INDIAN CONSTITUTION

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The Constituent Assembly which enacted 7. Where can we see the values of Indian
the Constitution of Indian, its members were - democracy in the constitution?
(a) Nominated by Political Parties (a) Preamble (b) Part-3
(b) Elected by the Legislative Assemblies of (c) Part-4 (d) Part-1
different provinces
Ans. (a)
(c) Directly elected by People
8. Which of the following forms are/is
(d) Nominated by Governor General described for India in the preamble of
constitution –
Ans. (b)
(a) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
2. How many members were in the interim
Parliament of India - (b) A Socialist, Democratic, Republic
(a) 296 (b) 313 (c) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Democratic
Republic (d) A Republic
(c) 318 (d) 316
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following were not included at
3. When was the first Central Legislative
the time of formation of the constitution –
Assembly constituted -
(a) Freedom (b) Equality
(a) 1922 (b) 1923
(c) Socialist (d) Justice
(c) 1921 (d) 1920
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
10. When did India become a Complete
4. The Constituent Assembly of India was
Sovereign Democratic Republic –
constituted on the scheme of –
(a) 26 January 1949 (b) 26 November 1951
(a) Wavell plan (b) Cripps mission
(c) 26 November 1930 (d) 26 November 1949
(c) August offer (d) Cabinet mission
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
11. How many times has The Preamble of the
5. Who was the chairman of the Constituent
constitution been amended –
Assembly of India –
(a) 3 times (b) times
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) 1 time (d) Never amended
(c) Dr. B.N. Rao (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following is not mentioned in
6. Which of the following was the Chairman of
The Preamble of our constitution –
Constituent Assembly of India –
(a) Justice (b) Fraternity
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Equality of dignity (d) Adult suffrage
(c) M. A. Jinna (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)

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13. The Philosophy and values of the makers Ans. (c)
of constitution are reflected in –
19. Which of the following is not a political
(a) Fundamental rights right –
(b) Directive principles of state policy (a) Right to vote (b) Right to life
(c) The preamble (d) Fundamental duties (c) Right to contest election (d) Right to complain
in governing bodies of government
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
14. Under Article 1 of the Indian constitution, it
is declared that “Bharat means India shall 20. In which of the following year, fundamental
be______” – duties of Indian citizens were inserted in
constitution –
(a) Union of States
(a) 1952 (b) 1976
(b) Federal State of Unitary features
(c) 1979 (d) 1981
(c) Federal State of Federal features
Ans. (b)
(d) Federal state
21. The Indian constitution came into force on
Ans. (a)
(a) 26 January 1950 (b) 26 January 1952
15. How India is defined article 1 of the
constitution – (c) 15 August 1948 (d) 26 November 1949
(a) Federal Ans. (a)
(b) Federal with strong unitary base 22. The Indian constitution was adopted on –
(c) Confederation (d) Union of states (a) 26 January, 1950 (b) 26 January, 1946
Ans. (d) (c) 26 November, 1949 (d) 31 December, 1949
16. The division of power and Independence Ans. (c)
of judiciary are two important features of –
23. Which of the following constitutional
(a) Democratic character of government Amendment is known as “ Mini constitution” –
(b) Federal character of government (a) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act 1956
(c) Socialist character of government (b) 24th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971
(d) Unitary character of government (c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976
Ans. (b) (d) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978
17. In which year, the name of Laccadive, Ans. (c)
Minicoy and Aminidivi Islands was changed in
24. In India single citizenship has been
Lakshadweep by parliamentary act –
adopted from –
(a) 1973 (b) 1971
(a) England (b) USA
(c) 1970 (d) 1972
(c) Canada (d) France
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
18. In 1956, the states reorganization formed –
25. Which of the following part of the
(a) 17 states and 6 union territories constitution is related to the provision of
citizenship –
(b) 17 states and 9 union territories
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 14 states and 6 union territories
(c) 4 (d) 5
(d) 15 states and 9 union territories

2
Ans. (a) (c) 97 (d) 99 Ans. (c)
26. Indian federalism is closer to – 33. Article 370 of constitution is applicable on
which state –
(a) Nigeria (b) Australia
(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram
(c) Canada (d) USA
(c) Manipur (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
27. From where did India adopted the federal
system with a strong centre? 34. A person will not be Indian citizen, if he –
(a) United States (b) Canada (a) Lives in foreign country for more than five
years
(c) United Kingdom (d) France
(b) Is penalized by a foreign court
Ans. (b)
(c) Adopts the citizenship of another country
28. Which of the following feature of the Indian
constitution cannot be amended under article (d) Is employed in another country
368.
Ans. (c)
(a) Sovereignty, Territorial integrity, Federal
system, Judicial review
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & FUNDAMENTAL
(b) Sovereignty, Territorial integrity, Parliamentary
DUTIES
form of government
35. Fundamental Rights of Indian constitution
(c) Judicial review, and Federal system
have been adopted from which of the
(d) Sovereignty, Territorial integrity, Federal following nation –
system, Judicial review, and Parliamentary form
(a) America (b) U.K.
Ans. (d)
(c) Soviet Russia (d) None of these
29. Which of the following feature has been
Ans. (a)
adopted from, the constitution of USA by the
maker of Indian constitution – 36. Which of the following comes under the
jurisdiction of high court and supreme court –
(a) Judicial Review (b) Fundamental Rights
(a) Protection against the violation of constitution
(c) Removal of the Judges of Supreme Court
(b) Dispute between states and centre
(d) All of these Ans. (d)
(c) Disputer among states
30. From which of the following nations, we
have taken the provision of judicial review – (d) Protection of fundamental rights
(a) England (b) USA Ans. (d)
(c) Canada (d) Australia 37. How many fundamental rights were there
in the beginning –
Ans. (b)
(a) Six (b) Seven
31. In which of the following state matter,
centre can formulate any law with prior (c) Four (d) Five Ans. (b)
discussion with the state –
38. In which of the part of the constitution, the
(a) Assam (b) Rajasthan fundamental rights are enshrined –
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Kerala Ans. (c) (a) Part 2 (b) Part-1
32. How many subjects are there in union list (c) Part 4 (d) Part 3 Ans. (d)
(a) 52 (b) 66

3
39. Under which of the following article, any 46. By which of the following constitutional
person can go to supreme court in violation of amendment act, the Right to property ceases
fundamental rights – to be a fundamental right –
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 28 (a) 44th (b) 42nd
(c) Article 29 (d) Article 31 (c) 43rd (d) 45th Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) 47. According to Indian constitution, Right to
property is –
40. Which of the followings issues a writ –
(a) Fundamental right (b) Natural right
(a) Any High Court and Supreme Court
(c) Legal right (d) Moral right
(b) Any Court (c) District Curt
Ans. (c)
(d) Administrative Tribunal
48. Which of the following fundamental rights
Ans. (a)
is called as “The heart of constitution” by Dr.
41. Under which of the following writs, a Ambedkar –
person is restricted to perform any duties for
(a) Right of constitutional remedies
which he does not have the authority –
(b) Right to religious freedom
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas corpus
(c) Right to equality (d) Right to freedom
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
49. The “Freedom of Press” is mentioned in
42. In which of the following situations,
which of the following rights –
Habeas corpus writ is issued –
(a) Equality before law (b) Right to expression
(a) Loss of property (b) Extra tax receipts
(c) Union freedom (d) Work security
(c) Faulty police detention
Ans. (b)
(d) Violation of freedom of expression
50. Under which of the following article of
Ans. (c)
Indian constitution, the fundamental rights of
43. How Many writs can be issued by supreme defence forces’ personnel can be restricted
court – specially –
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) Article 21 (b) Article 25
(c) 5 (d) 6 Ans. (c) (c) Article 33 (d) Article 19
44. According to Indian constitution, Right to Ans. (c)
life is –
51. When were the fundamental duties
(a) Political right (b) Economic right inserted in India constitution –
(c) Fundamental right (d) Religious right (a) 1971 (b) 1972
Ans. (c) (c) 1975 (d) 1976 Ans. (d)
45. Which of the following is not a 52. Fundamental duties include –
fundamental rights in Indian constitution –
(a) To conserve and nurture the values which
(a) Right to equality (b) Right to freedom motivated our freedom movement
(c) Right to property (d) Right against exploitation (b) The duty to vote in general election
Ans. (c) (c) The duty to develop brotherhood among
people

4
(d) The duty to support that political party whom 60. The freedom from payment of taxes for
we had vote for promotion of any religion is guaranteed by –
Ans. (a) (a) Article 25 (b) Article 26
53. How many fundamental duties are there in (c) Article 27 (d) Article 28
Indian constitution –
Ans. (c)
(a) 9 (b) 10
61. In which of the following articles, the
(c) 11 (d) 12 Ans. (c) interests of minorities are covered -
54. Which of the following articles of the (a) 14 (b) 19
constitution is related with the fundamental
(c) 29 (d) 32
duties –
Ans. (c)
(a) Article 39C (b) Article 51A
62. Which of the following articles of Indian
(c) Article 29B (d) None of these
constitution prohibits “Untouchability” –
Ans. (b)
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15
55. Who is the custodian of the
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 17 Ans. (d)
implementation of the fundamental rights –
63. Which of the followings is not a
(a) High courts (b) Supreme court
fundamental right –
(c) All courts (d) Both A and B
(a) Right to equality (b) Right against exploitation
Ans. (d)
(c) Right to strike (d) Right to religious freedom
56. Fundamental rights can be suspended by
Ans. (c)
(a) Governor (b) President
64. What kind of right is “Right to vote” –
(c) Law Minister (d) Prime Minister
(a) Human right (b) Civil right
Ans. (b)
(c) Natural right (d) Political right
57. The fundamental rights of Indian citizens
Ans. (c)
can be suspended –
65. Which of the following matter is related
(a) During National Emergency
with the fundamental rights –
(b) During Financial Emergency
(a) Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967)
(c) Anytime (d) In any situation
(b) West Bengal vs Union of India (1963)
Ans. (a)
(c) Sharma vs Krishna (1959)
58. Which of the following fundamental right is
(d) Bombay vs Balsara (1951)
for the citizens of India only –
Ans. (a)
(a) Right to life liberty
66. “Directive principles of state policy” has
(b) Right to religious freedom
been adopted by Indian constitution from the
(c) Right to equality constitution of -
(d) Right to expression Ans. (d) (a) Australia (b) USA
59. Article 19 of Indian constitution provides – (c) Canada (d) Ireland
(a) Six freedom (b) Seven Freedoms Ans. (d)
(c) Eight freedoms (d) Nine Freedoms 67. Which part of the constitution of India
ensures the Social and Economic democracy
Ans. (a)

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(a) Provision of emergency Ans. (a)
(b) Centre-state relation 73. Which constitutional amendment has
made Directive principles of state policy more
(c) Directive principles of state policy
important than fundamental rights –
(d) None of these
(a) 42nd (b) 44th
Ans. (c)
(c) 52nd (d) 56th
68. In which part of Indian constitution, it is
Ans. (a)
dictated to make India modern welfare state –
74. The members of the Executive in President
(a) Preamble of the constitution
form of government are –
(b) Fundamental rights (part 3)
(a) Elected from both Houses
(c) Directive principles of state policy (part 4)
(b) Only from Lower House
(d) 4th Schedule of the constitution
(c) Not Members of any House of the Legislature
Ans. (c)
(d) Elected members after appointment
69. If the Directive principles of state policy
Ans. (c)
would have not been enforced by government,
where can the citizens go –
(a) High Court (b) Supreme Court PRESIDENT AND VICE-PRESIDENT
(c) National human rights commission 75. During what period, the Proclamation of
Emergency made by president should be
(d) None of these
approved by both house of the parliament –
Ans. (d)
(a) Within one month (b) Within two months
70. Which of the article ensures that Directive
(c) Within four months (d) Within six months
principles of state policy cannot be enforced
by any court – Ans. (a)
(a) Article 31 (b) Article 38 76. The Vice-president is the ex-officio
chairman of –
(c) Article 37 (d) Article 39
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha
Ans. (c)
(c) Planning commission
71. The Directive principles in our constitution
are – (d) National development council
(a) Enforceable by legal courts Ans. (a)
(b) Semi enforceable 77. Vice – president is –
(c) Partially unenforceable (a) Member of Lok Sabha
(d) Unenforceable by courts (b) Member of Rajya Sabha
Ans. (d) (c) Member of any house
72. Which of the following Directive principles (d) Not a member of any house
of state policy is based on gandhian
Ans. (d)
philosophy –
78. Who completed two successive regimes of
(a) Organization of village assembly
the vice-president of India –
(b) Equal pay for equal work
(a) S. Radhakrishnan (b) V. V. Giri
(c) Protection of laborers (d) All of these
(c) B. D. Jatti (d) M. Hidaytullah

6
Ans. (a) (a) person nominated by both Houses of the
Parliament
79. How many members can be nominated for
both houses of parliament by the president – (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(a) 16 (b) 10 (c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) 12 (d) 14 (d) Chief Justice of India
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
80. The president of India is an integral part of 87. According to Indian constitution, which of
the following is a Constitutional Body –
(a) Parliament (b) Lok Sabha
(a) Finance Commission
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) Council of Ministers
(b) National Development Council
Ans. (a)
(c) Planning Commission
81. How many members of anglo-Indian
community can be nominated for the (d) None of these
parliament by the president -
Ans. (a)
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8
88. How many years after a finance
(d) Depends on President’s will commission is constituted by the president –
Ans. (a) (a) 4 years (b) 5 years
82. According to Indian constitution, central (c) 6 years (d) None of these
Minister will hold his post at the will of –
Ans. (b)
(a) President of India (b) Prime Minister of India
89. Who constitutes the finance commission –
(c) Parliament (d) Supreme court
(a) Finance Minister (b) Prime Minister
Ans. (a)
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) President
83. For what duration, the election of member
Ans. (d)
of Rajya Sabha is done –
90. On the recommendations of which of the
(a) Two Years (b) Four Years
followings, the Grants-in-aid is provided to
(c) Five Years (d) Six Years states by centre –
Ans. (d) (a) Planning Commission (b) Finance Minister
84. How many members can be nominated for (c) Finance Commission
Rajya Sabha by the President –
(d) National Development Council
(a) 2 (b) 12
Ans. (c)
(c) 15 (d) 20
91. President constitutes which of the
Ans. (b) following bodies for the distribution of
resources between centre and states –
85. If the speaker of Lok Sabha wants to
resign, whom does he resign – (a) Finance commission (b) Planning commission
(a) President of India (b) Deputy Speaker (c) Taxation commission (d) Tariff commission
(c) Prime Minister (d) Minister of Council Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) 92. Who appoints the members of union
public service commission –
86. When the post of President and Vice-
president are vacant, who will perform the (a) Law Minister (b) President
duties of president temporarily –

7
(c) Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice (b) Presiding chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans. (b) (c) Head of the nation
93. Who appoints the attorney general of India (d) Head of the government
(a) Chief Minister of India (b) President of India Ans. (b)
(c) Law Minister (d) Prime Minister of 100. Under which article of constitution,
India proclamation of National Emergency is
declared –
Ans. (b)
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356
94. Who hold the post of President twice –
(c) Article 360 (d) Article 361
(a) S. Radhakrishnan (b) K. R. Narayanan
Ans. (a)
(c) Neelam Sanjeev Reddy (d) Babu Rajendra
Prasad 101. How many times have the president
declared National emergency –
Ans. (d)
(a) Once (b) Twice
95. Who is the Supreme Commander in Chief
of Defence Forces of the country – (c) Thrice (d) Never
(a) Defence Minister (b) Prime Minister Ans. (c)
(c) Senior of all three forces 102. Which year did President declare National
emergency on internal dispute –
(d) President
(a) 1962 (b) 1965
Ans. (d)
(c) 1971 (d) 1975
96. Who can send a matter to Supreme Court
for consultation under Article 143. Ans. (d)
(a) President of India (b) Governor 103. Under which of the following articles,
president can make the proclaimation of
(c) Deputy governor (d) President and governor
emergency in failure of constitutional
Ans. (a) machinery in any state-
97. Supreme court has the right to mitigate the (a) 352 (b) 356
dispute regarding the election between
(c) 360 (d) 350
President and Vice-President. It is :-
Ans. (b)
(a) Fundamental right (b) Discretionary right
104. President can forward his resignation to
(c) Advisory right (d) Multifaceted right
whom –
Ans. (a)
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Prime Minister
98. Who organizes the election process for the
(c) Vice-President (d) Chief Justice of
post of President of India –
supreme court
(a) Vice-President of India
Ans. (c)
(b) Election Commission of India
105. Which of the following appointments are
(c) Chief Justice of India not made by president of India –
(d) Attorney General of India (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (b) (b) Chief Justice of India (c) Chief of air force(d)
Chief of army
99. Vice-President of India is –
Ans. (a)
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha

8
106. Which of the following appointment is not 113. Who presides over the joint sitting of two
in the Jurisdiction of President – houses of the parliament –
(a) Chief justice of India (a) Senior most member of Lok Sab
(b) Chairman of finance commission (b) President
(c) Chief of army (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Vice – President
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) 114. How many types of emergency is
provisioned in the constitution –
107. What is the age limit to contest for the
post of the president of India – (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 35 years (d) 18 years Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) 115. In India, how many times has the
president declared financial emergency –
108. What is the minimum age decided to
contest for the election of the post of (a) Never (b) Two times
president –
(c) Three (d) Once
(a) 35 years (b) 60 years
Ans. (a)
(c) 55 years (d) None of these
116. Under which Article of the constitution,
Ans. (a) the president of India can declared the
financial emergency –
109. The impeachment process of President of
India is adopted from – (a) Article 360 (b) Article 356
(a) USA (b) UK (c) Article 364 (d) Article 352
(c) USSR (d) France Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) 117. In India, which kind of emergency has
been imposed only once –
110. What is the retirement age of the
President – (a) Internal disturbance emergency
(a) 70 years (b) 75 (b) President rule
(c) 80 (d) No age limit (c) External situation emergency
Ans. (d) (d) Financial emergency
111. What is the maximum age limit for the Ans. (a)
president post of India –
118. The president of India has the same
(a) 58 years (b) 60 years constitution powers which _____ have –
(c) 62 years (d) No age limit (a) British crown (b) President of USA
Ans. (d) (c) President of Pakistan(d) President of France
112. Who can summon the joint sitting of Both Ans. (a)
Houses of the Parliament –
119. Which of the following person has the
(a) President (b) Prime Minister sole authority to impose emergency under the
constitution of India –
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker (d) Vice-President
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
Ans. (a)
(c) Council of Minister (d) Parliament

9
Ans. (a) (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha
120. The ordinance issued by president is Ans. (c)
applicable for the period of –
PARLIAMENT
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months
127. India has adopted the parliamentary form
(c) 9 months (d) uncertain time of government from –
Ans. (b) (a) American Constitution
121. Who is the constitutional head of the (b) Russian Constitution
Indian government –
(c) British Constitution
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(d) Swiss constitution
(c) Chief justice of India (d) Attorney general
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
128. from where have we borrowed the
122. Which of the following holds his post parliamentary form of government –
after the approval of the president –
(a) Russia (b) Ireland
(a) Prime Minister (b) Governor
(c) Britain (d) America
(c) Election commission
Ans. (c)
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
129. What is the maximum gap period between
Ans. (b) two sessions of parliament –
123. The vice-president of India is elected by – (a) 4 months (b) 6 months
(a) The members of Parliament (c) 8 months (d) 9 months
(b) Members of Rajya Sabha Ans. (b)
(c) Elected members of Parliament 130. Rajya Sabha is dissolved –
(d) Members of state Legislature and Parliament (a) After every five year (b) After every six year
Ans. (a) (c) On the advice of Prime Minister
124. The president can be impeached by – (d) None of these
(a) Specially appointed authority Ans. (d)
(b) Supreme Court 131. Which of the following is not correct –
(c) Cabinet (d) Parliament (a) Person should have completed age of 30
years to elect as a member of Rajya Sabha
Ans. (d)
(b) person should have completed age of 25
125. The impeachment to remove president
years to elect as a member of Lok Sabha
can be started from –
(c) Person should have completed age of 21
(a) Supreme Court (b) Rajya sabha
years to elect as member of Legislative Council.
(c) Any house of Parliament
(d) Person eligible to vote in panchayat election
(d) Lok Sabha should have completed age of 18 years
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
126. Which of the following can bring the 132. Answer the name of two temporary
impeachment process of Vice-President – houses of parliamentary structure of India –
(a) Legislative Council (b) Legislative Assembly (a) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly

10
(b) Lok Sabha and Legislative Council (a) 2 years (b) 4 years
(c) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Council (c) 6 years (d) 5 years
(d) Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) 139. The Council of Minister is collectively
responsible to –
133. The minimum age for the member of
Rajya Sabha is – (a) President (b) Prime Minister
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) Lok Sabha (d) Rajya Sabha
(c) 30 years (d) 35 years Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) 140. An ordinance must have passed by both
houses in Joint Sitting by –
134. Who presides the joint sitting of
parliament (a) General majority of members presented
(a) chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) Complete majority of total members
(b) senior most member of Parliament (c) Majority of 2/3 members
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Majority of ¾ members
(d) President of India Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) 141. Parliament includes –
135. Which of the following committee is not a (a) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
permanent committee of the parliament –
(b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(a) Public accounts committee
(c) Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly
(b) Estimates committee
(d) Legislative Assembly, Legislative council and
(c) Committee on public undertaking Lok Sabha
(d) Advisory committee of finance ministry Ans. (a)
Ans. (d) 142. Who approves a bill as money bill in Lok
Sabha –
136. The chairman of public accounts
committee of parliament is appointed by – (a) President (b) Finance Minister
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker
(b) Prime Minister of India Ans. (d)
(c) President of India 143. Who decides that a bill in parliament is a
money bill or not –
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(a) President (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans. (a)
(c) Chairman of Lok Sabha (d) Cabinet
137. The chairman of public accounts
committee in Indian parliament is – Ans. (c)
(a) Leader of opposition 144. According to Indian constitution, how
many times the sessions of both houses of
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
parliament is necessary to be organized in an
(c) Deputy chairman of Lok Saba year –
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha Ans. (a) (a) 4 (b) 3
138. For which period of time, the members of (c) 2 (d) 1
Rajya Sabha are elected –

11
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
145. The maximum gap between two sessions 152. How many times, the tenure of Lok Sabha
of the parliament should not be more than – was increased for 6 years –
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 9 months (d) 12 months (c) 3 (d) Never
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
146. Where can the no-confidence motion be 153. The initial tenure of member of Rajya
presented against council of Ministers – Sabha was 5 years, it was changed by 42nd
amendment in –
(a) Only Rajya Sabha (b) Only Lok Sabha
(a) 9 years (b) 7 years
(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) 6 years (d) 8 years
(d) Assemblies of states Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
147. Indian parliament is capable of making
any law for any state, if – 154. In India, no government expenditure can
be made without approval of –
(a) Emergency is enforced under Article 352
(a) Parliament (b) Prime Minister
(b) Two or more states request for that
(c) President (d) Supreme court
(c) President sends a message to the parliament
Ans. (a)
(d) A and B both
155. Which Article gives the power to the
Ans. (d)
parliament to make law on subjects of state
148. Which of the schedule of constitution of list –
India determines the allocation of seats in
(a) 115 (b) 183
Rajya Sabha –
(c) 221 (d) 249
(a) Third schedule (b) Fourth schedule
Ans. (d)
(c) Fifth schedule (d) Sixth schedule
156. Who will be elected as the Deputy
Ans. (b)
Chairman of Rajya Sabha –
149. In which house, the chairman of that
(a) Any person who is eligible for member of
house is not a member of house –
Rajya Sabha
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(b) Any member who is working as a member of
(c) Legislative Assembly (d) Legislative Council Rajya Sabha
Ans. (b) (c) Any member of the parliament
150. The system of nomination of members of (d) A person nominated to Rajya Sabha by the
Rajya Sabha has been borrowed from the president
constitution –
Ans. (b)
(a) United States of America (b) Ireland
157. Which of the following is the first woman
(c) South Africa (d) France speaker of Lok Sabha –
Ans. (b) (a) Meera Kumari (b) Sonia Gandi
151. What is the total number of members for (c) Sushma Swaraj (d) Margret Alva
the main opposition party in parliament –
Ans. (a)
(a) 1/3 of total members (b) 1/4 of total members
158. Which house of the Indian parliament is a
(c) 1/6 of total members (d) 1/10 of total members house elected by the people –

12
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha Ans. (c)
(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
(d) None of these 165. Who chairs the meeting of council of
Ministers -
Ans. (b)
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
159. A Member of parliament will be
suspended from his membership, if he (c) Cabinet Secretary (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
absents the house continuously for –
Ans. (a)
(a) 45 days (b) 60 days
166. What is the minimum age for the post of
(c) 90 days (d) 365 days Prime Minister of India –
Ans. (b) (a) 18 (b) 21
160. Who decides the salary and allowances (c) 25 (d) 35
of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha –
Ans. (c)
(a) President (b) Pay Commission
167. Who is the chairman of planning
(c) Cabinet (d) Parliament commission –
Ans. (d) (a) President (b) Prime Minister
161. The persons, who can speak in Rajya (c) Finance Minister (d) Vice - president
Sabha and Lok Sabha being a member of
Ans. (b)
Rajya Sabha, are –
168. In parliamentary democracy “he is the
(a) Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha
first among all” Who is he –
(b) Leader of Rajya Sabha
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Nominated members of Rajay Sabha
(c) Leader of Opposition
(d) The Ministers who are members in Rajya
(d) Chairman of lower house
Sabha
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
169. In India, Prime Minister can hold his post
162. Who is the custodian of consolidated
till, he has –
fund of India –
(a) Support of armed forces
(a) Executive (b) Judiciary
(b) Confidence of Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislature (d) Civil officers
(c) Confidence of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c)
(d) Support of people
163. What is the gap period between first no-
confidence motion and second no-confidence Ans. (c)
motion –
170. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister
(a) 12 months (b) 3 months of India –
(c) 6 months (d) 9 months (a) Tenure of Lok Sabha
Ans. (a) (b) Tenure of President
164. What is the quorum to transact the (c) Till he has the majority support in Lok Sabha
business of Lok Sabha – (d) Five Years
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/8 Ans. (c)
(c) 1/10 (d) 1/5

13
171. Sarkariya Commission was set up to Ans. (a)
submit report on which of the following
JUDICIARY
subjects –
177. a federal court was established in
(a) New pay scale of government employees
colonial India under the act of ___
(b) Centre- State relation
(a) 1919 (b) 1935
(c) Ram Janambhumi-Babri Masjid dispute
(c) 1892 (d) 1909
(d) Kaveri dispute
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
178. The name of the chief justice of India is –
172. By which of the following method, Prime
(a) Soli Sorabji (b) S. H. Kapadia
Minister of India is selected –
(c) J.S Kehar (d) T.S. Thakur
(a) Election (b) Appointment
Ans. (c)
(c) Nomination (d) Selection
179. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme
Ans. (b)
Court of India –
173. Which of the following taxe in India is
(a) President (b) Chief Justice
wholly governed by central government –
(c) Prime Minister (d) council of Ministers
(a) Property Tax (b) Sale Tax
Ans. (a)
(c) Tax on Rail fare and Freight
180. The principal bench of High Court of
(d) Corporate Tax
Madhya Pradesh is located in
Ans. (d)
(a) Bhopal (b) Jabalpur
174. The pension of the judge of High Court is
(c) Gwalior (d) Indore
charged on –
Ans. (b)
(a) Public account of State
181. What is the retirement age of the judge of
(b) Consolidated Fund of India
Supreme Court –
(c) Public Accounts of India
(a) 60 years (b) 62 years
(d) Consolidated Fund of State
(c) 64 years (d) 65 years
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
175. Who are included in National
182. Which of the following writs can be
Development Council –
issued only against a government official –
(a) All members of central cabinet
(a) Habeas corpus (b) Mandamus
(b) Chief Minister of all states
(c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari
(c) All members of cabinet of states and centre
Ans. (b)
183. Who is the custodian of Indian
(d) Members of estimates committee
constitution –
Ans. (b)
(a) President of India (b) Chief Justice of India
176. Who is the chairman of National
(c) Prime Minister of India
Integration Council –
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(a) Prime Minister (b) finance Minister
Ans. (b)
(c) Home Minister (d) President of India

14
184. The power of mitigation of dispute Ans. (c)
between centre and state falls in ____ of the
190. Who can displace the Judge of High
supreme court of India –
Court –
(a) Original jurisdiction
(a) President on a proposal passed by majority in
(b) Constitutional jurisdiction parliament
(c) Consulting jurisdiction (d) Appellate jurisdiction (b) President
Ans. (a) (c) Chief Minister in consultation with Governor
185. The salary and allowances of judges of (d) President in consultation with Chief Justice of
Supreme Court are charged on – India
(a) Reserve Bank of India Ans. (a)
(b) Contingency Fund of India 191. The retired judge of High Court is not
permitted to practice as a lawyer in –
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(a) Supreme Court (b) Any Court in India
(d) Finance Commission
(c) High Court
Ans. (c)
(d) The High Court where he retired from
186. Which of the following is not an eligibility
of the judge of Supreme Court in India – Ans. (d)
(a) citizen of India 192. Who has the power to decide on an
election petition for any state –
(b) Age should be 35 years
(a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court
(c) Should have practiced at least 10 years in any
High Court (c) High Court (d) Election Commission
(d) Should be a jurist Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) 193. Which of the following High Court
declared 1st that “Shutdown” is
187. What should be the experience of
Unconstitutional –
advocacy in any High Court for being a judge
of Supreme Court – (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) Kerala (d) Odhisha
(c) 15 years (d) 20 years Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) 194. An appeal can be moved in High Court if
the session court has verdicted the
188. The retired judges of Supreme court are
punishment of -
restricted to practice advocacy in –
(a) More than 1 years (b) 2 years
(a) Any court except Supreme Court
(c) 6 years (d) 7 years
(b) Any court of India
Ans. (d)
(c) Any court below High Court
195. On whose recommendations the judges
(d) Any civil Court
of high court can be removed before
Ans. (b) completion of their tenure on the basis of
misconduct or incapability –
189. How many judges are in Supreme Court –
(a) Chief justice of India
(a) 25 (b) 26
(b) Chief justice of High Court
(c) 30 (d) 31

15
(c) President on recommendations made by both 200. What is the term of the appointment of
houses of parliament Comptroller and Auditor General of India –
(d) Special majority in both houses of parliament (a) 6 years
Ans. (c) (b) Up to the age of 65 years
196. The Supreme Court of India has – (c) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years whichever
is earlier
(a) Original Jurisdiction
(d) Up to the age of 64 years
(b) Consultative Jurisdiction
Ans. (c)
(c) Appellate and consultative jurisdiction
201. For whom, the Comptroller and Auditor
(d) Original, Appellate and Consultative
General of India works as a friend,
Jurisdiction
philosopher, and guide –
Ans. (d)
(a) Public Accounts Committee
197. Match the followings –
(b) Estimates Committee
Union Jurisdiction
(c) Finance Ministry
(High Court)
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
A. Puducherry 1. Kerala
Ans. (a)
B. Andaman and 2. Mumbai
202. Which is the supreme body in the country
Nicobar Islands to approve five year plans
C. Lakshadweep 3. Madras (a) Planning Commission (b) Cabinet
D. Daman and Diu 4. Calcutta (c) Parliament
(d) National development council Ans. (d)
A B C D 203. Who appoints the attorney general of
India –
(a) 3 4 1 2
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Parliament
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) Law Minister (d) President
(c) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (d)
(d) 1 4 3 2
204. The Attorney General of India has the
Ans. (a)
power to appear in –
198. Who appoints the judges of district (a) Supreme Court (b) Any High Court
courts –
(c) Any Session Court (d) Any Court in India
(a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
Ans. (d)
(c) Law Minister (d) President
205. Which of the following is a non-
Ans. (a)
constitutional body –
CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES (a) Finance Commission(b) Planning Commission
199. Who appoints the Comptroller and
(c) Union Public Service Commission
Auditor General of India –
(d) Election Commission
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
Ans. (b)
(c) Finance Minister (d) Lok Sabha
206. The term of members of Union Public
Ans. (b)
Service Commission is –

16
(a) 3 years or up to the age of 58 Ans. (c)
(b) 5 years or up to the age of 60 214. Which of the following parliamentary
constituency is the largest in terms of area –
(c) 6 years or up to the age of 65
(a) Barmer (Rajasthan)
(d) 6 years Ans. (c)
(b) Arunachal West (Arunachal Pradesh)
207. Any member of union public service
commission can be removed by – (c) Laddakh (Jammu and Kashmir)
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (d) Uttaranchal East (Uttaranchal)
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court Ans. (c)
(d) Chairman of UPSC Ans. (a) 215. Who was the first Chief Election
Commissioner of India –
208. Union public service commission ______
employees of all India services – (a) K. V. K. Sundaram (b) Sukumar Sen
(a) Suspends (b) Elects (c) G.V. Mavalankar (d) T.S. Waminathan
(c) Selects (d) Appoints Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
ELECTION 216. Match the following and answer the
correct option-
209. On which principle, the General Indian
Elections based on – List 1 List 2
(a) Proportional Representation A. Member of Lok Sabha 1. Elected by
Electoral College
(b) Regional Representation
B. President 2. Nominated by the
(c) Executive Representation
Parliament
(d) General Representation Ans. (b)
C. Vice-President 3. Nominated by the
210. Under which of the following article The Lok Sabha
Election Commission was established –
D. Speaker 4. Elected by adult
(a) Article 355 (b) Article 256 suffrage
(c) Article 324 (d) Article 320 A B C D
Ans. (c) (a) 1 2 3 4
211. In which year, the Anti-Defection Law was (b) 2 3 4 1
passed by Indian parliament –
(c) 3 4 1 2
(a) 1984 (b) 1985
(d) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1986 (d) 1988 Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
212. Which amendment had reduced the age
STATE
of voting to 18 years from 21 years –
217. The Chief Minister is appointed by –
(a) 61st amendment (b) 64th amendment
(a) Governor (b) President
(c) 63rd amendment (d) 60th amendment
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ans. (a)
(d) Chief Justice of High Court Ans. (a)
213. The National political party is one which
has attained 6% of total vote in – 218. Governor is sworn by –
(a) Two or more states (b) Capital (a) Chief Justice of High Court (b) President
(c) Four or more states (d) All states (c) Speaker of Assembly

17
(d) Chief Justice of India 1. Dismissal of Council of Minister
Ans. (a) 2. Suspension of Judges of High Court
219. Who uses the real Executionery Powers 3. Dissolution of state assembly
of State -
4. Declaration of failure of Constitutional
(a) Chief Minister (b) Council of Minister Machinery in State
(c) Governor (d) Chief Justice of High Court (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (a) (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (d)
220. Who is the highest Law Officer of any 227. The ordinance by the governor are
state – subjected to approval of –
(a) Attorney General (b) Advocate General (a) President (b) State Legislature
(c) Solicitor General (c) Council of Ministers of State
(d) Secretary of Law Department Ans. (b) (d) Parliament Ans. (b)
221. Which of the following Indian state has 228. The constitution does not have the
the honeur to be the first linguistic state – provision to impeach –
(a) West Bengal (b) Andhra Pradesh (a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) Tamilnadu (d) Punjab (b) Chief Justice of Any High Court
Ans. (b) (c) Governor (d) President Ans. (c)
222. Which of the following article dictates 229. Under which of the following article, The
Jammu and Kashmir, a special state – President rule can be imposed in any state in
failure of constitutional machinery –
(a) Article 370 (b) Article 374
(a) Article 356 (b) Article 361
(c) Article 376 (d) Article 377 Ans. (a)
(c) Article 371 (d) Article 379
223. Which of the following is not a matter of
Local Government – Ans. (a)
(a) Public Health (b) Cleanliness 230. Which of the following has the power to
form new states or to change the borders of
(c) Law and Order (d) Public Utility Services
the states –
Ans. (c)
(a) President (b) Parliament
224. Which state assembly has the maximum
(c) Election Commission
number of members –
(d) None of these Ans. (b)
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
231. The money bill can be presented in the
(c) West Bengal (d) Andhra Pradesh
state assembly with prior authorization of –
Ans. (a)
(a) Governor of the State
225. Which of the following state has a
(b) Chief Minister of the State
legislative council –
(c) Speaker of the Assembly
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Tamilnadu
(d) Finance Minister of the State
(c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
CONSTITUTIONAL SCHEDULES
226. In Which of the following matters,
governor can make recommendations to 232. The assumption of concurrent list of
president – Indian constitution has been borrowed from –

18
(a) Japan (b) Canada (d) Village Level Panchayat, panchayat
Committee and District Council
(c) Australia (d) USA Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
233. How many schedules are in the
constitution of India – 240. Which of the two states had firstly
implemented Panchayati Raj System –
(a) 9 (b) 10
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) 11 (d) 12 Ans. (d)
(b) Assam and Bihar
234. Which of the following subject is in state
list – (c) Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(a) Agriculture (b) Criminal law (d) Punjab and Chandigarh
(c) Education (d) Defence Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
PANCHAYATI RAJ MISCELLANEOUS
235. By which of the following Amendment act 241. When was National Commission for
of the Indian Constitution, the Panchayati Raj Minorities established –
System got the constitutional status –
(a) 1980 (b) 1989
(a) 71st (b) 72nd
(c) 1990 (d) 1992
(c) 73rd (d) 74th
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
242. Which of the following article of Indian
236. Which constitutional amendment had constitution has the provision of reservation
established Panchayati Raj institutions – for Scheduled caste and Scheduled tribe –
(a) 72nd Amendment (b) 71st Amendment (a) Article 375 (b) Article 315
(c) 73rd Amendment (d) 78th Amendment (c) Article 335 (d) Article 365
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
237. The term “Gram Sabha” denotes – 243. How many members are in United Nation
General Assembly –
(a) Senior citizens of a Village
(a) 190 (b) 191
(b) Population of a Village
(c) 192 (d) 193
(c) Electoral college for Panchayat
Ans. (d)
(d) Elected members of Panchayat Ans. (c)
244. The total number of judges in
238. By which of the following articles, the
International Court of Justice are –
Panchayati Raj system was started in India –
(a) 11 (b) 15
(a) 32 (b) 40
(c) 18 (d) 7
(c) 45 (d) 51 Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
239. Three Tier Panchayati Raj System
includes – 245. Which of the following had signed with
president Ayub khan on Tashkent agreement
(a) Village level Panchayat, Zone Level
panchayat and Panchayat committee (a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) District Panchayat, Sub-District Panchayat anc (c) Lal Bahadur Shashtri (d) Indira Gandhi
Zone Level Panchayat
Ans. (c)
(c) Village level Panchayat, Block Level
246. The concept of lokpal has been taken
panchayat and District Level Panchayat
from –

19
(a) Britain (b) America 250. When was the lokpal bill passed in Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha with more strict
(c) Scandinavian Countries (d) France
provisions –
Ans. (c)
(a) 2012 (b) 2013
247. Match the following and answer the
(c) 2009 (d) 2011
correct –
Ans. (b)
List 1 (Forms List 2 (Principle) of
Government) 251. Which of the following sections of Indian
penal code is related with lesbian gay bisexual
1. Presidential System A. Distribution
community (LGBT) –
of Powers
(a) 377 (b) 376
2. Parliamentary B. Centralization System
of Powers (c) 370 (d) None of these
3. Federal System C. Close relation Ans. (a)
Legislature
252. In which state, the Bodoland territorial
and Executive
council, an autonomous governing body was
4. Unitary System D. Separation of established –
Powers
(a) Assam (b) Mizoram
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya
1 2 3 4
Ans. (a)
(a) c d a b
253. “Shimla Pact” between India and
(b) d c b a Pakistan is in –
(c) d c a b (a) 1972 (b) 2001
(d) d b a c (c) 1965 (d) 1971
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
248. Match the followings – 254. When did the constituent assembly adopt
the National anthem –
List 1 (Organization) List 2 (Head-
quarter) (a) 25 January 1950 (b) 26 January 1950
A. United nations Industrial 1. Geneva (c) 24 January 1950 (d) 29 January 1950
B. Food and Agriculture 2. Paris Ans. (c)
Organization
255. The parliament of India has passed the
C. World Health Organization 3. Bern environment (conservation) bill in –
D. UNESCO 4. Vienna (a) 1972 (b) 1984
(a) A-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 (c) 1981 (d) 1986
(b) A-5, b-2, c-4, d-3 Ans. (d)
(c) A-4, b-3, c-2, d-5
(d) A-5, b-4, C-1, d-2 Ans. (d)
249. In which country, there is federal
government –
(a) China (b) USA
(c) Cuba (d) Belgium Ans. (b)

20