motion of a ball placed in a
bowl executes simple harmonic motion. When the ball is placed at the mean position 'O', that
is, at the center of the bowl. In this position the net force acting on the ball is zero. Hence there
is no motion.

Now, what if we displace the ball to an extreme position 'A' and then release it. The ball

starts moving towards the mean position 'O' due to the restoring force caused by its

weight component. At position 'O' the ball gets maximum speed and due to inertia, it

moves towards opposite extreme position 'B' with the restoring force that acts towards

the mean position, the speed of the ball starts to decrease. The ball stops for a while at

'B' and then again moves towards the mean position 'O'. This ball's to and fro motion

continues about the mean position 'O’. Also, the more the displacement of ball from mean
position, the more acceleration of the ball. This result shows that the acceleration of the ball

is directed towards 'O' and directly proportional to displacement from ‘O’. Hence, the ball's to
and fro motion about a mean position place in a bowl is also an example of simple harmonic
motion.

b) Why is the motion of a ball in the bowl executing SHM maximum at its equilibrium
position?

Ans) Because in SHM, kinetic energy is maximum at mean position.

12.
a) What are damped oscillations?

Ans) The oscillations of a system in the presence of some resistive forces are

damped oscillations.

b) How does damping progressively reduce the amplitude of oscillation?

Ans) The friction reduces the mechanical energy of the system, the motion is said to be
damped and this damping progressively reduces the amplitude of the oscillation.
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c) A boy is swinging in the swing. Explain, why its amplitude reduces progressively with
time.

Ans) The friction reduces the mechanical energy of the swing; the motion is said to be
damped and this damping progressively reduces the amplitude of the oscillation.

Section (C) Numerical:

1. What is the wavelength of a radio wave broadcasted by a radio station with a frequency of
1300 kHz?
Where 1K = 103, and the speed of the radio-wave is 3x 108 ms-1.

Data
Given:
f= 1300 kHz =1300000 Hz

To find:
λ =?

Solution:
v= f λ
v
λ=
f
Since v= 3 x108
3 x108
λ=
1300000

λ= 230.769 m

2. The waves moving in the pond have a wavelength of 1.6 m, and a frequency of 0.80 Hz.
Calculate the speed of these water waves.

Data
Given:
λ = 1.6 m
f= 0.8 Hz
To find:
v =?
Solution:
v= f λ
v= (0.8) (1.6)

v= 1.28 ms-1
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3. If 50 waves pass through a point in the rope in 10 seconds, what are the frequency and the
period of the wave? If its wavelength is 8 cm, calculate the wave speed.
Explain the type of wave produced.

Data
Given:
No. of complete waves= 50 waves
Time taken= 10 s
λ= 8 cm = 0.08m

To find:
f =?
T=?
v=?
Explain the type of wave produced=?

Solution:
No. of complete
f= waves
50
Time taken
f=
10

f= 5 Hz

1
T=
f
1
T=
5

T= 0.2 s

v= f λ
v= (5) (0.08)

v= 0.4 ms-1
The wave produced is transverse wave and it is that wave which travels in a direction
perpendicular to the direction of wave motion.

4. A slinky has produced a longitudinal wave. The wave travels at a speed of 40 cm/s and the
frequency of the wave is 20 Hz. What is the minimum separation between the consecutive
compressions?

Data
Given:
v= 40 cm/s =0.4 m/s
f= 20 Hz

To find:
λ= ?

Solution:
v= f λ
v
λ=
f
0.4
λ=
20

λ = 0.02 m

5. Suppose a student is generating waves in a slinky. The student's hand makes one complete
forth and back oscillation in 0.40 s. The wavelength in the slinky is 0.60m. For this wave,
determine
a. Period and frequency
b. Wave speed

Data
Given:
T= 0.4 s
λ= 0.6 m

To find:
a. T= ?
f= ?

b. v= ?

Solution:

a. T= 0.4 s
1
f=
T

1
f=
0.4

f= 2.5 Hz

b. v= f λ
v= (2.5) (0.6)
v= 1.5 ms-1

6. If 80 compressions pass through a point in spring in 20 seconds. Calculate the frequency

and the period? If two consecutive compressions are 8 cm apart, calculate the wave speed.

Data
Given:
No. of compressions= 80 compressions
Time taken= 20 s
λ= 8 cm = 0.08m

To find:
f =?
T= ?
v= ?

Solution:
No.of compressions
f=
Time taken
80
f=
20

f= 4 Hz
1
T=
f
1
T=
4

T= 0.25 s

v= f λ
v= (4) (0.08)

v= 0.32 ms-1

7. Waves on a swimming pool propagate at 0.90 m/s. If you splash the water at one end of
the pool, observe the wave go to the opposite end, reflect, and return in 30.0 s. How far away
is the other end of the pool?

Data
Given:
v= 0.9 m/s
t= 30.0 s

To find:
d= ?

Solution:
dt
v=
t

dt= v x t

dt= 0.9 x 30

dt= 27 m

the distance of other end of the pool

d= 27/2

d= 13.5 m

8. A simple oscillating pendulum has a length of 80.0 cm. Calculate its

a. Period
b. Frequency
When g = 9.8 m s-2

Data
Given:
l= 80.0 cm
g= 9.8 m s-2

To find:
a. T= ?

b. f= ?

Solution:

l
a. T =2π√
g

T =2π√0.8
9.8

T= 1.795 s
1
b. f=
T
1
f=
1.795

f= 0.557 Hz

Section (B) Structured Questions CHAPTER (SOUND)

1.
a) How is the sound produced?

Ans) When you hit the skin of a drum, it starts vibrating, and it moves back and forth very
quickly. These vibrations squeeze and stretch the air in its front and disrupt the surrounding
molecules. This series of squeezes and stretches accordingly produce compressions and
rarefactions which travel through the air. It produces sound waves.

b) With the help of a diagram, describe how compressions and rarefactions are produced in
the air near a source of the sound.

Ans) When a vibrating body moves forward it creates a region of high pressure in its vicinity.
This region of high pressure is known as compressions. When it moves backward, it creates a
region of low pressure in its vicinity. This region is known as rarefactions. As the body continues
to move forward and backwards. It produces a series of compressions and rarefactions. This is
shown in below figure

Compressions and rarefactions

2.
a) Why are sound waves referred to as mechanical waves?

Ans) Since sound waves require medium to travel, that’s why they are referred to as
mechanical waves.

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b) Sound requires a material medium for its propagation. Cite an experiment to prove this
statement.

Ans) Electric bell jar experiment: Sound is a mechanical wave that needs a material
medium such as gases, liquids and solids to propagate due to the vibratory motion of particles
of the medium that transport sound waves in the form of energy from one point to another.
Sound cannot travel through a vacuum demonstrated by the following experiment.
Take an electric bell and an airtight glass bell jar and then suspend the electric bell inside the
jar. Connect the bell jar to a vacuum pump. When you switch on electric bell, you can hear the
sound of the bell coming from inside air and glass material. Now start the vacuum pump as the
air in the jar is gradually pumped out, the sound becomes fainter, although the same current is
passing through the bell and hammer that strikes the gong. After a while, you will hear the
faintest sound, when there is less air. If there were no air inside the jar there would be no
sound.
The electric bell still produces the sound, but now we cannot hear it. This is because sound
waves always need a medium to propagate sound energy. In the bell jar, it was a vacuum hence
sound waves cannot travel.

3.
a) Distinguish between musical sound and noise.

Ans)
Musical sounds Noise
The sounds that are pleasant to our ears are Sound which has an unpleasant effect on our
called musical sounds. ears is called noise.
Sound produced by musical instruments such The sound of motor vehicles, the slamming of
as the recorder, guitar, violin a door, and the sounds of
and drum. machinery.
Regular repeating sound waves create musical Irregular repeating sound waves create noise.
notes.

b) Explain how noise is harmful to humans?

Ans) The excessive noise level has harmful effects on human health as they can cause
conditions such as stress and disturb concentration. Over time, hearing loss, sleeping disorder,
aggression, hypertension and high stress levels can occur.

4.
a) Define the quality or timbre of the sound.

Ans) It is defined as the characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between two
sounds of the same loudness and pitch.

b) Is it possible that two or more waves from different musical instruments combine to
form a single wave?

Ans) Yes.

5.
a) Why is the speed of the sound greater in solids than in liquids or gases?

Ans) Sound moves faster in solid because the molecules/particles of solid are very close to
each other, as compared to liquid and gases.

b) Explain the effect of the following factors on the speed of sound in the air.
i. Temperature
ii. Humidity

Ans)
i. Effect of Temperature: Temperature is also a condition that affects the speed of
sound. Molecules of the medium at higher temperatures have more energy. Thus,
they can vibrate at a higher rate. As the molecules vibrate faster, sound waves can
travel more quickly. The speed of sound at room temperature 25°C in the air is 346
meters per second. It is faster than 331 meters per second, which is the speed of
sound in air at 0°C.
ii. Effect of humidity: Humidity also affects the speed of sound in the air. The effect
of water vapor on the speed of sound is minimum than that of dry air. The presence
of moisture in air replaces oxygen and nitrogen gases that reduce the density of air
because the molecular mass of water vapors (Molecular Mass = 18) is less than that
of oxygen (Molecular Mass = 32) and nitrogen (Molecular Mass = 28) gases since the
speed of sound in gases are inversely related to the square root of its density.

Thus, humidity increases, the density of the air decreases and sound travels faster.
6.
a) Define echo.

Ans) The repetition of the sound after reflection is known as echo.

b) Explain the working and application of a sonar.

Ans) Sonar
Working: In this method, the transmitter sends out ultrasound pulses and measures the time it
takes for the pulses to reflect off a distant object and return to the source or transducer. The
position of that object can be identified and its movement can be tracked.

Application: This technique is used to measure the depth of seabed, locate and track
submarines at sea, and locate explosive mines below the surface of the water.

c) How can defects in a metal block be detected using ultrasound? Explain with the help of
a diagram.

Ans) Ultrasonic waves pass through the metal block, and detectors
are used to detect the transmitted waves. If there is any defect, the ultrasound will be
reflected, indicating the presence of the defect.

a) Define the following terms

i. Infrasonic
ii. The audible frequency range of hearing
iii. Ultrasound

Ans)
i. Infrasonic: Sound with frequencies below the lower limit (20 Hz) of the human
range of audibility is known as infrasonic.
ii. The audible frequency range of hearing: The range of frequencies of
sound that a person can hear is called the range of audibility for
the audible frequency range.
• Audible frequency range is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
iii. Ultrasound: The sound with frequencies above the upper limit (20,000
Hz) of the human range of audibility is known as ultrasound.

b) How is ultrasound used for cleaning?

Ans) In this process, objects to be cleaned are placed in a cleaning solution, and ultrasonic
waves are sent into the solution. Due to its high frequency, dust, grease, and contamination
particles detached and dropped. The objects thus get thoroughly cleansed.

c) Explain two applications of ultrasound that are used in hospitals for medical imaging.

Ans) Echocardiography: Echocardiography is a painless and non-invasive medical imaging

procedure. A transmitter sends out pulses of very high frequency. The transducer is positioned
on the chest at specific locations and angles, the pulses move across the skin and other body
tissues to the heart tissues, where the pulses bounce or echo of the heart structures. These
pulses are then transmitted to a computer to create moving images of the heart and valves. The
image produced is called an echocardiogram.

Ultrasonography: It is a technique that uses an instrument ultrasound scanner. A sonologist

visualize the organs of the patient, such as the liver, gallbladder, and kidney etc. It helps the
doctor to identify abnormalities, such as stones in the gallbladder and kidney or tumors and
abnormalities in different organs. In this technique, the sound waves penetrate the body and
hit a boundary between tissues, e.g., between fluid and soft tissue, bone and soft tissue, and
get reflected from an area where their tissue density changes. The instrument calculates the
distance from the probe to the tissue or organ boundaries using the speed of sound in tissue
and the time of the return of each echo. These pulses are then converted into electrical signals
used to create two-dimensional images of the organ.

The schematic diagram of ultrasound scan machine

Section (C) Numerical:

1. Calculate the speed of sound in air at 50 °C? Given that speed of sound at O °C is 331m/s.

Data:
Given:
T= 50 °C
To find:
v= ?

Solution:

v= 331 x √ T
273

v= 331 x √323
273
v= 360.037 ms-1

2. A person has an audible range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the distinguishing
wavelengths of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed
of sound in air as 340 ms-1.

Data:
Given:
fL= 20 Hz
fH= 20 kHz =20000 Hz
v= 340 ms-1
To find:
λL= ?
λH= ?

Solution:
v= fL λL
v
λL=
fL
340
λL=
20

λL= 17 m

v= fH λH
v
λH=
fH

340
λH=
20000

λH= 17 mm

3. A ship uses ultrasonic pulses to measure the depth of the submarine beneath the ship. A
sound pulsing is transmitted into the sea, and the echo from the sea-bed is received after
40 ms. The speed of sound in seawater is 1480 m/s.
Calculate the deepness of the submarine.

Data:
Given:
t= 40 ms =0.04s
v= 1480 ms-1
To find:
d= ?

Solution:
v= dt
i.
t

dt= v x t

dt= 1480 x 0.04

dt= 59.2 m

the deepness of the submarine

d= 59.2/2

d= 29.6 m

4. At night, bats emit pulses of sound to detect their prey. The speed of sound in air is 340
m/s.

(i) A bat emits a pulse of the sound of wavelength 0.0080 m. Calculate the frequency of the
sound.

(ii) The pulse of sound hits its prey and is reflected in the bat. The bat receives the pulse
0.10 s after it is emitted. Calculate the distance traveled by the pulse of sound during this
time.

(iii) Calculate the distance of prey from the bat.

Data:
Given:
v= 340 ms-1
λ= 0.0080 m
t= 0.10 s

To find:
i. f= ?
ii. dt= ?
iii. d= ?

Solution:
i. V= f λ
v
f=
λ
340
f=
0.0080

f= 42.5 kHz

dt
i. v=
t

dt= v x t

dt= 340 x 0.10

dt=34 m

iii. Calculate the distance of prey from the bat.

d= 34/2

d= 17 m

Section (B) Structured Questions: CHAPTER (ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM)

a) Define dispersion of light.

Ans) Splitting of white light into its constituent colors when it passes
through a glass prism is called dispersion of white light.

b) Describe the dispersion of light when passing through a glass prism.

Ans) White light is not a single color but a mixture of all the spectrum colors. The prism
refracts each individual color differently depending on their refractive index.

When a narrow beam of white light splits, the color sequence produced in the spectrum is
indicated by the acronym VIB GYOR, which stands for Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow,
Orange, and Red, as shown in figure below. The speed and direction of white light vary
depending on the wavelength. The red color has a maximum speed in the glass prism, with the
slightest deviation. In contrast, the violet color has minimum speed, which with most deviation
because color has its own refracted path in the air and becomes distinct on the spectrum.

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a) Explain how the rainbow is produced on a rainy day?

Ans) At an angle of approximately 40 degrees above ground level, you must look into an area
of atmosphere with suspended droplets of water, or even a light mist, in order to see a rainbow
in the sky. Every droplet of water acts as a tiny prism, dispersing and reflecting light to your eye.
When you look at the sky, droplets emit wavelengths of light associated with a color. There are
several ways sun rays can enter through a drop.

b) Explain how the colors are related to distinct frequency or wavelength?

Ans) Relation with distinct frequency: The color which has lowest frequency shows less
deviation through prism while the color which has highest frequency shows large deviation
through prism.

Relation with distinct wavelength: The color which has lowest wavelength shows
large deviation through prism while the color which has highest wavelength shows less
deviation through prism.

a) What are electromagnetic waves?

Ans) Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves. It is electric and magnetic fields that are
oscillating, not material.

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b) List the main components of the electromagnetic spectrum in decreasing order of their
wavelengths.

Ans)

i. Radio waves
ii. Microwaves
iii. Infrared waves
iv. Ultraviolet waves
v. X-ray
vi. Gamma rays

c) Ultraviolet rays have a higher frequency than radio waves. Can UV rays travel faster in a
vacuum?

Ans) No. All forms of light (radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, etc) travel at the same speed in
a vacuum, regardless of their wavelength.

4. Compare the properties of ultraviolet rays and radio signals.

a) Which one travels at a faster speed?

Ans) Ultraviolet rays and radio signals travel at the same speed.

b) Which wave has a greater frequency?

Ans) Ultraviolet rays.

c) Which wave has a greater wavelength?

Ans) Radio signals.

a) What are the main sources of radio waves?

Ans)

i. Accelerating point charges.

ii. Electric spark
iii. Transmitters, which have oscillators to generate the radio frequency

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b) What is the main advantage of using radio waves in communication?

Ans) Radio waves can direct around hills, so radio can receive signals even if a hill blocks the
direct route from the transmitting antenna.

6. Why are microwaves preferred in satellite communication?

Ans) Microwaves can penetrate haze, light rain, clouds, and

smoke as they have a higher frequency of all ranges of radio waves.

7.
a) What type of radiation is commonly used in remote controllers for household
appliances?

Ans) Infra-red radiation.

b) How do the molecules emit infrared radiations?

Ans) Rotational-vibrational motion of atoms or molecules causes infrared radiations.

c) How intruder alarms help security personnel visualize the thermal images?

Ans) The human body also gives out infrared radiations because of the
rotational-vibrational motion of its atoms or molecules that motion sensors can detect. Intruder
alarms use these motional sensors that detect the changing pattern of infrared radiations
emitted by a warm body of an approaching person and help security personnel visualize the
thermal images.

8.
a) On what principle do optical fibers work?

Ans) Total internal reflection.

b) Reference the daily life applications of optical fibers in;

i. telecommunication
ii. medical industry?

Ans)

i. Telecommunication: Optical fiber is used by telecommunications companies to

transmit telephone signals, Internet communication and cable television signals.

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ii. Medical Industry: An endoscope, a medical device, is a long tube consisting of

optical fibers that enable doctors to see abnormalities in organs such as stomach
intestines inside a human body.

9.
a) Exposure to sunlight can damage the skin. Exposure to sunlight does not damage the
skin. State the possible reason.

Ans) Exposure to sunlight can damage the skin: Sun exposure causes most of the skin
changes that we think of as a normal part of aging. Over time, the sun's ultraviolet (UV) light
damages the fibers in the skin called elastin. When these fibers break down, the skin begins
to sag, stretch, and lose its ability to go back into place after stretching.

Exposure to sunlight does not damage the skin: The outer layer of the skin has cells
that contain the pigment melanin. Melanin protects skin from the sun's ultraviolet rays.

b) Why are ultraviolet rays used under medically supervised control in sunbeds?

Ans) Under medically controlled supervision, sunbeds beautify, provide the body with
vitamin D, and treat certain skin conditions.

10.
a) Explain fluorescence.

Ans) When absorbed in ultraviolet, some materials convert their energy and glow. This
phenomenon is called fluorescence.

b) Describe sterilization.

Ans) Sterilization refers to any process that removes, kills, or deactivates all forms of life and
other biological agents such as prions present in or on a specific surface, object, or fluid. As
ultraviolet skills harmful bacteria, strong UVB and UVC radiations are used to sterilize food and
medical equipment in hospitals.

11. X-rays are used to detect cracks in metals. Explain how?

Ans) A beam of X-rays points at the tested item. A detector is aligned with the beam on the
other side of the item. The detector records X-rays that pass through the material. The thicker
the material, the fewer X-rays can pass through. More rays move through that region where the
material is thinner because of a crack or flaw. The detector computes a picture from the rays
that pass through, which shows cracks or flaws in that material.

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12.
a) Where do gamma rays come from?

Ans) Nuclear decay.

b) How are gamma radiations used in radiosurgery for destroying cancerous cells?

Ans) These high-energy rays are directed at the cancerous tumor to kill cancer cells in
oncology.

c) Explain the applications of gamma rays used in hospitals for medical imaging.

Ans) Positron Emission tomography (PET) is a functional medical imaging method. In a PET
scan, a short-lived positron emitting radioactive sampling taken suitable for a particular
function (e.g., brain function) is injected into the body. Radiated positrons quickly fuse with
nearby electrons and lead to two gamma rays of 511-keV travelling in opposite directions. After
detecting the gamma rays, a computer generates an image that highlights the location of the
biological process being examined. PET scans are used to trace imaging of brain tumors.

Section (C) Numericals:

1. Electromagnetic radiation having a 15.0- μm wavelength is classified as infrared radiation.

What is its frequency? Given that the speed of light is 3×10 8 m/s.

Data:
Given:
λ= 15.0 μm =15.0 x 10-6 m
c= 3×108 m/s

To find:
f= ?

Solution:
v= f λ
c
f=
λ
8
3 x 10
f= 15.0 x 10−6

f= 2 x 1013 Hz

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2. What is the frequency of the 193-nm ultraviolet radiation used in laser eye surgery?

Data:
Given:
λ= 193 nm =15.0 x 10-9 m
c= 3×108 m/s

To find:
f= ?

Solution:
v= f λ
c
f=
λ

3 x 108
f=
193 x 10−9

f= 1.55 x 1015 Hz

3. Calculate the wavelength of 100-MHz radio waves used in an MRI unit?

Data:
Given:
f= 100 MHz= 100 x106 Hz
c= 3×108 m/s

To find:
λ= ?

Solution:
v= f λ
c
λ=
f

3 x 108
λ=
100 x 106

λ=3m

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4. The distance from earth to sun is 1.49 x 1011 meters. How long a radio pulse radiated from
the sun takes to reach on the earth?

Data:
Given:
s= 1.49 x 1011 m
c= 3×108 m/s

To find:
t= ?

Solution:
s
v=
t
s
t=
c
1.49 x 1011
t=
3× 108

t= 496.67 s

5. Distances in space are often measured in units of light-years, the distance light travels in
one year. Find the distance in kilometers in a light-year?

Data:
To find:
The distance in kilometers in a light-year= ?

Solution:
1 year = 365 days
= 365 × 24
= 365 × 24 × 60 minutes
= 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 seconds
= 31536000 seconds

1 Light-year = Velocity × Time

= 300000 km/s × 31536000 s
= 9.46 × 1012 km

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6. What is the frequency of green light with a wavelength of 5.5 x 107 m?

Data:
Given:
λ= 5.5 x 107 m
c= 3×108 m/s

To find:
f= ?

Solution:
v= f λ
c
f=
λ

3 x 108
f=
5.5 x 107

f= 5.45 Hz

7. A typical household microwave oven operates at a frequency of 2.45-GHz. What is the

wavelength of this radiation?

Data:
Given:
f= 2.45 GHz = 2.45 x109 Hz
c= 3×108 m/s

To find:
λ= ?

Solution:
v= f λ
c
λ=
f

3 x 10 8
λ = 2.45 x 109

λ = 0.1224 m or 122.4 mm

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Section (B) Structured Questions: CHAPTER (GEOMETRICAL OPTICS)

a. What do you understand by the term reflection of light?

Ans) A phenomenon of returning light from the surface of an object when the light is incident
on it is called reflection of light.
b. Outline a diagram to illustrate reflection at a plane surface.

Ans)

Reflection of Light

c. Describe the following terms used in reflection:

i. Normal ii. The angle of incidence iii. The angle of reflection.

Ans)

i. Normal: The line that is created when a perpendicular is made between two rays
on a reflecting surface.
ii. The angle of incidence: The angle of incidence is the angle between a ray incident
on a reflecting surface and the line perpendicular to the surface at the point of
incidence, called the normal.
iii. The angle of reflection: The angle between a reflected ray and the normal drawn
at the point of incidence to a reflecting surface.

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2. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.

a. Side/rearview mirror of a vehicle.

Ans) Convex mirror.

b. To locate the blind spots on roads of the hilly side.

Ans) Convex mirror.

c. Dentist mirror Support your answer with reason.

Ans) Concave mirror.

3.
a. Define the refraction of light.

Ans) The bending effect of light as it passes from one transparent medium to
another is refraction of light.

b. Outline the passage of light through a parallel-sided glass slab.

Ans)

Refraction of Light

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c. Define the following terms used in refraction:

i. The angle of incidence
ii. The angle of refraction

Ans)
i. The angle of incidence: The angle formed at the point of incidence between the
incident ray and the normal is called the angle of incidence.
ii. The angle of refraction: The angle formed between the refracted ray and the
normal is called the angle of refraction.

4.
a. What do you understand by the refractive index of a material?

Ans) The refractive index can be defined as the ratio of the sign of the angle of incidence to
the sign of the angle of refraction when the ray of light enters from one medium to another.

b. Cite experimentation on how you can determine the refractive index of a parallel-sided
glass slab?

Ans) A ray AO strikes the face PQ at an angle of incident ∠i. As it enters the slab of glass, it
takes a little bend to the right, travelling along OB at a refraction angle of ∠r.

c. Which physical quantity remains unaffected when refraction of light occurs?

Ans) Frequency of light.

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5.
a. What is the glass prism?

Ans) The prism is a triangular transparent block of glass or plastic. It is a solid structure
having three rectangular and two triangular surfaces.

b. Describe the passage of monochromatic light rays through a glass prism.

Ans) At surface AB, the ray of light enters and bends towards the normal on refraction. At
surface AC, the ray of light bends away from the normal as it travels from one medium to the
other medium.

Tracing the passage of light rays through a glass prism

c. Suppose a ray of light approaches the surface of the prism. What happens when it
enters the glass at the angle of?
i. 0° with the normal
ii. 30° with the normal. Answer in terms of its change in the quantities of frequency, speed,
wavelength, and direction.

Ans)
i. 0° with the normal:
frequency= No change
speed= No change
wavelength= No change
direction= No change
ii. 30° with the normal:
frequency= No change
speed= Change
wavelength= Change
direction= Change

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6.
a. What is the lens?

Ans) The lens is a piece of transparent material such as glass or plastic.

b. What happens if a light ray parallel to the principal axis enters a convex lens?

Ans) If a light ray parallel to the principal axis enters a convex lens, it is refracted by the lens
and after refraction passes through focal point.

c. The convex lens is considered a converging lens. Explain why?

Ans) Consider a monochromatic ray of light travelling parallel to the principal axis of the
double convex lens. When the ray enters the lens, the lens refracts the light at each interface,
i.e. air to glass and glass to air boundaries. The net effect of the refraction, the light ray, has
changed its directions. Because of its special geometric shape, it converges the ray to the focal
point. That’s why it is considered a converging lens.

d. Describe the power of a lens and its units.

Ans) Power
Definition: The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.

Unit: The SI unit of power of a lens is 'diopter'. It is denoted by the letter D (1D=1m-1).

7.
a. Define critical angle.

Ans) The angle of incidence that causes the refracted ray in the rare
medium to bend through 90° is called the critical angle.

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b. What do you understand by the term total internal reflection?

Ans) If a ray passes from a dense medium to a rare medium and its angle of incidence is
greater than the critical angle, the incident ray is reflected
into the dense medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.

c. State the conditions required for a total internal reflection.

Ans) A ray passes from a dense medium to a rare medium and its angle of incidence is
greater than the critical angle.

d. Give some practical examples of a total internal reflection in everyday life.

Ans) Some practical examples of total internal reflection in everyday life are the formation
of a mirage, shining of empty test-tube in water, shining of crack in a glass-vessel, sparkling
of a diamond, transmission of light rays in an optical fiber, etc.

8. Determine the critical angle of light in a diamond? The refractive index of the diamond is
2.41.

Ans)
Data:
Given:
∠r= 90 °

n= 1.33

To find:

∠c= ?

Solution:

n=sin∠i / sin∠r

For critical angle

n=sin∠r / sin∠i

n=sin ∠90° / sin∠c

n= 1/ sin ∠c

sin∠c= 1/n

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sin∠c= 1/2.41

sin∠c= 0.415

∠c=sin-1 (0.415)

∠c= 24.52°

a. What are optical fibers?

Ans) a thin flexible fiber with a glass core through which light signals can be sent with very
little loss of strength.

b. Describe how total internal reflection is used in an endoscope?

Ans) An endoscope is a long tube consisting of optical fiber. The core and cladding of the
fiber are made by such materials that cause all the light to be reflected if the angle of light is
greater than critical angle. We call that ‘total internal reflection’.

10.

a. Draw the ray diagram of a magnifying glass.

Ans)

b. How can you use a thin converging lens as a magnifying glass?

Ans) We can use a thin converging lens as a magnifying glass if object is placed such that its
distance is less than the focal length,i.e., p<f.

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c. Give the magnification of magnifying glass.

Ans) The magnification of magnifying glass is the ratio of image height h1 to object height
h2.
ℎ1
M=
ℎ2
11. With the help of a ray diagram, give the magnifying powers of the following optical
instruments:
i. Simple microscope or magnifying glass
ii. Compound microscope
iii. Refracting telescope

Ans) i. Magnifying power of simple microscope: Let θ2 be the angle subtended at the
eye by a tiny object when placed at the near point of the eye. If the object is brought closer to
the eye, the angle will increase and become θ1, but the eye cannot see it. To see the object, we
place a convex lens between the object and the eye within the focal length so that the lens
makes a magnified virtual image of the object at the near point of the eye. The magnifying
power, in such a case, will be

It can be shown that the relation gives the magnifying power

Where d is the near point of accommodation, for a normal human eye, it is

25 cm. This relation indicates that a lens of a shorter focal length will have the greater
magnifying power.

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ii. Magnifying power of compound microscope: When rays of light from a point on a
nearby object pass through an objective lens. The objective lens forms a small image I1 on the
inside focal length of the eyepiece. This image behaves as an object for the eyepiece, and the
larger image I2 is formed at the near point of the normal human eye. This final magnified virtual
image makes an angle θi at the eyepiece.

The magnification of a compound microscope is given by

Where L is the length equal to the distance between the objective and eyepiece, fo and fe are
the focal lens of the objective and eyepiece, respectively.

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iii. Magnifying power of refracting telescope: When parallel rays from a point on a
distant object pass through the objective lens, a real image I1 is formed at the focal point f of
the objective lens. This image behaves as an object for the eyepiece. The eyepiece forms a
magnified virtual image I2 a considerable distance from the objective lens. This enlarged virtual
image makes an angle θi at the eyepiece.
The magnification of a telescope is given by the formula

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12.
a. What is meant by the terms?
i. short-sight, and ii. long-sight

Ans)
i. Short-sight: A person with short sight can see nearby objects clearly but cannot
see distant objects distinctly.
ii. Long-sight: A person with long-sight can see distant objects clearly but cannot see
nearby objects distinctly.
b. How can these defects be corrected?
i. short-sight, and ii. long-sight

Ans)
i. Correction of short-sight: By placing a concave lens or contact of appropriate
power in front of the eye. A concave lens of suitable power will bring the image back
onto the retina, and thus can correct the defect.
ii. Correction of long-sight: By placing a convex lens or contact of suitable power in
front of the eye. A convex lens of suitable power provides the additional focusing
power required for forming the image on the retina. Thus, the defect can be
corrected.

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c. Why is a normal eye not able to see the objects put closer than 25 cm?

Ans) A normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm because the eye is not able to
decrease the focal length beyond a limit since ciliary muscle are most strained, beyond that
they do not strain.

Section C (Numericals):

1. A thumb pin is positioned at a distance of 15 cm from a convex mirror of a focal length of

20 cm. Determine the position and nature of the image.

Data:
Given:
p= 15 cm

f= 20 cm

To find:

q= ?

Nature of the image= ?

Solution:

1 1 1
- = +
f p q

1 1 1
=- -
q f p

1 1 1
=- -
q 20 15

1 −3−4 −7
= =
q 60 60

60
q=
−7

q= - 8.57 cm
When q is negative then image is virtual.

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2. An image of a specimen appears to be 11.5 cm behind a concave mirror with a focal length
of 13.5 cm. Find the specimen's distance from the mirror.

Data:
Given:
q= -11.5 cm

f= 13.5 cm

To find:

p= ?

Solution:
1 1 1
= p +q
f
1 1 1
= -
p f q

1 1 1
= -
p 13.5 −11.5

1 1 1
= +
p 13.5 11.5

1 11.5+13.5 100
= =
p 155.25 621

621
p=
100

p= 6.21 cm

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3. A convex mirror used for rear-view on an automobile has a radius of curvature of 4.00 m. If
a bus is located at 5.00 m from this mirror, find the image's position, nature, and size.

Data:
Given:
c= 4.00 m

p= 5.00 m

To find:

q= ?

Nature of the image= ?

M=?

Solution:
c= 2f
f= c/2
f= 4/2 =2 m
1 1 1
- = +
f p q

1 1 1
=- -
q f p

1 1 1
=- -
q 2 5

1 −5−2 −7
= =
q 10 10

10
q=
−7

q= - 1.428 m
When q is negative then image is virtual.
q
M=
p

1.428
M=
5
M =0.285

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4. An object is placed 15 cm away from a converging lens of a focal length of 10 cm.

Determine the position, size, and nature of the image formed.

Data:
Given:
p= 15 cm

f= 10 cm

To find:

q= ?

M=?

Nature of the image= ?

Solution:
1 1 1
= +
f p q

1 1 1
= -
q f p

1 1 1
= -
q 10 15

1 3−2 1
= =
q 30 30

30
q=
1

q= 30 cm
When q is positive then image is real.
q
M=
p

30
M=
15

M=2

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5. A concave lens of focal length 20 cm forms an image 15 cm from the lens. Determine the
power of a lens. Also, how far is the object positioned from the lens?

Data:
Given:
q= -15cm

f= 20 cm= 0.2 m

To find:

P= ?

p= ?

Solution:
1
P=
−f
1
P=
−0.2

P= -5 D
1 1 1
- = +
f p q

1 1 1
=- -
p f q
1 1 1
=- -
p 20 −15

1 1 1
=- +
p 20 15

1 −3+4 1
= =
p 60 60

60
p=
1

p= 60 cm

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6. The angle of incidence for a ray of light from air to water interface is 40°. If the ray travels
through the water with a refractive index of 1.33, calculate the angle of refraction.

Data:
Given:
∠i= 40°

n= 1.33

To find:

∠r= ?

Solution:
sin ∠i
n=
sin ∠r
sin ∠i
sin ∠r=
n
sin ∠i
∠r =sin-1( )
n

sin 40°
∠r =sin-1 ( )
1.33

∠r = 28.9°

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Section (B) Structured Questions: CHAPTER (ELECTROSTATICS)

1. Explain how electric charge can be generated and measured in very simple experiments.

Ans) Production of electric charge:

1. When we comb our hair with the plastic comb and then bring it close to small pieces of paper,
the comb will attract the paper pieces to itself.

2. In the same way, rubbing amber with silk causes it to attract the small pieces of paper.

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2. Explain how an electroscope is built and how it operates.

Ans)
Construction: An electroscope has a metal detector knob on top and metal leaves on the
connecting rod. When there is no charge present, the metals' leaves are allowed to hang.

Working: When an item with a charge is brought near an electroscope, one of two things may
happen.

Positive charges attract electrons in the electroscope's metal, which migrate upward out of the
leaves. This causes the leaves to have a transient positive charge, and since similar charges
repel, the leaves split as illustrated in figure (a). When the charge is released, the electrons
return to their normal places and the leaves relax, figure (b).

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When the charge is negative, the electrons in the electroscope metal reject and migrate toward
the leaves. When the leaves are temporarily negatively charged, they split once again because
opposite charges repel one another figure (c). If the charge is removed, the electrons return to
their original location and the leaves relax.

An electroscope reacts to a charge by moving electrons into or out from the leaves. In both
circumstances, the leaves separate. The electroscope cannot tell whether a charge item is
positive or negative; it just detects an electrical charge.

3. State and explain the Coulomb's law.

Ans) Coulomb's law or Coulomb's inverse-square law

Introduction: This law was introduced by a French physicist Charles Augustine de Coulomb in
1785.

Statement: The magnitude of electrostatic force of attraction or repulsion between two point
charges is directly proportional to the product of magnitudes of charges and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Explaination: Consider two point charges q1 and q2 which are (r) distance a part, than
according to Coulomb's law

……. (i)
And

……….(ii)
By combining the equation i and ii

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Where is the constant of proportionality

For value of ε:

4. Define electric field and electric field intensity.

Ans) Electric field: A region around the charged particle or object within which a force would
be exerted on other charged particles or objects.

Electric field intensity: The electric field intensity at a point is the force experienced by a
unit positive charge placed at that point.

5. Describe the concept of electrostatic potential.

Ans) Electrostatic potential

Definition: The amount of work that is done in order to transport a unit charge from a
reference point to a given location within the field without causing an acceleration.

Unit: The SI unit of electrostatic potential is volt.

Factors on which electrostatic potential depends: The magnitude of electrostatic potential

depends on the amount of work done in moving the object from one point to another against
the electric field as shown in figure below.

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6. Describe potential difference as energy transfer per unit charge.

Ans) Potential difference: It is the work done per unit charge to move a unit charge from one
to another in an electric field. Electric potential difference is usually referred as voltage
difference.

Unit: The SI unit of potential difference is volt.

Example:

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7. Provide an example of when static electricity could cause harm, as well as the measures
taken to prevent injury.

Ans)
Examples of when static electricity could cause harm: The danger of static electricity
comes when the transfer of charge is so great that it creates a spark. One of the most common
occurrences of static electricity dangers is refueling a vehicle. The driver may be carrying excess
electrons, which may create a spark when you touch the fuel pump. Exposing the spark to
volatile gasoline may create an unexpected combustion.

Another danger is static electrical shock. When an object builds up too much electrical charge
with no means of release, you may get electrocuted as you touch the charged object.

The measures taken to prevent injury:

• Avoid wearing rubber-soled footwear: Rubber is an excellent insulator, and so wearing
rubber-soled shoes may create a significant amount of static in your body.
• Apply grounding in your home appliances: Some of the devices in your house may
collect static electricity over time, if there's no way to discharge them. Make sure that
your appliances have a grounding mechanism in order to release the excess static.
• Ground yourself: If you think you may be carrying some static electricity, touch an inert
metal object to discharge the electricity.
• Keep indoor air humid: Dry air increases the risk of static electricity buildup in your
home. The best way to address this is to keep the relative humidity above 30%. A
humidifier may do the trick.
• Keep skin moisturized: If your skin is dry, it has a higher likelihood of developing static
electricity. You may apply lotion or moisturizer on your hands and skin.

8. Describe how the capacitor works as a device that stores electrical charges.

Ans) Working: First, we can note that a metal typically has an equal amount of positively and
negatively charged particles, which means it’s electrically neutral.

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If we connect a power source or a battery to the metal plates of the capacitor, a current will try
to flow, or the electrons from the plate connected to the positive lead of the battery will start
moving to the plate connected to the negative lead of the battery. However, because of the
dielectric between the plates, the electrons won’t be able to pass through the capacitor, so
they will start accumulating on the plate.

After a certain number of electrons accumulated on the plate, the battery will have insufficient
energy to push any new electrons to enter the plate because of the repulsion of those electrons
which are already there.

At this point, the capacitor is actually fully charged. The first plate has developed a net negative
charge, and the second plate has developed an equal net positive charge, creating an electric
field with an attractive force between them which holds the charge of the capacitor.

9. Explain why it's important to know the effective capacitance of a number of capacitors
connected in series and in parallel.

Ans) So that we can change effective capacitance as per our requirement.

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10. Give some examples of where capacitors are used in different kinds of electrical devices.

Ans)
1. They are utilized to run table fans, ceiling fans, exhaust fans, air conditioner, motors,
coolers, washing machines, and many other appliances to keep them running at a high
efficiency.
2. It is also common to find capacitors in the electronics circuitry of computers and other
products like smartphones.
3. It is possible to utilize capacitors to distinguish between high and low frequency signals,
which makes them valuable in electronics circuits. For instance, resonant circuits, which
are responsible for tuning radios to specific frequencies, require the use of variable
capacitors.

11. In what direction will a positively charged particles move in an electric field?

Ans) A positive charge placed in an electric field will tend to move in the direction of the electric
field lines.

12. Does a series connection between capacitors always result in an equal amount of charge
being stored in each capacitor?

Ans) Two or more capacitors in series will always have equal amounts of coulomb charge across
their plates.

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Section (C) Numericals:

1. What is the electric force of repulsion between two electrons at a distance of 1 m?

Data:
Given:
q1=q2= 1.69 x 10-19 C
r= 1m

To find:
F=?
Solution:
kq1q2
F=
r2
(9 x 109)(1.69 𝑥 10−19)(1.69𝑥 10−19)
F=
12

F= 2.57 x 10-28 N

2. Two point charges q1 = 5 µC and q2=3 µC are placed at a distance of 5 cm. What will be the
coulomb's force between them?

Data:
Given:
q1= 5 µC= 5 x 10-6 C
q2= 3 x 10-6 C
r= 5 cm

To find:
F=?
Solution:
kq1q2
F=
r2
(9 x 109)(5 x 10−6)(3 x 10−6)
F=
(5 x 10−2)2

F= 54 N

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3. If 2 μC charge is placed in the field of 3.42 x 1011 N/C, what will be the force on it?

Data:
Given:
E=3.42 x 1011 N/C

q= 2μC= 2x10-6C

To find:

F=?

Solution:
F
E=
q

F= E q

F= (3.42 x 1011) (2x10-6)

F= 684 x 103 N

4. What is the charge on the capacitor, if a 40 μF capacitor has a potential difference of 6 V

across it?

Data:
Given:
C=40 μF= 40 x 10-6 F

V= 6 V

To find:

Q= ?

Solution:

Q= C V

Q= (40 x 10-6) (6)

Q=2.4 x 10-4 C
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5. The potential difference between two points is 100 V. If an unknown charge is moved
between the points, the amount of work done is 500J. Find the amount of charge.

Data:
Given:
V=100 V

W= 500 J

To find:

q= ?

Solution:
W
V=
q
W
q=
V
500
q=
100

q= 5 C

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6. Find the equivalent capacitance when a 4 μF, 3 μF and 2 μF capacitor are connected in
series.

Data:
Given:
C1= 4 μF= 4 x 10-6 F

C2= 3 μF= 3 x 10-6 F

C3= 2 μF= 2 x 10-6 F

To find:

Cnet= ?

Solution:
1 1 1 1
= + +
C𝚗et C1 C2 C3

1 1 1 1
= + +
C𝚗et 4 3 2

1 13
=
C𝚗et 12

12
Cnet=
13

Cnet= 0.92 μF

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V= √400

V= 20V

Result: Potential difference is 20V.

Section (B) Structured Questions:

1. Is it always the case that a series connection between capacitors will result in an equal
amount of charge being stored in each capacitor?

Ans) Two or more capacitors in series will always have equal amounts of coulomb charge across
their plates.

2. Why should we connect the equipment in parallel rather than in series, and what are the
benefits of this configuration?

Ans) So that voltage across each equipment remains same.

Benefits:
1. Each appliance can be turned on or off independently.
2. The voltage of each electrical appliance is the same as the power supply line.
3. If one electrical appliance stops working due to a problem, the other appliances
will continue to function.

3. Does a circuit need a potential difference in order for current to flow through it?

Ans) Yes.

4. It is impracticable to connect an electric blub and an electric heater in series. Why?

Ans) Connecting an electric light bulb and an electric heater in series is impractical because
they will not receive the currents and voltages that they require.

5. When a fuse is used in a circuit, does it control the current or the potential difference?

Ans) Fuse is used in electric circuits to prevent the excess current flowing into the circuit and
therefore preventing the appliances from getting damaged from overheating. It controls the
current.

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6. Explain what do you mean by the term "conventional current"

Ans) When current flows from the positive terminal to the negative
terminal of battery.

7. Describe Ohm's law and its limitations.

Ohm's law
Statement: The current flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the potential
difference across the two ends of a conductor, provided the physical state (Dimension,
Temperature, etc) of the conductor remains same.

Mathematically: According to ohm's law

I∝V
I = KV
Where K is constant of proportionality called conductance or physical state of conductor.
Conductance is opposite to resistance. Thus, K = 1/R
I = V/R
V=IR
Where R is the constant called resistance.

Ohm's law limitations: There are some limitations to ohm's law. They are as follows:
• Ohm's law is an empirical law which is found true for maximum experiments but not for
all.
• Some materials are non-ohmic under a weak electric field.
• Ohm's law holds true only for a conductor at a constant temperature because resistivity
changes with temperature.
• As long as the current flows, greater will be the temperature of the conductor.
• Heat produced in a conductor can be calculated by Joule's heat law H= I2Rt where I is
current, R is resistance and t is time.
• Ohm's law is not applicable to in-network circuits.
• Ohm's law does not apply directly to capacitor circuits and inductor circuits.

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• The V-I graph of ohmic conductors is not really a straight graph. It does show some
variation.

• The V-I characteristics of diodes are much different from ohmic conductors V-I graph.

8. Determine the effective resistance of a number of resistances that are

connected in either series or parallel by doing the appropriate calculations.

Ans) The effective resistance of a number of resistances that are

connected in series: Let suppose three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series,
when this combination is connected to a battery of V volts, it draws current I from the battery.
Re is called equivalent resistor and its resistance is called equivalent resistance.

Then, for series combination

……..(i)
By applying Ohm's Law to each resistor. We have:

Using them in equation (I) we get:

Thus equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistance.

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9. Explain what influences the resistance of a metal conductor and how you measured it.

Ans) Factor affecting the resistance:

• Electrical resistance is directly proportional to the length (L) of the conductor and
inversely proportional to the cross sectional area (A). It is given by the following relation.
R = ρL/A
Where ρ is the resistivity of the material measured in Ωm.
• Electrical resistance is inversely proportional to the temperature of metallic conductors.
Measurement of resistance: Parallel to the conductor whose resistance is required,
connect a Voltmeter.
In line with the conductor connect an Ammeter.

Apply a voltage, the smallest which gives adequate readings.

Register the difference in potential, V, across the conductor with the Voltmeter (in Volts), and
the current, I, through the Ammeter (in Amperes).
The required resistance (in Ohms) is:

R = V/I

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10. Explain Joule's law and the process of energy dissipation in a resistance.

Ans)
Joule's law

Statement: When an electric current passes through a conductor, heat H is produced, which is
directly proportional to the resistance R of the conductor, the time t for which the current
flows, and to the square of the magnitude of current I.

Mathematically:

• The amount of generated heat is proportional to the wire's electrical resistance when
the current in the circuit and time of flow are not changed.
• The amount of generated heat in a conductor carrying current is proportional to the
square of the current flow through the circuit when the electrical resistance and time of
flow are constant.
• The amount of heat produced because of the current flow is proportional to the time of
flow when the resistance and current flow is kept constant.

The process of energy dissipation in a resistance: Energy dissipation in resistors as a

charge q moves through a resistor, it loses a potential energy qV where V is the potential drop
across the resistor. This energy goes into heat, much like the way a ball of putty that falls off a
cliff converts its potential energy to heat when it hits the ground.

11. Explain the roles of the live, neutral and earth wires in a standard home electrical system.

Ans)
Roles of the neutral wire:
• The cable, known as neutral wire, is grounded to the earth within the power plant itself
to keep its voltage constant (N). The current flows back through this wire.
• The neutral wire along with live wire is used to connect all of the equipment in a home.

Roles of the live wire:

• The live wire along with neutral wire is used to connect all of the equipment in a home.

Roles of the Earth wire:

• Earthing is used to protect you from an electric shock.

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12. How Does AC Work?

Ans) As the liquid refrigerant inside the evaporator coil converts to gas, heat from the indoor
air is absorbed into the refrigerant, thus cooling the air as it passes over the coil. The indoor
unit's blower fan then pumps the chilled air back through the home's ductwork out into the
various living areas.

13. Explain the risks associated with electrical current (damaged insulation. Overheating of
cables, damp conditions).

Ans)
Damaged Insulation: If the insulation on a cable is damaged, the metal conductors inside
will be exposed. It is possible for a person to receive an electric shock if he comes into contact
with the exposed wires, which could result in his death.

Overheating of cables: When a very high current is passed through a cable, there is a
possibility that the wire will overheat as a result of the excessive amount of energy. Because of
the overheating, there is a risk of electrical fires.

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Damp conditions: People who are in close proximity to an electrical appliance that is being
used in a damp environment, such as a bathroom, have an increased risk of being electrocuted
by the electricity that is being conducted through the water because water is a conductor. If a
person touches a socket while their skin is wet in any way, they run the risk of being
electrocuted.

14. Explain how safety precautions are used in home electricity.

Ans) Safety measures in precautions electricity: To avoid any unwanted incident few
measures must be taken which are given below:

Fuses: Fuses prevent damage to electronic components caused by overheating. When there is a
significant amount of current running through the circuit, the wires that are contained within
the circuit will begin to overheat. A metal wire fuse with a low melting point will become
molten, breaking the circuit.

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The Circuit-Breaker: Breakers prevent damage to electronic components caused by

overheating. In the majority of applications found in the home, circuit breakers are used to
restrict the amount of current flowing through a single circuit. Although the circuit breakers are
available in a wide range of sizes, the maximum current that can flow through a single circuit is
typically 20 amps. 20 amps of current will heat the bimetallic strip, bending it download and
releasing the trip-lever. In the case of a high-current spike, the bimetallic strip will be rapidly
retracted by a small electromagnet made from
wire loops wrapped around a piece of iron.

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The ground wire: The word 'ground' means that something is connected to the Earth, which
stores charge. A ground wire gives an electrical appliance a path to the earth that is separate
from the normal path that current takes. As a practical matter, it is connected to the electrical
neutral at the service panel so that if there is an electrical fault, there is a path with low enough
resistance to trip the circuit breaker as illustrated in figure.
Attached to an appliance's case, it keeps the case's voltage at ground potential (usually taken as
the zero of voltage). In this way, electric shock is prevented.

15. Describe the effects of an appliance-caused electrical shock on the human body.
Ans) The effects of an appliance-caused electrical shock on the human body:
• Electric current of 0.001 A can be felt.
• Electric current of 0.005 A can be painful for human body.
• If electric current is of 0.01 A, resulting in the contraction of muscles in an
uncontrollable manner (spasms).
• Electric shock of 0.015 A can lead to a lack of control over the muscles.
• The electric current of 0.070 A passes through the heart; creates a significant
disturbance; and is almost certainly fatal if the current continues for more than one
second.

16. Why the voltage used for the domestic supply much lower than the voltage at which the
power is transmitted?

Ans) Since the power is proportional to square of current and we need less power loss during
transmission and distribution of power hence we operate at high voltage and low current
during transmission of power.

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Section(C) Numericals:
1. When the current in a pocket calculator is 0.0002 A, how much charge flows every minute?

Data:
Given:
I= 0.0002 A
t= 1 min= 1 x 60 s= 60s

To find:
q= ?

Solution:
q
I=
t
q= I t
q= (0.0002) (60)
q= 0.012 C

q=12 mC

2. Calculate the amount of current that an electric heater uses to heat a room in 5 minutes if
the charge is 2100 C.

Data:
Given:
q= 2100 C
t= 5 min= 5 x 60 s= 300s

To find:
I= ?

Solution:
q
I=
t
2100
I=
300

I= 7 A.

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3. A potential difference of 90 V exists between two points. The amount of work done when
an unknown charge is moved between the points is 450J. Determine the charge amount.

Data:
Given:
ΔV= 90 V
W= 450 J

To find:
q= ?

Solution:
W
ΔV=
qo
W
qo=
ΔV
450
qo=
90

qo= 5 C

4. Calculate the potential difference between two points A and B if it takes 9x10-4 J of
external work to move a charge of +9 μC from A to B.

Data:
Given:
W= 9x10-4 J
qo= 9 μC= 9 x 10-6 C
To find:
ΔV= ?

Solution:
W
ΔV=
qo
9 x 10−4
ΔV=
9 x 10−6

ΔV= 100 V

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5. The potential difference applied to a portable radio terminal is 6.0 Volts.

Determine the resistance of the radio when a current of 20 mA flows through it.

Data:
Given:
V= 6.0 Volts.
I= 20 mA= 20 x 10-3 A

To find:
R= ?

Solution:
V= I x R
V
R=
I
6
R=
20 x 10−3

R= 300 Ω

6. Resistances of 4 Ω, 6 Ω, and 12 Ω are connected in parallel and then connected to a 6V emf

source. Determine the value of
i. The circuit's equivalent resistance.
ii. The total current flowing through the circuit.
iii. The current that flows through each resistance.

Data:
Given:
R1= 4 Ω
R2= 6 Ω
R3= 12 Ω
V= 6V

To find:
i. Re= ?
ii. I= ?
iii. I1= ?,I2= ? and I3= ?

Solution:
i. 1/ Re = 1/4+1/6 + 1/12

24/ Re = 6+4+2

Re= 2 Ω

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ii. I=V/Re=6/2=3 A

iii.

We now use Ohm's law to find the current passing through each resistor.

The current through the resistor of 4 Ω: I1 = 6/4 A= 1.5 A

The current through the resistor of 6 Ω: I2 = 6/6 A= 1 A

The current through the resistor of 12 Ω: I3 = 6/12 A= 0.5 A

7. A 220 V circuit is used to power two 120 watt and 80 watt light bulbs. Which bulb has the
greater resistance and which one has the higher current?

Data:
Given:
V= 220 V.
P1= 120 watt
P2= 80 watt

To find:
Which bulb has the greater resistance and which one has the higher current= ?

Solution:
For P1:

V2
P 1=
R1

V2
R1=
P1

2202
R1=
120

R1= 403.333 Ω

V= I1 x R1
V
I1=
R1
220
I1=
403.333

I1= 0.545 A

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For P2:

V2
P 2=
R2

V2
R2=
P2

2202
R2=
80

R2= 605 Ω

V= I2 x R2
V
I2=
R2
220
I2=
605

I2= 0.364 A

80 watt bulb has the greater resistance and 120 watt bulb has the higher current.

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N
The units for tesla are 1 =T=N=AmT
Am

F = 1.50 N

Result: The force on a wire is F= 1.50 N.

Section (B) Structured Questions:

1. A wire in a magnetic field generates voltage. To generate maximum voltage, move the wire
in what direction relative to the field?

Ans) The conductor wire and magnetic field should be perpendicular to each other to generate
the maximum voltage.

2. Can a transformer operate on direct current?

Ans) The transformers work according to the Faraday's Law of electromagnetic induction. The
Direct Current does not produce variable magnetic field and when primary coil of transformer is
connected to DC then constant magnetic field lines pass through secondary coil and will not
induce any voltage in the secondary coil.

Therefore, transformer cannot be operated on the direct Current.

3. Demonstrate through an experiment how an electric current in a conductor generates a

magnetic field in its vicinity.

Ans) Pass a current-carrying conductor through a cardboard sheet. Small compasses should be
placed near the conductor. Then, the compasses will point in the direction of the magnetic lines
of force generated from current carrying conductor.

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4. Explain how a force works on a current-carrying conductor that is perpendicular to the

magnetic field.

Ans) The magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying wire in a direction given by the
Flemings right hand rule. This force can easily be large enough to move the wire, since typical
currents consist of very large numbers of moving charges.

5. State that, a current carrying coil in a magnetic field will experience a torque.

Ans) When a current passes through the coil, equal and opposite parallel forces act respectively
on the sides of the coil beside the poles of the permanent magnet. This pair of forces produces
a turning effect to rotate the coil until it is supported by the control springs.

6. Describe an experiment that demonstrates the induction of e.m.f. in a circuit by a varying

magnetic field.

Ans) Changing magnetic field can induce e.m.f in a circuit

Electromagnetic Induction by a Moving Magnet: Faraday demonstrates that
magnetic fields can create currents as illustrated in figure below. When the magnet shown
below is moved "towards" the coil, the Galvanometer's pointer or needle will deflect away from
its center position in one direction only. When the magnet stops moving and is held stationary
with respect to the coil, the needle of the galvanometer returns to zero as there is no physical
movement of the magnetic field.
Similarly, when the magnet is moved "away" from the coil, the galvanometer needle deflects in
the opposite direction, indicating a change in polarity. By moving the magnet back and forth
towards the coil, the needle of the galvanometer will deflect left or right, positive or negative,
relative to the magnet's motion.

Electromagnetic Induction by a Moving Coil: For Faraday's law to be valid, either the coil or the
magnetic field (or both) must be in "relative motion" with one another for the induced emf or
voltage.
If you keep the magnet stationary and move only the coil toward or away from the magnet, the
needle on the galvanometer will also move in either direction. A voltage is induced in a coil
when the coil is moved through a magnetic field, and the magnitude of this voltage is
proportional to the speed at which the coil is moved.

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7. Give some examples of what could increase or decrease the strength of an induced emf.

Ans) Factors affecting the magnitude of an induced e.m.f:

• The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to N, the total number of turns in the coil.
• The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to A, the area of cross-section of the coil.
• The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to B, the strength of the magnetic field in
which the coil is rotating.
• The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to '', the angular velocity of the coil.
• The induced e.m.f. also varies with time and depends on instant 't'.
• The induced e.m.f. is maximum when the plane of the coil is parallel to magnetic field B
and e.m.f. is zero when the plane of the coil is perpendicular to magnetic field B.

8. Explain that the direction of an induced e.m.f opposes the change causing it and relate this
phenomenon to conservation of energy.

Ans) Below illustration showing that, if magnetic field "B" is increasing, the
induced magnetic field will oppose it in figure (a).

As illustrated in figure (b), the induced magnetic field will once again oppose the magnetic field
"B" when "B" is decreasing. This time, "in opposition" suggests it's acting to increase the field by
opposing the decreasing rate of change.

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9. Explain how an A.C. generator works in its most simple form.

Ans) A.C generator: An AC generator is an electric generator that converts mechanical energy
into electrical energy in the form of alternative emf or alternating current. An AC generator
works on the principle of "Electromagnetic Induction".

10. Explain the units of mutual induction and provide an example.

Ans)
If Δi₁ = 1 As¹ and εS=-1 V, then
εS
M =-
21 𝚫ii
𝚫t
−1
M21= - 1
1
M21= 1H.

Example: Therefore, the mutual inductance between two coils is one henry if a current
changing at the rate of 1 As¹ in coil 1 induces an opposing emf of 1V in coil 2.

11. Recognize that a transformer is based on the concept of mutual induction between two
coils.

Ans) When an electric current passing through a primary coil changes with time, an emf is
induced in the secondary coil. This phenomenon is known as mutual induction.
In the similar way, When current passing through the primary coil generates magnetic field,
which is transmitted to the secondary coil through the core. The change in the field causes an
alternating e.m.f. to be generated in the secondary coil.

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12. Explain what role transformers play in alternating current (AC) circuits.

Ans) A transformer is a device that transfers electric energy from one alternating-current circuit
to one or more other circuits, either increasing (stepping up) or reducing (stepping down) the
voltage.

13. Determine the function of transformers in the process of moving electrical current from
the power plant to your home.

Ans) Role of Transformer in Power Transmission: Generation of electrical power in low

voltage level is very much cost effective. Theoretically, this low voltage level power can be
transmitted to the receiving end. This low voltage power if transmitted results in greater line
current which indeed causes more line losses.
But if the voltage level of a power is increased, the current of the power is reduced which
causes reduction in ohmic or P=I2R losses in the system, reduction in cross-sectional area of the
conductor i.e. reduction in capital cost of the system and it also improves the voltage regulation
of the system. Because of these, low level power must be stepped up for efficient electrical
power transmission.
This is done by step up transformer at the sending side of the power system network. As this
high voltage power may not be distributed to the consumers directly, this must be stepped
down to the desired level at the receiving end with the help of step down transformer.
Electrical power transformer thus plays a vital role in power transmission.

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14. Compile a list of the numerous applications of transformers (step-up and step-down) that
can be found in your home.

Ans) Applications of transformers: There are several ways a transformer

can be used.

In stabilizer: A stabilizer is made up of transformers that help to give out a voltage or manage
voltage in such a way that it is ok with the voltage circuits. It helps to step down and step up the
level of current in a building.

In Battery Charger: Batteries can also be charged with the help of transformers. The voltage
needs to be controlled properly so that it doesn't damage the parts inside the battery. This can
only be done with the help of a step down transformer.

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In circuit breaker: Circuit breakers with integrated transformers can prevent damage from high
voltage current by allowing users to manually switch on and off power.

In air conditioner (AC): This is another modern use of a transformer in our homes.
Because of its high inductance and low resistance levels, it aids in the proper functioning of the
AC. Without this, there would be no long-lasting AC (Air condition) in our home.

Section (C) Numericals:

1. A wire carrying 4A current and has length of 15 cm between the poles of magnet is kept at
an angle of 30° to the uniform field of 0.8 T. Find the force acting on the wire?

Data:

Given:

I= 4 A

L= 15 cm= 15 x 10-2 m

θ = 30°

B= 0.8 T

Solution:

F= I L B sin θ

F= (4) (15 x 10-2) (0.8) sin 30°

F= 0.24 N

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2. A square loop of wire of side 2.0 cm carries 2.0 A of current. A uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 0.7 T makes an angle of 30° with the plane of the loop. What is the magnitude of
torque on the loop?

Data:

Given:

L= 2.0 cm= 2.0 x 10-2 m

I= 2.0 A

θ = 30°

B= 0.7 T

To find:

τ= ?

Solution:

τ= BIAN Cos α

A= L2 = (2.0 x 10-2)2 =4 x 10-4 m2

τ= (0.7) (2.0) (4 x 10-4) (1) Cos 30°

τ= 4.8 x 10-4 Nm

3. A transformer is needed to convert a mains 220 V supply into a 12 V supply. If there are
2200 turns on the primary coil, then find the number of turns on the secondary coil.

Data:

Given:

VP= 220 V

VS= 12 V

NP = 2200 turns

To find:

N S= ?

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Solution:
VS NS
=
VP NP
VS
N= xN
s P
VP
12
Ns= x 2200
220

Ns= 120 turns

4. A coil surrounding a long solenoid, the current in the solenoid is changing at a rate of
150A/s and the mutual induction of the two coils is 5.5×10 H. Determine the emf induced in
the surrounding coil?

Data:

Given:
ΔI
= 150 A/s
Δt

MS= 5.5×10-5 H

To find:

εs= ?
Solution:
𝝴s
MS= - ΔI
Δt

ΔI
εs= - MS x Δt

εs= - (5.5×10-5) (150)

εs= - 8.25 x 10-3 V

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Unit-17: Introductory Electronics

Section (B) Structured Questions:
1. Give an example showing that the world is shifting from low-tech electrical appliances to
high-tech electronic appliances.

Ans) The telephone signals which were transmitted electrically through copper wires are now
transmitted digitally (as light) through optical fibers.

(a) Write any three advantages of Digital electronics (devices) over analogue electronics
devices.

Ans) Advantages of digital electronic devices over analogue electronic devices: Digital
electronics devices have many advantages over analogue electronic devices. Three of these
advantages are:
(i) They have greater speed.
(ii) They are very sensitive.
(iii) Their displays are easily readable.

(b) Define the role of vacuum tube in electronics.

Ans) Electron tube, also called vacuum tube, is used in electronic circuitry to control a flow of
electrons. Among the common applications of vacuum tubes are amplification of a weak
current, rectification of an alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC), generation of
oscillating radio frequency (RF) power for radio and radar, and creation of images on a
television screen or computer monitor.

3. What is the function of a 'DAC'?

Ans) The DAC changes this digital data into an analogue signal.

4. What makes the cathode give off electrons?

Ans) The cathode is heated to a temperature that causes electrons to be 'boiled off' of its
surface into the evacuated space in the tube.

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5.
(a) Demonstrate the process of thermionic emission by diagram?

Ans) Demonstration of thermionic emission:

Apparatus: The vacuum tube shown in below figure is called a thermionic diode. This vacuum
tube consists of two electrodes called the anode and the cathode.

Experiment: The anode is positively charged so attracts negative charges (electrons).

The cathode is negatively charged so repels negative charges (electrons).

The cathode shown is made up of tungsten filament.

Normally the gap between cathode and anode cannot be crossed by the electrons when the
filament is switched OFF. As the filament is switched ON, the electrons escape from the hot
tungsten surface. These electrons are attracted across to the anode. Hence thermionic emission
occurs. Note that if air is in the tube instead of having vacuum in it, thermionic emission still
occurs.

(b) Will the process of thermionic emission still occurs, if air is in the tube instead of
having vacuum in it?

Ans) The process of thermionic emission will still occur, if air is in the tube instead of
having vacuum in it.

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6. Why the cathode repel electrons?

Ans) Since cathode and electrons both have the same charge (negative charge) and we know
that same charge repel each other. Therefore, cathode repel electrons.
7. Write any two properties of cathode rays.

Ans)
1. They transfer negative charge (electrons).
2. They transfer energy.

8.
(a) Will there be any change in the properties of cathode rays if the gas in the tube is
changed?

Ans) There will be no change in the properties of cathode rays if the gas in the tube is
changed.

(b) Will there be any change in the properties of cathode rays if the metal used as cathode
is changed?

Ans) There will be no change in the properties of cathode rays if the metal used as cathode is
changed.

(c) Name any two devices that uses an electron beam?

Ans)
1. TV monitor
2. Cathode ray oscilloscope.

(d) Cathode rays lead the discovery of which particle?

Ans) Electron.

9. State and explain the phenomenon of the production of an electron beam by an electron
gun?

Ans) The electrons are emitted from the hot filament. The cathode is a
metal plate warmed by the filament. The cathode is held at a negative potential compared with
the anode. The anode is held at high positive potential. The difference of potential between
cathode and anode is about thousands of volts. The electrons emitted from the hot filament are
then accelerated by this large potential difference between cathode and anode. This produces
fast moving electrons. As the electrons are negatively charged therefore they are repelled by

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cathode and attracted towards anode. So the electrons are not slowed down by colliding with
air molecules. Hence a beam of
fast moving electrons is produced.

Electron Gun

10. Is there any change occurs in the direction of an electron beam when it passes through an
electric field. Explain?

Ans) There is a change occurs in the direction of an electron beam when it passes through an
electric field. The beam bends and changes direction. The beam follows a parabolic (curved)
path in the electric field. The beam of electron changes direction millions of times each second.
The beam continues to move in a straight line after passing through the electric field.

11. How the beam of electron produced by the electron gun can be directed to a specific
target?

Ans) The beam of electron produced by the electron gun can be directed to a specific target by
using magnets on both sides.
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12. Demonstrate by a diagram the deflection of electron beam by an electric field.

13.
(a) What happens to the energy of electron beam when it passes through a
magnetic field?

Ans) The energy of electron beam does not change when it passes through a
magnetic field.

(b) Is there any change in the speed of electron beam as it passes through a magnetic field?

Ans) The speed of electron beam does not change as it passes through a magnetic field

14. Give any three effects of deflection of electron beam by a magnetic field.

Ans)
(i) The beam bends and changes direction.
(ii) The beam follows a circular path in the magnetic field.
(iii) The energy of electron beam does not change in the magnetic field.

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15. Explain the function of following parts of a cathode-ray oscilloscope.

(a) The fluorescent screen.
(b) The cathode.
(c) The anode.
(d) The Y-plate.

Ans)
a) The fluorescent screen: When this electron beam strikes the fluorescent screen a bright
spot is created on the screen.
b) The cathode: The electron gun emits a beam of electrons (i.e. cathode-ray) which is
produced by the cathode.
c) The anode: The anode at (+ve) potential and is used to accelerate the electrons and to
focus them into a fine beam.
d) The Y-plate: Y-plates cause deflection in vertical direction (up and down) when voltage
is applied across them. The vertical deflection of the electron beam can be changed by
varying the voltage across the Y- plates.

16. Explain how the beam of electrons is produced inside the cathode-ray oscilloscope.

Ans) The electron gun emits a beam of electrons (i.e. cathode-ray) which is produced by the
cathode. The anode at (+ve) potential and is used to accelerate the electrons and to focus them
into a fine beam.

17. Explain what makes the electrons accelerate from the cathode towards the anode?

Ans) Yes. The anode plate (which is at around +20kV (20000 volts) or even more, while the
filament is usually around OV (compared to earth). This huge difference between potentials
accelerates the electrons from the filament (which is heated to give off electrons) towards the
front of the screen.

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18.
(a) Explain the term "LOGIC" by giving a suitable example?

Ans) Logic: Logic is defined as a system that aims to draw reasonable conclusions based on
given information.

Example:

The above table represents the logic behind the working of the alarm.

(b) Name the component which implements logic in digital electronics.

Ans)
1. AND Gate
2. OR Gate
3. NOT Gate
4. NAND Gate
5. NOR Gate

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19. Explain is there any intermediate state possible?

Ans) Digital electronics based devices uses discrete signals. A digital signal represents two
opposite states. These signals either represents a (ON, OFF, HIGH, LOW, OPEN, CLOSE, UPPER,
LOWER, PLUS, MINUS, TRUE, FALSE, MAX, MIN) states of a system. There is no intermediate
state is possible (allowed).

Example: A block diagram of a security alarm which operates through two switches is shown in
figure below.

This example could be demonstrated by the following table:

Here there is no intermediate state.

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20.
(a) Give the symbol of a NAND gate.

Ans) A single dot or full stop symbol, (.) with an Overline, (‾)

(b) Give the truth table for AND gate.

Ans)

21.

(a) Describe the logic operation of an inverter?

Ans) The NOT operates complement or invert of any input.

(b) Produce the truth table for an OR gate?

Ans)

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22.
(a) Which two logic gates will give an output of 1 with inputs of 1 and 0?

Ans) OR and NAND.

(b) Give the symbol of a NOR gate?

Ans) A plus symbol, (+) with a compliment, (‘) or overline, (‾)

(c) Give the truth table of a NOR gate?

Ans)

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Unit-18: Information and Communication Technology

Section (B) Structured Questions:
1. What is difference between data and information?

Ans) Data is a collection of facts, while information puts those facts into context.

2. What do you understand by Information and Communication Technology (ICT)?

Ans) Information and Communication Technology (ICT) refers to the scientific techniques and tools
to process, and transport large volumes of information in a matter of seconds using electronic
devices.

3. What are the components of information technology? Clearly indicate the function of each
component.

Ans) Components of Computer Based Information System(CBIS): Five

components must come together to create a CBIS as shown in figure below.
1. Hardware is machinery: This comprises the CPU and its supporting hardware.
Input/output, storage, and communication devices are examples of essential
equipment.
2. Software: Software includes computer applications. They tell the CBIS's hardware how
to process data and turn it into meaningful information. Programs are usually saved on
chips or tapes.
3. Data: Programs utilize data to provide helpful information. It might be a phrase, picture,
or figure that has special significance. Data, like programs, are usually saved on chips or
tapes until needed by the computer.
4. Procedures: The guidelines for creating and using information systems. These are in
user manuals and papers. From time to time, these rules or techniques may be revised.
In order to accommodate these adjustments, the information system must be
adaptable.
5. People: A CBIS is useless without individuals who can impact the success or failure of
information systems. People develop and maintain the software, enter data, and
construct the hardware that makes a CBIS work. People write the processes and
ultimately decide the CBIS's effectiveness.

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4. Differentiate between the primary memory and the secondary memory.

Ans)
Primary Memory Secondary Memory
It is the main memory where the data and It refers to the external memory where data
information are stored temporarily. is stored permanently
Data is directly accessed by the Data cannot be accessed directly by the
processing unit. processor.
It's a volatile memory meaning data cannot It's a non-volatile memory so data can be
be retained in case of power failure. retained even after power failure.
Memory is stored in semiconductor chips Memory is stored in external storage devices
which are relatively expensive. such as hard disks, flash drives, etc
It holds data or information that is It stores substantial amount of data and
Currently being used by the processing unit. information, ranging from gigabytes to
terabytes.

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5. Name different information storage devices and describe their uses.

Ans) Audio Cassettes: Audio cassettes consist of a tape of magnetic material on which sound
is recorded in a particular pattern of a magnetic field; figure below.

Magnetic Disks: Parts of the surface of magnetic disk are magnetized to record information.
The difference is that a disk is a digital medium-binary numbers are written and read.

Floppy disc: Most personal computers include at least one disk drive that allows the
computer to write it and read from floppy disk.

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Hard Disk: They can store operating systems, software programs and other files.

Hard disk

Compact Disc (CDs): It's a moulded plastic disc with tiny "pits" and "lands" that store digital
data.

Compact Disc

Flash Drive: It is an electronics device and has Integrated circuits (ICs) that store data. A flash
drive may transfer data between computers; Figure below.

USB

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6. Explain briefly the transmission of radio waves through space.

Ans) Transmissions of Radio Waves Through Space: The microphone converts the
radio station's sound waves into electrical impulses. The transmission aerial consists of an
antenna, and these signals are subsequently fed into the antenna. Electromagnetic radio waves
are produced when the charges on the transmission antenna vibrate in response to electrical
signals.

The modulated signal is selected and amplified by the receiver at the other end. In order to get
at the information signal, we need to use the demodulator, which extracts it. In Figure below,
we see a radio broadcast and reception system in action.

7. How light signals are sent through optical fiber?

Ans) Transmission Of Light Through Optical Fibres: optical fibre was

employed as a transmission path.

Light entering the core of an optical fibre travels straight and meets the inner wall (cladding). If
the cladding incidence angle is below the critical angle, some light escapes the fibre optics and
is lost as shown in figure below. It then proceeds in a straight path until it meets the inner wall
again, and so on.

8. What is computer? What is the role of computer in everyday life?

Ans) Computer: An electronic device for storing and processing data, typically in binary form, according
to instructions given to it in a variable program.

The role of computer in everyday life: Today, computers are employed in almost every
field, including medicine, engineering, weather forecasting, transportation, and shopping malls.

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9. What is the difference between hardware and software? Name different softwares.

Ans)
Hardware Software
Physical elements of a computer or electronic A collection of instructions that tells the
system computer how to perform a task
Has four main categories: input devices, Mainly divided into system software and
output devices, secondary storage devices and application software
internal components.
Developed using electronic Developed by writing instructions using a
and other materials programming language
When damaged, it can be replaced with a new When damaged, it can be reinstalled using a
component. backup copy.
Starts functioning once the Should be installed into the computer to
software is loaded into the function.
system.

Name of different software: Windows and Linux are well-known software.

10. What do you understand by the term word processing and data managing?

Ans) Word Processing: Word processing is such a use of computer through which we can
write a letter, article, book or prepare a report. Word processing is a computer program.

Data Management: To collect all information regarding a subject for any purpose and to
store them in the computer in more than one inter linked files which may help when needed, is
called 'data managing'.

11. What is Internet? Internet is a useful source of knowledge and information. Discuss.

Ans) Internet: Internet is a network of networks, which spreads all across the globe.

Internet is a useful source of knowledge: Since the Internet is full of knowledge, most
students use both correct and incorrect data in their education. In fact, there are now even online
programs and courses available, which students can easily access to study. This will help them to make
their education successfully.

Internet is a useful source of information: Internet sources can be many things but most
basically it is the information found on web pages. The internet sources are online databases that are
available through the many library websites, newspapers, journals, magazines, television and
documentaries.

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12. Discuss the role of information technology in school education.

Ans) Helpful for students in getting information: Technology provides students with
easy-to-access information, accelerated learning, and fun opportunities to practice what they
learn. It enables students to explore new subjects and deepen their understanding of difficult
concepts.

Communication-related assistance: Information Technology can help significantly as well

as it comes with an internal messaging system that can be integrated with texting, e-mail, and
such other external tools of communication. This means that students can get in touch with
teachers in case they needed to get clarity for some areas where they had doubts and. teachers
can also contact students if the need so arose. Similar contacts can also be established between
parents and teachers and vice versa, and parents and management and vice versa.

Making life easier for one and all: The biggest benefit is that it is capable of automating
all the processes in a school thus saving a lot of time and effort that the administration and
other stakeholders can devote to more fruitful endeavors.

Helping with the reports: Reports are an important part of schools but generating it
manually in the shorter span of time is very hectic and some prone to a calculation error. But
using Information Technology school staff can easily manage such laborious work in few hours
and provide a deeper insight into each operation so that school can take instant action.

Making better decisions: When the school has a comprehensive information in their kitty
then it became easy for them to take faster and better decisions which benefit all the
stakeholders of the institution.

All these things can be achieved by implementing right Information Technology in institution.

13. Why optical fibre is more useful tool for the communication process?

Ans) There are two reasons for optical fibre is more useful tool for the communication process.

1. Visible light waves are substantially higher in frequency than radio waves. This implies
that light beams can convey information faster than radio waves or microwaves. An
optical fibre was employed as a transmission path.
2. The benefit of optical fibre is that it can be used to transmit very large amounts of data
across great distances with little loss of quality. This characteristic of fibre optics
separates it from wire-based systems. Whenever electrical signals are transferred across
wires, the signal loss rises in direct proportion to the increase in data rate delivered. As
a result, the signal's range is reduced.

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14. Which is more reliable floppy disk or a hard disk?

Ans) The hard disk is usually more reliable than a floppy disk because hard disk stores more data
compared to a floppy disk and hard disk is universal while floppy disk drive can only be used on
obsolete machines.

15. What is the difference between RAM and ROM memories?

Ans)
RAM ROM
Temporary Storage. Permanent storage.
Store data in MBs. Store data in GBs.
Volatile. Non-volatile.
Used in normal operations. Used for startup process of computer.
Writing data is faster. Writing data is slower.

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Unit-19: Atomic Structure

Section (B) Structured Questions:
1.

(a) Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

Ans) Proton and Neutron.

(b) Describe the structure of an atom.

Ans) The simple Rutherford's atomic model given below; Figure below is often used to
explain the basic structure of an atom.

• The central hard-core of an atom is the nucleus which is the small, dense region
consisting of closely packed protons and neutrons.
• Around the nucleus, electrons revolve at high speed. The number of particles (electrons
and protons) depends on the type of atom.
• Most of the atom is empty space.
• The nucleus is tiny and dense compared with the electrons.
• Electrons are bound by a positively charged nucleus with the electrostatic force.

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Ans) Each element has a unique number of protons.

Example: Carbon has six protons and Nitrogen has seven protons and so on.

(a) Cite the Geiger Marsden experiment with the help of a diagram.

Ans) Geiger Marsden experiment: Geiger and Marsden used a beam of positively
charged α- particles to bombard a thin gold foil placed in a vacuum surrounded by a ring-
shaped fluorescent screen. After bombarding the foil, the scattered α-particles were detected
using a rotating detector. When α-particles hit the screen of light was observed through the
detector; Figure below.

Observations:
• The most of the α- particles were not deflected or only a few deflected through small
angles.
• A small number of the α-particles were deflected through considerable large angles of
more than 90°.
• A few of the α-particles were even deflected back through nearly 180°.
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(b) Give the Rutherford model of an atom.

Ans) Rutherford model of an atom:

• The nucleus carries all the positive charge of atom and nearly all its mass.
• As a large number of α-particles passing through the foil undeflected suggest that there
exit large empty spaces in an atom.
• Those positively charged α-particles that deflected through large angles had come very
close to the positively charged nucleus. However, a few were repelled so strongly that
they bounced back.

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Ans) Because the most of the α- particles were not deflected in Geiger Marsden experiment.

(a) Define Atomic number (Z).

Ans) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom element is called atomic number.

(b) Explain the symbolic representation of an atom of an element. Give an example.

Ans) The symbolic representation of an atom of an element: A nucleus is represented

symbolically by
A
ZX

Where X represents the nuclide of a chemical element, A is the nucleon number, and Z is the
atomic number.

Example: 6C12 represents the carbon nucleus with six protons and twelve nucleons. Thus, the
total orbiting electrons are also six, and the neutron number is
A=Z+N
N=A-Z
N=12-6
N=6

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4.
(a) What is the isotope?

Ans) Two or more species of atoms of an element with the same atomic
number(Z) but have different atomic mass(A) are called Isotopes.

(b) Explain the isotope with an example.

Ans) Two or more species of atoms of an element with the same atomic
number(Z) but have different atomic mass(A) are called Isotopes. The hydrogen atom (atomic
number 1) has three isotopes with atomic
masses 1, 2, and 3.

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Ans) Because different isotopes have the same number of protons and neutrons.

(d) List the physical properties of different isotopes of an element that are different.

Ans)
1. Mass
2. Surface area
3. Volume
4. Density

SELF-ASSESSMENT QUESTION:
Q1: The nuclide notation for the Uranium-235 is 92U235. Determine the proton number,
electron number, neutron number, and nucleon number of the uranium.

Data:
To find:
Z= ?
No. of electron= ?
No. of neutron= ?
A= ?

Solution:
Z= 92

No. of electron= 92

A= 235

No. of neutron= A–Z= 235-92

No. of neutron= 143

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Section (B) Structured Questions:

a) Define the term radioactivity.

Ans) The emission of α, β and γ radiation with the release of energy is

known as radioactivity.

b) What do you mean by the term stable nucleus?

Ans) Stable nucleus is the nucleus that does not spontaneously emit any kind of radiation.

c) Why are some elements radioactive, but some are not?

Ans) When the atoms of an element have extra neutrons or protons it creates extra energy
in the nucleus and causes the atom to become unbalanced or unstable.

2. The uranium isotope 92U238 with atomic mass (nucleon number) 238 and atomic number
92.

a) State the nucleon number.

Ans) The number of protons and neutrons is known as nucleon number or atomic
mass.

Example: The nucleon number of uranium is 238.

b) Uranium-238 nuclide decays to form a thorium nuclide (symbol Th) by emission of an

alpha particle. State

i. The proton number of an alpha particle,

Ans) 2

ii. The nucleon number of an alpha particle,

Ans) 4

iii. The proton number of thorium

Ans) 90

iv. The nucleon number of thorium isotopes formed.

Ans) 234
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c) Complete the nuclear equation of the uranium decay

Ans)

3. A radioactive rock emits gamma rays. A demonstrator plans to experiment to show that
the emission of gamma rays is random.

a) State the random nature of radioactive decay.

Ans) A random decay is a process in which the exact time of decay of a nucleus cannot be
predicted.

b) Describe what is meant by a gamma-ray.

Ans) Gamma radiations are photons that are electromagnetic radiations of ultra-high
frequency.
Relative ionizing effects of gamma-ray: The ionization power of gamma rays is less than that of
beta particles and α particles.
Relative penetrating abilities of gamma-ray: Gamma-ray has more penetrating ability than
other rays.

i. State two safety measures that the researcher must take.

Ans)

1. Keep all radioactive sources at a safe distance from the body.

2. Minimize the time spent near radioactive materials.

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ii. Describe how the experiment is performed.

Ans) Experiment: A detector like a Geiger-Muller (GM) tube can demonstrate the
random nature by observing the count rate of radioactive disintegration. When a GM tube is
placed near a radioactive source, the counts are irregular. Each count represents a decay of an
unstable nucleus. The variation of count rate over time of a sample radioactive source is plotted
on the graph. You can see the fluctuations in count rate against time; figure below that
provides evidence for the random nature of radioactive decay over time.

Conclusion: It can be concluded from the experiment that the time of each decay cannot be
predicted.

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4. The nuclide notation for two isotopes of carbon is 6C12 and 6C14. Carbon-14 decays by beta
emission to a stable isotope of nitrogen.

a) Which nuclide of the carbon is? State with a reason.

i. Stable isotope

Ans) Stable isotope is 6C12 because it contains the same number of protons and
neutrons.

ii. Radioisotope

Ans) Radioisotope is 6C14 because there of the difference in their proton and neutron
munbers.

b) What is meant by a beta particle?

Ans) A beta particle, also called beta ray or beta radiation (symbol B), is a high-energy, high-
speed electron or positron emitted by the radioactive decay of an atomic nucleus during the
process of beta decay.

c) Write the nuclear equation of carbon-14 decay to a nitrogen-14 by beta decay.

Ans)

When a slow-moving neutron hits a 92U235 nucleus, it splits into the nucleus of
barium 56Ba141 and the nucleus of krypton 36Kr92 and emits three neutrons energy
is released.
1 235
On +92U → 92U236 → 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 +3on1 + energy

a) State name of the nuclear process.

Ans) Nuclear Fission.

b) Which of the two isotopes of U-235 and U-236 have a shorter half-life.

Ans) U-236 has shorter half-life.

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c) How can we make radioisotopes artificially? Describe a suitable example.

Ans) The stable and non-radioactive elements can also be

transmuted into radioactive elements by exposing them to neutrons, or alpha particles.
Here is an example of the production of radioisotopes:

d) For the given process, state its one application in our daily lives.

Ans) Nuclear fission produces an enormous amount of energy which is used to produce
electricity.

6. The reaction that takes place at the center of the sun can be represented as
2 1P1 +2 on1 → 2He4 + energy

a) State the name of this type of reaction.

Ans) Nuclear fusiom.

b) Also, define the reaction.

Ans) Nuclear fusion occurs when two light nuclei combine to form a heavier
nucleus with the release of energy.

c) A Nuclear fusion reaction is a more reliable and sustainable energy source than nuclear
fission chain reaction. Justify this statement with suitable arguments.

Ans)
1. Nuclear fusion does not generate radioactive nuclear wastes as nuclear fission does.
2. Nuclear fusion cannot lead to disastrous powerplant explosions as nuclear fission
does.
3. More energy is generated during nuclear fusion than in nuclear fission.

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7.
a) What do you understand by the half-life of a radioactive element?

Ans) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time taken for half of the nuclei present in
any given sample to decay.

b) When a Radium-226 undergoes alpha decay, Radon-222 is produced

226 → Rn222 + He4 + energy
88Ra 86 2

Which of the nuclide is a

i. Parent nuclide

Ans) 88Ra226

ii. Daughter nuclide

Ans) 86Rn222

c) Define the terms

i. Parent nuclide

Ans) The original nucleus before decay is called the parent nucleus.

ii. Daughter nuclide

Ans) The nucleus formed after decay is called the daughter nucleus.

8. Describe uses of radioisotopes in

a) medicine,

Ans) Radiotracers: Radioisotopes are used as radiotracers in medicine.

For example, a patient drinks a liquid containing radio iodine-131, a gamma emitter, to check
thyroid function. Over the next 24 hours, a detector measures the activity of the tracer to find
out how quickly it becomes concentrated in the thyroid gland.

Also,for the diagnosis of brain tumors, the phosphorous-32 isotope is used.

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Curing various diseases: In nuclear medicines, radioisotopes are used for curing
various diseases. For example, cobalt-60 is a strong gamma emitter. These rays can penetrate
in-depth into the body and kill the malignant tumor cells in the patient. Treatment like this is
called radiosurgery.

b) industry,

Ans) Radiotracers: Radioisotopes are used as radiotracers in industry. A small amount of

short-lived radioactive substances is used in various processes and scanned the flow rates of
various materials, including liquids, powders, and gases, to locate leakages. Radiotracers are
also used in the oil and gas industry to detect and estimate the extent of oil fields.

Crack Testing: Gamma rays have high penetrating power, so they can photograph
metals to check cracks. A cobalt-60 is a natural gamma rays source and does not need electrical
power like an x-ray tube.

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c) agriculture

Ans) Radiotracers: In agriculture, fertilizer uptake in the plant from root to leaves is traced
by adding tracer phosphorus- 32 to the soil water.

9.
a) What are the common radiation hazards?

Ans) Radiation Hazards: The prolonged exposure to radioactive radiations (α,β,γ and X-
rays) can produce deep-sited burns, damage to cells or tissues, and the mutations of the cells
that can lead to genetic changes. Radioactive exposure can also cause cancerous growth in
specific body tissues.

Hazards of α-particles: The danger from α particles because of their lower penetration power is
minimal. If sources of α particles are lodged into the body, through the air, or we cat, it can
damage our body tissues.

Hazards of β-particles: The β particles are more penetrating and can damage the
body surface tissues. Sources of these particles that enter the body can be quite damaging.

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Hazards of γ-particles: The γ rays are highly penetrating and the most dangerous of all other
radioactive radiations.

b) Why is an alpha source more harmful when lodged into the body?

Ans) If sources of α particles are lodged into the body, through the air, or we eat, it can
damage our body tissues.

c) Which type of radiation is more hazardous than other radiations? Explain why?

Ans) The most dangerous of all other radioactive radiations are γ rays because they are highly
penetrating.

d) Describe briefly the safety measures that are taken against them.

Ans) Safety Measures: While working in the radiology department in hospitals, nuclear
reactors, and research laboratories, should take the following safety measures to avoid any risk
of radiation hazards:
1. Keep all radioactive sources at a safe distance from the body.
2. Minimize the time spent near radioactive materials.
3. Wear personal protective equipment, including a laboratory coat, gloves, safety glasses,
and close toed shoes.
4. Lapel the dosimeter badge always and monitor regularly.
5. Do not eat, drink, smoke or touch exposed areas of skin while working in a room where
radioisotopes are handled.
6. Use tongs to handle radioactive sources.
7. After use, must return the source immediately to its lead boxes.
8. All radioactive sources should be kept in thick lead containers.
9. Dispose of all radioactive waste under permitted regulation or statutory control.

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Section (C) Numericals:

1. A living plant contains approximately the same isotopic abundance of C-14 as does
atmospheric carbon dioxide. The observed rate of decay of C-14 from a living plant is 15.3
disintegrations per minute per gram of carbon. How much disintegration per minute per gram
of carbon will be measured from a 12900 year-old sample? (The half-life of C-14 is 5730
years.)

Data:

Given:

Rate of decay of C-14 from a living plant= 15.3 disintegrations per minute per gram of
carbon

The half-life= 5730 years

Time= 12900-year-old sample

To find:

Disintegration per minute per gram of carbon measured from a 12900-year-old

sample=?

Solution:

1) Determine half-lives elapsed:

n= 12,900 yr / 5730 yr = 2.2513

2) Determine decimal fraction remaining:

(1/2)2.2513 = x

x = 0.21

3) Determine counts remaining:

15.3 x 0.21= 3.2

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2. The smallest C-14 activity that can be measured is about 0.20%. If C-14 is used to date an
object, the object must have died within how many years?

Data:

Given:

The smallest C-14 activity that can be measured= 0.20%.

To find:

Time of death= ?

Solution:

In decimal form, 0.20% is 0.0020. This is the amount remaining.

(1/2)n = 0.0020

n log 0.5= log 0.0020

n = 8.9658  this is how many half-lives have elapsed

Time of death= (5730 yr) (8.9658) = 51374 yr

3. How long will it take for 25% of the C-14 atoms in a sample of C-14 to decay?

Data:

Given:

Amount of the C-14 atoms in a sample of C-14 = 0.20%

To find:

Time to decay= ?

Solution:
t
1
N= No ( )thal𝐹−li𝐹e
2

We are using the formula for Δ%

N−No
Δ%= 100
No

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N−No
-25%= 100 x
No

N−No
-25% / 100 =
No

N−No
-0.25=
No

N No
-0.25= -
No No
N
-0.25= –1
No
N
-0.25 + 1 =
No
N
0.75= ……(i)
No

Then,
t
N 1
= ( )thal𝐹−li𝐹e …….(ii)
No 2

Comparing eqn (i) and eqn (ii)

t
1
0.75= ( )thal𝐹−li𝐹e
2
t
log (0.75) / log(0.5) =
thal𝐹−li𝐹e
log (0.75)
t= x thalf−life
log(0.5)

log (0.75)
t= x 5730
log(0.5)

t= 2378 yr

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4. The carbon-14 decay rate of a sample obtained from a young tree is 0.296 disintegration
per second per gram of the sample. Another wood sample prepared from an object recovered
at an archaeological excavation gives a decay rate of 0.109 disintegration per second per
gram of the sample. What is the age of the object?

Data:

Given:

The carbon-14 decay rate of a sample obtained from a young tree= 0.296 disintegration
per second per gram of the sample.

Another wood sample gives a decay rate = 0.109 disintegration per second per gram of the
sample.

To find:

Age of object= ?

Solution:

1) Determine decimal fraction of C-14 remaining:

0.109/0.296 = 0.368243

2) Determine how many half-lives have elapsed:

(1/2)n = 0.368243

n log 0.5= log 0.368243

n = 1.441269

3) Determine length of time elapsed:

5730 yr x 1.441269 = 8258 yr

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