ESE - (Paper-II) - Electrical Engineering - FINAL
ESE - (Paper-II) - Electrical Engineering - FINAL
FEBRUARY 2024
EVENING SESSION
ESE
ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAMINATION
ELECTRICAL
ENGINEERING
PAPER-2
Detailed Solution
by Team
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1. In Double Data Rate SDRAM, if 100 MHz clock 6. Consider the following set of processes that
rate and 64 bits data bus transfers data, then what arrive at time 0 with the length of the CPU burst
is the approximate transfer rate for DDR3? given in milliseconds :
(a) 1600 MB/s (b) 6400 MB/s Process Burst time
P1 24
(c) 3200 MB/s (d) 800 MB/s
P2 3
2. What is the approximate rotational delay if the P3 3
disk drive has 8 surfaces, each surface has 1024
What is the average waiting time under the
tracks, each track has 64 sectors, each sector can
Round-Robin Scheduling, if we use a time
hold 512 bytes and rotation speed of 6000
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quantum of 4 milliseconds?
r.p.m.? (It is assumed that the sector is away
(a) 5366 milli seconds
from head half of the track)
(b) 3.50 milli seconds
(a) 0.005 s (b) 0.050 s
(c) 7.00 milli seconds
(c) 0.500 s (d) 0.505 s
(d) 6.55 milli seconds
3. How many pages are in the disk, if the capacity
of a virtual disk is 2 MB and each page is 2 kB 7. Consider the following set of processes,
in a byte-addressable system? assumed to have arrived at time 0 in the order
P1, P2, …., P5, with the length of the CPU burst
(a) 2048 (b) 1024
given in milliseconds :
(c) 100 (d) 500 Process Burst time Priority
4. Which one of the following is used to keep the P1 10 3
track of program statistics that may be a valuable P2 1 1
tool for system administrators who wish to P3 2 4
reconfigure the system to improve computing P4 1 5
services? P5 5 2
(a) Programming table Assuming that low numbers represent high
(b) Spooling priority, what is the average waiting time under
the priority scheduling?
(c) Logging
(a) 5.66 milli seconds
(d) Making file
(b) 4.50 milli seconds
5. If communicating processes reside in a
temporary queue and the queue has a maximum (c) 8.20 milli seconds
length of zero, then the link cannot have any (d) 6.55 milli seconds
messages waiting in it. The sender must block 8. Which one of the following statements is correct
until the recipient receives the message. In what regarding superheaters in steam power plants?
way can such queues be implemented?
(a) In modem utility high-pressure boilers,
(a) Bounded capacity more than 40% of the total heat absorbed in
(b) Unbounded capacity the generation of steam takes place in the
(c) Non-zero capacity superheaters.
(d) Zero capacity (b) In modem utility high-pressure boilers, less
than 40% of the total heat absorbed in the
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generation of steam takes place in the 12. Which one of the following is correct regarding
superheaters. reduction of corona loss?
(c) In modem utility high-pressure boilers, less
(a) Corona losses can be reduced by using
than 20% of the total heat absorbed in the
generation of steam takes place in the large dia conductors, hollow conductors
superheaters. and bundled conductors
(d) In modem utility high-pressure boilers, less (b) Corona losses can be reduced by using
than 30% of the total heat absorbed in the
small dia conductors, hollow conductors
generation of steam takes place in the
superheaters. and bundled conductors
9. What are the advantages of bundle conductors? (c) Corona losses can be reduced by using
(a) Reactance is reduced, GMR is increased large dia conductors, hollow conductors
and voltage gradient is reduced and single conductors
(b) Surge impedance is reduced, GMR is (d) Corona losses can be reduced by using
decreased and voltage gradient is increased
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large dia conductors, solid conductors and
(c) Reactance is increased, GMR is increased
and voltage gradient is reduced single conductors
(d) Corona loss is reduced, GMR is increased 13. Which one of the following types of relay is used
and voltage gradient is increased to give directional feature to reactance relay?
10. If the loading of the line is less than the surge (a) 1DMT relay
impedance loading, then which one of the
(b) Impedance relay Mho relay
following statements is correct?
(a) The absorbed reactive power is greater than (c) Mho relay
the generated reactive power and receiving- (d) Non-directional reactance relay
end voltage is greater than sending-end
14. What are the values of breaking current and
voltage.
(b) The absorbed reactive power is less than making current of a circuit breaker respectively,
the generated reactive power and receiving- rated at 1000 A, 2000 3 MVA, 20 kV, 3 s, oil
end voltage is greater than sending-end
voltage. circuit breaker?
(c) The absorbed reactive power is greater than (a) 100 kA and 255 kA
the generated reactive power and receiving- (b) 200 kA and 255 kA
end voltage is less than sending-end
(c) 100 kA and 200 kA
voltage.
(d) The absorbed reactive power is less than (d) 200 kA and 200 kA
the generated reactive power and receiving- 15. The nodal admittance formulation, using the
end voltage is less than sending-end
nodal voltages as the independent variables, is
voltage.
11. What are the overall diameter and dia of meta!) the most economic
sheath of a single-core cable respectively for (a) In the view of computer time only
working voltage of 80 kV, the dielectric strength
(b) In the view of computer memory only
of the insulating material being 60 kV/cm?
(a) 266 cm and 2-66e cm (c) Int eh view of both computer time and
(b) 3-66 cm and 3-66 e cm memory
(c) 4-66 cm and 4-66e cm
(d) In the view of stability
(d) 3-66 cm and 2-66e cm
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16. The lap-connected armature winding is suitable 20. The rotor input of a three-phase induction motor
for running with a slip of 10% is 100 k\V. What is
the value of the gross power developed by the
(a) low-voltage and high-current generators
rotor?
(b) low-voltage and low-current generators
(a) 10 kW
(c) High-voltage and low-current generators
(b) 80 kW
(d) High-voltage and high-current generators
(c) 90 kW
17. Which one of the following statements is not
(d) 95 kW
correct regarding interpoles of DC machines?
21. What is the value of percentage voltage
(a) They are small yoke-fixed poles spaced in
regulation of an alternator having 0.75 leading
between the main poles. power factor loads, when the no-load induced
(b) Their polarity, in the case of generators, is e.m.f. is 2400 V and the rated terminal voltage is
the same as that of the main pole ahead. 3000 V?
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(a) 20% (b) –20%
(c) They are connected in parallel with the
(c) 25% (d) –25%
armature so that they carry part of the 22. Two identical alternators arc running in parallel
armature current. and carry equal loads. What will happen if the
(d) They automatically neutralize not only excitation of one alternator is increased without
reactance voltage but crossmagnetization changing its steam supply?
(a) It will keep supplying almost the same load
as well.
(b) kVAR supplied by it would decrease
18. A DC series motor, running a fan at 1000 r.p.m., (c) kVA supplied by it would decrease
takes 50 A from 250 V mains. The armature plus (d) Its power factor will increase
field resistance is 0.6 Ω. If an additional 23. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-
resistance of 4.4 Ω is inserted in series with the bar has, at constant full load, 100% excitation
and unity power factor. When there is a change
armature circuit, what is the value of the motor
in excitation only, the armature current will have
speed when the field flux is proportional to the (a) leading power factor with underexcitation
armature current? (b) lagging power factor with overexcitation
(a) 621 r.p.m. (b) 641 r.p.m. (c) leading power factor with overexcitation
(c) 651 r.p.m. (d) 661 r.p.m. (d) no change in power factor
24. What are the values of maximum step rate for
19. A three-phase, 60 Hz, 25 hp, wye-connected
permanent-magnet and variable-reluctance
induction motor operates at a shaft speed of stepper motors respectively?
almost 1800 r.p.m. at no load and 1650 r.p.m. at (a) 300 pulses per second and 1200 pulses per
full load. What are the values of speed of the second
rotor Geld with respect to the rotor itself and (b) 700 pulses per second and 1200 pulses per
second
with respect to the stator Geld respectively?
(c) 1200 pulses per second and 1200 pulses per
(a) 150 r.p.m. and 1800 r.p.m. second
(b) 1650 r.p.m. and 0 r.p.m. (d) 300 pulses per second and 300 pulses per
(c) 150 r.p.m. and 0 r.p.m. second
(d) 1800 r.p.m. and 150 r.p.m.
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25. Consider the following statements regarding 3. It reports status of each port to the user.
ideal transformer : Which of the above functions is/are correct?
1. The winding resistances of the primary and (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
secondary of the transformer are zero.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The eddy current loss of the transformer is
zero. 31. A 50 Hz, four-pole turbo-generator rated at 30
3. The core of the transformer is having a MVA, 13.2 kV has an inertia constant of H = 10
finite permeability. kW-s/kVA. What is the value of kinetic energy
Which of the above statements is/are not stored in the rotor at synchronous speed?
correct? (a) 180 megajoules (b) 200 megajoules
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 300 megajoules (d) 400 megajoules
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2
26. Consider the following characteristics of 32. Which of the following is correct regarding the
Complex Instruction Set Computer (CJSC) advantages of DC transmission over AC
processor: transmission?
1. It is having a small number of instructions. (a) Power per conductor is more, more corona
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2. It is having less addressing modes. loss and possibility of higher operating
3. Most instructions can manipulate operands voltages
in the memory. (b) Power per conductor is more, less corona
4. Control unit is microprogrammed. loss and possibility of higher operating
Which of the above characteristics is/are not voltages
correct? (c) Power per conductor is more, no skin effect
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 and possibility of lower operating voltages
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (d) Power per conductor is more, there is
27. In which of the following processors, the charging current and possibility of higher
designer can add easily new instruction without operating voltages
changing the architecture of the processor? 33. Which one of the following statements is correct
(a) CISC processor only regarding shunt/series capacitor?
(b) RISC processor only (a) Shunt capacitor improves the power factor
(c) Both CISC and RISC processors whereas scries capacitor improves the
stability of transmission line.
(d) Neither CISC processor nor RISC processor
(b) Series capacitor improves the power factor
28. Which one of the following is used lo increase
whereas shunt capacitor improves the
the performance of CPU, that means executing
stability of transmission line.
more instructions in less time?
(c) Shunt capacitor improves both the power
(a) Sequencing (b) Pipelining
factor and the stability of transmission line.
(c) Scheduling (d) Spooling
(d) Series capacitor improves both the power
29. Which one of the following buses was designed factor and the stability of transmission line.
to improve bandwidth and decrease latency in
34. In smart grid, the model load, FACTS devices
computer systems?
and control, protection platform as compared to
(a) PCI bus (b) VESA bus conventional grid are respectively
(c) EISA bus (d) ISA bus (a) dynamic, specified and adaptive nature
30. Consider the following functions of Root Hub : (b) dynamic, adaptive and adaptive nature
1. It performs power distribution to the
(c) dynamic, adaptive and defined nature
devices.
2. It enables and disables the ports. (d) static, adaptive and adaptive nature
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35. A large hydropower station has a head of 324 m 39. Consider the following statements regarding
and an average flow of 1370 m3/s. The reservoir voltage-divider bias in a transistor :
of water behind the dams and dikes is composed 1. The voltage-divider bias configuration uses
of series of lakes covering an area of 6400 km2. two DC bias sources to provide forward-
What is the available hydraulic power? reverse bias to the transistor.
(a) 4350 kW (b) 4350 MW 2. The voltage-divider bias provides a very
small base current to the transistor
(c) 435 MW (d) 435 kW
compared to the bias current.
36. Consider the following statements regarding
3. Two resistors and R1 and R2 a voltage
semiconductor diode :
divider that provides the base bias voltage
1 In toe non-conducting region (when the p-
to the transistor.
n junction is reverse biased), the diode
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
current is exactly zero.
2. The diode requires a small positive voltage (a) 1 and 2 only
to be applied before it enters the conducting (b) 2 and 3 only
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region. (c) 2 only
3. For large input voltages and/or currents, the (d) 1, 2 and 3
diode enters breakdown regions in the
40. In an n-type semiconductor, the Fermi level is
forward direction.
0.3 eV below the conduction level at a room
Which of the above statements is/are correct? temperature of 300 K. If the temperature is
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only increased to 360 K, what is the new position of
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 the Fermi level?
37. The mobilities of free electrons and holes in pure (a) Remains unchanged
silicon are 1300 cm2/V-s and 500 cm2/V-s (b) 0.26 eV above the conduction level
respectively. What is the value of intrinsic (c) 0.36 eV above the conduction level
conductivity for silicon? (Assume ni = l.5 × 1010 (d) 0.36 eV below the conduction level
cm–3 for silicon at room temperature)
41. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 2.69 × 1013 S/cm common-base transistor amplifier :
(b) 4.32 × 10–6 S/cm 1. In the active region, the collector-base
(c) 4.32 × 1013 S/cm junction is forward biased while the base-
emitter junction is reverse biased.
(d) 2.69 × 10–6 S/cm
2. In the cutoff region, the collector-base and
38. What happens to the depletion region and the
base-emitter junctions of a transistor are
depletion region capacitance of a p-n junction
both reverse biased.
diode with increased reverse-biased voltage?
3. In the saturation region, the collector-base
(a) The depletion region shrinks and the and base-emitter junctions are both forward
depletion region capacitance decreases biased.
(b) The depletion region shrinks and the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
depletion region capacitance increases
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) The depletion region widens and the
(b) 2 and 3 only
depletion region capacitance decreases
(c) 2 only
(d) The depletion region widens and the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
depletion region capacitance increases
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42. What are the biasing states of collector-base 46. A set of independent current measurements is
junction and base-emitter junction in the active recorded as 10.03A, 10.10A, 10.11A and 10.08
region of a common-emitter transistor A. What are the values of average current and
amplifier? range of error respectively?
(a) Both collector-base junction and base- (a) 10.08A and ± 0.03A
emitter junction are forward biased (b) 10.08A and ± 0.04A
(b) Both collector-base junction and base- (c) 10.09A and ± 0.04A
emitter junction are reverse biased
(d) 10.09A and ± 0.03A
(c) The collector-base junction is forward
47. During the measurement of low resistance using
biased and the base-emitter junction is
a potentiometer, the following readings were
reverse biased
obtained :
(d) The collector-base junction is reverse The voltage drop across the low resistance under
biased and the base-emitter junction is test = 0.4221 V
forward biased The voltage drop across a 0.1 Ω standard
43. Match the following lists : resistance = 1.0235 V
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List-I List-II What are the values of unknown resistance and
Cutoff IC = FIB, IB > 0, current respectively?
P. 1.
region VBE > VBE(on), VCE > VCE(sat) (a) 0.041208 Ω and ± 10.235 A
Saturation IC = IB = IE = 0, (b) 0.031208 Ω and ± 10.235 A
Q. 2.
region VBE < VBE(on), VBC < VBC(on) (c) 0.021208 Ω and ± 10.235 A
Forward (d) 0.041208 Ω and ± 11.235 A
IB > 0, IC > 0, IC < FIB,
R. active 3. 48. The coil of a moving-coil voltmeter is 40 mm
VBE > VBE(on)
region long and 30 mm wide and has 100 turns on it.
The control spring exerts a torque of 240 × 10–6
Select the correct answer using the code given
N-m when the deflection is 100 divisions on full
below.
scale. If the flux density of the magnetic field in
(a) P → 1, Q → 2, R → 3 the air gap is 1.0 Wb/m2, what is the value of the
(b) P → 2, Q → 3, R → 1 resistance that must be put in series with the coil
(c) P → 1, Q → 3, R → 2 to give one volt per division by neglecting the
(d) P → 2, Q → 1, R → 3 resistance of the voltmeter coil?
44. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 5 kΩ (b) 15 kΩ
negative feedback in amplifier circuits : (c) 50 kΩ (d) 75 kΩ
1. It has reduction in overall voltage gain. 49. Which one of the following statements is correct
2. It has enhanced frequency response. regarding moving-iron instrument when
3. It has higher output impedance. voltages or currents are measured?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) It indicates the same value of the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only measurement for both ascending and
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 descending values.
45. In the Hartley oscillator, L2 = 0.4 mH and C = (b) It indicates the higher value of the
0.004 µF. If the frequency of the oscillator is 120 measurement for ascending values.
kHz, what is the value of L1? (Neglect the mutual (c) It indicates the higher value of the
inductance) measurement for descending values.
(a) 4 mH (b) 0.04 mH (d) It indicates the lower value of the
(c) 0.4 mH (d) 40 mH measurement for descending values.
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50. A moving-coil instrument gives a full-scale 55. If the bandwidth of an oscilloscope is given as
deflection of 10 mA, when the potential direct current to 10 MHz, what is the fastest rise
difference across its terminals is 100 mV. What time a sine wave can have to be accurately
is the value of shunt resistance for a full-scale reproduced by the instrument?
deflection corresponding to 100 A? (a) 35 ns (b) 17.5 ns
(a) 0.0001 Ω (b) 0.001 Ω (c) 0.175 µs (d) 35 µs
(c) 0.01 Ω (d) 0.1 Ω 56. What is the key factor that must be considered
51. The power in a three-phase circuit is measured while selecting a transducer for a particular
with the help of 2 wattmeters. The reading of one application?
of the wattmeters is positive and that of the other (a) Only the input characteristics should be
is negative. The magnitudes of readings arc considered
different. What is the value of the power factor
(b) Only the output characteristics should be
of the circuit under this condition?
considered
(a) 0.5 (lagging)
(c) Only the transfer characteristics should be
(b) Zero (lagging)
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considered
(c) Less than 0.5 (lagging) (d) Input, output and transfer characteristics
(d) Unity should be considered
52. What is the range of frequency measured by the 57. If a transducer has an output impedance of 1 Ω
typical frequency meter? and a load resistance of 1 kΩ, it behaves as
(a) 1 MHz (b) 10 MHz (a) a constant current source
(c) 1 kHz (d) 1 GHz (b) a constant voltage source
1 (c) a constant power source
53. A 3 digit DVM has an accuracy specification
2 (d) a constant energy source
of ± 0.5 percent of reading ± 1 digit. What is the 58. If a 50 Hz, 220/400 V, 50 kVA, single-phase
possible error in volt, when the instrument is transformer operates on 220 V, 40 Hz supply
reading 5.00 V on the 10 V range? with secondary winding, then what about the
(a) 0.015 V (b) 0.025 V core losses of the transformer?
(c) 0.035 V (d) 0.045 V (a) The hysteresis losses and the eddy current
losses of the transformer increase
54. Which one of the following statements is correct
(b) The hysteresis losses and the eddy current
regarding potentiometric recorders?
losses of the transformer decrease
(a) A sensitivity of 4 VB/mm is attained with (c) The hysteresis losses remain same whereas
an error of less than ± 0.25% with a the eddy current losses decrease
bandwidth of 0.8 Hz. (d) The hysteresis losses increase whereas the
(b) A sensitivity of 10 VB/mm is attained with eddy current losses remain same
an error of less than ± 0-35% with a 59. An 1100/415 V, delta-star transformer feeds
bandwidth of 0.9 Hz. power to a 30 kW, 415 V, three-phase induction
motor having an efficiency of 90% and full-load
(c) A sensitivity of 5 VB/mm is attained with
p.f. 0.833. What are the rating of the transformer
an error of less than ± 0.25% with a and line current of low-voltage side
bandwidth of 1 Hz. respectively?
(d) A sensitivity of 8 VB/mm is attained with (a) 35 kVA, 55.65 A
an error of less than ± 0.45% with a (b) 40 kVA, 55.65 A
bandwidth of 0.8 Hz. (c) 40 kVA, 45.65 A
(d) 45 kVA, 55.65 A
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60. The kVA rating of an ordinary two-winding (c) Very high input resistance and the input
transformer increases when connected as an currents are of the order of kA
autotransformer because (d) Very low input resistance and the input
(a) transformation ratio increases currents are of the order of nA
(b) secondary current increases
66. In a gate turnoff thyristor, the turning-off is
(c) energy is transferred both inductively and achieved by
conductively (a) latching current at gate
(d) secondary voltage increases
(b) holding current at gate
61. In a Wien bridge oscillator, if the value of R is
(c) positive current at gate
10 kΩ and the frequency of oscillation is 10 kHz,
(d) negative current at gate
what is the value of capacitor C?
(a) 0.159 pF (b) 15.9 pF 67. The function of a capacitive filter in a Graetz
diode bridge rectifier is to
(c) 159 pF (d) 1.59 pF
(a) remove small load current ripples from the
rectified output signal
62. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) minimize voltage variations in AC input
frequency stability oscillator:
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signal
1. Due to change in temperature, the values of
(c) reduce harmonics in the rectified output
the frequency-determining components, signal
viz., resistor, inductor and capacitor are
(d) introduce more ripples into the rectified
changed. output signal
2. Frequency can affect due to variation in
68. The use of an inductive filter in a rectifier circuit
biasing conditions and loading conditions.
provides satisfactory performance only when
3. The effective resistance of the tank circuit
(a) the load current is high
is unchanged when the load is connected.
(b) the load voltage is high
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) the load current is low
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) the load voltage is low
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
69. If a separately excited DC motor is to be
63. A power diode can be used as a switch because
operated in the first quadrant only, the converter
its resistance can be controlled with
is used in
(a) applied current (b) small current (a) single-phase half-controlled rectifier
(c) higher current (d) applied voltage (b) single-phase full-controlled rectifier
64. The reverse current reduces and the voltage (c) single-phase dual-controlled rectifier
across the power diode grows more negative (d) four-quadrant chopper
during the turnoff process of the power diode. 70. The static Scherbius drive can able to provide
This time is called (a) variable torque control
(b) constant torque control
(a) fall time
(c) braking operation
(b) recovery time (d) variable speed
(c) reverse recovery time 71. Which one of the following statements is correct
(d) rise time regarding series resonant inverter?
65. What are the significant advantages of MOS (a) The load current is a square waveform.
power transistor over bipolar power transistor in (b) The output voltage waveform depends on
the pulse power supplies? the damping factor of load impedance.
(c) The trigger frequency is higher than the
(a) Very high input resistance and the input
damped resonant frequency.
currents are of the order of nA
(d) The input voltage waveform depends on
(b) Very low input resistance and the input the damping factor of load impedance.
currents are of the order of kA
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72. If a single-phase full-bridge voltage source 2+i
inverter operates with R load, the nature of
76. What is the value of 0 ( z )2 dz, along the line
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
AC voltage controllers, then 16 15
(a) only fundamental component of output 18 24
voltage and current is useful in the 20 42
induction motor but fundamental and 22 75
harmonics are useful in the heater 24 90
(b) fundamental and harmonics are useful in 26 79
the induction motor but only fundamental 26 79
component of output voltage and current is 28 55
useful in the heater 30 36
32 26
(c) both fundamental and harmonics are useful
34 19
in the induction motor and heater
36 13
(d) only harmonics are useful in the induction 38 9
motor and heater 40 7
75. Consider the following statements regarding What is the average weekly earning?
IGBT : (a) 26 16 (b) 28 61
(c) 24 87 (d) 20 74
1. It combines into it the advantages of both
78. The numbers examined, the mean weight and the
MOSFET and BJT.
standard deviation in each group of examination
2. It is free from second breakdown problem by three medical examiners are given below.
present in BJT. What is the standard deviation of the entire data
3. It has low input impedance and high power when grouped together?
loss. Med. Nos. Mean SD (1b)
Exam examined wt. (1b)
Which of the above statements is/are correct? A 50 113 6
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only B 60 120 7
C 90 115 8
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 8183 1b (b) 7746 1b
(c) 7152 1b (d) 6981 1b
PAGE : 9
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d 4x 84. A random variable X takes values 0, 1, 2, 3,
79. The solution for + 4 x = 0 is ……. with probability proportional to
dt 4
x
(a) x = e–t(c1 cos 2t + c2 sin 2t) + et(c3 cos 2t + 1
( x + 1) Then p[X 2] is
c4 sin 2t) 5
(b) x = e–t(c1 cos 4t + c2 sin 4t) + et(c3 cos 4t +
c4 sin 4t) 1 503
(a) (b)
(c) x = e–t(c1 cos t + c2 sin t) + et(c3 cos t + c4 225 911
sin t) 603 608
(c) (d)
(d) x = e–2t(c1 cos t + c2 sin t) + e4t(c3 cos t + c4 625 625
sin t) 85. A die is thrown as long as necessary for a 6 to
80. What is the deflection u(x, y, t] of the square tum up. Given that 6 does not turn up at the first
membrane with a = b and c = 1, if the initial throw. What is the probability that more than
velocity is zero and the initial deflection is four throws arc necessary?
f(x, y) = A sinx sin2y ?
125 121
(a) A sinx sin2y (a) (b)
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
216 323
(b) A sinx sin2y sin (√3 t)
271 9
(c) A sinx sin2y tan (√6 t) (c) (d)
341 19
(d) A sinx sin2y cos (√5 t) 86. If A and B are independent events and P[A] =
81. 3 3
If u = x log xy, where x + y + 3xy = 1, what is P[B|X] = then P[A B] is
du/dx ?
2 3
(a) du/dx = log xy – x(x2 + y)/y(y2 + x) (a) (b)
5 7
(b) du/dx = 05 + log xy – x(x2 + 2y)/y(y2 + x)
5 3
(c) du/dx = 2 + log xy – x(x2 + y)/y(y2 + 2x) (c) (d)
9 4
(d) du/dx = 1 + log xy – x(x2 + y)/y(y2 + x)
87. The solution of the initial value problem
82. What is the particular integral of
d2y dy
3
(D + 1)y = cos(2x – 1) ? 2
+ – 6 y = 0; y (0) = 6, y '(0) = 2
dx dx
1
(a) cos(2 x – 1) – 5sin(2 x – 1) (a) 2ex + 3e7x
25
(b) ex – e7x
1
(b) cos(2 x – 1) – 6cos(2 x – 1) (c) 4e2x + 2e–3x
55
1 (d) ex(sin x + cos x)
(c) cos(2 x – 1) – 8sin(2 x – 1) 88. How is J-K flip-flop created from S-R latch?
65
1 (a) By adding more inputs
(d) sin(2 x – 1) – 4sin(2 x – 1)
75 (b) By replacing the S and R inputs with
83. Let X be a Poisson variate such that NAND gates
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90. How many comparators and resistors are used in (b) Heavily doped semiconductor is referred to
n-bit flash A-to-D converter respectively? as extrinsic and when it is doped to such
high levels that it acts more like a
(a) 2n and 2n – 1 (b) 2n and 2n + 1
conductor than a semiconductor, it is
(c) 2n + 1 and 2n (d) 2n – 1 and 2n referred to as degenerate.
91. What arc the important characteristics that must (c) Moderately doped semiconductor is
be satisfied for the materials used to build referred to as extrinsic and when it is doped
permanent magnets? to such low levels that it acts more like a
conductor than a semiconductor, it is
(a) Low permeability, high coercive force and
referred to as degenerate.
high Curie temperature
(d) Lightly doped semiconductor is referred to
(b) Low permeability, high coercive force and as extrinsic and when it is doped to such
low Curie temperature low levels that it acts more like a conductor
(c) High permeability, high coercive force and than a semiconductor, it is referred to as
high Curie temperature degenerate.
95. What is an optoisolator?
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
(d) High permeability, low coercive force and
low Curie temperature (a) LED is paired with a photodiode or
92. What are the important characteristics that must phototransistor in the same package and it
be satisfied for the materials used to build core allows DC coupling
of the transformer? (b) LED is paired with a silicon diode in the
same package and it allows AC coupling
(a) High permeability, low hysteresis and high (c) LED is paired with a photodiode or
eddy current losses phototransistor in the same package and it
(b) High permeability, low hysteresis and eddy does not allow DC coupling
current losses (d) LED is paired with a photodiode or
(c) High permeability, high hysteresis and phototransistor in the same package and it
eddy current losses does not allow AC coupling
96. Which one of the following is correct related to
(d) Low permeability, low coercive force and
Type-1 superconductors along with the critical
low Curie temperature
transition temperature (Tc)?
93. What are the nominal values of drop in potential (a) Lead (Pb) of 415 K, Mercury (Hg) of
across conducting silicon diodes, Schottky
7196 K and Aluminium (Al) of 1175 K
diodes and light-emitting diodes respectively?
(b) Lead (Pb) of 7196 K, Mercury (Hg) of
(a) 06 to 07 volt, 02 V and 14 V 415 K and Aluminium (Al) of 1175 K
(b) 06 to 07 volt, 12 V and 02 V (c) Lead (Pb) of 1175 K, Mercury (Hg) of
415 K and Aluminium (Al) of 7196 K
(c) 06 to 07 volt, 22 V and 14 V
(d) Lead (Pb) of 7196 K, Mercury (Hg) of
(d) 06 to 07 volt, 02 V and 54 V
1175 K and Aluminium (Al) of 415 K
94. Which one of the following statements is correct 97. Organic superconductors are composed of
related to extrinsic and degenerate (a) both an electron donor (the planar organic
semiconductors? molecule) and an electron acceptor (a non-
(a) Lightly and moderately doped organic anion)
semiconductor is referred to as extrinsic (b) an electron donor (the planar organic
and when it is doped to such high levels that molecule) only
it acts more like a conductor than a (c) an electron acceptor (a non-organic anion)
semiconductor, it is referred to as only
degenerate.
PAGE : 11
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(d) both an electron donor (a non-organic 103. What are the initial and final values of y(t)
anion) and an electron acceptor (the planar respectively, if its Laplace transform is
organic molecule) 10(2s + 3)
Y ( s) =
n s( s 2 + 2s + 5)
98. If the input signal is x(n) = sin c c ,
(a) 4 and 1 (b) 1 and 6
then what is the energy of the signal? (Assume (c) 3 and 5 (d) 0 and 6
(c < )
t+4
c 104. If the function x(t ) = 10sin c , then what
(a) (b) 7
c
is the total area under the function?
c 2
(c) (d) (a) 28 (b) 40
2 c
40
99. Let X(ej) be the Fourier transform of the signal (c) 70 (d)
7
x(n) = –1,0,1, 2,1,0,1, 2,0, −1 , Where –3 n
105. If x(t) = (3t) + u(3t), then what are the Laplace
transform and the associated ROC for the
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
7. what is the value of the following?
2 function of time respectively?
dX (e j )
– d
d
(a)
1 s2 + 1
, R( s) 3
3 s
(a) 28 (b) 256
(c) 316 (d) 356 1 3
(b) s + , R( s) 3
100. What is the inverse Fourier transform of the 3 s
following? s2 + 3
(c) , R( s ) 0
2 j, 0 3s
x (e j ) =
–2 j , – 0 (d)
s+3
, R( s) 0
3s
(a) 1 + cos n
2 106. What is the percentage resolution of a 4-bit
R-2R ladder DAC, which has a reference voltage
2 n
(b) + sin of 4.5 V?
n 2
(a) 6.25% (b) 6.67%
4 n
(c) + sin (c) 7.25% (d) 7.67%
n 4
107. Consider the following statements regarding
4 n
(d) + sin 2 successive approximation ADC :
n 2
1. The output data can be taken out of the
101. If x(n) = (n – 1) + (n + 1), what is the DTFT converter either in series or in parallel.
value for the given signal? 2. The circuit is less complex compared to
(a) sin () (b) cos () ramp ADC.
(c) 2 sin () (d) 2 cos () 3. As the conversion time is not dependent on
the analog input, so it is comparatively
102. If x(n) = cos(0n) u(n), then what is the DTFT of
faster.
the signal?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) π[( – 0) + ( + 0)]
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(b) π[( – 0) – ( + 0)] (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
(c) π + π2[( – 0) + ( + 0)]
(d) π2 + π[( – 0) + ( + 0)]
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108. What are the key properties of an op-amp which 112. Consider the following statements regarding
plays an important role in designing op-amp digital communication:
operated active filters? 1. Digital signals can be coded to yield
(a) High output impedance, low input extremely low error rates and low fidelity.
impedance and the possibility of having 2. Digital signals are easier to encrypt for
signal amplification to the desired level security and privacy.
3. Digital signal storage is expensive.
(b) High input impedance, low output
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
impedance and the possibility of having
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
signal amplification to the desired level
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
(c) High output impedance, low input
impedance and the possibility of having 113. Consider the following statements regarding
signal amplification to the higher level only
Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM):
(d) High input impedance, low output 1. TDM is readily implemented with high-
impedance and the possibility of having density VLSI circuitry.
signal amplification to the lower level only 2. TDM synchronization is less demanding
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
109. Which one of the following stores all data than that of suppressed carrier FDM.
written to and read from memory? 3. TDM crosstalk immunity does not depend
(a) Instruction register on the transmission bandwidth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) Memory buffer register
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Memory address register (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
(d) Status register 114. What is net baseband bandwidth in Frequency-
110. What does ‘STA address’ stand for in 8085 Division Multiplexing?
microprocessor? (a) It is the sum of the modulated message
(a) Copy the data byte at the memory location bandwidths and the guard bands
specified by the 16-bit address into the (b) It is the product of the modulated message
accumulator bandwidths and the guard bands
(b) Copy the data from the source to the
(c) It is the value obtained by subtracting
destination location specified by the 16-bit
modulated message bandwidths from the
address
guard bands
(c) Copy the data from the destination to the
source location specified by the 16-bit (d) It is the product of the modulating message
address bandwidths and the modulated message
(d) Copy the data from the accumulator to the 115. During serial transmission, a group of 512
memory location specified by the 16-bit sequential 12-bit data words is transmitted in
address 0.016 s. What is the speed of transmission?
111. An AM commercial broadcast receiver is (a) 384 kbps (b) 384 bps
operating in a frequency band of (c) 6.84 kbps (d) 6.84 bps
535 kHz to 1605 kHz with an input filter factor 116. What is the property of an isotropic material that
of 54. What are the bandwidths at the low and must be satisfied?
high ends of RF spectrum respectively? (a) It has the same electric properties for the
(a) 100 kHz and 29.63 kHz various directions of appliance of the
(b) 10 kHz and 2.96 kHz electric field
(c) 10 kHz and 29.63 kHz
(b) It has the different electric properties for
(d) 100 kHz and 2.96 kHz
the various directions of appliance of the
electric field
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(c) It has the different electric properties for 122. What is the value of magnetic field on the axis
the same direction of appliance of the that is perpendicular to the plane containing a
electric field circular loop of current shown in the figure using
(d) It has the same electric properties for the the Biot-Savart law?
opposite directions of appliance of the
electric field
117. What is the order of resistivity of conductive
material?
(a) 10–6 Ω-m to 10–8 Ω-m
(b) 106 Ω-m to 108 Ω-m
(c) 10–10 Ω-m to 108 Ω-m
(d) 10–9 Ω-m to 1012 Ω-m
118. What are the properties of good insulating
material? m m
(a) B( z ) = 0 3 (b) B ( z ) = 0 2
(a) Low dielectric strength, volume resistivity 2R 2R
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
of high value and very low dissipation m m
(c) B( z ) = 0 4 (d) B ( z ) = 0
factor 2 R 2R
(b) Low dielectric strength, volume resistivity 123. What is the transfer function, G(s) = C(s)/R(s),
of low value and very low dissipation factor corresponding the following differential
(c) Low dielectric strength, volume resistivity equation?
of low value and high dissipation factor d 3c d 2c dc d 2r dr
+ 4 + 6 + 3c = + 6 + 4r
(d) High dielectric strength, volume resistivity dt 3 dt 2 dt dt 2 dt
of high value and very low dissipation s 2 + 6s + 4
factor (a) G( s) =
s 3 + 4s 2 + 6s + 3
119. What is the value of the Curie temperature of
s 2 + 5s + 4
iron? (b) G( s) =
s 3 + 4s 2 + 6s + 3
(a) About 1043 K (b) About 1555 K
(c) About 1422 K (d) About 1322 K s 2 + 6s + 4
(c) G( s) =
s3 + 5s 2 + 6s + 3
120. Which one of the following is the correct s 2 + 6s + 4
relationship among the Curie temperatures of Fe, (d) G( s) =
s 3 + 4s 2+ 5s + 3
Ni and Co?
(a) (D/d) (Ni) Curie < (D/d) (Fe) Curie < (D/d)
124. What are the steady-state errors for the inputs of
(Co) Curie
3u(t), 3tu(t) and 3t2u(t) respectively to the
(b) (D/d) (Ni) Curie < (D/d) (Co) Curie < (D/d)
system shown in the figure, where the function
(Fe) Curie
u(t) is the unit step?
(c) (D/d) (Co) Curie < (D/d) (Ni) Curie < (D/d)
(Fe) Curie
(d) (D/d) (Fe) Curie < (D/d) (Ni) Curie < (D/d)
(Co) Curie
121. Two perfectly coupled coils each of 1 H self-
inductance are connected in parallel so as to aid (a)
3
, and (b)
1
, and
1
each other. What is the value of overall 21 6 6
inductance? 1 1 3
(a) 0 H (b) 0.5 H (c) , and (d) , and
6 6 21
(c) 1 H (d) 2 H
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125. What arc the steady-state errors for the inputs of 128. What is/are the value (s) of K for which the
4u(t), 4tu(t) and 4t2u(t) respectively to the system is stable for the characteristics equation
system shown in the figure, where the function s2 – (K + 2)s + (2K + 1) = 0?
u(t) is the unit step? (a) –(K + 2) > 0 and (2K + 5) > 0
(b) K = –2 and K = –2.5
(c) K < –2 or K < –2.5
(d) –(K + 2) < 0 and (2K + 5) > 0
1 129. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) 0, ∞ and ∞ (b) 0, and
25 transfer function obtained from the Nyquist
1 1 diagram shown in the figure?
(c) , and (d) , and 0
25 25
126. The transfer function of the given circuit shown
in the figure by using Laplace transform is
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
(a) G(s) = 1/s (b) G(s) = K
(c) G(s) = 1/s2 (d) G(s) = s
1 130. Which one of the following statements is correct
regarding root locus technique?
(a) T (s) = LC
R 1 (a) It can be used to analyze and design the
s + s+
2
effect of loop gain upon the system’s
L LC
transient response and stability.
1
(b) It cannot be used to analyze and design the
(b) T ( s ) = LC effect of loop gain upon the system’s
1
s 2 + Rs + transient response and stability.
LC
(c) It can be used to analyze and design the
1 effect of loop gain upon the system’s
LC transient response only.
(c) T (s) =
R 1 (d) It can be used to analyze and design the
s2 + s +
L L effect of loop gain upon the system’s
stability only.
1
131. The transfer function of a single, passive lag-
(d) T ( s ) = LC
1 1 lead network is
s2 + s +
L LC 1 1 1
(a) GC (s) = s + s + s + s +
127. What is the status of the closed-loop transfer T1 T1 T2 T2
function,
1 1
T (s) = 5
10 (b) GC (s) = s + s + s + s +
s + 2s + 4s3 + 6s 2 + 2s + 5
4 T1 T1 T2 T2
using Routh-Hurwitz criterion? 1 1 1
(a) Unstable (c) GC (s) = s + s + s + s +
T1 T1 T2 T2
(b) Marginally stable
1 1
(c) Stable (d) GC (s) = s + s + s + s +
(d) Neither stable nor unstable T1 T1 T2 T2
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132. Which one of the following statements is correct 136. Consider a random variable X with a uniform
regarding state variable approach over transfer 1 1
function approach? p.d.f. on − , . Assume that the random
2 2
(a) The state variable can be fed back, it
variable Y = X2, i.e., g(r) = r2. What is the value
considers the initial conditions and state
of E(Y)?
model of a system is unique.
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/12
(b) The state variable can be fed back, it
(c) 1/16 (d) 1/256
considers the initial conditions and state
model of a system is not unique. 137. What is the relationship between H(1) and H(2)
(c) The state variable cannot be fed back, it from, the N-point DFT of
n
considers the initial conditions and state −
h( n) = e 5 , 0 n N ? (Take N = 3)
model of a system is unique.
(d) The state variable can be fed back, it (a) H(1) = H(2) (b) H(1) = H*(2)
neglects the initial conditions and state (c) H(2) = 2H(1) (d) H(2) = H(1) = 0
model of a system is not unique. 138. What is the autocorrelation of the energy signal
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
133. What is the controllability of the state equation x(t) = e–t u(t)?
for the given system? 1
(a) for −
−1 1 0 0 2
x = Ax + Bu = 0 −1 0 x + 1 u 3 t −
(b) e for −
0 0 −2 1 2
1 −2
(a) The system is controllable (c) e for −
2
(b) The system is not controllable
1 −||
(c) It is not possible to find the controllability (d) e for −
2
(d) It is neither controllable nor stable
139. The response of an LTI system to
134. If the initial-state vector, x(t0), can be found from u(t) is g(t) = (2e–t – e–5t) u(t)
u(t) and y(t) measured over a finite interval of
What is the response, when x(t) = 1?
time from t0, then the system is
(a) 0 (b) 2
(a) unobservable
(c) 5 (d) 7
(b) observable
140. What is the value of x(t) for t > 0 from the given
(c) not possible to find the observability
Laplace transform?
(d) neither unobservable nor observable
s 2 + 3s + 3
135. The open-loop transfer function of a unity X ( s) =
( s + 1)( s − 2)( s + 5)
20
feedback system is G ( s) = . What is the 1 2 −3t
0.21s + 1 (a) + e
time response subjected to a step input X(s) = 5 3
0.8/s? (b) −
1 −t 13 2t
e + e
(a) 0.76(l – e–t/100) 12 21
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141. What is the value of VAB in the network shown in 144. What is the maximum power that can be
the figure? delivered to the variable resistor R in the circuit?
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
145. Consider the following statements regarding the
between terminals A and B as shown in the initial conditions for inductor and capacitor :
figure. What is the total resistance between 1. If there is no current flowing through the
inductor at t = 0–, the inductor will act as an
terminals A and B? open circuit at t = 0+.
2. If there is no voltage across the capacitor at
t = 0–, the capacitor will act as an open
circuit at t = 0+.
3. If a current of value I0 flows through the
inductor at t = 0–, the inductor can be
regarded as a current source of I0 ampere at
t = 0+ .
(a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω Which of the above characteristics is/are not
correct?
(c) 15 Ω (d) 20 Ω
(a) 1 only
143. The Thevenin equivalent circuit voltage and (b) 2 only
resistance for the given circuit between (c) 1 and 3 only
terminals a and b are respectively (d) 1, 2 and 3
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147. The value of the power consumed by the 149. What is value of equivalent inductance of the
balanced star-connected load in terms of the network shown in the figure?
balanced delta-connected load is
P
(a) PY = (b) PY = 3 P
3
P
(c) PY = (d) PY = 3 P (a) 19 H (b) 21 H
3
(c) 23 H (d) 25 H
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
3 50
(b) 0.1 2
2 40
(c) 0.1 3
2 50
(d) 0.1 3 (a) 50 mV (b) 100 mV
(c) 200 mV (d) 250 mV
PAGE : 18
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ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 16 (a) 31 (c) 46 (b) 61 (*) 76 (*) 91 (c) 106. (a) 121. (*) 136. (c)
2 (a) 17 (c) 32 (c) 47 (a) 62 (b) 77 (*) 92 (b) 107. (d) 122. (a) 137. (*)
3 (b) 18 (b) 33 (a) 48 (c) 63 (d) 78 (*) 93 (a) 108. (b) 123. (a) 138. (d)
4 (c) 19 (c) 34 (b) 49 (c) 64 (c) 79 (*) 94 (b) 109. (b) 124. (a) 139. (a)
5 (d) 20 (c) 33 (b) 50 (b) 65 (a) 80 (*) 95 (a) 110. (d) 125. (b) 140. (d)
6 (a) 21 (b) 36 (b) 51 (c) 66 (d) 81 (*) 96 (b) 111. (c) 126. (a) 141. (b)
7 (c) 22 (a) 37 (b) 52 (c) 66 (c) 82 (*) 97 (a) 112. (a) 127. (b) 142. (b)
8 (a) 23 (c) 38 (c) 53 (c) 68 (c) 83 (*) 98 (b) 113. (c) 128. (a) 143. (c)
9 (a) 24 (a) 39 (d) 54 (a) 69 (a) 84 (*) 99 (c) 114. (a) 129. (a) 144. (d)
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
10 (b) 25 (c) 40 (d) 55 (a) 70 (d) 85 (a) 100 (*) 115. (a) 130. (a) 145. (c)
11 (a) 26 (b) 41 (b) 56 (d) 71 (c) 86 (d) 101. (d) 116. (a) 131. (*) 146. (c)
12 (a) 27 (a) 42 (d) 57 (b) 72 (a) 87 (*) 102. (a) 117. (a) 132. (b) 147. (c)
13 (c) 28 (b) 43 (b) 58 (d) 73 (c) 88 (b) 103. (d) 118. (d) 133. (a) 148. (d)
14 (a) 29 (a) 44 (a) 59 (b) 74 (a) 89 (d) 104. (c) 119. (a) 134. (b) 149. (b)
15 (c) 30 (d) 45 (b) 60 (c) 75 (c) 90 (d) 105. (d) 120. (a) 135. (b) 150. (b)
PAGE : 19
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SOLUTIONS
1. (a) 11. (a)
Dobule dta rate V
g mx =
f = 400 mtz → T = 1/f = 0.01µs r ln R / r
Data bus = 64 bit V
g mx =
Double → Luice r
0.01 s → 128 bits 80
0.01 µs → 16 byts r= = 1.333
60
16 d = 2.66
1 sec →
0.0110−6 R
ln = 1
16 r
= 106 = 1600 MB/s
0.01 R
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
=C
0.01µs → It sends 64 r
i.e., 2 × 64 = 1 R = 1.33 e
2. (a) d = 2.66 e
RPM = 6000 12. (a)
60 ec → 6000 13. (c)
14. (a)
1 sec → 100 rotations1 rotation
2000 3 106
1 Breaking current = = 100 kA
= sec = 0.01sec 3 20 103
100
Making urrent = 2.55 × 100 = 255 kA
= 10 m sec
15. (c)
10ms 16. (a)
For half head =
2
Lap will have number of parallel path = Number
= 5 msec of poles is suitable for high current and low
0.005 sec voltage.
3. (b) 17. (c)
Capacity of disk = 2 MB. Interdoles windinges are connected in series with
Capcity of each page = 2 KB. armature w/d
2MB 2 2 18. (b)
Number of pages = = = 2 = 1024
2 KB 2 2 I I a2 N 2
4. (c)
Ia N
Lagging
N2
5. (d) I a2 = 50 Let = 50 x
N1
Zero capcity
6. (a) N 2 V − I a2 ( Ra + Rse + Rent ) I a1
7. (c) N1 V − I a1 ( Ra + Rse ) I a2
8. (a)
9. (a) 250 − 50 x 5 1
x=
10. (b) 250 − 50 0.6 x
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x = 0.63978, −1.77 30. (d)
N2 31. (c)
= x = 0.639789 kW − sec N − sec
N1 H = 10 = 10
kVA MVA
N2 = 639.78 640 r.p.m. K.E = GH = 30 × 10 = 300 M – sec = 300 mT
19. (c) 32. (c)
Ns = 1800 rpm as 60 Hz and no load 33. (a)
34. (b)
Nr = 1650 rpm speed
35. (b)
• Speed of rotor flux w.r.t rotor fold = Ns – Nr 735.J
= 150 rpm P= 1370 324 kW
75
• Speed of roto flux w.r.t stator flux = Ns – Ns P = 4352 MW
= 0 r.p.m. 36. (b)
20. (c) • Diode requires small positive voltage to enter
into conductivity region and that voltage is
Pd = (1 − 8) Pg = (1 – 0.1) × 100 k.W = 90 k.W.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
cut-in-voltage.
21. (b) • In R.B. mode, reverse saturation current
Voltage requlation flows from n to p.
VnL − V fL 2400 − 3000 • Breakdown occurs in R.B. mode for large
= = = −20% breakdown voltage.
Vrated 3000
37. (b)
22. (a) Intrinsic conductivity, i = qni [n + p]
Change in encitation only effects reaction power i = 1.6 × 10 × 1.5 × 10 × 1800
–19 10
and power factor since the alternator encitation is i = 4.32 × 10–6 S/cm
increase. So its reactive power supplied woudl 38. (c)
increase. Increases and for power factor initial With increase in R.B. voltage depletion region
operation must be known. width,
23. (c)
2 1 1
Synchronous motor is under encited operates at W= + (Vo + VR ) increase
q N A ND
lagging power factor and in overenuted mode it
will operates at leading power factor A
and Cj = , as W with VR therefore,
W
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Cj decreases with increase in R.B. Voltage.
24. (a)
39. (d)
P.M stepper motor → 300 pulses per sec 40. (d)
Variable reluctance motor → 1200 pulses per Initially at T = 300 K
sec. N N
EC – EF = 0.3 eV = KT ln C = K × 300 ln C
25. (c) ND ND
For ideal transform care permeability is infinite. Now, at T = 360 K
26. (b) (EC – EF)360 =
1, 2 are not correct N 360 N
K 360 ln C = K 300 ln C
27. (a) N D 300 ND
CISC is more feasble 360
= 0.3 eV = 0.36 eV
28. (b) 360
Pippelining
29. (a) 41. (b)
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42. (d)
In active region of operation: Base emitter
junction is F.B. while Collector Base junction in
R.B.
43. (b)
44. (a)
45. (b)
46. (b)
I = 2mA
current = 10.03, 10.11 ; 10.08
Vm = 1 volt
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
0.04 A close st.
V
47. (a) Rse = Rm – 1
Vm
= 500100 –1
= 500 × 99
50 kΩ
49. (c)
E1 R It indicates the higher value of m/m for
=
E2 5 descending values.
R = 0.412408 Ω 50. (b)
E1
I= = 10.235A
R
48. (c)
l × b = 40 × 30 × 10–6 m2
N = 100
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51. (c) u
But Bm
W1 ; W2 f
When = 90º → cos = 0º V 1.6
i.e., Ph & Pe V 2
W1 = VL IL cos(30 – ) VL IL/2 f 0.6
W2 = VL IL cos(30 + ) –VL IL/2 i.e., hysteresis loss increases with decreases in
But here magnetise are same frequency while eddy current loss remain same.
When = 60º → cos = 0.5 59. (b)
3 Pinput = 3 VL I L cos = Pout /
W1 = VL IL
2 Pout /
IL =
W2 = 0 3 VL cos
one meter zero 30 / 0.9
IL = = 55.67A
So Answer must be lens than 0.5 to zero. 3 415 0.833
52. (c) S = 3VL I L 40kVA.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Frequenagmetes Range 50 Hz – 1kHz 60. (c)
53. (c) Due to conductance power transfer K.V.A
10 capacity of also transformer is more than
r31/2110 = = 0.01 1
103 Sauto = S2−w/ d = Sauto
error in 1 digit = 0.01[1] = 0.01 aauto
Reading = 5V a V
Sauto = auto S2−w/ d aauto = H
0.5 aauto − 1 VL
error = 0.5% Reading = 5 = 0.025
100 61. (*)
1
Total error = [0.025 + 0.01] = 0.035 f =
2RC
54. (a)
1
For a PoT based Recorders C= = 1.592nF
2fR
S = 4 mv/mm
62. (b)
error = less than 0.25% 63. (a)
B.W = 0.8 Hz 64. (c)
55. (a) 65. (a)
Bandwidth = 0.35/tr Due to SiO2 its input resistance is high.
0.35 0.35 66. (d)
tr = = = 0.035 sec
BW 10nHz 67. (c)
68. (c)
= 35n sec
Load must be low so inductor is not saturated.
56. (d)
69. (a)
57. (b)
70. (d)
If RL ≫ R0 Then it is voltage source 71. (c)
58. (d) 72. (a)
u
constant i.e., Bm constant
f
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73. (c) 1 1 1
P[A B] = P[A] × P[B/A] = =
74. (a) 2 2 4
75. (c) 1 1 1 3
P[A B] = + − =
Its input impedance is high not low. 2 2 4 4
76. (*)
77. (*) 87. (*)
78. (*) 88. (b)
79. (*)
80. (*) For converting SR ff into JK FF we use
81. (*) transformation S = J Q & R = KQ and that is
82. (*) done through NAND gates.
83. (*) 89. (d)
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
90. (d)
E1 → Event that 6 does not apear in first throw. For n-bit flash type ADC we require :
E2 → Event that more than four throws are
necessary for first 6.
5 (2n – 1) comparators 2n Resistance
P[E1] =
6 using OPAMS
E P( E1 E2 ) 91. (c)
P 2 =
E1 P[ E1 ] The materials to be used to build permanent
P [E1 E2] = First 6 in 5th throw or first 6 in 6th magnet. Should have high permeability, high
throw or coercivity and should have high curie
4 5 6 temperature.
5 1 5 1 5 1
= + + + 92. (b)
6 6 6 6 6 6
Now, Soft ferromagnetic material is used as cure of
4 5 6 transofmer. It should has high permeability and
5 1 5 1 5 1
+ + +
E2 6 6 6 6 6 6 low hyseresis and eddy current loss.
P = 93. (a)
E1 5/6
Si diode 0.6 to 0.7 volt
5 1 5 5
3 2
= 1 + + + Schottky diode 0.2 V
6 6 6 6 LED 1.4V to 4V
3 3 94. (b)
5 1 1 5 125
= = =
6 6 1 − 5 6 216 If any impurity is added, it becomes extrinsic
6 semiconductor. When it is havily doped, it almost
acts like a conductor and referred to as
86. (d) degenerate.
95. (a)
B 1 B 1
P[A] = P = P = P[ B ] = Opto isolators contains LED and and photo diode
A 2 A 2
or photo transistors in one package and they are
P[A B] = P[A] + P[B] – P [A B]
for low DC-coupling.
PAGE : 24
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96. (b) ( −3) ( −1)2 + ( −2 0 )2 +
Material Critical Temperature ( −1 1)2 + ( 0 2 )2 + (1 1)2
Aluminimum 1.2 K ⇒ I = .2
+ ( 2 0 )2 + ( 3 1)2 + ( 4 2 )2
Inercury 4.15 K
+ ( 5 1)2 + ( 6 0 )2 + ( 7 −1)2
Lead 7.2 K
97. (a) 9 + 0 +1+ 0 +1+ 0
⇒ I = .2
+9 + 64 + 25 + 0 + 49
Organic superconductors are composed of
organic molecules which are electron donor and ⇒ I = 2 158 = 316
has non organic anion which is electron acceptor. ⇒ I = 316
100. (?)
98. (b)
Given
n X e j = 2 j 0
x n = sin c c
i
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
= −2 j i − 0
sin ( c n )
⇒ x n = 1
c n. ⇒ x n =
. X e j .e jn .d
2 −
sin ( c n )
⇒ x n = . 1
0
1
c n ⇒ x n = . ( −2 j ) .e jn .d + .
− 2
↕ DIFT
X e j
2 j.e
⇒ jn
.d
0
0
− j e j n j e j n
⇒ x n = . + .
jn − jn 0
− j 1 − e − jn j e + jn − 1
⇒ x n = . + .
⇒ jn jn
1 2
− j 1 − ( −1) j ( −1) − 1
n n
⇒ E x n = 2 2c
2 c ⇒ x n = +
jn jn
⇒ E x n = 1
x n = . ( −1) − 1 − 1 + ( −1)
n n
c ⇒
n
2
x n = . ( −1) − 1
n
99. (c) ⇒
n
x n = −1,0,1,2,1,0,1,2,,1,0, − 1
⇒ x n =
2
n
. cos n − 1
n =
1 d
n.x n =
2 2
⇒ . e j .d ⇒ x n = −
4
.sin 2 n
2 − d n
n =− 2
2
d e j n =
n.x ( n )
2
⇒ I= d = 2. 101. (d)
d
− n =−
x n = n − 01 + n + 1
n =
⇒ X e j = x n.e
n =−
− jn
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n =
sin ( at )
⇒ X e j = n − 1.e
n =−
− j n
+ ⇒ Let, y (t) = k. sin c (at) = k .
at
n = ⇒ y
n + 1.e
n =−
− j n
⇒ X e j = e − j + e j = 2cos
⇒ X e j = 2cos
102. (a) ⇒
x n = cos ( 0 n ).n ⇒ Area of
+
X e j =
2 ( − 0 ) + ( + 0 ) y (t ) = y (t ).dt = y
−
=0
= y 0
2
k
⇒ X e j = ( − 0 ) + ( + 0 ) ⇒ Area of K. sin c (at) =
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
a
10
⇒ Area of 10.sin c (t) = = 10
103. (d) 1
Given, ⇒ Time shifting operation does not change
10 ( 2s + 3) area of signal.
y s =
(
s s 2 + 2s + 5 ) ⇒ if x ( t ) ⎯⎯
→ Area = A
A
(1) Initial value: y (0): x ( at ) ⎯⎯
→ Area =
⇒ y ( 0 ) = lim y ( t ) = lim s. y s a
t →0 s →
t +4 1
1( 2s + 3) ⇒ So, Area of 10 sin c = 10 1 = 70
⇒ y ( 0 ) = lim s. 7
s →
(
s s 2 + 2s + 5 ) 7
3 105. (d)
2+
y ( 0 ) = lim
s x ( t ) = ( 3t ) + ( 3t )
⇒
s → 5
s+2+ 1
s We know that ( t ) = . ( t ) &
⇒ y ( 0) = 0
( t ) = ( t )
(2) Final value: y (∞)
1
⇒ y ( ) = lim y ( t ) = lim s. y s ⇒ x (t ) = (t ) + (t )
t → s → 3
10 ( 2s + 3) ↕ LT
⇒ y ( ) = lim s.
s →
(
s s 2 + 2s + 5 ) ⇒
1 1
X s = + ;
3 s
Roc : Re {s} > 0
10 3
⇒ y () = =6 s+3
5 ⇒ X s = ; R(s) 0
3s
⇒ y () = 6
106. (a)
104. (c) 4-bit R-2R ladder:
Given, V V
Resolution is = nr = r4
t +4 2 2
x ( t ) = 10sin c
7
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Vr /24 120( s + 2) 240
% resolution = 100% = 6.25% K p = lim = = 20
Vr s + 0 ( s + 3)( s + 4) 12
3 3
ess = =
107. (d) 1 + K p 21
• IN SAR type ADC conversion time is
for 3 + u(t)
independent of input voltage and is always
nTclk. as average conversion time is small so Kv = 0
they are comparatively faster. 3
ess = =
• Output is in shift register [ring counter] and Kv
can be taken either in series or in parallel.
for 3t2u(t)
108. (b)
109. (b) Ka = 0
110. (d) ess =
STA address → store the accumulator on address 125. (b)
given. s100( s + 2)( s + 6) 100 2 6
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
It stores the content of accumulator on memory Kv = lim = = 12
s + 0 s ( s + 3)( s + 4) 12
location whose address is given in instruction.
111. (c) 4 1
ess = =
112. (a) 100 25
113. (c) 126. (a)
114. (a) 127. (b)
115. (a) s5 1 4 2
116. (a) 4
s 2 6 5
Isotropic material shows same electric properties ]
8−6 4−5 1
for all the directions of applicance of electric s3 =1 =−
2 2 2
field.
s2
117. (a)
128. (a)
Resistivity of conductive materials ranges from
129. (a)
10–6 -m to 10–8 -m → Low resistivity and high
130. (a)
conductivity.
131. (*)
118. (d)
132. (b)
Properties of good insulating material are
133. (a)
1. High dielectric strength
134. (b)
2. High volume resistivity
135. (b)
3. Low dissipation factor
136. (c)
119. (a)
137. (None of the a, b, c, d)
120. (a) n
−
Material Curie Temperature h ( n ) = e 5 ; 0 n N (Take N = 3)
Iron 1043 K
Cobalt
Nickel
1393 K
631 K
⇒
h n = 1, e
−1
5 ,e
−2
5 ,e
−3
5
H 1 = 1 − j.e
−1 −2 −3
121. (*) ⇒ 5 −e 5 + j.e 5
122. (a)
H 2 = 1 − e
−1 −2 −3
123. (a) ⇒ 5 +e 5 −e 5
124. (a)
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138. (d) 4 + 6 + 3 13
⇒ B= =
x ( t ) = e−t .u ( t ) 3 7 21
ACF of x ( t ) = x ( ) = x ( t ) * x ( −t ) 25 − 15 + 3 13
⇒ C= =
⇒ F x ( ) = X . X −
( −4 ) ( −7 ) 28
1 13 13
1 1 −
= . ⇒ X x = 12 + 21 + 28
1 + j 1 − j
s +1 s − 2 s + 5
1
⇒ F x ( ) = ⇒
1 13 13
x ( t ) = − . e −t + .e 2t + .e −5t
+1
2
2 21 28
2
⇒ We know that e− t ⎯⎯
FT
→
+1
2
141. (b)
1 −t 1
⇒ . e ⎯⎯ FT
→ 2
2 +1
1 −t
⇒ x ( ) = . e for −
2
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
139. (a)
( )
x ( t ) = ( t ) → g ( t ) = 2e −t − e −5t ( t )
G s
⇒ TF = H s =
X s
20 10 200
2 1 2s + 10 − s − 1 vA = = = 6.66V
⇒ G s = − = 30 30
s + 1 s + 5 ( s + 1)( s + 5)
10 40 40
s+9 vB = = = 5.71
⇒ G s = 70 7
( s + 1)( s + 5)
vAB = vA − vB = 6.66 − 5.71 = (0.95 V)
1
⇒ X s =
s 142. (b)
s+9
⇒ TF = H s =
( s + 1)( s + 5) = s ( s + 9 )
1 ( s + 1)( s + 5)
s
⇒
⇒ given x ( t ) = 1 = e0.t = es0t s0 = 0
⇒ H s s =s = 0 y ( t ) = 0.x ( t )
0 =0
⇒ y (t ) = 0
140. (d)
s 2 + 3s + 3
X s =
( s + 1)( s − 2)( s + 5)
A B C It is a balanced bridge have CD will be open
⇒ X s = + +
s +1 s − 2 s + 5
1− 3 + 3 1
⇒ A= =−
( ) ( )
−3 4 12
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I.C.S → O.C
20 20 400
RAB = = = (10)
40 40
143. (c)
Rth = (20 || 5) + 16
20 5
= + 16
25
Rth = 20
144. (d)
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Vth calculation
To get MPTT in R →
Vth2
PR(max) =
4Rth
Calculation of Vth →
PAGE : 29
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147. (c)
star load is converted into delta load then the,
PΔ = 3 PY
P
PY = 3
148. (d)
20 10
z=
10 30
v1 = 20 I1 + 10 I2 ……(1)
v2 = 10 I1 + 30 I2 ……(2)
For ABCD parameter
Rth = (20 || 10) + (25 || 5)
v1 = AV2 – BI2 …..(3)
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
20 10 25 5
= + I1 = cu2 – DI2 …..(4)
30 30
From equation (2)
= 6.66 + 4.16
V2 30 I 2
= (10.826) Ω. I1 = − ……(5)
10 10
(30) 2 Now comparing this with equation (4)
PR (max) = = (20.78w)
4 10.826 1 30
= , D= =3
145. (c) 10 10
146. (c) From equation (1) & (5)
V
V1 = 20 × 2 − 3I 2 + 10 I 2
10
= 2V2 – 60 I2 + 10 I2
V1 = 2V2 – 50 I2 …….(6)
Comparing with equation (3)
A = 2, B = 50
2 50
1 1 [ABCD] =
V0 + = 490 = j 4 0.1 3
j 6 − j3
149. (b)
j j
V0 − + = j 4
6 3
−j+2j
V0 = j4
6
−j
V0 = j4
6
PAGE : 30
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150. (b) 210−3
1
Vc (t ) = (50t )dt
1 10−3 0
210−3
50 t2
=
1 10−3 2 0
50 1
= −3
[4 10−6 ]
1 10 2
200 10−6
Vc (t ) t = 2 m sec = −3
= (100 10−3 )
2 10
= (100 m volt)
dvc (t )
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
I(t) = c
dt
dt
Ic (t ) dt + vc (0
1 +
vc (t ) = )
c +
0
↓
OV
(Given)
PAGE : 31
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SOLDIERS
THANK
YOU