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Data Communications and Networking 2 All Source

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DATA Communications AND Networking 2 ALL Source

Research in Psychology (University of the Immaculate Conception)

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IT212 - Data Communications and Networking 2 (Cisco 2 new)

Assignment 001
1. This layer is considered as the network backbone. Core layer

2. Stackable that are arranged one on top of the other with cables linking the switches in a _____________ connection. Daisy
Chain
3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a Switched Network None of the choices

4. The primary function of this layer is to provide network access to the user. Access layer

5. Which of the following is NOT an element of converged network? None of the choices
Short Quiz 001
6. The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices. Collision domain
7. The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different numbers of
line card. Modular configuration

8. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? A switch populates the MAC address table based on destination
MAC addresses.
9. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? . When selecting the type of switch, rack units should always be
considered. Rack units is the number ports available in the network switch.

10. A switch forwarding method that begins the forwarding process after the destination MAC address of an incoming
frame and the egress port has been determined. Cut-through switch method
11. What are the 3 layers of the distribution access? Access, distribution and Core layer
12. This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access the rest of the
network. Distribution layer

13. A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has received the entire frame and
then checked the frame for errors. Store-and-forward switching
14. A collection of interconnected switches forms a _______________ Broadcast domain
15. Cut-through switching has two primary characteristics: rapid frame forwarding and invalid frame processing. True
Assignment 002
16. What is the command used to determine the status of both physical and virtual interfaces including IP address? show ip
interface brief
17. SSH protocol by default uses Port _____ 22
18. If an error occurs while loading the operating system because of missing or damaged system files, the load loader can be
access through a console connection. What button in the switch you need to press while reconnecting the power cord?
Mode
19. What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is green? The port is operating at 100 Mbps.
20. This is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch for configuration. Console cable
21. Laboratory Quiz 1
22. After typing show interface vlan 99 at the switch, What is the bandwidth on this interface? BW 1000000 kbit

After pinging 192.168.1.10. Using show mac address. How many MAC addresses are there in total? 1
What is the range of values shown for the vty lines? 0 - 15
During the initial configuration of the switch. What is the default name of VLAN 1? Default
After typing show interface vlan 99 at the switch, What is the line protocol state? Up After typing show mac address-
table ? , How many options are available for the show mac address-table command? 4
What type of VLAN is the default VLAN? enet
During the initial configuration of the switch. What is the duplex setting of the interface FastEthernet 0/6? Full-Duplex
How can you prevent passwords from being sent in plain text? Configure service passwordencryption
How many FastEthernet interfaces does a Cisco 2960 switch have? 24 Assignment 003
Which of the following describes a VLAN? VLANs are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections.
VLAN IDs 1002 through 1005 are reserved forAll of the Choices
What is the command to create a VLAN with a valid VLAN ID number 30? Vlan 30
The default VLAN for Cisco switches is ___________VLAN 1
VLAN IDs 1 to 1005 are automatically created. ID 1 cannot be removed while VLAN IDs
1002 to 1005 can still be removed. False
What is the command to assign the port to a particular VLAN when the interface is in access mode? switchport access
vlanvlan-id
A type of VLAN that is configured to carry user-generated traffic. Data VLAN
This is the practice of inserting a VLAN ID into a packet header in order to identify which
VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) the packet belongs to. VLAN tagging
The following are switch port modes that DTP offers EXCEPT Remote
This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with an appropriate 802.1Q-capable
NIC. Trunks Short Quiz 003
This is a point-to-point link between two network devices that carries more than one VLAN.

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Trunks
If the port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, what command to be command to change the
VLAN membership on a particular port? Switchport access vlan
This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches operates. Most switches perform only one
level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame. Double
Tagging Attack
When configuring a switch port on a Cisco switch, configure devices so that they send tagged frames on the native VLAN.
False
Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol? Dynamic Trunking Protocol is disable by default
In troubleshooting VLANs, what command should be used to check whether the port belongs to the expected VLAN?
show vlan
The extended range of VLAN ID is between 1006 and 4094
Which of the following is the command to specify a VLAN name? Name of VLAN is employee. name employee
Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called vlan.dat
The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT? Join native VLAN to VLAN.

Laboratory Quiz 2

From VTP-CLIENT1 do show vlan brief. What is the status of VLAN 10 STUDENTS? Active

From VTP-CLIENT3 do ping test to PC1 ip (10.168.10.10). Is it successful? Yes

From VTP-SERVER do ping test to PC1 ip (10.168.10.10). Is it successful? Yes

From VTP-CLIENT3 do ping test to VTP-SERVERVLAN 1 ip (10.168.10.1). Is it
Unsuccessful? No
From VTP-CLIENT2 do show vlan brief .What is the status of VLAN 1? Active
Assignment 004

The primary functions of a router are the following?

1 . Packet
2 switching
. Flow 3
control 4
. Domain name 5
resolution
. Path
selection
. Microsegmentation 1&
4

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What route would have the lowest administrative distance? A directly connected network Which command is used to
configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with
an automatically generated interface identifier? ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric?
(Choose two.)
4. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
5. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. 4 & 5
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory?
2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage.
3. The contents of flash may be overwritten 2 & 3
Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?Routers compare metrics to determine the best path.
To enable network access to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? 1.
default gateway 5. IP address 6. subnet mask 1, 5, 6

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of
the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on
the serial interface of
R1 to bring the interface up? no shutdown
Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? 2. Bandwidth 5.
Delay 2 & 5
Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? 2. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware
modules. 4. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot. . 2 & 4
Which of the following are 2 primary functions of a router? 2. Microsegmentation 4. Path selection 2 & 4
Laboratory Quiz 3
From R1 do the "show ipint brief" command. Select the status for FastEthernet0/1.
FastEthernet0/1 unassigned YES unset administratively down down
From R1 do the show ipinterface briefcommand. Select the status for Serial0/0/0 Serial0/0/0
192.168.2.1 YES manual up up
From R1 is there any default gateway configured? No
From R1 do the "show running-config" command. Select the statusthe correct configuration for FastEthernet0/0.
interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
duplex auto speed auto
From R1 do the show ip route command. Select the correct connection protocol used for FastEthernet0/0. C
192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

Long Quiz 001

This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access the rest of the network.
Distribution layer
Which of the following is an element of converged network? All of the choices
This is the arrangement of the cables, network devices, and end systems. It describes how the network devices are
actually interconnected with wires and cables. Physical topology Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a
network? All of the choices
Stackable that are arranged one on top of the other with cables linking the switches in a
_____________ connection. Daisy Chain
To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring, what command to be used to check
whether the local and peer native VLANs match? show interfaces trunk
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker floods the DHCP server with DHCP requests to use all the available IP
addresses that the DHCP server can issue. After these IP addresses are issued, the server cannot issue any more
addresses, and this situation produces a denial-of-service (DoS) attackas new clients cannot obtain network access.
DHCP starvation attack
This is a proprietary protocol that all Cisco devices can be configured to use. This checks other Cisco devices that are
directly connected, which allows the devices to auto-configure their connection. Cisco Discovery Protocol
In this attack, the attacker exploits a flaw in the Telnet server software running on the switch that renders the Telnet
service unavailable. This sort of attack prevents an administrator from remotely accessing switch management functions.

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This can be combined with other direct attacks on the network as part of a coordinated attempt to prevent the network
administrator from accessing core devices during the breach. Telnet DoS attack
Which of the following is the command to specify a VLAN name? Name of VLAN is employee. name employee
This is the practice of inserting a VLAN ID into a packet header in order to identify which
VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) the packet belongs to. VLAN tagging
This is a point-to-point link between two network devices that carries more than one VLAN Trunks
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to issue DHCP addresses to
clients. The normal reason for this attack is to force the clients to use false Domain Name System (DNS) or Windows
Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and to make the clients use the attacker, or a machine under the control of the
attacker, as their default gateway. DHCP spoofing attack
This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches operates. Most switches perform only one
level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame. Double
Tagging Attack
The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond those that originally came with the switch.
Fixed configuration
The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different numbers of line
card. Modular configuration
Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default gateway with IP address of 172.10.90.1? ip
default-gateway 172.10.90.1
Which of the following is the command to configure the IP domain name of the network
(mycompany.com) ip domain-name mycompany.com
The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices. Collision domain
Which of the following describes a VLAN? None of the choices
If the port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, what command to be command to change the
VLAN membership on a particular port? switchport access vlan
What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for specific Fast Ethernet
interface? ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0 This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone onnectivity.
Core layer
Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called vlan.dat
This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers. Trunks
What is the best practice relative to switch port modes? Do not use the dynamic auto or dynamic desirable.
The primary function of this layer is to provide network access to the user. Access layer
What is the command to create a VLAN with a valid VLAN ID number 30? vlan 30 This memory provides temporary
storage for various applications and processes, including the running IOS, the running configuration file, IP routing
table, Ethernet ARP table. RAM This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with
an appropriate 802.1Q-capable NIC. Trunks Assignment 005
Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q? Native VLAN
Which protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? 802.1q
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? 802.1q & ISL
Which are the 2 trunking protocols? ISL & IEEE 802.1q
"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router. True Short Quiz 005
Refer to the exhibit below. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct?

SwitchA(config)#interface fa0/0
SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2
1. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2. 5.A network host can be connected to this interface. 1 & 5
2. Refer to the exhibit. The user at Workstation B reports that Server A cannot be reached. What is preventing
Workstation B from reaching Server A?

The gateway for Server A is not on the same subnet. 3. A router has two
FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network. How can you accomplish this task,
using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance? Implement a router-on-a-stick
configuration.
4. "Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router. True
5. Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to
the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are
having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing
this problem? There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*

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6. The AJ company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router.
The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a
router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch
to the router. Whatis the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all
the VLANs to communicate? Two
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement

are true about interVLAN routing in

the topology that is shown in the exhibit?

FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces. The

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment
existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the
switch? An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Which are the 2 trunking protocols? ISL & IEEE 802.1q

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What
would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?

B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. D. Ensure the

switch has power. F. Reseat all cables. 2, 4, 6

Laboratory Quiz 4
Using show run command at R1, observe the first 6 lines of R1 running-configuration what does it
shows? c

From S1 do show ip interface brief. What is the status of FastEthernet0/5 and

FastEthernet0/6? FastEthernet0/5 unassigned YES manual up up
FastEthernet0/6 unassigned YES manual up up

Using show run command at R1, at "interface GigabitEthernet0/1" what are the
configurations under this interface? interface GigabitEthernet0/1 no ip address
duplex auto speed auto

From S2 do show ip interface brief. What is the status of Vlan 1? Vlan1 192.168.1.12 YES manual up
up

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From S1 do show ip interface brief. What is the status of GigabitEthernet0/1?

GigabitEthernet0/1 unassigned YES manual down down

From R1 do show ip int brief. Observe each line. Take note GigabitEthernet0/1.10. Which status is true?
GigabitEthernet0/1.10 192.168.100.1 YES manual up up
From S1 do show running-config. Observe FastEthernet0/1. Which configuration is
true interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport mode trunk
From S2 do show ip interface brief. What is the status of FastEthernet0/18?
FastEthernet0/18 unassigned YES manual up up
From R1 do show ip route command, which statement is true at GigabitEthernet0/1.10?
C 192.168.100.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1.10
From S1 do show ip interface brief. What is the status of Vlan 1? Vlan1 192.168.1.11 YES manual up up

Assignment 006

Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highier than the administrative
distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router? To be used as a backup route
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into a
down state? The Static route is removed from the routing table. Which command can you use to manually assign a static
IPV6 address to a router interface? ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all
external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands
would accomplish this goal.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? 110

Short Quiz 006

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used? Administrative distance
There are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What are
these? 1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network. 4.
Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing 1 & 4
What is the correct syntax of a floating static route? ip route 209.165.200.228
255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative
distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router? To be used as a backup route
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? 110
Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer in RMSIndustries that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all
external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands
would accomplish this goal.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highierthan the administrative
distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router? To be used as a backup route
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into a
down state? The Static route is removed from the routing table.

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Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a dynamic protocol is also being
used? Administrative distance

Laboatory Quiz 5
The network administrator of ABC Supermarket configures the router with the "ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0
172.16.2.2" command. How will this route appear in the routing table? S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

Do you think static routes are still used even with dynamic routing (RIP, OSPF, etc.)?Yes
What is the administrative distance for a directly connected network? 0
Is there any way to summarize several static routes to multiple subnets into a single static route? Yes
Why is a single summary static route an advantage regarding the size of the routing table? A smaller routing table
converges faster and takes less processing power from the router.
What is the administrative distance for a static route? 1
Assignment 007

Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? 2. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships. 4. They are
used for dynamic neighbor discovery. 2 & 4
Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, bounded and triggered updates, and uses the multicast address
of 224.0.0.10? EIGRP
What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? 1. to maintain routing tables 4. to
discover the network 1 & 4
Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, supports manual route summarization, and uses the multicast
address 224.0.0.9? RIPv2
A network administrator has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the entry for the destination network
172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter signify? The route source was learned dynamically.
Short Quiz007
Refering to the network diagram above of RMS University. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to
the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem? RIPv2 is
misconfigured on router R2. OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces
operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF? 4
Refer to the sample configuration below. Which (config-router) command will allow the network represented on the
interface to be advertised by RIP? Network 10.12.0.0
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be gathered from the output? Network 10.10.1.0 is reachable.
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which
address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
192.168.0.1
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? 2.
Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. 3. Area 0 is called the backbone area5.
Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0=2, 3, 5
A network administrator in Stark Industries is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks
attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the
partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also
being used? Administrative distance
A network administrator in XYZ Telecom is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP
addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts
for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
Router#showipeigrp neighbors
What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? 1. to maintain routing tables 4. to discover the network 1 &
4 Laboratory Quiz 6
This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to

access the rest of the network. Distribution layer

This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity. Core layer A collection of interconnected
switches forms a _______________________. . Broadcast domain
The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different numbers of line
card. Modular configuration
What are the 3 layers of the distribution access? Access, distribution and Core layer Which of the following statement is
INCORRECT? When selecting the type of switch, rack units should always be considered. Rack units is the number ports
available in the network switch.
The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices. Collision domain Cut-through switching has two
primary characteristics: rapid frame forwarding and invalid frame processing. True
A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has received the entire frame and then
checked the frame for errors. Store-and-forward switching

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Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? A switch populates the MAC address
table based on destination MAC addresses.
Long Quiz 002
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? 110
Which command can you use to manuall
y assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection
static route
of a as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used? administrative distance
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over?a 2, single
4 link
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u

VLAN is a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain. True

A network engineer for a semiconductor company wants to use the primary ISP connection
for all external connectivity. Refer at the diagram below. The backup ISP connection is used
only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true?
1. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
2. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
3. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
4. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
5. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
6. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch. 2, 3, 6

Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q? Native VLAN

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?

1. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

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5. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
6. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2
trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type. 4, 6
7. What does administrative distance refer to? a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing
information source.

Th ere are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What
ar th se?
e e
1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.
4. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing
5. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks. 1, 4

Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45,
according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the
172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24
network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?

There is an incorrect IP address configured on

GigabitEthernet 0/0.30

Which are the 2 trunking protocols? ISL & IEEE 802.1q

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are
correct?
SwitchA(config)#interface fa0/0
SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2
1. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.
2. By default, all switch ports are members of VLAN 1005.
3. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
4. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
5. A network host can be connected to this interface. 1, 5

In reference with the network diagram of RMS Defence Industries. What routing solution will allow
both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU

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and network bandwidth

utilization?

Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a
static route from Edge to R1.

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?

1. one physical interface for each subinterface

2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
3. a management domain for each subinterface
4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
5. one subinterface per VLAN
6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags 2, 4, 5
"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router. True

Refer to the given network diagram. Which command would be used on router A to configure a
static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

Refer to the exhibit. The user at Workstation B

reports that Server A cannot be reached. What is
preventing Workstation B from reaching Server A?

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The gateway for Server A is not on the same

subnet.
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highierthan the administrative
distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router? To be used as a backup route

Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? 2, 5

What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the
destination network? default route

Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the
packet? Serial0/0/0

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into a
down state? The Static route is removed from the routing table.

A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network. How can you accomplish
this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance? Implement a router-on-a-
stick configuration.

Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative
distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router? to be used as a backup route

Assignment 008
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The
networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.
Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing
this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0 The

network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF? 110

What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24
to area 0? router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area
Which two commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add
network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? 1 & 4
The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following 2 tasks?
1.
It provides dynamic neighbor discovery.
2.
It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.
3.
It maintains neighbor relationships.
4.
It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces.
5.
It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router.
6.
It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF. 1 & 3
Short Quiz 008

Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router

ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?

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2.2.2.2

OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the three characteristics of OSPF areas?

1.
Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured
2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
3. Area 0 is called the backbone area
4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 2, 3, 5

2.
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers? Bandwidth
Which t
hree features are of OSPF routing protocol?

1.
Converge quickly

2.
OSPF is a classful routing protocol

3.
Identify the best route by use of cost

4.
Before exchanging routing information, OSPF routers find out neighbors

5.
OSPF is a classless routing protocol 1, 3, 5

What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello

packets on a multiaccess network? 10

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Which 3 statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?

2.
It supports VLSM.

3.
It is used to route between autonomous systems.

4.
It confines network instability to one area of the network.

5.
It increases routing overhead on the network.

6.
It allows extensive control of routing updates

7.
It is simpler to configure than RIPv2. 1, 3, 5

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? . show ip ospf

database

What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /

24 to area 0? router ospf 1

network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Which 2 commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area
0?

1. Router(config)#router ospf 1
2. Router(config)#router ospf 0
3. Router(config)#router ospf area 0
4. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
5. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
6. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 1 & 4

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,

when a dynamic protocol is also being used? Administrative distance

Laboratory Quiz 9

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Assuming all configurations for this Lab are all correct as required. If I connect an additional PC to the sw and
configured the PC 192.168.15 with the correct subnet and gateway, correct dns server and making sure there will be
no conflict will it work? Yes
For DHCP clients(PCs) what should be the default-gateway configured in each PCs?
192.168.1.1
Assuming all configurations for this Lab are all correct as required. If I connect an additional PC to the sw will I ever
have a chance to get the ip of 192.168.1.20? No

For DHCP clients(PCs) what should be the subnet configured in each PCs? 255.255.255.0
For DHCP clients(PCs) what should be the DNS server configured in each PCs? To check do
ipconfig /all to one of the dhcpclients(PCs). 192.168.1.5
1. Assignment 011
Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your router? debug ipnat
Which command would you place on interface on a private network? . ipnat inside
PAT Address Translation is also termed what? . NAT Overload
Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet? ipnat outside
Which command will show you all the translations active on your router? show ipnat
translation
s
1. Short Quiz 011

Which two statements about static NAT translations are true?

1. They are always present in the NAT table.
2. They allow connection to be initiated from the outside.
3. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
4. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined. 1 & 2
Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a
single inside global address for connecting to the Internet? PAT
Which command will create a dynamic pool named Todd that will provide you with 30 global
addresses? ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.224
Which command will show you all the translations active on your router? show ip nat translations
PAT Address Translation is also termed what? NAT Overload
Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration? show ip nat statistics What are two benefits of
using NAT?
1. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
2. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
3. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
4. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable.
5. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require external access.
6. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing. 1 & 5

Which of the following are 3 disadvantages of using NAT?

1. Translation introduces switching path delays.
2. NAT conserves legally registered addresses.
3. NAT causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability.
4. NAT increases flexibility when connecting to the Internet.
5. Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled.6. NAT reduces address overlap occurrence. 1, 3, 5
Which of the following would be good reasons to run NAT?

1. You need to connect to the Internet and your hosts don't have globally unique IP addresses.
2. You change to a new ISP that requires you to renumber your network.
3. You don't want any hosts connecting to the Internet.
4. You require two intranets with duplicate addresses to merge. 1, 2 and 4
Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer in one of the biggest telecom company in the Philippines has prepared the
exhibited configuration file. What two statements are true of the planned configuration for interface fa0/1?
1. 1.
The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces.
2. Address
translation on
fa0/1 is not
required for DMZ

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Devices to access
the Internet.
3. The fa0/1 IP
address overlaps
with the space
used by s0/0.
4. The fa0/1 IP
address is invalid
for the IP subnet
on which it
resides.
5. Internet hosts may
not initiate
connections to
DMZ Devices
through the
configuration that
is shown. 2 & 5
2. Long Quiz 003

Which command will create a dynamic pool named Todd that will provide you with 30 global addresses? ip nat pool Todd
171.16.10.65 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.224
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF? 110
Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet? ip nat outside
The following access list below was applied outbound on the E0 interface connected to the 192.169.1.8/29 LAN:
access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 20 any access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8
0.0.0.7 eq 21 any
How will the above access lists affect traffic? All traffic exiting E0 will be denied
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to HTTP traffic coming from the Internet that is destined for
172.12.12.10 if the traffic is processed by this ACL?
router#show access-lists Extended IP access list 110
10 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq telnet
20 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq smtp
30 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq http 40 permit tcp 172.16.12.0
0.0.255.255 any

Traffic will be dropped, because of the implicit deny all at the end of the ACL.
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP? If an address conflict is detected, the address is
removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
As a network administrator of RMS Aerospace Industries, you have been instructed to prevent all traffic originating on the
LAN from entering the R2 router. Which the following command would implement the access list on the interface of the
R2 router?

ip access-group 101 in
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?

1. Designated IP address to the DHCP server

2. IP address leased to the LAN
3. Network or subnetwork IP address
4. Manually assigned address to the clients
5. IP address used by the interfaces
6. Broadcast address on the network3 & 6
Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by
172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255? 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
PAT Address Translation is also termed what? NAT Overload
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host? Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the
same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to renew the lease.

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A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the
new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial
configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
The network wildcard mask is configured improperly. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and
the host to determine the length of the agreement.
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?
What is the purpose of the DHCP server? to provide an IP configuration information to hosts
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP? If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from
the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.
Check
Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your router? debug ip nat
Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration? show ip nat statistics
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
Bandwidth
All hosts in the networks have been operational for several hours when the DHCP server goes down. What happens to the
hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server? The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period of
time.

What are two benefits of using NAT?

1. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
2. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
3. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
4. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable.
5. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require external access.
6. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing. 1 & 5
Which item represents the standard IP ACL? access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255 Which command will show you all
the translations active on your router? show ip nat translations
Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a single inside global address for
connecting to the Internet? PAT
Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
Router# show ip dhcp conflict
IP address Detection method Detection time
172.16.1.32 Ping Feb 16 1998 12:28 PM
172.16.1.64 Gratuitous ARP Feb 23 1998 08:12 AM
The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs? They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
The following configuration line was added to router R1
Access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0 0.0.0.255 any
What is the effect of this access list configuration? Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address
to all destinations
Which command would you place on interface on a private network? ip nat inside
Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? Assign and renew IP
address from the default pool.
What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets
on a multiaccess network? 10
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true?
1. They are always present in the NAT table.
2. They allow connection to be initiated from the outside.
3. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
4. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
Laboratory Quiz 10 1 & 2
From R2 type shipnat translation. Select the correct result.
R2#sh ipnat translation
Pro Inside global Inside local Outside local Outside global
icmp 192.168.10.2:76 192.168.50.2:76 192.168.10.1:76 192.168.10.1:76
icmp 192.168.10.2:77 192.168.50.2:77 192.168.10.1:77 192.168.10.1:77
icmp 192.168.10.2:78 192.168.50.2:78 192.168.10.1:78 192.168.10.1:78
icmp 192.168.10.2:79 192.168.50.2:79 192.168.10.1:79 192.168.10.1:79

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icmp 192.168.10.2:80 192.168.50.2:80 192.168.10.1:80 192.168.10.1:80

R2
#

IT 6223 CISCO 2 Blended Questions and Answers QUIZ 1:

Which of the following is NOT an element of converged network?

Select one:
a. None of the choices

b. Call control

c. Automated Attendant

d. Voice Messaging

e. Mobility
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most
effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.

F. Reseat all cables.

Select one:

a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 4

c. 2, 4, 6

d. 4, 5, 6

Which protocolis used to configure trunking on a switch?

Select one:

a. 802.11a

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b. 802.1q

c. 802.11n

d. vlan
What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is green?
Select one:

a. The port is busy and sending data.

b. The port is operating at 1000 Mbps.

c. The port is busy and receiving data.

d. The port is operating at 10 Mbps.

e. The port is operating at 100 Mbps.

What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is blinking green?
Select one:

a. The port is operating at 1000 Mbps.

b. The port is operating at 100 Mbps.

c. The port is busy and receiving data.

d. The port is operating at 10 Mbps.

e. The port is busy and sending data.

This is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch for configuration.

Select one:

a. Cross cable

b. Console cable

c. UTP Network cable

d. Asynchronous link cable

In this attack, the attacker exploits a flaw in the Telnet server software running on the switch that renders the Telnet
service unavailable. This sort of attack prevents an administrator from remotely accessing switch management functions.
This can be combined with other direct attacks on the network as part of a coordinated attempt to prevent the network
administrator from accessing core devices during the breach.
Select one:

a. Crack password attack

b. Brute force password attack

c. Telnet password attack

d. Telnet DoS attack

Which of the following is the command to configure the IP domain name of the network (mycompany.com) Select one:

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a. Ip configure mycompany.com

b. Ipconfig mycompany.com

c. Ip domain-name mycompany.com

d. Config mycompany -ipdomain

A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.

Select one:

a. SSH

b. FTP

c. TCP/IP

d. HTTP

What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker floods the DHCP server with DHCP requests to use all the available IP
addresses that the DHCP server can issue. After these IP addresses are issued, the server cannot issue any more
addresses, and this situation produces a denial-of-service (DoS) attackas new clients cannot obtain network access.
Select one:

a. DHCP phishing attack

b. DHCP starvation attack

c. DHCP spoofing attack

d. DHCP backdoor attack

Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default gateway with IP address of 172.10.90.1?
Select one:

a. Ip default-gateway 172.10.90.1

b. Ipconfig default-gateway 172.10.90.1

c. Ipdefault gateway 172.10.90.1

d. Ipset gateway 172.10.90.1 -default

A switch forwarding method that begins the forwarding process after the destination MAC address of an incoming frame
and the egress port has been determined.
Select one:

a. Cut-through switch method

b. Automatic-forward switching

c. Rapid Frame forwarding

d. Store-and-forward switching

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This layer is considered as the network backbone.

Select one:

a. Access layer

b. Network layer

c. Core layer

d. Distribution layer

TRUE or FALSE. Store-and-forward switching has two primary characteristics that distinguish it from cutthrough: error
checking and automatic buffering.
Select one:

True

False

A collection of interconnected switches forms a _______________________.

Select one:

a. Broadcast domain

b. Shared domain

c. Collision domain

d. Common domain

The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different numbers of line
card.
Select one:

a. Modular configuration

b. Server side configuration

c. Stackable configuration

d. Fixed configuration

The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices.
Select one:
a. Shared domain

b. Collision domain

c. Broadcast domain

d. Common domain

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Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

Select one:

a. The capability of the switch to store frames is important in a network where there may be congested
ports to servers or other areas of the network.

b. When selecting the type of switch, rack units should always be considered. Rack units is the
number ports available in the network switch.

c. Network switches must support the appropriate number of devices on the network.

d. The cost of a switch will depend on number and speed of the interfaces, supported features, and
expansion capability

e. The speed of network is the primary concern of the end user

TRUE or FALSE. Cut-through switching has two primary characteristics: rapid frame forwarding and invalid frame
processing.
Select one:

True

False

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a Switched Network Select one:

a. Support to IP telephony

b. Support to wireless networking and connectivity

c. Traffic management

d. None of the choices

e. Quality of Service

Stackable that are arranged one on top of the other with cables linking the switches in a _____________ connection.
Select one:

a. Cross cable

b. Daisy Chain

c. Parallel

d. Straight cable
What are the 3 layers of the distribution access?
Select one:

a. Access, distribution and Core layer

b. Layer 1, 2 and 3 Layer

c. Source, Middle, Destination layer

d. Sender, Processor, Receiver Layer

This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access the rest of the network.

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Select one:

a. Network layer

b. Access layer

c. Core layer

d. Distribution layer

The primary function of this layer is to provide network access to the user.
Select one:

a. Core layer

b. Network layer

c. Access layer

d. Distribution layer

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

Select one:

a. As frames enter the switch, the switch learns the source MAC address of the received frame and adds
the MAC address to the MAC address table.

b. To forward the frame, the switch examines the destination MAC address and compares it to addresses
found in the MAC address table.

c. When the destination MAC address is not found in the MAC address table, the switch forwards the
frame out of all ports

d. A switch populates the MAC address table based on destination MAC addresses. e. None of the choices

IT 6223 CISCO 2 Blended Questions and Answers QUIZ 2:

This is a protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data
networks.
Select one:

a. Synchronize Time Protocol

b. Network Time Protocol

c. Internetwork Time Protocol

d. Real Time Protocol

SSH protocol by default uses Port ______.

Select one:

a. 80

b. 22

c. 23

d. 8080

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What is the command to configure the interface to automatically negotiate speed with the connected device?
Select one:

a. speed auto

b. set default speed - auto

c. default speed -auto

d. set speed auto

What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for specific Fast Ethernet
interface?
Select one:

a. ipconfig 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0

b. ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0

c. ipset config 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0

d. ip 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0

e. ipset 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0

Sometimes switch ports must manually have their duplex mode manually configured. This duplex mode increases
effective bandwidth by allowing both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.
Select one:

a. Half duplex mode

b. None of the choices

c. Asynchronous duplex mode

d. Full duplex mode

If an error occurs while loading the operating system because of missing or damaged system files, the load loader can be
access through a console connection. What button in the switch you need to press while reconnecting the power cord?
Select one:

a. Mode

b. Console

c. Link

d. Restart

This is a proprietary protocol that all Cisco devices can be configured to use. This checks other Cisco devices that are
directly connected, which allows the devices to auto-configure their connection.
Select one:

a. Cisco Configuration Protocol

b. Cisco Auto Connect Protocol

c. Cisco Auto Configure

d. Cisco Discovery Protocol

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Global configuration mode is used to configure system globally, or to enter specific configuration modes to configure
specific elements such as protocols. What is the command to enter global configuration mode?
Select one:

a. config device

b. config global

c. configure terminal

d. enter global

e. set global

What is the command used to determine the status of both physical and virtual interfaces including IP address?
Select one:

a. show ip interface brief

b. status ip interface /all

c. display all ip interface

d. list ip interface /all

This attack tries to crack a password on another device. The first phase of this attack starts with the attacker using a list of
common passwords and a program designed to try to establish a Telnet session using each word on the dictionary list.
Select one:

a. Brute force password attack

b. Telnet DoS attack

c. Crack password attack

d. Telnet password attack

IT 6223 CISCO 2 Blended Questions and Answers PRELIMS:

a. Half duplex mode

b. None of the choices

c. Full duplex mode

d. Asynchronous duplex mode

The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT?

Select one:

a. Join native VLAN to VLAN.

b. Separate management and user data traffic.

c. Configure all the ports on all switches to be associated with VLANs other than VLAN 1.

d. Shut down unused switch ports to prevent unauthorized access

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A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has received the entire frame and then
checked the frame for errors.
Select one:

a. Cut-through switch method

b. Store-and-forward switching

c. Rapid Frame forwarding

d. Automatic-forward switching

This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.

Select one:

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a. Distribution layer

b. Network layer

c. Core layer

d. Access layer

The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond those that originally came with the switch.
Select one:

a. Fixed configuration

b. Remote configuration

c. Server side configuration

d. Modular configuration

To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring, what command to be used to
check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?
Select one:

a. check vlan connection

b. check match vlan

c. show interfaces trunk

d. view trunk - match

Which two features are characteristics of flash memory?

1. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on.
2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage.
3. The contents of flash may be overwritten.
4. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
5. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle.
Select one:

a. 1 & 2

b. 1 & 5

c. 2 & 3

d. 4 & 5

Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually
specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?
Select one:

a. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length

b. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local

c. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64

d. ipv6 enable

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Which of the following is an element of converged network?

Select one:

a. Voice Messaging

b. All of the choices

c. Call control

d. Automated Attendant

e. Mobility

The following are switch port modes that DTP offers EXCEPT Select one:

a. Remote

b. None of the choices

c. Dynamic auto

d. Dynamic desirable

The extended range of VLAN ID is Select

one:

a. between 1006 and 5000

b. between 1006 and 4094

c. between 1006 and 3064

d. between 1006 and 2048

In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the status of switch?
Select one:

a. A link is present.

b. There is activity and the port is sending or receiving data.

c. The port is blocked.

d. There is a link fault error.

a. Telnet password attack

b. Crack password attack

c. Telnet DoS attack

d. Brute force password attack

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a. Link

b. Console

c. Mode

d. Restart

a. clockrate 128000

b. no shutdown

c. IPv6 enable

d. enable

Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric?
1. The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.
2. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
3. The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
4. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
5. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
6. The metric is always determined based on hop count.

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Select one:

a. 2 & 3

b. 1 & 5

c. 4 & 5

d. 3 & 4

A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip
address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip
route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of
the problem?
Select one:

a. The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.

b. No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.

c. The configuration needs to be saved first.

d. The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.

The primary functions of a router are the following?

1. Packet switching
2. Flow control
3. Domain name resolution
4. Path selection 5. Microsegmentation Select one:

a. 3 & 4

b. 1 & 4

c. 2 & 3

d. 4 & 5

Which statement describe a characteristic of load balancing?

Select one:

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a. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load
balancing.

b. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.

c. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by RIP.

d. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination
network.

VLAN IDs 1002 through 1005 are

reserved for Select one:

a. All of the Choices

b. Token Ring VLANs

c. None of the Choices

d. FDDI VLANs
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to
issue
DHCP addresses to clients. The normal reason for this attack is to force the clients to use false
Domain Name System (DNS) or Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and to make the
clients use the attacker, or a machine under the control of the attacker, as their default gateway.
Select one:

a. DHCP phishing attack

b. DHCP spoofing attack

c. DHCP backdoor attack

d. DHCP starvation attack

A type of VLAN that is configured to carry user-generated traffic.

Select one:

a. Management VLAN

b. Data VLAN

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c. Voice VLAN

d. Default VLAN

e. Native VLAN

Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a network?

Select one:

a. All of the choices

b. Cost

c. Security

d. Scalability

e. Reliability

f. None of the choices

Telnet protocol by default uses Port ______.

Select one:

a. 22

b. 8080

c. 80

d. 23

To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring, what
command to be used to check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?
Select one:

a. view trunk - match

b. show interfaces trunk

c. check match vlan

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d. check vlan connection

This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches operates. Most
switches perform only one level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a
hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame.
Select one:

a. Double Tagging Attack

b. Switch boarding Attack

c. Port Attack

d. Backdoor Attack

In troubleshooting VLANs, what command should be used to check whether the port belongs to the
expected VLAN?
Select one:

a. display vlan

b. view vlan

c. show vlan

d. check vlan

Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file,

called Select one:

a. cisco_vlan.ini

b. vlan.dat

c. cisco_vlan.dat

d. virtual_lan.cfg

e. vlan.cfg

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Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router?

1. RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
2. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
3. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
4. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
5. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
6. Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOSSelect one:

a. 2 & 4

b. 1 & 2

c. 4 & 5

d. 1 & 5

Telnet protocol by default uses Port ______.

Select one:

a. 22

b. 23

c. 8080

d. 80

QUIZ 3:

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
Select one:

a. IGP & VTP

b. 802.1q & ISL

c. 802.3u& 802.1c

d. VTP & ISL

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e. ISL & 802.1ab

The AJ company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch
has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow
interVLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. Whatis the minimum
number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
Select one:

a. zero

b. two

c. one

d. three

a. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

b. IP address utilization will be more efficient.

c. More collision domains will be created.

d. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u
Select one:

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a. 1 & 2

b. 2 & 4

c. 4 & 5

d. 1 & 5

Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45,
according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the
172.16.45.0 / 24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24
network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?

Select one:

a. The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45

b. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30

c. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.

d. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*

VLAN is a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.

Select one:

True

False

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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown
in the exhibit?

Select one:

a. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.

b. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

c. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.

d. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

Which are the 2 trunking protocols?

Select one:

a. ISL & IEEE 802.1q

b. 802.11a and 802.11b

c. 802.11g and 802.11n

d. ISL and 802.11g

A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network.
How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing
network performance?
Select one:

a. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

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b. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.

c. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.

d. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are
correct?
SwitchA(config)#interface fa0/0
SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2

1. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.

2. By default, all switch ports are members of VLAN 1005.
3. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
4. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
5. A network host can be connected to this interface.

Select one:

a. 1, 5

b. 1, 4

c. 3, 5

d. 2, 3

QUIZ 4:

The network administrator of ABC Supermarket configures the router with the "ip route 172.16.1.0
255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2" command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
Select one:

a. C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

b. S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

c. S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

d. C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

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What does administrative distance refer to?

Select one:

a. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers.

b. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .

c. the advertised cost to reach a network.

d. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source .

a. To act as a gateway of last resort

b. To be used as a backup route

c. To be the priority route in the routing table

d. To load-balance the traffic

a. To act as a gateway of last resort

b. To be the priority route in the routing table

c. To be used as a backup route

d. To load-balance the traffic

What does administrative distance refer to?

Select one:

a. The cost to reach a network that is administratively set.

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b. The advertised cost to reach a network.

c. The cost of a link between two neighboring routers.

d. A measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.

What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

Select one:

a. 100

b. 130

c. 90

d. 120

e. 170

f. 110

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:

a. link bandwidth

b. administrative distance

c. link delay

d. hop count

e. link cost
There are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What are
these?
1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.4. Static
routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing 5. Static routing is relatively easy to
configure for large networks.

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Select one:

a. 2 & 4

b. 3 & 5

c. 1 & 4

d. 1 & 5

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:

a. Link cost

b. Link delay

c. Hop count

d. Administrative distance

e. Link bandwidth

What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?

Select one:

a. Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1

b. Ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0

c. Ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120

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d. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0. serial 0/0/0

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with
that route goes into a down state?
Select one:

a. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

b. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

c. The Static route is removed from the routing table.

d. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

MIDTERM:

OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how
many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
Select one:

a. 5

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b. 2

c. 4

d. 3

What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP?

Select one:

a. Less complexity

b. Less CPU processing

c. Fast convergence

d. Low memory requirements

Refer to the sample configuration below. Which (config-router) command will allow the network
represented on the interface to be advertised by RIP?

r
o
u
t
e
r

r
i
p

v
e
r
s
i
o
n

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n
o

a
u
t
o

s
u
m
m
a
r
y
!
interface ethernet0
ip address
10.12.6.1
255.255.0
.0
Select one:

a. Redistribute ethernet0

b. Network 10.12.0.0

c. Redistribute 10.12.0.0

d. Network ethernet0

What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?

Select one:

a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0

b. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0

c. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120

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d. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1

A network administrator has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the entry for the
destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter signify?
Select one:

a. The route to this network is configured statically on the router.

b. The route source was learned dynamically.

c. That is the direct route for packets to that network.

d. The route to network 172.16.4.0/24 is directly connected.

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with
that route goes into a down state?
Select one:

a. The Static route is removed from the routing table.

b. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

c. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

d. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

What does administrative distance refer to?

Select one:

a. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers.

b. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .

c. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source .

d. the advertised cost to reach a network.

A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network.
How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing
network performance?

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Select one:

a. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.

b. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.

c. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

d. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.

Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network?

1. hop count
2. bandwidth
3. jitter
4. resiliency
5. delay
6. confidentiality

Select one:

a. 2, 5

b. 2, 4

c. 3, 5

d. 1, 4

What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no
specific route to the destination network?
Select one:

a. Generic route

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b. Default route

c. Dynamic route

d. Destination route

Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q?

Select one:

a. Data VLAN

b. Native VLAN not sure

c. Default VLAN

d. Management VLAN

Which two statements describe a routed switch port on a multilayer switch?

1. Layer 2 switching and Layer 3 routing are mutually supported.
2. The port is not associated with any VLAN.
3. The routed switch port supports VLAN subinterfaces.
4. The routed switch port is used when a switch has only one port per VLAN or subnet.
5. The routed switch port ensures that STP remains in the forwarding state.
Select one:

a. 1, 5

b. 2, 4

c. 3, 5

d. 1, 3

Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q?

Select one:

a. Native VLAN not sure

b. Default VLAN

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c. Voice VLAN

d. Data VLAN

In reference with the network diagram of RMS Defence Industries. What routing solution will allow
both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network
bandwidth utilization?

Select one:

a. Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a
static route from Edge to R1.

b. Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.

c. Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.

d. Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.

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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:

a. Administrative distance

b. Link bandwidth

c. Hop count

d. Link delay

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with
that route goes into a down state?
Select one:

a. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

b. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

c. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

d. The Static route is removed from the routing table.

R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses
configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
Select one:

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a. 172.16.2.225

b. 172.16.2.1

c. 172.16.1.1

d. 192.168.0.1

Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer in RMSIndustries that is shown wants to use the primary
ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP
connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal.

Select one:

a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

s0/1/0 10

b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

c. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

s0/1/0
RouterA#debugip rip
RIP protocol debugging is on00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 224.0.0.9 via
FastEthernet8/0 (172.16.1.1)

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00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries

00:34:32: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.6, metric 1, tag 0
00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 224.0.0.9 via Loopback (10.10.1.1)
00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries
00:34:32: 10.0.0.0/8 via 0.6.0.0, metric 2, tag 0
00:34:32: 172.16.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0
00:34:32: RIP: ignored v2 packet from 16.10.1.1 (sourced from one of our addresses)
06:34:33: RIP: received v2 update from 172.16.1.2 on FastEthernet0/6
66:34:33: 16.6.0.0/8 via 6.0.6.6 in 1 hops
66:34:44: RIP: sending v2 update to 224.6.6.9 via FastEthernet0/0 (172.16.1.1)
66:34:44: RIP: build update entries
66:34:44: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be gathered from the output?
Select one:

a. One router is running RIPv1.

b. RIP neighbor is 224.0.0.9.

c. Network 10.10.1.0 is reachable.

d. The network contains a loop.

VLAN is a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.

Select one:

True

False

A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network.
How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing
network performance?
Select one:

a. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

b. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.

c. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.

d. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.

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"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.

Select one:

True

False
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u
Select one:

a. 4 & 5

b. 2 & 4

c. 1 & 5

d. 1 & 2

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?

1. one physical interface for each subinterface

Select one:

a. 1, 2, 4

b. 2, 4, 5

c. 3, 4, 6

d. 2, 3, 6

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A network engineer for a semiconductor company wants to use the primary ISP connection for all
external connectivity. Refer at the diagram below. The backup ISP connection is used only if the
primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?

Select one:

a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

d. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

a. To load-balance the traffic

b. To be the priority route in the routing table

c. To act as a gateway of last resort

d. To be used as a backup route

"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.

Select one:

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True

False

What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols?

1. to maintain routing tables
2. to assure low router overhead
3. to avoid exposing network information
4. to discover the network
5. to choose the path that is specified by the administratorSelect one:

a. 3 & 4

b. 4 & 5

c. 2 & 3

d. 1 & 4

Refer to the exhibit. The user at Workstation B reports that Server A cannot be reached. What is
preventing Workstation B from reaching Server A?

Select one:

a. The IP address for Workstation B is a subnet address.

b. The IP address for Server A is a broadcast address.

c. The gateway for Workstation B is not on the same subnet.

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d. The gateway for Server A is not on the same subnet.

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with
that route goes into a down state?
Select one:

a. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

b. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

c. The Static route is removed from the routing table.

d. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a dynamic
protocol is also being used?
Select one:

a. hop count

b. link bandwidth

c. administrative distance

d. link delay

e. link cost

Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary
ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP
connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal.

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Select one:

a. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

b. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

c. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing?

1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.4. Static
routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing 5. Static routing is relatively easy to
configure for large networks.
Select one:

a. 1 & 4

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b. 2 & 3

c. 3 & 4

d. 1 & 5

Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45,
according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the
172.16.45.0 / 24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24
network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?

Select one:

a. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*

b. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.

c. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30

d. The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45

a. 1, 2, 4

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b. 3, 4, 6

c. 1, 3, 5 not sure

d. 2, 3, 6

Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q?

Select one:

a. Default VLAN

b. Voice VLAN

c. Management VLAN

d. Data VLAN

e. Native VLAN

Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than
the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
Select one:

a. to be used as a backup route

b. to act as a gateway of last resort

c. to load-balance the traffic

d. to be the priority route in the routing table

What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

Select one:

a. 120

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b. 90

c. 100

d. 110

A network administrator of Stark Industries has examined the routing table of a router and noted
that the entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this
letter signify?
Select one:

a. The route to this network is configured statically on the router.

b. The route source was learned dynamically.

c. That is the direct route for packets to that network.

d. The route to network 172.16.4.0/24 is directly connected.

VLAN is a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.

Select one:

True

False

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:

a. hop count

b. link delay

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c. link bandwidth

d. administrative distance

e. link cost
The AJ company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch
has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow
interVLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. Whatis the minimum
number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
Select one:

a. zero

b. one

c. two

d. three

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
Select one:

a. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64

b. ipv6 autoconfig

c. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

d. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

Refer to the given network diagram. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static
route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

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Select one:

a. A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

b. A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

c. A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

d. A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used? Select one:

a. administrative distance

b. link bandwidth

c. link delay

d. hop count link cost

Select one:

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a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

d. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252

ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:

a. Link cost

b. Link bandwidth

c. Administrative distance

d. Link delay

e. Hop count

Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a dynamic
protocol is also being used?
Select one:

a. Hop count

b. Administrative distance

c. Link bandwidth

d. Link cost

e. Link delay

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"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.

Select one:

True

False

What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no
specific route to the destination network?
Select one:

a. destination route

b. generic route

c. default route

d. dynamic route

Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets?

1. They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
2. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
3. They are used to determine the complete network topology.
4. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
5. They are used to flood link-state information to all neighbors.
Select one:

a. 4 & 5

b. 2 & 4

c. 1 & 2

d. 1 & 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown
in the exhibit?

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Select one:

a. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

b. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.

c. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.

d. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?
1.one physical interface for each subinterface
2.one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
3.a management domain for each subinterface
4.subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
5.one subinterface per VLAN
6.subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tagsSelect one:

a. 1, 2, 4

b. 2, 4, 5

c. 1, 5, 6

d. 3, 4, 6

What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?

Select one:

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a. Switches move packets from one physical interface to another. Routers do not.

b. Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.

c. Switches use tables of information to determine how to process data traffic. Routers do not.

d. Routers can be configured with IP addresses. Switches cannot.

True or False.
When configuring a switch port on a Cisco switch, configure devices so that they send tagged frames
on the native VLAN.
Select one:

True

False

Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol?

Select one:

a. All of the choices

b. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is a proprietary networking protocol developed by Cisco Systems.

c. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is enabled by default.

d. Switches from other vendors do not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol.

What is the command to assign the port to a particular VLAN when the interface is in access mode?
Select one:

a. assignport access vlanvlan-id

b. switchport access vlanvlan-id

c. setport access vlanvlan-id

d. defineport access vlanvlan-id

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To enable network access to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be
configured on a host?
1. default gateway
2. hostname
3. DNS server address
4. DHCP server address
5. IP address6. subnet mask Select one:

a. 2, 4, 5

b. 1, 3, 6

c. 1, 5, 6

d. 1, 2, 3

If the port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, what command to be command to change the VLAN
membership on a particular port?
Select one:

a. configure port vlan

b. vlan port default

c. set port vlan

d. Switchport access vlan

This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers.

Select one:

a. Trunks

b. None of the choices

c. Tunneling

d. Access Point

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True of False. VLAN IDs 1 to 1005 are automatically created. ID 1 cannot be removed while VLAN IDs
1002 to 1005 can still be removed.
Select one:

True

False

What is the best practice relative to switch port modes?

Select one:

a. Do not use trunk switch port mode.

b. Use only access switch port mode.

c. Do not use the dynamic auto or dynamic desirable.

d. Use the dynamic auto or dynamic desirable switch port mode.

Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for
10.1.5.65?
Network Interface Next-hop
10.1.1.0/24 e0 directly connected
10.1.2.0/24 e1 directly connected
10.1.3.0/25 s0 directly connected
10.1.4.0/24 s1 directly connected
10.1.5.0/24 e0 10.1.1.2
10.1.5.64/28 e1 10.1.2.2
10.1.5.64/29 s0 10.1.3.3
10.1.5.64/
27 s1
10.1.4.4
Select one:

a. 10.1.2.2

b. 10.1.1.2

c. 10.1.3.3

d. 10.1.4.4

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Routers support three packet-forwarding mechanisms.

These are Select one:

a. Process, Fast, Cisco Express Forwarding

b. Receive, Process, Transmit

c. Cisco Forward, Receive, Cisco Process

d. Transmit, Receive, Distribute/Forward

e. Transmit, Receive, Store

Network infrastructure devices require IP addresses to enable remote management. Using the device
IP address, the network administrator can remotely connect to the device using any of the following
EXCEPT Select one:

a. SSH

b. HTTPS

c. All of the choices

d. Telnet

e. HTTP

f. None in the choices

The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT?

Select one:

a. Separate management and user data traffic.

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b. None of the choices

c. Configure all the ports on all switches to be associated with VLANs other than VLAN 1.

d. Shut down unused switch ports to prevent unauthorized access

Which of the following describes a VLAN?

Select one:

a. A group of devices within a VLAN communicate as if they were attached to the same

wire. b. None of the choices

c. VLANs are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections.

d. VLANs allow an administrator to segment networks based on factors such as function, project
team, or
application.

e. VLANs provide a way to group devices within a LAN.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is
shown in the exhibit?
1. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
2. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
3. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
4. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
5. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
6. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2
trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

1. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

2. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
3. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
4. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
5. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
6. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk
ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

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Select one:

a. 4, 6

b. 1, 3

c. 1, 2

d. 2, 3

VLANis a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.

Select one:

True

False

Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, supports manual route summarization,
and uses the multicast address 224.0.0.9?
Select one:

a. RIPv1

b. EIGRP

c. RIPv2

d. OSPF
Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, bounded and triggered updates, and uses
the multicast address of 224.0.0.10?
Select one:

a. EIGRP

b. OSPF

c. RIPv1

d. RIPv2

Which factor directly affects the time to convergence?

Select one:

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a. Number of hosts

b. The data link layer protocol used

c. Type of applications used

d. Size of the network

OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas?
1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.
2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535.
3. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.
5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.
Select one:

a. 3, 4, 6

b. 2, 3, 5

c. 2, 3, 6

d. 1, 2, 5

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from
both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?

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Select one:

a. RIPv2 does not support VLSM.

b. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.

c. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.

d. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.

A network administrator in XYZ Telecom is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs
to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The
retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What
command will display the required information?
Select one:

a. Router# show ipeigrp adjacency

b. Router#showipeigrp neighbors

c. Router#showipeigrp interfaces

d. Router# show ipeigrp topology

Which 3 series of commands will configure router R1 for LAN-to-LAN communication with router R2?
The enterprise network address is 192.1.1.0/24 and the routing protocol in use is RIP.

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1.
R1 (config)# interface ethernet 0
R1 (config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.129
255.255.255.192 R1 (config-if)# no shutdown
2.
R1 (config)# interface ethernet 0
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.1.1.97
255.255.255.192 R1 (config-if)# no
shutdown
3.
R1 (config)# interface serial 0
R1 (config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.4
255.255.255.252 R1 (config-if)# clock
rate 56000
4.
R1 (config)# interface serial 0
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.1.1.6
255.255.255.252 R1 (config-it)# no
shutdown
5.
R1 (config)# router rip
R1 (config-router)#
network 192.1.1.4 R1
(config-router)#
network 192.1.1.128
6.
R1 (config)# router rip
R1 (config-router)#
version 2 R1 (config-
router)# network
192.1.1.0 Select one:

a. 1, 3, 5

b. 2, 3, 6

c. 2, 3, 6

d. 1, 4, 6

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Refering to the network diagram above of RMS University. All hosts and router interfaces are
configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not
successful.
What is causing this problem?
Select one:

a. RIPv2 does not support VLSM.

b. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.

c. RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.

d. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.

e. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which
interface will R1 forward the packet?

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Select one:

a. Serial0/0/0

b. FastEthernet0/1

c. FastEthernet0/0

d. Serial0/0/1

Refer to the exhibit below. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet
with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?

Select one:

a. Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.

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b. Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.

c. Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.

d. Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and
a static route from Edge to R1.

A network administrator in Stark Industries is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF
network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other
OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration
error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0
255.0.0.0 area 0 Select one:

a. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

b. The process id is configured improperly.

c. The network number is configured improperly.

d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

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CCNAv2 FINAL EXAM Answers

CCNAv2 (v5.0) Final Exam Answers
Shout-out to CCNA5.NET for being the best utility for CCNA1-4! We love you! <3

1.
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) The
database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router. Routers send
periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

2.
Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level ” 1 ” ultimate routes.

3.
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

ingress port buffering cut-through

switching store-and-forward
switching borderless switching

4.
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58
through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

Answer : ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0

6.
When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

data VLAN ID native VLAN ID

unused VLAN ID management
VLAN ID

7.
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for
encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet.
The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses
ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be
accessed by the marketing personnel from home? ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443 ip nat
inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443 ip nat
inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

8.
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

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A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an
extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device in an
IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server in an IPv6 named
ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode
command.
The ipv6 route command was used. the ip route
command was used.

A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so

that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP
address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the
main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve
the task? (Choose two.)

Answer : 2&3

 Rout
er1(
config)
#access
-li
st10per
mit192.
168.
15.
230.
0.0.
0

 Rout
er1(
config)
#access
-li
st10per
mithos
t192.
168.
15.
23

Whattwof uncti
ons
descri
beusesofan
accesscontroll
ist
?
(Choosetwo.)

 Answer:ACLs provide a basic level of security for

network access.*

 ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a

network.*

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If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the

same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF
router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
Answer : t
hehi
ghestI
Paddres
s
amongi tsacti
vei
nter
faces

Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

 They can be created with a number but not with a name.
 They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP
addresses and source ports.
 They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
 They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.

The ip helper-address command does what?

Answer : relays a DHCP request across networks

8.Whi
chthreest
atement
saregeneral
l
yconsi
der
edt
obebestpr
act
i
cesi
nthe
pl
acementofACLs?(Chooset
hree.
)

Pl
aces
tandar
dACLscl
oset
othesour
ceI
Paddr
essoft
het
raffic
.

Pl
aceex
tendedACLscl
oset
othedes
ti
nat
i
onI
Paddr
essoft
het
raffic
.

Fi
lt
erunwantedtr
afficbefor
eittr
avelsont
oalow-bandwidt
hl i
nk. *
Pl
aceextendedACLscl osetothesourceI
Paddressofthetraffic.*
Pl
acestandardACLscl osetothedesti
nat
ionI
Paddressofthet raffic.
*

Refertot heexhibi t
.Whi chtwost atementsaretr
ueabouttheloopbackaddr
esst
hati
s
configuredonRout er
B?( Chooset wo. )
 Answer:B.I tprovi
dess t
abil
i
tyfortheOSPFproces
sonRout er
B.
 C.Itspeci
fiesthattherout
erIDf orRout
erBshoul
dbe10.0.
0.1.

whi
choft
hefoll
owing3met
hods/
typesofnat?
ans
wer:st
ati
c,dynami
c,
pat

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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP

address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the
corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a
web server that is accessible to all internal employees on
networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should
be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used
to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied?
(Choose two.)
Answer
access -
li
st105permi
ttcphos
t10. 0.
70.23hos
t10.0.54.
5eq20
access -
li
st105permi
ttcphost10.0.
70.23host10.
0.54.
5eq21
access -
li
st105permi
ttcp10.
0.0.00.255.
255.
255hos t10.
0.54.
5eqwww
access -
li
st105denyi
panyhos t10.0.54.
5
access -
li
st105permi
tipanyany

R1(
config)
#int
erf
acegi
0/0
R1(
config-
if
)#i
paccess
-group105out

Whicht wostat
ement
sdescri
betheprocessi
dent
ifiert
hati
susedi
nthecommandt
o
configureOSPFonarout
er?(Choosetwo.
)

Answer :
 Differentprocessi
dent
i
fier
scanbeusedt
orunmult
ipl
eOSPFpr
oces
ses
 Thepr ocessnumbercanbeanynumberf
rom 1t
o65,535.

What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)
Answer : standard and extended

What is the default number of equal -cost paths can be placed into the routing of a cisco OSPF router
Answer :unlimited > not sure

Whichst
atementaboutaccessl
ist
sthatareappli
edtoaninter
faceist
rue?
A.Youcanconfigur
eoneaccessli
st,perdi
rect
ion,perLayer3prot
ocol*

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